General Aptitude

GENERAL
APTITUDE
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General Aptitude
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Edition : APTI-HPD-2021
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GATE Syllabus
Common to All Papers
Verbal Aptitude : Basic English grammar: tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions,
conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and other parts of speech Basic vocabulary: words, idioms,
and phrases in context Reading and comprehension Narrative sequencing
Quantitative Aptitude : Data interpretation: data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and other
graphs representing data), 2- and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables Numerical computation
and estimation: ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and logarithms, permutations and
combinations, and series Mensuration and geometry Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude : Logic: deduction and induction Analogy, Numerical relations and
reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude : Transformation of shapes: translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring,
assembling, and grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
Table of Contents
Sr. Chapters Pages
1. Number System ………….………..……………………… 1
2. Permutation & Combination …..………..….…………….. 9
3. Probability …..…………………….……………………… 14
4. Time & Work……………………………………………... 20
5. Percentage & It’s Applications …...….…………………... 25
6. Time, Speed & Distance ……………….……………….… 29
7. Average & Ratio …….…………………………………… 33
8. Geometry & Mensuration ….…...…………….………….. 38
9. Data Interpretation ………………….….…………………. 45
10. Analytical Aptitude …………………………………….… 55
11. Spatial Aptitude …………………………………….……. 93
12. Verbal Ability & Verbal Grammar (VA VG) ………….… 104
Video Lecture Information
Sr. Lecture Name Duration
01 Number System
Lecture 01 Numbers Categorization 1:16:57
Lecture 02 Concept of Index of Greatest Power (IGP) 0:46:50
Lecture 03 Questions Based on IGP 0:42:54
Lecture 04 Number of Zeroes Concept 0:35:58
Lecture 05 Concept of Cyclicity Finding Unit Digit Value 0:53:39
Lecture 06 Questions Based on Unit Digit Value 01 0:28:11
Lecture 07 Questions Based on Unit Digit Value 02 1:13:51
Lecture 08 Finding Last Two Digits 0:55:55
Lecture 09 Divisibility Rule Concept 0:41:06
Lecture 10 Questions Based on Divisibility Rule 0:59:34
Lecture 11 Divisibility Rule (Question 22) 0:18:39
Lecture 12 Divisibility for Algebraic function 0:29:29
Lecture 13 Factorization 0:58:30
Lecture 14 Questions Based on Factorization 0:35:00
Lecture 15 Discussion on Coprime Numbers 0:21:01
Lecture 16 Concept of Remainders 0:53:10
Lecture 17 Remainders Theorem 0:48:39
Lecture 18 Questions 37-38 0:19:08
Lecture 22 Sequence & Series 1:22:48
Lecture 27 Remainders Theorem (Question 70) 0:44:37
Lecture 28 CPQ 71-80 0:58:44
Lecture 29 CPQ 81-86 0:55:12
Lecture 30 CPQ 87-89 0:27:57
Lecture 31 LCM & HCF Concept 0:52:33
02 Permutation & Combination
Lecture 01 Introduction to PnC 1:01:36
Lecture 02 How to use Permutation & Combination 0:32:09
Lecture 03 Questions 1-5 & 9 1:09:41
Lecture 05 SPQ 1 & CPQ 8 1:04:31
Lecture 08 Questions 15 & 17 0:47:01
Lecture 09 Number of Arrangements Concept 0:23:49
Lecture 10 Number of Combination Concept with Question 21 0:24:59
Lecture 11 Dictionary Word Questions 22-23 0:43:41
Lecture 12 Question 32 0:25:08
Lecture 13 Straight Lines, Triangles, Chess Board 0:37:52
Lecture 14 Number of Squares & Rectangles 1:09:09
Lecture 15 Question 16 0:22:09
Lecture 16 CPQ 18, 20 & SPQ 8 0:26:01
Lecture 17 CPQ 33, 37, 38 & SPQ 2 0:29:35
03 Probability
Lecture 01 Probability Basics (Part 1) 0:46:31
Lecture 02 Probability Basics (Part 2) 0:30:45
Lecture 03 Types of Events 0:54:36
Lecture 04 CPQ 1-2 0:30:36
Lecture 05 CPQ 3 0:32:21
Lecture 06 CPQ 5-6 0:24:16
Lecture 07 CPQ 4 & 10 0:23:24
Lecture 08 CPQ 7-8 0:13:17
Lecture 09 CPQ 9 & 36-37 0:21:17
Lecture 10 CPQ 11 & 13 0:25:34
Lecture 15 CPQ 18-20 0:34:17
Lecture 16 CPQ 21-22 0:48:04
Lecture 17 CPQ 23-24 0:39:49
Lecture 18 CPQ 25-29 0:36:49
Lecture 19 CPQ 30-34 0:36:29
Lecture 20 CPQ 12 & 39 0:29:07
Lecture 21 CPQ 35, 38 & SPQ 16 0:37:04
04 Time & Work
Lecture 01 Introduction to Time & Work 1:07:13
Lecture 02 Workbook Questions 1-5 0:43:46
05 Percentage & Its Application
Lecture 01 Introduction to Percentage & Its Application 0:37:10
06 Time Speed & Distance
Lecture 01 Introduction to Time Speed & Distance 1:12:07
07 Average & Ratio
Lecture 01 Introduction to Average & Ratio 0:05:35
08 Geometry & Mensuration
Lecture 01 Introduction to Geometry & Mensuration 0:04:05
09 Data Interpretation
Lecture 01 Introduction to Data Interpretation 0:07:54
Lecture 08 Workbook Questions 22-24, 28 0:11:43
10 Analytical Aptitude
Lecture 01 Direction - Basic Concepts CBQ 0:38:35
Lecture 02 Direction PYQ Q11-016 0:26:59
Lecture 03 Direction - Point - Q17-019 0:15:35
Lecture 04 Direction - Shadow - Q20-024 0:30:45
Lecture 05 Clock - Basic Concepts 0:27:29
Lecture 06 Clock - CBQ Q1-Q8 0:28:05
Lecture 07 Clock - Angle Between Hands - 29-010 0:32:22
Lecture 08 Clock Q11-014 0:47:17
Lecture 09 Clock - Error Clock - Q15-022 0:37:56
Lecture 10 Clock - Mirror & Water Images - 023 0:08:30
Lecture 11 Counting of Figure Q1-Q4 0:28:13
Lecture 12 Blood Relation - Basic Concepts 0:43:56
Lecture 13 Blood Relation Q1-Q4 0:13:45
Lecture 14 Blood Relation 25-010 0:21:09
Lecture 15 Coding Decoding - Basic Concepts 0:30:06
Lecture 16 Coding Decoding - Process & Pattern 0:41:45
Lecture 17 Coding Decoding - Letter to Number Process 0:29:26
Lecture 18 Coding Decoding - PYQ Q1-09 0:24:41
Lecture 19 Coding Decoding - Letter Series Q10-015 0:13:28
Lecture 20 Coding Decoding - Odd One Out Q16-020 0:17:24
Lecture 21 Coding Decoding - Number Series Q21-227 0:24:14
Lecture 22 Ranking - Basic Concepts Q1-Q7 0:56:47
Lecture 23 Order - Basics 08-015 0:20:18
Lecture 24 Venn Diagram - Basic Concepts 0:18:22
Lecture 25 Venn Diagram Q1-Q2 0:34:00
Lecture 26 Venn Diagram 03-013 0:46:12
Lecture 27 Contour Lines Q14-016 0:22:28
Lecture 28 Syllogism - Basic Concepts 0:21:14
Lecture 29 Syllogism - All A are B - Relationship 0:30:57
Lecture 30 Syllogism - Some A are B - Relationship 0:19:22
Lecture 31 Syllogism - No A are - Relationship 0:09:50
Lecture 32 Syllogism - Some A are not B - Relationship 0:12:40
Lecture 33 Syllogism Q1-Q12 0:37:25
Lecture 34 Syllogism - Practice Table 1 0:25:18
Lecture 35 Syllogism - Practice Table 2 0:24:17
Lecture 36 Analogy - Basic Concepts 0:31:29
Lecture 37 Analogy - Q1-Q18 0:15:14
Lecture 38 Seating Arrangement - Circular Q1-Q4 0:43:55
Lecture 39 Seating Arrangement - Linear Q5-Q11 0:31:21
Lecture 40 Seating Arrangement - Square Q12-Q18 0:25:21
Lecture 41 Logical Puzzle Q1-07 0:48:11
Lecture 42 Logical Puzzle 08-Q11 0:36:17
Lecture 43 Logical Puzzle Q12-Q16 0:29:13
Lecture 44 Logical - Basic Concepts 0:27:50
Lecture 45 Logical Q1-Q10 0:39:08
11 Spatial Aptitude
Lecture 01 Mirror & Water Images 0:36:43
Lecture 02 Paper Cutting & Folding 0:40:32
Lecture 03 Figure Symmetry 0:22:47
12 Verbal Ability & Verbal Grammar
Lecture 01 Introduction + Tense (Simple) Part 1 0:57:47
Lecture 02 Tense (Simple) Part 2 0:25:10
Lecture 03 Simple Tense (Past+Future) 0:57:49
Lecture 04 Continuous Tense 1:07:10
Lecture 05 Perfect Tense 1:03:25
Lecture 06 Perfect Continuous Tense 0:27:07
Lecture 07 Conditional Sentences (Part 1) 1:07:18
Lecture 08 Conditional Sentences (Part 2) 0:27:07
Lecture 09 Basics (Part 1) 0:50:30
Lecture 13 Pronoun (Part 1) 0:43:36
Lecture 17 Noun (Part 1) 0:41:05
Lecture 18 Noun (Part 2) 1:11:00
Lecture 19 Adjective (Part 1) 0:25:36
Lecture 22 Subject Verb Agreement (Part 1) 0:44:43
Lecture 23 Subject Verb Agreement (Part 2) 0:50:17
Lecture 24 Preposition (Part 1) 0:53:48
Lecture 25 Preposition (Part 2) Academic 0:56:15
Lecture 26 Verb (Part 1) 0:49:58
Lecture 27 Verb (Part 2) 1:16:11
Lecture 28 Adverb (Part 1) 0:52:59
Lecture 29 Adverb (Part 2) 0:35:43
Lecture 30 Conjunction 0:33:43
Lecture 31 Articles 0:56:27
Lecture 32 Voice (Part 1) 0:49:37
Lecture 35 Workbook (Part 1) Sentence Completion + Sentence Improvement 0:47:30
Lecture 36 Workbook (Part 2) Rest Portion 0:53:29
1 NUMBER SYSTEM
Class Practice Questions : (CPQ’s) Q.9 The numeral in the units position of
870 127 424
211 + 146 × 3 is _____
1.1 Number of Trailing Zero’s (0’s) [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EE Set - 2)]
Q.10 The last digit of
Q.1 (i) Find the IGP of 7 that can divide 256!.
(2171)7 + (2172)9 + (2173)11 + (2174)13 is
(ii) Find the IGP of 3 in 599! (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
(iii) Find the IGP of 10 that can divide 890!
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (CH, CE, Set - 1)]
(iv) Find the IGP of Q.11 Let x = (633)24 − (277)38 + (266)54 . What is the
(a) 12 in 50! (b) 40 in 150! units digit of x?
(A) 8 (B) 6
(v) Find the IGP of 2 in 31! + 32! + 33! + … + 40!.
(C) 4 (D) 7
(vi) If the IGP of 7 in n! is 10, how many values Q.12 Find the unit place of
can n take? 1255 848
+
311 1618
(vii) If the IGP of 5 in n! is 40, what is the
Q.13 Find the unit digit of the product of all the prime
greatest power of 11 in n!?
number between 1 and 99999
Q.2 100!, 150!, 250! (A) 9 (B) 7
Q.3 If N = 15 × 30 × 45 × 60 × ……..× 1500, what will (C) 0 (D) N.O.T.
be the number of zeroes at the end of N? Q.14 Find the unit digit of the product of all the
(A) 63 (B) 55 elements of the set which consists all the prime
(C) 97 (D) 124 numbers greater than 2 but less than 222.
(A) 4 (B) 5
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE Set – 2)]
(C) 0 (D) N.O.T.
Q.15 Find the last digit of
1.2 Unit Digit Value (UDV) 9 1818
(i) 99 (ii) 1818
1920 1617
Q.4 223 , 251 ,359 , 499 ,3171 ,7 208 (iii) 1718 (iv) 1415
Q.5 1271 ,1651 ,2199 ,39235 ,17999 ,37897 ,127 200899 1.3 Divisbility
666 777 333 444 222 555
Q.6 13 × 44 × 616 × 777 × 8898 × 999
2 2 2 2 2 Q.16 If all the natural numbers starting from 1 are
Q.7 1 + 2 + 3 + ...... + 99 +100
written side by side then find the : 25th, 50th, 100th
Q.8 11 + 22 + 33 + ...... + 9 9 +1010
digit of the sequence.
2 General Aptitude : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®
Q.17 In the above question find the remainder when Q.27 If a = (34 )(49 ) and N = a 4 , find the least natural
the sequences are divided by : 2,4,8,16 , 5 , 25 , number by which N should be divided so that
125. the resulting number is x 5 , where x is a
Q.18 What is the least number of digits in the number positive integer.
that is formed using only 2’s and 5’s, that is
1.5 Concepts of Remainders
divisible by both 11 and 25?
Q.19 If the eight-digit number a456b72c is divisible by (123 × 1234)
Q.28
72, what is the least value of a + b + c? 15
Q.20 If the number 715423 is divisible by 3 ( Q.29 (1218 ×1220 ×1222 ×1224) ÷ 9
denotes the missing digit in the thousandths Q.30 (1719 ×1721×1723 ×1725 ×1727) ÷18
place), then the smallest whole number in the Q.31 The remainder when S is divided by 20 , where
place of  is _______. S = 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + 5! + 6! + ………+ 19! + 20!
(A) 0 (B) 2 Q.32 The rightmost non- zero digit of the number
(C) 5 (D) 6 302720.
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EC Set – 1)] Q.33 Find the remainder when
Q.21 What is the remainder when the number (i) 7 77 is divided by 4.
523523523………100 digits is divided by 32? (ii) 1188 is divided by 7.
Q.22 Consider the set of integers {1,2,3, ....., 5000}. The (iii) 5123 is divided by 7.
number of integers that is divisible by neither 3 (iv) 7 84 is divided by 342.
nor 4 is : (v) 21117 is divided by 17.
(A) 1668 (B) 2084 (vi) 2333 is divided by 21.

(vii) 126 456 is divided by 41.
(C) 2500 (D) 2916
(viii) 120112 − 1201 is divided by 48.
[GATE 2010 :IIT Guwahati (MN)]
1.6 Last Two Digits
1.4 Factorization
Q.34 2123 ,3153 ,5193
Q.23 Find the number of factors, Sum of factors and
Q.35 323 ,753 ,993
Product of factors of the following :
Q.36 253 ,483 ,893
12, 24, 288.
Q.24 For the given natural number 150, 1.7 Miscellaneous
(i) Number of distinct prime factors Q.37 If a and b are integers and a − b is even, which of
(ii) Number of factors the following must always be even?
(iii) Sum of factors
(A) ab (B) a 2 + b2 + 1
(iv) Product of factors
Q.25 What is the least natural number by which 5400 (C) a 2 + b + 1 (D) ab − b
should be multiplied so that the resultant [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (ME Set – 2)]
product is
Q.38 Given that a and b are integers and a + a 2b3 is
(i) A perfect square?
odd then, which one of the following statements
(ii) A perfect cube?
is correct?
Q.26 Find the smallest number y such that : y × 162
(A) a and b are both odd
is a perfect cube.
(B) a and b are both even
(A) 24 (B) 27
(C) a is even and b is odd
(C) 32 (D) 36 (D) a is odd and b is even
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS, Set – 1)] [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME Set – 1)]
GATE ACADEMY ® Number System 3
Q.39 A number consists of two digits, the sum of Q.48 Find the remainder, when ‘m’ is divided by 168.
digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the number, Q.49 Which among 21/2, 31/3, 41/4, 61/6 and 121/12 is the
its digits are interchanged. What is the number? largest?
(A) 63 (B) 72 (A) 21/ 2 (B) 31/3
(C) 81 (D) 90 (C 41/ 4 (D) 61/6
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME Set – 1)]
1.8 Sequence & Series
Q.40 The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is
12. If the new number formed by reversing the Q.50 (i) Find the value of 1 + 2 x + 3 x 2 + 4 x 3 + ....∞
digits is greater than the original number by 54, 1
where x = .
find the original number. 2
(A) 39 (B) 57 (ii) Find the value of
(C) 66 (D) 93 2
1 + 3 x + 6 x 2 + 10 x 3 + 15 x 4 + ...∞ where x = .
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE Set - 2)] 3
Q.41 When the digits of a three-digit number are Q.51 The sum of the first n terms in the sequence 8,
reversed, the number decreases by 594. The 88, 888, 8888, ….. is _____.
81 n 9
difference between the digits in the first two (A) (10 − 1) + n
80 8
places of the number equals the difference
81 n 9
between the digits in the last two places. If none (B) (10 − 1) − n
80 8
of the digits of the number is zero, the number
80 n 8
of possible values of the number is _______. (C) (10 − 1) + n
81 9
Q.42 If 198 is subtracted from a three-digit number
80 n 8
(T), the resulting number is the three-digit (D) (10 − 1) − n
81 9
number formed by reversing the digits of T. The
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (IN, ME-1, MT, PE, PH)]
middle digit of T equals the sum of its other two
Q.52 The sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44 + 444 + ….
digits. T is at least ______.
is
Q.43 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is
 4
smaller than 117. The number is: (A)   10 n +1 − 9n − 1
 81 
(A) 91 (B) 93
 4
(C) 89 (D) 96 (B)   10 n −1 − 9n − 1
 81 
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CE)]
 4
Q.44 The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is (C)   10 n +1 − 9n − 10 
 81 
656. The average of four consecutive even
 4
numbers is 87. What is the sum of the smallest (D)   10 n − 9n − 10 
 81 
odd number and second largest even number?
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (AG, CY, EC, EE, IN,
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur
MA, MT, XE, XL)]
(EC Set – 2, ME Set - 2)]
Q.53 Find the sum of (1 + 2 + 3 + …n) + (2 + 3 + … n) +
Q.45 In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd numbers,
(3 + 4 +….n) + …. + (n).
the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425. What is the
1 1 1 1
sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence? Q.54 If + + + + ....∞ = s ,
12 22 32 42
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC Set - 4, ME Set - 4)] 1 1 1 1 1 1
Find − + − + − ....∞ .
Direction (46 – 48) : Given, m = 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! 12 22 32 42 52 62
+........................ + 99! + 100! Q.55 Consider the series
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Q.46 Find the unit digit of “m”
+ − + + − + + − + .....
2 3 4 8 9 16 32 27 64
Q.47 Find the last two digits of ‘m’ The sum of the infinite series above is :
5 Q.63 Find the sum of the expression

(A) ∞ (B)
6 1 1 1 1
+ + + ....
1 1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 80 + 81
(C) (D) 0
2 (A) 7 (B) 8
[GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati (TF)] (C) 9 (D) 10
1 1 1 1 [GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CS, ME, PI)]
Q.56 What is the value of 1 + + + + + ....?
4 16 64 256
7 Q.64 The value of 12 + 12 + 12 + .... is
(A) 2 (B)
4 (A) 3.464 (B) 3.932
3 4 (C) 4.000 (D) 4.444
(C) (D)
2 3 [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CS-2, EE-2)]
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EC)] Q.65 Insert seven numbers between 2 and 34, such
Q.57 Find the value of 1+4/6 + 9/36 + 16/216 + 25/1296 that the resulting sequence including 2 and 34 is
+ …… ∞ . an arithmetic progression. The sum of these
1 1 1 inserted seven numbers is ________.
Q.58 + + .....∞ = ______.
5 × 7 7 × 9 9 ×11 (A) 130 (B) 120
1 2 3
Q.59 + + + .... (C) 124 (D) 126
1 + 1 + 1 1 + 2 + 2 1 + 3 + 34
2 4 2 4 2
[GATE 2020 (CE-1)]
10
+ = ______. Q.66 The sum of all the natural numbers between 1
1 + 102 + 104
and 101 which are divisible by 5 is :
Q.60 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10 + 84 +
(A) 1000 (B) 1050
734 + ….
(C) 1500 (D) 2550
9(9 n + 1) 9(9 n − 1)
(A) +1 (B) +1 Q.67 Given two sets X = {1, 2, 3} and T = {2, 3, 4}, we
10 8
construct a set Z of all possible fractions where
9(9 n − 1) 9(9 n − 1)
(C) +n (D) + n2 the numerators belong to set X and the
8 8
denominators belong to set Y. The product of
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (EC, EE, IN)]
elements having minimum and maximum
Q.61 What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42, 40,
values in the set Z is ______.
…….?
(A) 1/8 (B) 3/8
(A) 502 (B) 504
(C) 506 (D) 500 (C) 1/12 (D) 1/6
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CS, ME, PI)] [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EE)]
Q.62 Consider a sequence of numbers a1 , a2 , a3 , ….. Q.68 How many integers are there between 100 and
1000 all of whose digits are even?
1 1
an where an = − , for each integer (n > 0) . (A) 90 (B) 100
n n+2
What is the sum of the first 50 terms? (C) 80 (D) 60
 1 1 [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EE)]
(A)  1 +  −
 2  50 Q.69 Which one of the following numbers is exactly
 1 1 divisible by (1113 + 1)?
(B)  1 +  +
 2  50 (A) 1126 + 1 (B) 1152 − 1
 1  1 1  (C) 1139 − 1 (D) 1133 + 1
(C)  1 +  −  + 
 2   51 52  [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (AG, EE, EY, GG)]
 1 1  Q.70 What would be the smallest natural number
(D) 1 −  + 
 51 52  which when divided either by 20 or by 42 or by
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE-1)] 76 leaves a remainder of 7 in each case?
(A) 3047 (B) 6047 Q.76 The difference between the sum of the first 2n
(C) 7987 (D) 63847 naturals numbers and the sum of the first n odd
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CS, MN)] numbers is
Q.71 If a prime number on division by 4 gives a (A) 2n – n (B) n2 – n
remainder of 1, then that number can be (C) 2n + n (D) n2 + n
expressed as [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi
(A) Sum of square of two natural numbers (AR,BM,BT,CH,MA,MN,ST,XE,XL)]
2 2
(B) Sum of cubes of two natural numbers  1  3
Q.77 If  x −  −  x −  = x + 2 then the value of x is
(C) Sum of square roots of two natural numbers  2   2
(D) Sum of cube roots of two naturals numbers (A) 6 (B) 4
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (AE, AG,MN)] (C) 8 (D) 2
Q.72 X is a 30 digits number starting with the digit 4 [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay(CS-2,XE,XL)]
2
followed by the digit 7. Then the number X3 will  1  2 1
have,
Q.78 If  z +  = 98 , compute z + 2 .
 z  z 
(A) 90 digits (B) 91 digits [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CS-1 ,EE-1)]
(C) 92 digits (D) 93 digits Q.79 What is the average of all multiples of 10 from
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (CS-2, EE-2)] the 2 to 198?
1 1 1 (A) 90 (B) 100
Q.73 If pqr ≠ 0 and p −x
= , q − y = , r − z = , what is
q r p (C) 110 (D) 120
the value of the product xyz? [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CS-2 ,EE-2)]
1 ( k + 2) 2
(A) –1 (B) Q.80 For what values of K given below is an
pqr k −3
(C) 1 (D) pqr integer?
(A) 4, 8, 18 (B) 4, 10, 16,
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CS, MN)]
(C) 4, 8, 28 (D) 8, 26, 28
Q.74 In appreciation of the social improvements
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EE)]
completed in a town, a wealthy philanthropist
decided to gift Rs 750 to each male senior citizen 1.9 LCM & HCF
in the town and Rs 1000 to each female senior
Q.81 (i) Find the LCM and HCF of 60, 96 and 144.
citizen. Altogether, there were 300 senior
(ii) Find the LCM and HCF of 2/5, 12/18, 8/9 and
citizens eligible for this gift. However, only 8/9th
6/7.
of the eligible men and 2/3rd of the eligible
Q.82 The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 360 and
women claimed the gift. How much money (in 18 respectively.
rupees) did the philanthropist give away in
(i) If one of them is 90, what is the other?
total?
(ii) If one of them is 180, what is the other?
(A) 1,50,000 (B) 2,00,000
Q.83 The LCM and HCF of 36,60 and x is 1260 and
(C) 1,75,000 (D) 1,51,000 their HCF is 12. What is the difference between
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CS, MN)] the least and the greatest possible value of x?
Q.75 In four-digits integer numbers from the 1001 to Q.84 Four lights flash together at 10 am and after that,
9999, the digits group “37” (in the same they flash after every 15, 20, 24 and 36 seconds.
How many times do they flash together from 10
sequence) appears______ times.
am to 11:45 am?
(A) 270 (B) 299
Q.85 In a singing competition, 30 participants from
(C) 279 (D) 280 Andhra Pradesh, 48 from the Karnataka and 60
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EE, EY,TF)] from Tamilnadu participate. Find the minimum
numbers of rooms required to conduct the (A) 0 (B) 1

competition, if, in each room the same numbers (C) 3 (D) 5
of participants belonging to the same state are to Q.7 What will be the value of x for
be allotted.
(10017 − 1) + (1034 + x )
Q.86 Patnaik had some books with him. If he ; the remainder = 0
9
distributes them equally among either 30 or 36
or 45 students, he would be left with 15 books. If (A) 3 (B) 6
he distributes them equally among 25 students, (C) 9 (D) 8
he would be left with no books. Find the Q.8 Let the sum of the squares of successive integers
minimum of number of books he had. 0,1,2,…., n-1, n be denoted by S. Let the sum of
Q.87 The unit digit of (12345k)72 is 6. The value of k is: the cubes of the same integers be denoted by C.
(A) 8 (B) 6 2
It is desirable that , as n increases in steps of
(C) 2 (D) 9 315
unity from zero, is given by the series :
[MSQ]
0 3 9 18 30
Q.88 2 2
Sum of the series 2 + 4 + 6 + ...... + 20 is 2 2 , , , , ,.... (for n = 0,1, 2, 3, 4.....) . What will
1 3 5 7 9
(A) 1040 (B) 1540 be this ratio be for n = 8?
(C) 2540 (D) 3080 108 103
(A) (B)
17 17
[ESE-2021 Prelims]
n 1 103 100
Q.89 The value of  is (C) (D)
1 ( x + 3)( x + 4) 15 15
n 2n
(A) (B) Q.9 Find th HCF and LCM of the following :
n+2 n +1
(i) 2,4,8
n n
(C) (D) (ii) 24,60,120
4(n + 4) 2(n + 2)
(iii) 2/3 , 4/5 , 7/9
[ESE-2021 Prelims] (iv) 99! , 999! , 9999!
Self Practice Questions (SPQ’s) Q.10 HCF of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 and
Q.1 Which of the following is not a factor of 612 - 1 ? their LCM is 2 4 × 3 5 × 5 2 × 7 2 -
(A) 7 (B) 35 Q.11 The sum of the two numbers is 216 and their
(C) 215 (D) 127 HCF is 27. The number are –

Q.12 The sum of the two numbers is 528 and their
Q.2 (
If x = 193 + 213 + 233 + 253 + 273 + 293 + 313 , what ) HCF is 33. The number of pairs of n umbers
is the remainder when x is divided by 50? satisfying the above conditions is –
Q.3 How many of the following are not divisible by Q.13 The least number of five digits which is exactly
63? divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is :
(A) 88 - 1 (B) 273 + 363 Q.14 The LCM of two numbers is 48. The numbers
(C) 146 × 147 × 148 (D) 117 × 188 × 119 are in the ratio in the ratio 2 : 3. The sum of the
Q.4 The digits of a two-digit number differ by 6. The numbers is –
sum of the number and number formed by Q.15 The product of two numbers is 1320 and their
reversing its digits is 132. Find the number(s). HCF is 6. The LCM of the numbers is –
11 12 13 14 15
Q.5 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 is divided by which of the Q.16 The product of two numbers is 7168 and their
following ? HCF is 16. How many pairs of numbers are
(A) 11 (B) 31 possible such that the above conditions are
(C) 341 (D) All of the above satisfied?
Q.6 Find the difference between the remainders (A) 2 (B) 3
when 7 is divided by 342 & 344.
84 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q.17 Find the number of positive integers co-prime to

480 and less than it. Also find the sum of all
those numbers
Q.18 How many natural numbers between 100 and
300 have three factors?
Q.19 What are the prime factors of 207090?
(A) 2, 3, 5 and 11
(B) 2, 3, 5, 7 and 13
(C) 2, 7, 11 and 13
(D) 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11
Q.20 The eight-digits number 78p456q3 is divisible by
9 and q - p = 2. Find (p, q)
(A) (6, 8) (B) (4, 6)
(C) (5, 7) (D) (7, 9)
A Answer Keys
Class Practice Questions (CPQ’s)

1.1 Number of Trailing Zero’s (0’s)
(i) 41,
(ii) 296,
(iii) 221,
1. (iv) 22, 37 2. 24, 37, 62 3. (C)
(v) 26,
(vi) 7,
(vii) 16
1.2 Unit Digit Value (UDV)
8, 8, 7, 4, 7, 8, 6, 1, 9,
4. 5. 6. 6 7. 0 8. 7
1 3, 7, 3
9. 7 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. 0 13. (C)
14. (B) 15. (i) 9, (ii) 6, (iii) 1, (iv) 4
1.3 Divisibility
(a)
1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 17, 117, 0, 0
(b)
16. 7, 3, 5 17. 18. 5225 19. 3 20. (B)
1, 1, 5, 5, 3, 18, 43, 0, 6
(c)
1, 1, 1, 9, 0, 20, 45, 3, 5
21. 3 22. (C)
1.4 Factorization
(i) 3,
(a) 6, 28, 1728
(ii) 12, (i) 6,
23. (b) 8, 60, 244 24. 25. 26. (D) 27. 12
(iii) 372 (ii) 5
(c) 18, 819, 2889
(iv) (150)6
1.5 Concepts of Remainders
28. 12 29. 0 30. 9 31. 13 32. 1
(i) 3, (ii) 3, (iii) 6,
33. (iv) 1, (v) 4, (vi) 8,
(vii) 1, (viii) 0
1.6 Last Two Digits
34. 61, 91, 51 35. 27, 07, 29 36. 92, 64, 88
1.7 Miscellaneous
37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. 3
42. 341 43. (D) 44. 163 45. 495 46. 3
47. 13 48. 33 49. (B)
1.8 Sequence & Series
(i) 4, n( n + 1)(2n + 1) s
50. 51. (D) 52. (C) 53. 54.
(ii) 27 6 2
252 1 55
55. (B) 56. (D) 57. 58. 59.
125 10 111
60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (C)
65. (D) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B)
70. (C) 71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B)
75. (D) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. 96 79. (B)
80. (C)
1.9 LCM & HCF
(i) 1440,12
(i) 72
81. 2 82. 83. 1176 84. 18 85. 23
(ii) 24, (ii) Data inconsistent
315
86. 375 87. (A), (B), (C) 88. (B) 89. (C)
Self Practice Questions (SPQ’s)

1. (D) 2. 25 3. (C) 4. 93.39 5. (D)
(i) HCF – 2, LCM – 8
(ii) HCF – 12, LCM – 120
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. 10. 22 ×35× 72
(iii) HCF – 1/45, LCM – 28
(iv) HCF – 99!, LCM – 9999!
11. (3,5) (1,7) 12. 4 Pairs 13. 10080 14. 40 15. 220
16. (A) 17. 128,30720 18. 3 19. (D) 20. (C)

2 PERMUTATION
& COMBINATION
Class Practice Questions : (CPQ’s) (i) Exactly one 5

(ii) Exactly two 5
(iii) At least one 5
2.1 Numbers Arrangement
Q.7 Using the digits : (1) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 (2) 0,
Q.1 (i) How many five digit numbers with distinct
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 how many three digit
digits can be formed using the digit 1, 2, 3, 4,
numbers can be formed , such that it must have :
5?
(i) Exactly one 7
(ii) How many three digit numbers can be (ii) Exactly two 7
formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without (iii) At least one 7
repetition of digits? Q.8 Using the digits : (1) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 (2) 0,
(iii) How many three-digit odd numbers can be 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 how many three digit
formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, when numbers can be formed , such that :
each digit occurs at most once in any of the (i) The ten’s place is greater than the unit’s
numbers? place digit.
Q.2 Using the digits : 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 how many three (ii) The ten’s place is greater than the unit’s
digit numbers can be formed : place digit and less the hundred’s place
(i) Repetition allowed. digit.
(ii) Repetition not allowed. Q.9 There are 4 digits : 2, 3, 5, 8.
Q.3 How many four digit numbers can be formed (i) How many 4 digit numbers can be formed
with the 10 digits 0, 1, 2, ..... 9 if no number can without repetition of digits?
start with 0 and if repetitions are not allowed? (ii) Of these, how many are even?
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set - 2)] (iii) Of these even numbers, how many are not
Q.4 How many numbers between 0 and 1 million divisible by 4?
can be formed using 0, 7 and 8? (iv) In how many numbers are 2 and 8 together?
(A) 486 (B) 1086 (v) How many 4 digit numbers are possible
(C) 728 (D) 900 (with repetition)?
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur] Q.10 What is the sum of all 4 digit numbers which
Q.5 How many 3 digit no. are there from100 – 1000 can be formed using the digits 1,2,3 and 4
(i) All three digits prime and distinct. without repetition?
(ii) All 3 digits odd. Q.11 A five digit number is formed using the digits
Q.6 Using the digits : 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 how many three 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of them.
digit numbers can be formed , such that it must What is the sum of all such possible five digit
have : numbers?
(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600 Q.17 A three-member committee has to be formed a

(C) 6666666 (D) 6666606 group of 9 people. How many such distinct
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC Set – 4, ME Set - 4)] committees can be formed?
(A) 27 (B) 72
2.2 Letters Arrangement
(C) 81 (D) 84
Q.12 (i) Find the number of words that can be [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 2)]
formed using all the letters of the word Q.18 An e-mail password must contain three
BHUPATI. characters. The password has to contain one
(ii) How many of the words that can be formed numeral from 0 to 9, one upper and one lower
using all the letters of the word BHUPATI case character from the English alphabet. How
begin with B but don’t end with I? many distinct passwords are possible?
Q.13 (i) How many words can be formed using all the (A) 6,760 (B) 13,520
letters of the word TUSEDAY such that all (C) 40,560 (D) 1,05,456
the vowels are together? [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EE Set – 1)]
(ii) The number of words that can be formed Q.19 A 9-letter password is formed using the letters
using all the letters of the word TUESDAY A, E, G, I, N, R, S, T and U. If repetition of letters
such that on two vowels are together is allowed, how many of these passwords are
is_______. palindromes?
Q.14 (i) The number of words that can be formed Q.20 Arun, Gulab, Neel and Sweta must choose one
using all the letters of the word SUCCESS shirt each from a pile of four shirts coloured red,
is_____. pink, blue and white respectively. Arun dislikes
(ii) In the above problem, the number of words the colour red and Sweta dislikes the colour
in which all the S’s are together is______. white. Gulab and Neel like all the colours. In
Q.15 How many different words can be formed from how many different ways can they choose the
the letters of the word GANESHPURI when: shirts so that no one has a shirt with a colour he
(i) All the letters are taken. or she dislikes?
(ii) The letter G always occupies the first place. (A) 21 (B) 18
(iii) The letters P and E respectively occupy the (C) 16 (D) 14
first and last places. [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS, Set – 1)]
(iv) All the vowels are always together. Q.21 There are 3 Indians and 3 Chinese in a group of
(v) How many words of 5 letters each can be 6 people. How many subgroups of this group
formed each containing 3 consonants and 2
can we choose so that every subgroup has at
vowels?
(vi) All the vowels are never together. least one Indian?
(vii) No 2 vowels are together. (A) 56 (B) 52
(viii) All vowels always occupy even places? (C) 48 (D) 44
Q.16 There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X, [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC, BT, PI Set – 1)]
Y, Z in a group. We are required to form pairs 2.3 Dictionary Word
each consisting of one woman and one man. P is Q.22 If all the words, not necessarily meaningful, that
not to be paired with Z, and Y must necessarily can be formed by using all the letters of ALERT
be paired with someone. In how many ways can are arranged as in a dictionary, the 25th word is
4 such pairs be formed? __________.
(A) 74 (B) 76 Q.23 If all the letters of the word ‘AGAIN’ be
(C) 78 (D) 80 arranged as per English dictionary, what is the
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (ME Set – 2)] 50th word.
GATE ACADEMY ® Permutation & Combination 11
2.4 Agenda : Straight Lines, Triangles, Q.33 In how many ways 3 scholarships can be
Chess Board, Handshake & Gift Exchange awarded to 4 applicants, when each applicant
can receive any number of scholarships?
Q.24 Of 20 points on a plane, 6 are collinear. Except
(A) 4 (B) 12
for the triplets formed from among these 6
(C) 64 (D) 81
points, no other triplet of points is collinear. By
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (AE, MN)]
joining these 20 points
Q.34 Ten teams participate in a tournament. Every
(i) how many straight lines can be formed?
team plays each of the other teams twice. The
(ii) how many triangles can be formed?
total number of matches to be played is
Q.25 The number of diagonals in a regular polygon of
(A) 20 (B) 45
10 vertices is____,
(C) 60 (D) 90
Q.26 (i) On a 8ൈ8 chess board, the number of squares
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (AR, GG, TF)]
of all sizes is______.
(ii) In the above problem the number of Q.35 Five teams have to compete in a league, with
rectangles is _____. every team playing every other team exactly
Q.27 How many diagonals are there in an n side once, before going to the next round. How many
polygon. matches will have to be held to complete the
Q.28 Find the number of : league round of matches?
(i) Straight Lines (A) 20 (B) 10
(ii) Diagonals (C) 8 (D) 5
(iii) Triangles formed in a decagon. [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (AE, GG, IN, MA,
Q.29 Out of 18 points in a plane, no three are in the ME-3, MN, MT, PH, PI, TE)]
same straight line except five points which are Q.36 930 Deepawali greeting cards are exchanged
collinear. How many amongst the students of a class. If every student
(i) Straight lines sends a card to every other student then what is
(ii) Triangles can be formed by joining them? the number of students in the class?
Q.30 A 2 × 4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is a Q.37 Five different books (P, Q, R, S, T) are to be
rectangle. How many rectangles can be arranged on a shelf. The books R and S are to be
observed in the grid? arranged first and second respectively from
right side of the shelf. The number of different
orders in which P, Q and T may be arranged is
________.
(A) 21 (B) 27
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 30 (D) 36
(C) 12 (D) 120
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EC)]
(EE Set - 1, CSE Set - 1)]
Q.38 Given digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4. How many
Q.31 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set
distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000 can be
of 5 parallel lines. How many
formed?
parallelograms are formed?
(A) 50 (B) 51
(A) 20 (B) 48
(C) 52 (D) 54
(C) 60 (D) 72
[GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati (All branches)]
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (IN Set – 1)]
2.5 Miscellaneous Self Practice Questions : (SPQ’s)
Q.32 How many word can be formed by taking 4 Q.1 Using the digits : (1) 1,2,3,4 and 5 (2) 0, 1,2,3,4
letters at a time out of the letters of the word and 5 how many three digit numbers can be
MATHEMATICS? formed , such that :
(i) The ten’s place is greater than the unit’s (A) 615800 (B) 46800
place digit. (C) 719500 (D) 410800
(ii) The ten’s place is greater than the unit’s Q.9 It is required to seat 5 men and 4 women in a
place digit and less the hundred’s place row so that the women occupy the even places.
digit. How many such arrangements are possible?
Q.2 How many numbers between 2000 and 3000 can (A) 2880 (B) 2480
be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (C) 3680 (D) 3280
(repetition of digits not allowed)? Q.10 Four books, one each in Chemistry, Physics,
(A) 42 (B) 210 Biology, and Mathematics are to be arranged in
(C) 336 (D) 440 a shelf. In how many ways can this be done?
Q.3 Five person A, B, C, D and E occupy seats in a (A) 12 (C) 36
row such that A and B sit next to each other. In
(C) 24 (D) 48
how many possible ways can these five people
Directions Q.11 to Q.13 : Below is a square grid of 8 × 8.
sit?
(A) 24 (B) 48
(C) 72 (D) None of these
Q.4 A polygon has 44 diagonals, then the numbers
of its side are
(A) 11 (B) 9
(C) 7 (D) 5
Q.5 In an examinations paper there are two groups,
each containing 4 questions. A candidates is
required to attempt 5 questions but not more
than 3 questions from any group. In how many Q.11 What is total No. of squares in the grid?
ways can 5 questions be selected? (A) 204 (B) 285
(A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 140 (D) None of these
(C) 96 (D) None of these Q.12 What is total number of rectangles in the grid?
Q.6 A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from (A) 36×36 (B) 35×35
20 players including 6 bowlers and 3 wicket (C) 34×34 (D) 32×32
keepers. The numbers of ways in which a team
Q.13 How many rectangle of different dimensions are
can be formed having exactly 4 bowlers and 2
there?
wicket keepers is
(A) 34 (B) 35
(A) 20790 (B) 6930
(C) 36 (D) 33
(C) 10790 (D) 360
Directions :
Q.7 In a hockey championship, there were 153
(Q.14 to Q.15) : There are 10 points in a plane and out of
matches played. Every two teams played one
which 4 are collinear.
match with each other. The numbers of teams
Q.14 How different triangles can be mode using these
participating in the championship is
10 points?
(A) 18 (B) 19
(A) 10C3 - 3C3 (B) 9C3 - 2C2
(C) 17 (D) 16
(C) 10C3 - 4C3 (B) 10C3 - 5C3
Q.8 A code word is to consist of two distinct English
Q.15 How many different lines can be drawn ?
alphabets followed by two distinct numbers
(A) 10C2 - 4C2 (B) 10C2 - 4C2 + 1
between 1 and 9. For examples, CA23 is a code
word. How many such words are there? (A) 10C3 - 4C3 + 1 (B) None of these
GATE ACADEMY ® Permutation & Combination 13
A Answer Keys
2.1 Number Arrangement

(i) 120
(i) 180 (i) 24
1. (ii) 60 2. 3. 4536 4. (C) 5.
(ii) 100 (ii) 60
(iii) 36
(i) 24
(i) 192, 225 (i) 324,
(i) 65 (ii) 12
(ii) 24, 26 405
6. (ii) 14 7. 8. 9. (iii) 6 10. 66660
(iii) 217, (ii) 841,
(iii) 80 (iv) 12
252 120
(v) 256
11. (B)
2.2 Letters Arrangement
(i) 10!
(ii) 9!
(iii) 8!
(i) 5040 (i) 720 (i) 420 (iv) 120960
12. 13. 14. 15. 16. (C)
(ii) 720 (ii) 1440 (ii) 60 (v) 14400
(vi) 3507840
(vii) 604800
(viii) 86400
5
17. (D) 18. (C) 19 9 20. (D) 21. (A)
2.3 Dictionary Word
22. EALRT 23 NAIIG
2.4 Agenda : Straight Lines, Triangles, Chess Board, Handshake and Gift Exchange
(i) 176 (i) 45
(i) 204
24. (ii) 25. 35 26. 27. nC2 − n 28. (ii) 35
(ii) 1296
20C3 − 6C3 (iii) 120
(i) 144
29. 30. (C) 31. (C)
(ii) 806
2.5 Miscellaneous
32. 2454 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. 31
37. (A) 38. (B)
Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

(i) 50, 75
1. 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(ii) 10, 20
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B)
3 PROBABILITY
Class Practice Questions : (v) Multiple of 2

(vi) Multiple of 4
Q.1 An unbiased die is thrown. What is the
(vii) Multiple of 3
probability of getting -
Q.6 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and
(i) An even number
100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at
(ii) A multiple of 3.
random. What is the probability that the
(iii) An even number or a multiple of 3
selected number is not divisible by 7?
(iv) An even number and a multiple of 3.
(A) 13/90 (B) 12/90
Q.2 2 Dice are thrown are simultaneously. Find the
(C) 78/90 (D) 77/90
probability of getting:
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CSE, ME)]
(i) An even no. as the sum.
Q.7 Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
(ii) The sum as a prime no.
probability that the product of the numbers
(iii) A total of at least 10.
appearing on the top faces of the dice is a
(iv) A multiple of 2 on 1 dice and multiple of 3
perfect square is
on the other.
1 2
Q.3 3 dice are thrown together. Find the (A) (B)
9 9
probability of getting sum of :
1 4
(i) At least 6 (C) (D)
3 9
(ii) At most 6
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (IN, CE Set – 2)]
(iii) Exactly 6
Q.8 Given set A = {2, 3, 4, 5} and Set B = {11, 12, 13,
Q.4 Find the probability that a leap year selected at
14, 15}, two numbers are randomly selected,
random, will have:
one from each set. What is probability that the
(i) 53 Sun
sum of the two numbers equals 16?
(ii) 53 Sun & 53 Mon
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.25
(iii) 52 Sun
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.33
(iv) 52 Sun & 53 Mon
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur
(v) 52 Sun & 52 Mon
(EE Set - 1, CSE Set - 1)]
(vi) 52 Sun & 53 Tue
Q.9 A couple has 2 children. The probability that
(vii) 52 Sun & 52 Tue.
both children are boys if the older one is a boy
Q.5 What is the probability that a no. selected from
is
the nos. 1-100 (both inclusive) is :
1 1
(i) A Prime no. (A) (B)
4 3
1
(ii) Is a composite no. (C) (D) 1
2
(iii) A perfect square
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (ME Set – 2)]
(iv) A perfect Integer
GATE ACADEMY ® Probability 15
Q.10 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at Q.18 Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
random, will contain 53 Saturdays? probability that at least one of them will have
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 6 facing up is_____?
(C ) 1/7 (D) 5/7 Q.19 Suppose a fair six sided die is rolled once. If
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (EC, EE, IN)] the value on the die is 1, 2, or 3 then die is
Q.11 One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards, rolled a second time. What is the probability
each of the 52 cards are equally likely to be that the sum of the total values that turn up is
drawn. Find the probability that the card at least 6?
drawn is : (a) 10/21 (b) 5/12
(i) An Ace (c) 2/3 (d) 1/6
(ii) Red Q.20 Four fair six-sided dice are rolled. The
(iii) Either Ace or Red probability that the sum of the results being 22
(iv) Ace & Red x
is . The value of x is _______?
Q.12 4 persons are to be chosen at random from a 1296
group of 3 men, 4 women and 4 children. Find Q.21 Suppose we uniformly and randomly select a
the probability of selecting: permutation from the 20! Permutation of 1, 2,
(i) 1 man, 1 woman and 2 children. 3, 4, - - - - -20. What is the probability that 2
(ii) 2 Women. appears at an earlier position that any other
(iii) At least 2 women. even number in the selected permutations?
(iv) At most 2 women. (A) 1/2 (B) 1/10
Q.13 The letters of the word ‘SOCIETY’ are placed (C) 9!/20! (D) None of these
at random in a row. What is the probability Q.22 A man walks only one step forward or one
that: step backward when he walks. The probability
(i) All the vowels are together. of the man taking a step forward is 1/3 and the
(ii) All the vowels are never together. probability of the man taking a step backward
(iii) No 2 vowels are together. is 2/3.
(iv) “SOIT” are always together. (i) What is the probability that after 11 steps,
Q.14 A fair coin is tossed in times. The probability he is 1 step away from the starting point?
that the difference between the number of (ii) What is the probability that after 10 steps,
heads and tails is (n-3) is, he is 1 step away from the starting point?
(A) 2 (B) 0 Q.23 A bag has 12 bolls, of which 7 are red and the
(C) nCn−3 2− n (D) 2 − n + 3 remaining are black. Find the probability of
Q.15 Let X , X , X and X be independent normal each of the following events?
random variable with zero mean and unit (i) If 2 balls are selected simultaneously. The
variance. The probability that X is the will be of different colours?
smallest amoung the four is______? (ii) If 2 balls are selected successively (without
Q.16 Two persons A & B through a dice replacement) they will be of different
alternatively till one of them gets a six and colours?
wins the game, the probability of winning of (iii) If 2 balls are selected successively (with
B. Assume that person A starts the game replacement) they will be of different
(a) 6/11 (b) 5/11 colours?
(c) 4/11 (d) 3/11 Q.24 There are two bags. One has 5 red and 6 black
Q.17 Consider a dice with the property that the balls, while the other has 4 red and 8 black
probability of a face with in dots showing up balls.
is proportional to n, the probability of the face (i) A balls is selected randomly from one of
with three dots showing up is____? the bags. What is the probability that it is
red?
(ii) A boll is picked from the 1st bag and put in 3 1

(A) (B)
the 2 nd bag. Then a ball is picked from the 4 24
2nd bag. What is the probability that it is 1 1
(C) (D)
red? 4 2
Q.25 A bag contains 6 white, 5 red and 4 black balls. Q.31 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row
If two balls are drawn at random, what is the and four different such trials are conduced.
probability that none is white? One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H
1 3 stands for head and T stands for tail, the
(A) (B) following are the observations from the four
3 5
12 13 trials :
(C) (D)
35 16 (1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT
Q.26 A bag contains 4 white and 2 black balls and (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT_ _
another bag contains 3 of each colour. A bag is Which statement describing the last two coin
selected at random and a ball is drawn at tosses of the fourth trial has the higher
random from the bag chosen. The probability probability of being correct?
of the white ball drawn is : (A) Two T will occur
1 1 (B) One H and one T will occur
(A) (B)
3 4 (C) Two H will occur
5 7 (D) One H will be followed by one T.
(C) (D)
12 12 [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME Set – 2)]
[ESE : 2020] Q.32 Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview for
Q.27 There are 3 red socks, 4 green socks and 3 blue two vacancies in the same department. The
socks. You choose 2 socks. The probability that probability of Ram’s selection is 1/6 and that of
they are of the same colour is Ramesh is 1/8. What is the probability that
1 7 only one of them will be selected?
(A) (B)
5 30 47 1
(A) (B)
1 4 48 4
(C) (D)
4 15 13 35
(C) (D)
Q.28 A box contains 15 blue balls and 45 black balls. 48 48
If 2 balls are selected randomly, without [GATE 2015 : IIT
replacement, the probability of an outcome in Kanpur (EC Set - 2, ME Set - 1)]
which the first selected is a blue ball and the Q.33 The probabilities of the three doctors A, B and
second selected is a black ball, is_____? C getting success in an operation are 0.5, 0.2
(A) 3/16 (B) 45/236 and 0.3 respectively. Find the probability that
(C) 3/4 (D) 1/4 the operation is not successful.
[ME-2, MT GATE- 2021 IIT - BUMBAY] (A) 0.78 (B) 0.64
Q.29 There are five bags each containing identical
(C) 0.56 (D) 0.28
sets of ten distinct chocolates. One chocolate is
Q.34 A class of twelve children has two more boys
picked from each bag. The probability that
than girls. A group of three children are
atleast two chocolates are identical is_______.
randomly picked from this class to accompany
(A) 0.8125 (B) 0.6976
the teacher on a field trip. What is the
(C) 0.3024 (D) 0.4235
probability that the group accompanying the
[BT, CH, CS-1, MA TF
teacher contains more girls than boys?
GATE- 2021 IIT - BUMBAY]
325
Q.30 A problem in statistics is given to three (A) 0 (B)
864
students A, B and C whose chances of solving
525 5
it are 1/2, 1/3 and 1/4 respectively. The (C) (D)
864 12
probability that the problem will be solved is
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EE) (MTA)] Q.2 What is the probability that only one of them
Q.35 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A will be selected?
new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is 2 1
(A) (B)
available this kit correctly identifies HIV+ 7 35
individuals 95% of the time, and HIV– 24 11
(C) (D)
individuals 89% of the time. A particular 25 35
patient is tested using this kit and is found to Q.3 What is the probability that both of them
be positive. The probability that the individual will be selected?
is actually positive is________. 2 1
(A) (B)
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE Set - 2, IN)] 7 35
Q.36 Two dice are rolled one after the other. The 24 11
(C) (D)
probability that the number on the first is 25 35
smaller than the number on second Q.4 What is the probability that none of them
1 7 will be selected?
(A) (B) 2 1
2 18 (A) (B)
3 2 7 35
(C) (D)
4 12 24 11
(C) (D)
Q.37 A die is rolled three times. The probability of 25 35
getting a larger number than the previous Q.5 What is the probability that at least one of
number each time is them will be selected?
(A) 7/54 (B) 5/54 2 1
(A) (B)
7 35
(C) 11/54 (D) 6/54
24 11
Q.38 2 integers are selected at random from integers (C) (D)
25 35
1-11. If the sum is even, find the probability
Q.6 A man speaks truth in 80% of the cases and
that :
another in 90% of the cases. While stating the
(i) Both the integers are odd. same fact what is the probability that they
(ii) Both the integers are even. contradict?
Q.39 Four person are chosen at random from a 37 13
(A) (B)
group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 childern. The 50 50
chance that exactly 2 of them are childern,is 16
(C) (D) None of these
2 4 50
(A) (B)
9 5 Q.7 A can solve 90% of the problems given in a
7 10 books and B solve 70%. What is the probability
(C) (D)
12 21 that atleast one of them will solve a problem
Self Practice Questions : selected at random from the book?
3 97
Q.1 From a pack of 52 playing cards, three cards (A) (B)
100 100
are drawn at random. Find the probability of 83 17
drawing a king, A queen and a jack. (C) (D)
100 100
16 1 Q.8 Find the probability that in a random
(A) (B)
5525 133 arrangement of the letters of the world
1 1 DAUGHTER, the letter D occupies the first
(C) (D) place.
143 153
1 1
Directions for (Q.2 to Q.5): A husband and wife (A) (B)
8 4
appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same 3 1
post. The probability of husband’s selections is 1/7 and (C) (D)
8 2
that of wife’s is 1/5.
Q.9 A bag contains 3 green and 7 white balls. Two Q.16 The probability that a student is a not a
balls are drawn from the bag in succession swimmer is 1/5. Then the probability that out
without replacement. What is the probability of the five students, exactly four are
that both are white? swimmers, is
2 4
1 5 4 1 4 1
(A) (B) (A) 5 C4     (B)    
7 11  5 5  5 5
7 7 4
(C) (D)  1  4 
11 15 (C) 5 C1    (D) None of these
 5  5 
Q.10 In a simultaneous throw of two dice, find
Q.17 Four different objects 1,2,3,4 are distributed at
P (A or B), if A denotes the event ‘a total of 11
random in four places marked 1,2,3,4. What is
and B denotes the event’ ’an odd number on
the probability that none of the objects occupy
each die’.
the place corresponding to its number?
11 1
(A) (B) 17 3
36 4 (A) (B)
24 8
5 1
(C) (D) 1 5
18 6 (C) (D)
2 8
Q.11 The probabilities that a student will receive an
Q.18 A number is chosen at random among the first
A, B, C or D grade are 0.30, 0.38, 0.22 and
120 natural numbers. The probability of the
0.01, respectively. What is the probability that number chosen being a multiple of 5 or 15 is
the student will receive at least B grade? 1 1
(A) 0.38 (B) 0.42 (A) (B)
5 6
(C) 0.68 (D) None of these
1 1
(C) (D)
7 9
Q.12 A problem in statistics is given to four
students A, B, C and D. Their chances of
1 1 1 1 
solving it are , , and , respectively.
3 4 5 6
What is the probability that the problem will
be solved?
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
4
(C) (D) None of these
5
Q.13 If A and B are two independent events such
that P( A) = 0.65, P ( A ∪ B ) = 0.65 and
P ( B) = p , find the value of p
7 6
(A) (B)
13 13
37
(C) (D) None of theses
65
Q.14 The probability of raining on day 1 is 0.2 and
on day 2 is 0.3. What is the probability of
raining on both the days?
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.1
(C) 0.06 (D) 0.25
Q.15 A bag contains 5 red balls and 8 blue balls. It
also contains 4 green and 7 black balls. If a ball
is drawn at random, then find the probability
that is not green.
5 1
(A) (B)
6 4
1 7
(C) (D)
6 4
A Answer Keys
Class Practice Questions (CPQ’s)

(i) 2/7 (i) 1/4
(ii) 3/7 (ii) 74/100
(i) 1/2 (i) 1/2
(i) 103/108 (iii) 5/7 (iii) 1/10
(ii) 1/3 (ii) 5/12
1. 2. 3. (ii) 5/54 4. (iv) 1/7 5. (iv) 1/50
(iii) 2/3 (iii) 1/6
(iii) 5/108 (v) 4/7 (v) 1/2
(iv) 1/6 (iv) 1/6
(vi) 2/7 (vi) 1/4
(vii) 3/7 (vii) 33/100
6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A)
(i) 1/13 (i) 72 (i) 720
(ii) 1/2 (ii) 126 (ii) 4320
11. 12. 13. 14. (B) 15. 0.25
(iii) 7/13 (iii) 155 (iii) 1440
(iv) 1/26 (iv) 301 (iv) 576
16. (B) 17. 0.142 18. 11/36 19. (B) 20. 10
(i) 35/66 (i) 13/33
(i) 0.25
21. (D) 22. 23. (ii) 35/66 24. (ii) 25. (C)
(ii) 0
(iii) 35/72 49/143
26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)
4/11
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. 35. 0.475
(MTA)
(i) 3/5
36. (D) 37. (B) 38. 39. (D)
(ii) 2/5
Self Practice Questions (SPQ’s)

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A)

4
Class Practice Questions : Q.4 A can complete a piece of work in 10 days, B can
complete in 15 days and C can complete it in 20
Q.1 A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B
days A, B and C started the work, starting from
alone can do it in 15 days. In how many days can
A then B and then C. In how many days work will
A and B working together complete it?
be completed.
Q.2 It takes two hours for a person X to mow the ଵ ଷ
(A) 13 ଶ days (B) 13 days
ସ
lawn. Y can mow the same lawn in four hours.
ହ ଺
How long (in minutes) will it take X and Y, if they (C) 13 days (D) 13 days
଺ ଻
work together to mow the lawn? Q.6 A can do a piece of work in 25 days and B can do
(A) 60 (B) 80 it in 20 days. They work together for 5 days and
(C) 90 (D) 120 then A goes away. How many more days will B
[GATE 2019: IIT Madras (EE)] require to finish the work?
Q.3 Two design consultants, P and Q, started Q.7 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 12 days
working from 8 AM for a client. The client and C in 15 days. They all start the work together,
budgeted a total of USD 3000 for the consultants. but A leaves the work after 2 days and B leaves 3
P stopped working when hour hand moved by days before the work is completed. How many
210 degrees on the clock. days did the work last?
Q stopped working when the hour hand moved Q8. A can complete a piece of work in 15 days B in 20
by 240 degrees. P took tea breaks of 15 minutes days and C can complete in 30 days alone. A
each during her shift, but took no lunch break. Q starts the work and work for 2 days then B joined
took only one lunch break for 20 minutes, him and they both work for 1 more days. How
but no tea breaks. The market rate for many days they all will take to complete the
consultants is USD 200 per hour and breaks are remaining work.
not paid. After paying the consultants, the client (A) 4 days (B) 5 days
shall have USD ____ remaining in the budget. (C) 8 days (D) 10 days
(A) 000.00 (B) 300.00 Q.9 A certain number of men can finish a piece of
(C) 166.67 (D) 433.33 work in 60 days. If they were 8 men more, the
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EC)] work clould be finished in 10 days less. Find the
Q.4 A can complete a piece of work in 30 days. With original number of men.
the help of B work can be complete in work in 20 Q.10 12 men can build a wall 100 metres long, 3 metres
days. In how days B can complete the work alone. high and 0.5-metre-thick in 25 days. In how many
(A) 30 days (B) 40 days days’ will 20 men build a wall 60 metres long, 4
metres high and 0.25 metre thick?
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days
GATE ACADEMY ® Time & Work 21
Q.11 3 men or 5 women can do a job in 12 days. How Q.17 5 skilled workers on build a wall in 20 days; 8
long will 6 men and 5 women take to finish the semi-skilled workers can build a wall in 25 days;
job? 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30 days.
Q.12 If 12 pumps can raise 1218 tons of water in 11 If a team has 2 skilled. 6 semi-skilled and 5
days of 9 hours each, then how many pumps will unskilled workers, how long will it take to build
raise 2030 tons of water in 12 days of 11 hours the wall?
each? (A) 20 days (B) 18 days
(A) 12 pumps (B) 15 pumps (C) 16 days (D) 15 days
(C) 18 pumps (D) 14 pumps [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati (EC, EE CE, ME,
Q.13 Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 CSE, IN)]
identical toys. At the same time rate how many Q.18 Five men can paint a building in 20 days, 8
minutes would it take for 100 machines to make Women can paint the same building in 25 days
100 toys? and 10 Boys can paint it in 30 days. If a team has
(A) 1 (B) 7 2 men, 6 Women and 5 Boys, how long will it take
to paint the building?
(C) 100 (D) 700
(A) 12 days (B) 13 days
Q.14 Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours
[ESE 2017]
to read a book. Both started reading copies of the
book at the same time. After how many hours is Q.19 A group of workers estimate to finish a work in
the number of pages to be rad by Ananth, twice 10 days, but 5 workers could not join the work, if
that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and the rest of them finished the work in 12 days, the
Bharath read all the pages with constant pace. number of members present in the team
originally is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) 50 (B) 45
(C) 3 (D) 42
(C) 35 (D) 30
[GATE 2016 : IISC Banglore (CE Set - 2)
[ESE 2017]
Q.15 1200 men and 500 women can build a bridge in 2
Q.20 If m students require a total of m pages of
weeks. 900 men and 250 women will take 3
stationery in m days, then 100 students will
weeks to build the same bridge. How many men
require 100 pages of stationery in
will be needed to build the bridge in one week
(A) 100 days (B) m/100 days
(A) 3000 (B) 3300
(C) 100/m days (D) m days
(C) 3600 (D) 3900
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras GG, TF]
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC Set – 2)]
Q.21 Two persons A and B can complete a work in 10
Q.16 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q can and 15 days respectively, working separately. In
finish the task in 25 days, working alone for 12 how many days will the work be completed, if
hours a day. R can finish the task in 50 days, they both work together. If they received Rs. 300
working alone for 12 hours per day. Q worked 12 as payment, then what are their respective
hours a day but took sick leave in the beginning shares?
for two days. R worked 18 hours a day on all Q.22 A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B in 20
days. What is the ratio of work one by Q and R days. They finished the work with the assistance
after 7 days from the start of the project? of C in 5 days and got Rs. 45 as their wages. The
(A) 10 : 11 (B) 11:10 share of each in wages (in Rs.) is
(C) 20 : 21 (D) 21 : 20 (A) 22.5, 12, 10.5 (B) 10.5, 12, 22.5
[GATE 2016 : IISC Banglore (EC Set – 1, ME Set-1)] (C) 15, 11.25, 18.75 (D) 12.5, 13 19.5
Q.23 pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours What is the minimum time needed to complete
respectively. The first was opened at 6 am, all the jobs?
second at 7 am third at 8 am and fourth at 9 am. (A) 2 hours (B) 2.5 hours
When will the reservoir be full? (C) 3 hours (D) 3.5 hours
(A) 12.30 pm (B) 1.30 pm [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (CE, CH Set – 1)]
(C) 1.00 pm (D) 12.50 pm Self Practice Questions :
Q.24 A and B can fill a cistern in 4 and 5 hours
respectively and C can empty it in 2 hours. If Q.1 9 Men can complete a piece of work in 35 days. In
three pipes be opened at 1, 2 and 3 am, when will how many days 7 men will complete that same
the cistern be empty? piece of work
(A) 5 am (B) 2 pm (A) 28 days (B) 40 days
(C) 5 pm (D) 4 pm (C) 42 days (D) 45 days
Q.25 A cistern has 3 pipes, A to supply and B and C to Q.2 7 Men can complete a piece of work in 33 days. In
drain. A can fill it in 10 hours while B and C can how many days 11 men will complete that same
empty it in 15 and 20 hours respectively. If the piece of work?
cistern is 7/10 full when they are all opened at (A) 18 days (B) 21 days
once, in what time will it be empty? (C) 24 days (D) 27 days
(A) 36 hours (B) 42 hours Q.3 5 Men can complete a piece of work in 39 days. In
(C) 48 hours (D) 52 hours how many days 13 men will complete the same
Q.26 Two pipes P and Q can fill the tank in 6 hours and piece of work?
9 hours while 3rd pipe R can empty the tank in 12 (A) 10 days (B) 15 days
hours. Initially P and R open for 4 hours then P is
closed and Q is open. After 6 hours R is closed
Q.4 A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone
then find the total time to fill the tank (in hours).
can do it in 15 days. In how many days the work
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (ME)]
gets completed if, A and B work together, but
Q.27 It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by
alternately:
draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to
Q.5 A can complete a piece of work in 40 days with
simultaneously pump water into the half-full
the help of B work can be complete 8 days. In how
tank while draining it. What is the rate at which
many days B can be complete it alone.
water has to be pumped in so that it gets fully
filled in 10 minutes?
(A) 4 times the draining rate
(B) 3 times the draining rate Q.6 A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. B can
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate complete the same work in 15 days, with the help
(D) 2 times the draining rate of C they together complete the work in 3 days.
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur In how many days C can complete it alone.
(EC Set – 2, ME Set – 2)] (A) 4 days (B) 6 days
Q.28 Two machines M1 and M2 are able to execute any (C) 8 days (D) 10 days
of four jobs P, Q, R and S. The machines can Q.7 A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. B can
perform one job on one object at a time. Jobs P, Q, complete the same work in 15 days and C can
R and S take 30 minutes, 20 minutes, 60 minutes complete it in 20 days. A, B, & C starts the work
and 15 minutes each respectively. together for 2 days then C leave the group, A & B
There are 10 objects each requiring exactly 1 job, work for 2 days more then A leave the group. In
Job P is to be performed on 2 objects, Job Q on 3 how many days B will complete the remaining
objects, Job R on 1 object and Job S on 4 objects. work.
GATE ACADEMY ® Time & Work 23
ହ ଻
(A) days (B) days women to finish the same piece of work working
ଶ ଶ
ଽ ଵଵ 7 days and 8 hrs. daily. If the efficiency of man is
(C) days (D) days
ଶ ଶ
thrice of women.
Q.8 A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 10 days
(A) 72 (B) 81
and C in 15 days. They all start the work
(C) 90 (D) 99
together, but A leaves the work after 2 days and
Q15. A certain number of person can finish a piece of
B leaves 3 days before the work is completed.
work in 100 days. If there 10 men less, they would
How many days did the work last?
have taken 10 days more. find the initial number
Q9. A and B can complete a piece of work in 10 days.
of person in the group.
Working together B and C can complete in 15
(A) 90 (B) 100
days, A and C can complete in 20 days working
together. In how many days they A, B & C (C) 110 (D) 120
complete the same piece of work working Q16. There is a sufficient food for 150 men for 15 days.
together. After 10 days, 75 men leave the place. For how
ଷ ଷ many days will the rest of the food lasts for the
ଵଷ ଵଷ
rest of the men.
ଷ ଷ
ଵଷ ଵଷ (A) 5 days (B) 10 days
Q.10 A man can finish a work in 6 days, a woman in 10 (C) 15 days (D) 20 days
days and a child in 12 days. The man starts the Q17. 30 men can make 480 chairs in 15 days. Find the
work and works for 1/3rd of a day, then the number of chairs made by 10 men in 6 days.
woman works for 1/3rd of a day and finally the
(A) 48 (B) 56
boy works for remaining 1/3rd of a day. This cycle
(C) 64 (D) 72
is repeated till the work finishing. Who was
Q18. 23 Men can dig a trench which is 40 m long 20m
working when the work finished?
broad and 10 m high in 15 days. Then find the
(A) Man (B) Woman
height of trench which is dig by 69 men in 10 days
(C) Child (D) None of these and the trench is 20 m long and 10 m broad.
Q11. A and B have efficiency 3:4. A can complete a (A) 60 m. (B) 70 m.
piece of work in 12 days, in how many days B will
(C) 80 m. (D) 100 m.
complete the same piece of work.
Q.19 Tap A can fill a tank in 36 minutes and tap B can
fill a tank in 45 minutes. In how many minutes
(C) 10 days (D) 15 days will be filled when the pipes will be opened
Q12. A and B can have efficiency 7:3 B can complete a simultaneously?
piece of work in 35 days, in how many days they (A) 28 minutes (B)18 minutes
A will complete the same piece of work. (C) 20 minutes (D) 24 minutes
(A) 12 days (B) 15 days Q.20 Tap A can fill a tank in 10 minutes and tap B in 15
(C) 20 days (D) 21 days minutes. In how many minutes will be filled
Q13. A has efficiency 40% more then B, A can complete when the both pipes open simultaneously where
a piece of work in 60 days. In how many days A as there is one more pipe C which is working as
and B will complete the same piece of work, outlet pipe and can empty the tank in 60 min.
working together. Q.21 Tap A can fill a tank in 20 min. but due to a leak
(A) 30 days (B) 35 days it is filled in 60 min. If leak has to empty a full
(C) 40 days (D) 45 days fill tank, how many minutes required.
Q14. 9 Men can finish a piece of work in 21 days (A) 20 minutes (B) 30 minutes
working 8 hrs daily than find the number of (C) 40 minutes (D) 60 minutes
Q.22 Tap A can fill a tank in 10 min. tap B in 15 min. Q.24 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 min. &
but due to a leak tap filled in 30 min. If leak can 48 min. respectively. If both the pipes are opened
draw 5 litres water per minute then find the simultaneously, after how much time should B be
volume of the tank. closed so that the tank is full in 27 minutes.
(A) 28 liters (B) 32.5 liters (A) 8 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C) 35 liters (D) 37.5 liters (C) 12 minutes (D) 15 minutes
Q.23 Two pipes P and Q would fill a cistern in 12 Q.25 There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When
and 16 minutes respectively. Both pipe being the cistern was thoroughly repaired it would be
opened, find when the first pipe must be off so filled in 12 min. It now takes 18 min. longer. If
that the cistern may be just filled in 8 the cistern is full, how long would the leak
minutes. take to empty the cistern.
(A) 4 minutes (B) 6 minutes (A) 15 minutes (B) 20 minutes
(C) 8 minutes (D) 10 Minutes (C) 24 minutes (D) 30 minutes
A Answer Keys
Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

2
1. 6 days 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B
3
6. 11 days 7. 9 days 8. B 9. 40 men 10. 6 days
11. 4 days 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. D 18. D 19. D 20. D
Rs. 180,
21. 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. B
Rs.120
14.5
26. 27. A 28. A
hours

13/4
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. days, 5. A
675 days
6. B 7. B 8. * 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. 7.5 min
21. D 22. D 23. B 24. C 25 B

5
Class Practice Questions : vote for Q and instead voted for P. Suppose, P
lost by 2 votes, then what was the total number
Q.1 In a basket of fruits, 60% are mangoes and of voters?
remaining 40% are apples. 25% of the apples are (A) 100 (B) 110
green and the rest 75% are red. Of the mangoes, (C) 90 (D) 95
80% are red and the rest of the mangoes are [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (EC, EE)]
green. What percentage of the green fruits are Q.6 Three friends, R, S and T shared toffee from a
mangoes? bowl. R took 1/3rd of the toffees, but returned
Q.2 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both ripe four to the bowl. S took 1/4th of what was left but
and unripe mixed together, 15% are unripe fruits. returned three toffees to the bowl. T took half of
Of the unripe fruits, 45% are apples. Of the ripe the remainder but returned two back into the
ones, 66% are oranges. If the pile contains a total bowl. If the bowl had 17 toffees left, how many
of 5692000 fruits, how many of them are apples? toffees-were originally there in the bowl?
(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 (A) 38 (B) 31
(C) 2789080 (D) 3577422 (C) 48 (D) 41
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (EC, EE)]
(EC Set – 1, ME Set -1)] Q.7 The cost function for a product in a firm is given
Q.3 In an exam, a student scored 50% of the by 5q 2 ,where q is the amount of production. The
maximum marks and yet failed by 12 marks. If he
firm can sell the product at a market price of Rs.50
had scored 10% more than what he scored, he
per unit. The number of units to be produced by
would have just managed to get the pass
the firm such that the profit is maximized is
percentage. What are the maximum marks of the
(A) 5 (B) 10
paper?
(C) 15 0x (D) 25
Q.4 (x% of y) + (y% of x) is equivalent to _______
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (ME, CE, CSE)]
 xy 
(A) 2% of xy (B) 2% of   Q.8 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean
 100 
temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 410C
(C) xy % of 100 (D) 100% of xy
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 430 C . If the
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE Set - 2]
temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than
Q.5 There are two candidates P and Q in an election.
that of Monday, then the temperature in 0 C on
During the campaign, 40% of the voters promised
Thursday was
to vote for P, and rest for Q. However, on the day
(A) 40 (B) 43
of election 15% of the voters went back on their
(C) 46 (D) 49
promise to vote for P and instead voted for Q.
25% of the voters went back on their promise to [GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (EC, EE, IN)]
Q.9 A firm is selling it product at Rs. 60 per unit. The Q.17 A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at 12.5% loss.
total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is Had he sold it for Rs.108 more, he would have
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost made a 10% gain. What is the loss in Rupees
increased by 30%. By what percentage the price incurred by the fruit seller?
should be increased to maintain the same profit (A) 48 (B) 52
level (C) 60 (D) 108
(A) 5 (B) 15 [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 1)]
(C) 10 (D) 30 Q.18 The price of a wire made of a super alloy material
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CE)] is proportional to the square of its length. The
Q.10 If prices decrease by 25%, by what percentage can price of 10 m length of wire is Rs. 1600. What
consumption increase without affecting the would be the total price (in Rs.) of two wires of
expenditure? lengths 4 m and 6 m?
Q.11 If the area of the circle is increased by 21% then (A) 768 (B) 832
what is the percentage increased in the (C) 1440 (D) 1600
circumference of the circle?
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 1)]
Q.12 In the summer, water consumption is known to
Q.19 The ratio of the number of boys and girls who
decrease overall by 25%. A Water Board official
participated in an examination is 4:3. The total
states that in the summer household
percentage of candidates who passed the
consumption decreases by 20%, while other
examination is 80 and the percentage of girls who
consumption increases by 70%.
passed is 90. The percentage of boys who passed
Which of the following statements is correct?
is _______. [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras]
(A) The ratio of household to other consumption
(A) 90.00 (B) 80.50
is 8/17
(B) The ratio of household to other consumption (C) 55.50 (D) 72.50
is 1/17 Q.20 If the radius of a right circular cone is increased
(C) The ratio of household to other consumption by 50%, its volume increases by
is 17/8 (A) 75% (B) 100%
(D) There are errors in the official's statement. (C) 125% (D) 237.5%
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee EC, BT, PI Set - 1] [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC, BT, PI Set – 1)]
Q.13 If the price of petrol increases successively by
Q.21 Fiscal deficit was 4% of GDP in 2015 and
20% and then by 10%, what is the net change in
increased to 5% in 2016. If GDP increased by 10%
percentage terms?
from 2015 to 2016. Then % increase in actual
Q.14 The length of a rectangle is increased by 10%.
Fiscal deficit?
What will be the percentage decreased in its
[GATE 2019: IIT Madras]
breadth so as to have the same area?
Q.22 If R = 10%, n = 4 years, what is the simple interest
Q.15 A bought a cycle for Rs. 1080 and then sold it to
charged on a loan of Rs. 2,000?
B for a loss of 20%. B spent Rs. 36 on improving
Q.23 In the above problem, if the case was one of
the condition of the cycle and then sold it to C for
compound interest, what is the CI?
a 20% profit. What amount did C pay for the
Q.24 If an amount is kept at SI, it earns an interest of
cycle?
Rs. 600 in first two years but when kept at CI, it
Q.16 A man sells an article at a profit of 25%. If he had
earns an interest of Rs. 660 in the same period.
bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 10.50 less,
Find the rate of interest and the Principal.
he would have gained 30%. Find the C.P. of the
Q.25 At what simple rate of interest shall a sum of
article.
money double itself in 4 years?
GATE ACADEMY ® Percentage & Its Applications 27
Q.26 For how many years should Rs. 600 be invested Q.34 Leila aspires to buy a car worth Rs. 10,00,000 after
at 10% p.a. in S.I., in order to earn the same 5 years. What is the minimum amount in Rupees
interest as earned by investing Rs. 800 at 12% p.a. that she should deposit now in a bank which
for 5 years in S.I.? offers 10% annual rate of interest, if the interest
Q.27 Find the C.I on Rs. 5,000 at 8% p.a. for 2 years, was compounded annually?
compounding being done annually. (A) 5,00,000 (B) 6,21,000
Q.28 Find amount for Rs. 80,000 at 20% per annum,
(C) 6,66,667 (D) 7,50,000
compounded semi – annually for 2 years.
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EC Set – 1)]
Q.29 Find C.I. on Rs. 10,000 at 10% for 9 months
compounded quarterly Self Practice Questions :
Q.30 Industrial consumption of power doubled from
Q.1 A’s income is 70% of B’s. B’s income is 50%of C’s.
2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual rate of
If C’s income is Rs. 1,00,000, what is A’s income?
increase in percent assuming it to be uniform
Q.2 What is 20% of 30% of 40?
over the years.
Q.3 If A is 37.5% more than B, by what percent is B
(A) 5.6 (B) 7.2
less than A?
(C) 10.0 (D) 12.2
Q.4 Since prices of mangoes decreased by 25%, I can
purchase 4 mangoes more for Rs. 60. What is the
original price of one mango?
Q.31 The population of a new city is 5 million and is
Q.5 The length and the breadth of a rectangle are 10
growing at 20% annually. How many years
cm and 5 cm respectively. The length is increased
would it take to double at this growth rate?
by 10% and the breadth is increased by 5%. What
(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years
is the new area of the rectangle?
(C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years Q.6 The radius of a circle has increased by 20%. By
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE Set - 2 IN)] what percentage does
Q.32 Round–trip tickets to a tourist destination are
A. The circumference increase?
eligible for a discount of 10% on the total fare.
B. The area increase?
In addition, groups of 4 or more get a discount of
Q.7 If the side of a square is increased by 25%, then
5% on the total fare. If the one way single person
its area is increased by how many percent?
fare is Rs 100, a group of 5 tourists purchasing
Q.8 Anirudh bought 8 lemons for a rupee, but sells
round–trip tickets will be charged Rs___________
only 6 lemons for a rupee. Find his profit
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EE Set – 1, CSE Set - 1)]
percentage.
Q.33 The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in Rupees
Q.9 Aditya purchases toffees at Rs. 10 per dozen and
grew at 7% during 2012-2013. For international
sells them at Rs. 12 for every 10 toffees. Find the
comparison, the GDP is compared in US Dollars
gain or loss percentage.
(USD) after conversion based on the market
Q.10 A boy buys eggs at 10 for Rs. 1.80 and sells them
exchange rate. During the period 2012-2013 the
at 11 for Rs. 2 What is his profit or loss percent?
exchange rate for the USD increased from Rs. 50
Q.11 A single discount equivalent to a series discount
per USD to Rs. 60 per USD. India’s GDP in USD
of 20%, 10% and 5% is ….. .
during the period 2012- 2013
Q.12 Paresh sells 40 pencils and gains the selling price
(A) Increased by 5 %
of 10 pencils. What is his profit percentage?
(B) Decreased by 13% Q.13 Inspite of giving a discount of 10%, a shopkeeper
(C) Decreased by 20% manages to make a profit of 8%. By what
(D) Decreased by 11% percentage does the shopkeeper mark – up his
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EE Set - 3, CSE Set - 3)] goods?
Q.14 If a commission of 10% is given on the marked Q.20 The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% p.a.
price of an article, the gain is 25%. Find the gain for the first 2 years, 6% p.a. for the next 3 years
percentage, if the commission is increased to and 8% p.a. for the period. beyond 5 years. If the
20%. simple interest accrued by the sum for a total
Q.15 The price of a Maruti car rises by 30% while the period of 8 years is Rs. 1,280 then what is the
sale of the car comes down by 20%. What is the sum?
percentage change in the total revenue? Q.21 Vinod Kumar invested Rs. 1,600 for3 years and
(A) - 4% (B) - 2% Rs. 1,100 for 4 years at the same rate of simple
(C) + 4% (D) + 2% interest. If the total interest from these
Q.16 What shall be the simple interest to be paid on a investments is Rs. 506, find the rate of interest.
principal of Rs. 14,000 borrowed at a rate of 15% Q.22 A man invests an amout of Rs. 15,860 in the
for a period of 3 years and 6 months? names of his three sons A, B, and C in such a way
Q.17 If a certain sum amounts to Rs. 108 in 2 years Rs. that they getthe same interest after 2, 3 and 4
112 in 3 years, find rate of interest (simple). years respectively at SI. If the rate of interest is
Q.18 Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a 5%, then the ratio of amounts invested in the
bank at the rate of 8% p.a. S.I. and gave the same name of A, B and C is
amount to Ashish as a loan at the rate of 12% p.a. Q.23 Mr Kuber bought a flat in Swarg Lok Apartments
If at the end of 12 years, he made a profit 12% p.a. for $1,000. What would the future value of the flat
If at the end of 12 years, he made a profit of Rs. be after 2 years if the value is compounded semi
320 in the deal, what was the original amount? – annually at 22% per annum?
Q.19 If a sum of money at simple interest doubles in 6 Q.24 What shall be the amount for a sum of Rs. 1,000
years, it will become 4 times in at 10% for 3 years compounded annually?

A Answer Keys

1. 54.54% 2. A 3. 240 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. 33.33%
11. 10% 12. D 13. 32% 14. 9.09% 15. Rs.1080
16. Rs.55 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. C
21. 37.5% 22. Rs.800 23. Rs.928.2 24. Rs.1500 25. 25%
26. 8 years 27. Rs. 832 28. Rs.11712.8 29. Rs. 769 30. B
31. A 32. Rs. 850 33. D 34 B

1. Rs. 35000 2. 2.4 3. 27.27% 4. 51% 5. 57.75cm
A. 20%
6. 7. 56.25% 8. 33.33% 9. 44% 10. 1.01%
B. 40%
11. 31.6% 12. 33.33% 13. 20% 14. 11.1% 15. C
16. Rs.7350 17. 4% 18. Rs.666.7 19. 18 years 20. 2.60
21. 5.5% 22. 6:4:3 23. 1518.07 24. 1331
6
Class Practice Questions : (CPQ’s) rides at 30kmph then he reaches 5 minutes early.
Find the distance between his home and office.
Q.1 A train runs at the rate of 45 km per hour. What Q.7 Walking at 5/7th of his usual rate, a man reaches
is its speed in metres per second? the, market 16 minutes late. Find his usual time
Q.2 A motor car takes 50 seconds to travel 500 metres. taken to reach the market.
What is its speed in km per hour?
Q.8 Walking at 12/11th of his usual rate, a man takes 5
Q.3 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, minutes less to reach his office. Find his usual
6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third time taken to reach the office.
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per
Q.9 A train running between two towns arrives at its
hour over the entire journey is
destination 10 minutes late when it goes at 60 km
(A) 30 (B) 36
per hour and 16 minutes. late when it goes at 40
(C) 40 (D) 24
km per hour. Determine the distance between the
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (EC, EE, IN)] two towns.
Q.4 A tourist covers half of his journey by train at 60
Q.10 A man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours
km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30 km/h
partly on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and
and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. The average
partly on bicycle at the rate of 9 km per hour. Find
speed of the tourist in km/h during his entire
the distance travelled on foot.
journey is
Q.11 A train, 140 metres long, moves at the rate of
(A) 36 (B) 30
36kmph. How long will it take to pass a certain
(C) 24 (D) 18
telegraph pole? (The height of the pole is 2 m).
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (ME, CSE)]
Q.12 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains
Q.5 An automobile travels from city A to city B and
travelling at different constant speeds to
returns to city A by the same route. The
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of
speed of the vehicle during the onward and
the first train is 120 m and that of the second train
return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and
is 150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the
90 km/h respectively. What is the average speed
speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.
in km/h for the entire journey?
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0
(A) 72 (B) 73
(C) 12.0 (D) 22.0
(C) 74 (D) 75
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (IN Set – 1)] [GATE 2016 : IISC Banglore (IN)]
Q.6 If Arun rides his scooter at a speed of 20 kmph, Q.13 A train that is 280 metres long, travelling at a
then he reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60 seconds
and passes a man standing on the platform in 20 Q.19 Two trains start at the same time from Aligarh
seconds. What is the length of the platform in and Delhi and proceed towards each other at the
metres? rate of 16 km/hr and 21 km/hr respectively. When
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur they meet , it is found that one train has travelled
(EC Set - 1, ME Set - 1)] 60 km more than the other. The distance between
Q.14 From the time the front of a trains enters a the two stations is
platform, it takes 25 sec for the back of the train (A) 445 km (B) 444 km
to leave the platform, while train travelling at a (C) 440 km (D) 450 km
constant speed of 54 km/h. At the same speed, it Q.20 Trucks (10 m long) and cars (5 m long) go on a
takes 14 sec to pass a man running at 9 km/h in single lane bridge. There must be a gap of at least
the same direction as the train. What is the length 20 m after each truck and a gap of at least 15 m
of the train and that of the platform in meters after each car. Trucks and cars travel at a speed of
respectively? 36 km/h. If cars and trucks go alternately, what is
(A) 210 & 140 (B) 162.5 & 187.5 the maximum number of vehicles that can use the
(C) 245 & 130 (D) 175 & 200 bridge in one hour?
(A) 1440 (B)200
(C) 720 (D) 600
[GATE 2016 : IISC Banglore (EC Set - 1)]
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC, BT, PI Set – 1)]
Q.15 A train has 320 km to run. After going 1/5th of the
Q.21 Budhan covers a distance of 19 km in 2 hours by
distance, the engine breaks down and it can only
cycling one fourth of the time and walking the
run the remaining part of the journey at 3/4th of
rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as
the original speed. If it arrives 2hrs 40minlate,
before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the
what was its original speed?
same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2
(A) 24 km/hr (B) 32 km/hr
hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks
(C) 48 km/hr (D) 64 km/hr
is
Q.16 A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a deer. The
(A) 1 (B) 4
tiger takes 5 leaps per minute to the deer's 4. If
(C) 5 (D) 6
the tiger and the deer cover 8 meter and 5 meter
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (IN, CE Set – 2)
per leap respectively, what distance in meters
Q.22 A boat covers a certain distance downstream in 1
will the tiger have a run before it catches the
1
deer? hour, while it comes back in 1 hours. If the
2
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC Set – 2, ME SET - 1)] speed of the stream be 3 kmph, what is the speed
Q.17 If a man cycles at 10 km/h, then he arrives at a of the boat in still water?
certain place at 1:00 pm. If he cycles at 15 km/h, (A) 12 kmph (B) 13 kmph
he arrives at the same place at 11:00 am. At what (C) 15 kmph (D) None of these
speed must he cycle to get there at noon? Q.23 A motorboat, whose speed is 15 km/hr in still
(A) 11 km/h (B) 12 km/h water goes 30 km downstream and comes back in
(C) 13 km/h (D) 14 km/h a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the
Q.18 Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m tall. stream (in km/hr) is:
They are 100 m apart. A horizontal skywalk (A) 4 (B) 5
connects the floors at 70 m in both the towers. If (C) 6 (D) 10
a taut rope connects the top of tower A to the Q.24 The speed of a boat in still water is 10 km/hr. If it
bottom of tower B, at what distance (in meters) can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km
from tower A will the rope intersect the skywalk? upstream in the same time, the speed of the
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 1)] stream is:
GATE ACADEMY ® TSD, Work & Time 31
(A) 2 km/hr (B) 2.5 km/hr rate of 20 km/hr and 25km/hr respectively. When
(C) 3 km/hr (D) 4 km/hr they meet, it is found that one train has travelled
Q.25 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still water. If 80km more than the other. Find the distance
it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to between the two stations.
row downstream, then find the stream velocity in Q.7 Distance between A and B is 72 km. Two men
km per hour. started walking from A and B at the same time
towards each other. The person who started from
A travelled uniformly with average speed 4
(EC Set – 3, ME Set – 3)]
km/h. While the other man travelled with
Self Practice Questions : (SPQ’s) varying speed as follows: In first hour, his speed
was 2 km/h, in the second hour, it was 2.5 km/h.
Q.1 A bird flying 400 km covers the first 100km at the
in the third hour, it was 3 km/h, and so on. When
rate of 100km/hr, the second 100km at 200km/hr,
will they meet each other?
the third100km at the rate of 300km/hr and the
(A) 7h
last 100 km at the rate of 400km/hr. Determine the
average speed of the bird. (B) 10 h
Q.2 If Tushar goes from Delhi to Noida at a speed of (C) 35 km from A
30 km per hour and comes back at a speed of 70 (D) Midway between A & B
km per hour, then what is his average speed Read the data given below and answer the
during the entire journey? questions that follow.
Q.3 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. Two trains start from the opposite stations A and
Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 km B, 100 m apart at the same time. A bird flies from
away from where I live. Arun is farther away the faster train towards the slower one starting
then Ahmed but closer than Susan from where I at the same time. The velocities of the two trains
live. From the information provided here, what is and the bird are in G.P. the bird being the fastest.
one possible distance (in km) at which I live from The bird reaches the second train in 10 sec and
Arun’s place? then immediately flies back towards the faster
(A) 3.00 (B) 4.99 train. It continues this till the two trains meet
after 50/3 sec.
(C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
Q.8 What is the velocity of the slower train?
Q.4 A carriage driving in a fog passed a man who was
(A 1 m/sec (B) 2 m/sec
walking at the rate of 3 kmph in the same
direction, if he could see the carriage for 4 (C) 3 m/sec (D) 4 m/sec
minutes and if it was visible to him up to a Q.9 What is the velocity of the bird?
distance of 100 m then what was the speed of the (A) 6m/sec (B) 7 m/sec
carriage? (C) 8 m/sec (D) 9 m/sec
(A) 3.6 kmph (B) 4.5 kmph Q.10 After how many seconds from where the bird
(C) 3.5 kmph (D) None of these first started flying does the bird again reach the
Q.5 The distance between two cities A and B is 80km. faster train?
A motorcycle rider starts from A towards B at (A) 20/3 sec (B) 10 sec
7am at a speed of 10 km/hr. Another motorcyclist (C) 40/3 sec (D) 50/3 sec
starts from B towards A at 8am at a speed of Q.11 What will be the total distance travelled by
25km/hr. At what time will they cross each other? the bird till the two trains meet?
Q.6 Two trains start at the same time from two (A) 200/3 m (B) 100 m
stations and proceed towards each other at the (C) 400/3 m (D) 500/3 m
Q.12 In nuts & bolts factory, one machine produces Q.14 A man rows to a place 48 km distant and back in
only nuts at the rate of 100 nuts per minute & 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with the
needs to be cleaned for 5 min after production of stream in the same time as 3 km against the
every 1000 nuts. Another machine produces only stream. The rate of the stream is:
bolts at the rate of 75 bolts per minute & needs to (A) 1 km/hr (B) 1.5 km/hr
be cleaned for 10 min after production of every (C) 1.8 km/hr (D) 3.5 km/hr
1500 bolts. If both the machines start production
at the same time, what is the minimum duration
required for producing 9000 pairs of nuts &
bolts?
(A) 130 min (B) 135 min
(C) 170 min (D) 180 min
Q.13 Shyam went from Delhi to Shimla via
Chandigarh by car. The distance from Delhi to
Chandigarh is ¾ times the distance from
Chandigarh to Shimla. The average speed from
Delhi to Chandigarh was half as much more as
that from Chandigarh to Shimla. If the average
speed for entire journey was 49 km/hr, then what
was the average speed from Chandigarh to
Shimla?
(A) 39.2 km/hr (B) 63 km/hr
(C) 42 km/hr (D) None of these.
A Answer Keys

1. 12.5m/sec 2. 36 kmph 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. 10 km 7. 40 min 8. 55 min 9. 12 km 10. 16 km
11. 14 sec 12. A 13. 560 m 14. D 15. B
16. 800 m 17. B 18. 22.22 m 19. D 20. A
21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. 4 kmph

192
1. 2. 42 kmph 3. C 4. B 5. 10 am
kmph
6. 72 km 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A

7
Class Practice Questions : whereas his actual height is 150 cm. find the new
avg. height.
Q.1 The avg. weight of 4 students is 64 kg. When Tom
(A) 150 cm. (B) 152 cm.
joins the group, avg. weight of group increases by
(C) 152.5 cm. (D) 154 cm.
2 kg. Find Tom’s weight.
Q.7 The avg. wt. of 20 students in a class is 70 kg.
(A) 68 kg. (B) 70 kg.
Later it was discovered that weight of one of the
(C) 72 kg. (D) 74 kg.
student is 88 kg, it is wrongly spelt as 40 kg.
Q.2 6 friends has an average weight of 62 kg. One of
Weight of another student is 40 kg. it is wrongly
the student left the group having weight 52 kg.
spell as 68 kg. Find the new avg. weight.
Find new avg. weight.
(A) 68 kg. (B) 69 kg.
(A) 62 kg. (B) 64 kg.
(C) 70 kg. (D) 71 kg.
(C) 66 kg. (D) 68 kg.
Q.8 The avg. temp of a town in a week is 300C and the
Q.3 The avg. wt. of 5 students in a class is 65 kg. 2
temp from Monday to Thursday is 300C and
friends with an avg. wt. of 70 kg. Left the group.
Thursday to Sunday is 400C. find temp on
Find the new avg. weight.
Thursday (in degree Celsius).
(A) 61 kg. (B) 61.67 kg.
(A) 25 (B) 27
(C) 62 kg. (D) 64 kg.
(C) 30 (D) 32
Q.4 The avg. wt. of 10 students is 80 kg. 3 students
Q.9 If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4 : 5 and C : D = 6 : 7 then A
with an avg. wt. of 73 kg left the group. Find the
: B : C : D is.
new avg. wt. of class.
(A) 16 : 22 : 30 : 35 (B) 16 : 24 : 15 : 35
(A) 81 kg. (B) 82 kg.
(C) 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 (D) 18 : 24 : 30 : 35
(C) 83 kg. (D) 84 kg.
Q.10 Rs.1210 were divided among A, B, C so that A: B
Q.5 The avg. weight of 8 students in a class is found
= 5:4 and B : C = 9:10. then C gets
to be 53 kg. If one of the student need to be
replace by other student. Such that avg. weight of (A) Rs.340 (B) Rs.400
the class may increase by 2 kg. It the wt. of new (C) Rs.450 (D) Rs.475
student is 80 kg. Find the wt. of new student. Q.11 The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a
(A) 62 kg. (B) 64 kg. college is 7:8. If the percentage increase in the
(C) 66 kg. (D) 68 kg number of boys and girls be 20% and 10%
Q.6 The avg. height of 48 students in a class is found respectively. What will be the new ratio
to be 152 cm. later it was discovered that the (A) 8 : 9
height of one of the student in a class is 126 cm. (B) 17 : 18
(C) 21 : 22 (A) 400 kg (B) 560 kg

(D) Cannot be determined (C) 600 kg (D) 640 kg
Q.12 Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is Q.20 Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are
9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If
these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of
as water the third variety per kg will be:
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 3 (A) Rs. 169.50 (B) Rs. 170
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 2 (C) Rs. 175.50 (D) Rs.180
Q.13 85 kg of a mixture contains milk and water in the Q.21 The price of a wire made of a super alloy material
ratio 27 : 7. How much more water is to be added
is proportional to the square of its length. The
to get a new mixture containing milk and water price of 10 m length of wire is Rs. 1600. What
in the ratio 3 : 1?
would be the total price (in Rs.) of two wires of
(A) 5 lit. (B) 6.5 lit. lengths 4 m and 6 m?
(C) 7.25 lit. (D) 8 lit.
(A) 768 (B) 832
Q.14 The electricity bill of a certain establishment is
(C) 1440 (D) 1600
partly fixed and partly varies as the number of
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set-1, EC Set-1)]
units of electricity consumed. When in a certain
Q.22 In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to
month 540 units are consumed, the bill is Rs.1800.
gain 20% by selling the mixture at cost price?
In another month 620 units are consumed and the
Q.23 The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in
bill is Rs. 2040. In year another month 500 units
the ratio 4 : 3 and 2 : 3 respectively. In what ratio,
are consumed. The bill for that month would be :
the liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain
(A) Rs.1560 (B) Rs.1680
a new mixture in vessel C containing half milk
(C) Rs.1840 (D) Rs.1950
and half water?
Q.15 Zinc and copper are melted together in the ratio
9:11. What is the weight of melted mixture, if 28.8 Q.24 Two vessels A and B contain milk and water
kg of zinc has been consumed in it? mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2 respectively. Find
(A) 58 kg (B) 60 kg the ratio in which these mixture be mixed to get
(C) 64 kg (D) 70 kg
3
a new mixture containing 69 % milk, is:
13
Q.16 What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the
(A) 2 : 7 (B) 3 : 5
2
measure of which is ? (C) 5 : 2 (D) 5 : 7
7
(A) 16 : 56 (B) 14 : 56 Q.25 A container contains 40 litres of milk From this
(C) 15 : 56 (D) 16 : 72 containers 4 litres of milk was taken out and
Q.17 In what ratio must rice at Rs. 9.30 per kg be mixed replaced by water. This process was repeated
with rice at Rs. 10.80 per kg so that the mixture be further two times. How much milk is now
worth Rs. 10 per kg? contained by the container?
Q.18 In what ratio must tea at Rs. 62 per kg be mixed (A) 26.34 litres (B) 27.36 litres
with tea at Rs. 72 per kg so that the mixture must (C) 28 litres (D) 29.16 litres
be worth Rs. 64.50 per kg? [GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi]
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 Q.26 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 5 : 3 then filled with water. This operation is
Q.19 A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which performed three more times. The ratio of the
he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the
gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold
profit is: originally?
GATE ACADEMY ® Average & Ratio 35
(A) 18 litres (B) 24 litres Self Practice Questions :

(C) 32 litres (D) 42 litres
Q.1 The wt. of 4 students in a class is 48 kg, 52 kg, 60
Q.27 A and B start a business with capital of Rs. 20,000
kg, and 40 kg. Find the avg. weight of class.
and Rs. 10,000 respectively. They get the profit
(A) 45 kg. (B) 50 kg.
after one year in ratio?
(C) 55 kg. (D) 60 kg.
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2
Q.2 The avg. wt. of 37 students in a class is 42 kg.
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
When their teachers join the group, average wt.
Q.28 A start a business with Rs. 25,000. After 6 months
increases by 1 kg. Find the wt. of teacher.
B Joins A with 15,000. Find their profit sharing
ratio after 1 year. (A) 70 kg. (B) 74 kg.
(A) 7 : 3 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 76 kg. (D) 80 kg.
(C) 10 : 3 (D) 10 : 6 Q.3 The avg. wt. of 47 students in a class is 52 kg.

When their friend join the group, the avg. wt.
Q.29 A, B and C start a business. A invests 3 times as
increase by half kg.
much as B invest. B invest 2/3rd of what C invests.
At the end of the year, they get Rs. 6600 as a (A) 72 kg. (B) 74 kg.
profit. Find B’s share in the profit. (C) 76 kg. (D) 80 kg.
(A) 800 (B) 1000 Q.4 The avg. wt. of 5 students in a class is 62 kg. One
(C) 1200 (D) 1500 of the student need to be replaced by other
Q.30 The ratio of age of two students is 3 : 2. One is student. So that the avg. wt. of the class will
older to the other by 5 years. What is the age of increase by 2 kg. If the wt. of replaced student is
the Younger Student? 60 kg. Then, Find the wt. of new student.
(A) 2 years (B) 10 years (A) 62 kg. (B) 65 kg.
(C) 2 years (D) 15 years (C) 68 kg. (D) 70 kg.

Q.5 The avg. height of 39 girls in a class is found to be
Q.31 The ratio between Sumits and Prakash’s age at
158 cm. it was later discover that the height of one
present is 2 : 3. Sumit is 6 years younger than
of the girl is wrongly spelt as 151 cm. whereas her
Prakash. The ratio of Sumit’s age to Prakash’s age
actual height is 112 cm. Find the new avg. height
afters 6 years will be
of the class after correction.
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 2
(A) 156 cm. (B) 157 cm.
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 3 : 4
(C) 157.5 cm. (D) 162 cm.
Q.32 The ratio of the ages of two persons is 4 : 7 and
the age of one of then is greater than that of the Q.6 The avg. temp of a city is 200C on Monday, Thue
other by 30 years. The sum of their ages (in years) Wed, Thu and is 300C on Thu, Fri, Sat & Sun. the
is avg. temp of the city of the Whole Week is 250C.
find the temp of the city on Thursday (in degree
(A) 110 (B) 100
Celsius).
(C) 70 (D) 40
(A) 25 (B) 27
Q.33 Four years ago the ratio of the age of A & B was 2
(C) 30 (D) 32
: 3 and afters four years it will become 5 : 7. Find
their present age. Q.7 Two numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2. if 7 is added
(A) 36 yrs & 40 yrs to both, their ratio changes to 3 : 5. the greatest
number is :
(B) 32 yrs & 48 yrs
(A) 24 (B) 26
(C) 40 yrs & 56 yrs
(C) 28 (D) 32
(D) 36 yrs & 52 yrs
Q.8 Rs.366 are divided amongst A, B and C so that A Q.15 In what ratio must water be mixed with milk
1 costing Rs. 12 per litre to obtain a mixture worth
may get as much as B and C together, B may
2 of Rs. 8 per litre?
2 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
get as much as A and C together, then the
3
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
share of A is
Q.16 Two alloys A and B contain gold and copper in
(A) Rs.122 (B) Rs.129.60
the ratios of 2:3 and 3:7 by mass, respectively.
(C) Rs.146.60 (D) Rs.183 Equal masses of alloys A and B are melted to
Q.9 An amount of Rs.735 was divided between A, B make an alloy C. The ratio of gold to copper in
and C. If each of them had received Rs.25 less, alloy C is,
their shares would have been in the ratio of 1: 3:2. (A) 5 : 10 (B) 7 : 13
The money received by C was : (C) 6 : 11 (D) 9 : 13
(A) Rs.195 (B) Rs.200 Q.17 A container originally contains 10 litres of pure
(C) Rs.225 (D) Rs.245 spirit. From this container 1 litre of spirit is
Q.10 In a college, the ratio of the number of boys to replaced with 1 litre of water. Subsequently, 1
girls is 8: 5. If there are 160 girls, the total number litre of the mixture is again replaced with 1 litre
of students in the college is : of water and this process is repeated one more
(A) 100 (B) 250 time. How much spirit is now left in the
container?
(C) 260 (D) 416
(A) 7.58 litres (B) 7.84 litres
Q.11 The least whole number which when subtracted
(C) 7 litres (D) 7.29 litres
from both the terms of the ratio 6 : 7 gives a ratio
less than 16 : 21 is : Q.18 The ratio of the number of boys and girls who
participated in an examination is 4:3. The total
(A) 2 (B) 3
percentage of candidates who passed the
(C) 4 (D) 6
examination is 80 and the percentage of girls who
Q.12 Avg. of 11 observations was 20. It the avg. of 1st passed is 90. The percentage of boys who passed
six of them is 20. And that of last six is 15. Find is _______.
the 6th observation (in degree Celsius).
(A) 90.00 (B) 80.50
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 55.50 (D) 72.50
(C) 20 (D) 25 [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras]
4 Q.19 A and B start a business with capital of Rs.
Q.13 A and B together have Rs.1210. If of A amount
15 2,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 respectively. They get
2 Rs. 60,000 as a profit in the end of the year. Find
is equal to of B's amount. How much amount
5
the difference of A’s & B’s project.
does B have?
(A) 10,000 (B) 15,000
(A) Rs.460 (B) Rs.484
(C) 20,000 (D) 25,000
(C) Rs.550 (D) Rs.664
Q.20 A and B start a business with Rs. 30,000 & Rs.
Q.14 The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 20,000 respectively. After 4 month C joins them
2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. if both Type 1 and Type 2 with the capital of Rs. 10,000 & again after 4
mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the prices per kg months A takes away half of his capital. Find
of the mixed variety of rice is: their profit sharing ration at the end of the year.
(A) Rs. 18 (B) Rs. 18.50 (A) 12 : 8 : 5 (B) 15 : 10 : 8
(C) Rs. 19 (D) Rs. 19.50 (C) 15 : 12 : 4 (D) 8 : 6 : 3
GATE ACADEMY ® Average & Ratio 37
Q.21 The ratio of A’s, B,s & C,s capital is 3 : 5 : 2. It the Q.24 Three containers have their volumes in the ratio
ratio of their time is 1 : 2 : 3, then find their profit 3 : 4 : 5. They are full of mixtures of milk and
sharing ratio. water. The mixtures contains milk and water in
(A) 3 : 10 : 6 (B) 3 : 8 : 6 the ratio of (4 : 1), (3 : 1) and (5 : 2) respectively.
The contents of all these three containers are
(C) 2 : 5 : 8 (D) 3 : 5 : 2
poured into a fourth container. The ratio of milk
Q.22 The ratio of the age of Ram & Rahim 10 years
and water in the fourth container is:
ago was 1 : 3. The ratio of their age five years
hence will be 2 : 3. Then ratio of their present (A) 4 : 1 (B) 151 : 48
age is (C) 157 : 53 (D) 5 : 2
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 5 Q.25 At present, the ratio of the age of Maya and
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 2 : 5 chhaya is 6 : 5 and fifteen years from now, the

ratio will get changed to 9 : 8. Maya’s present age
1 1
Q.23 A invest th of the capital for th of the times B is
6 6
1 1 (A) 21 years (B) 24 years
invest rd of the capital for rd of the times and
3 3 (C) 30 years (D) 40 years
C invest rest of the capital for whole the time. Q.26 The ratio of the present age of Puneet and Appu
Find profit sharing ratio. is 2 : 3. After 3 years the ratio of their age will be
(A) 1 : 4 : 8 (B) 3 : 6 : 14 3 : 4. The present age of Puneet is
(C) 1 : 4 : 18 (D) 1 : 6 : 14 (A) 3 years (B) 6 years
(C) 9 years (D) 4 years
A Answer Keys

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. 8:7 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. 1:5 23. 7:5 24. A 25. D
26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. B
31. D 32. A 33. D

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A
16. B 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C
26. B
8
Class Practice Questions : (A) 5 : 6 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 4 : 5 (D) 2 : 3
Q.1 In the given figure angle Q is a right angle, PS :
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (EC)]
QS = 3 : 1, RT : QT = 5 : 2 and PU : UR = 1 : 1. If
Q.4 Following shape has equal length segments PR,
2
area of triangle QTS is 20 cm , then the area of PS, QS, TR and TQ are of equal length, what will
2
triangle PQR in cm is ______. be the angle θ ?
R P
θ
T Q
U T S R
(A) 36 (B) 108
(C) 72 (D) 45
P S Q
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (IN, CE-1)]
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (IN, ME-3, MT, PI)] Q.5 A window is made up of a square portion and an
Q.2 The area of an equilateral triangle is 3 . What is equilateral triangle portion above it. The base of
the perimeter of the triangle? the triangular portion coincides with the upper
(A) 2 (B) 4 side of the square. If the perimeter of the window
2
(C) 6 (D) 8 is 6 m, the area of the window in m is ______.
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CH, IN, MT)] (A) 1.43 (B) 2.06
Q.3 (C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CH, ME-2)]
Q.6 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two
thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is
3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice
its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of
the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?
Corners are cut from an equilateral triangle to
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE-1, CH, MT)]
produce a regular convex hexagon as shown in
the figure above. Q.7 A square has sides 5 cm smaller than the sides of
a second square. The area of the larger square is
The ratio of the area of the regular convex
four times the area of the smaller square. The side
hexagon to the area of original equilateral
of the larger square is ______ cm.
triangle is
GATE ACADEMY ® Geometry & Mensuration 39
(A) 15.10 (B) 8.50 dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 6 cm . If 60% of the wall

(C) 18.50 (D) 10.00 consists of bricks, the number of bricks used for
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CE-1)] the construction is _______ lakhs.
Q.8 Consider a square sheet of side 1 unit. In the first (A) 30 (B) 40
step, it is cut along the main diagonal to get two (C) 75 (D) 45
triangles. In the next step, one of the cut triangle [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CE-2)]
is revolved about its short edge to form solid
Q.12 Given a semicircle with O as the centre, as shown
cone. The volume of a resulting cone, in a cube
AC + CB
units is _________. in the figure, the ratio is _______. where
AB
2π
(A) (B) 3π AC , CB and AB are chords.
3
C
π 3π
(C) (D)
3 2
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (EC)]
Q.9 In the figure shown above, each inside square is
formed by joining the mid points of the sides of A O B
the next larger square. The area of the smallest (A) 3 (B) 3
square (shaded has shown in cm ) is 2
(C) 2 (D) 2
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EE)]
Q.13
M
10 cm
O N
10 cm
(A) 6.25 (B) 3.125
(C) 12.50 (D)1.5625
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay EE] In the above figure, O is the center of the circle
Q.10 We have 2 rectangular sheets of paper, M and N, and, M and N lie on the circle. The area of the
of Dimension 6 cm × 1cm each. Sheet M is rolled right triangle MON is 50 cm2 . What is the area of
to form an open cylinder by bringing short edges the circle in cm2?
of the sheet together. Sheet N is cut into equal (A) 2π (B) 50π
square patches and assembled to form largest (C) 100π (D) 75π
possible closed cube. Assuming the ends of the [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (ME-1)]
cylinder are closed, ratio of the volume of the Q.14
cylinder to that of the cube is _______.
9
(A) (B) 3π
π
π 3
(C) (D)
2 π
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (CS-1)] The ratio of the area of the inscribed circle to the
Q.11 A retaining wall with measurements area of the circumscribed circle of an equilateral
30 m × 12 m × 6 m was constructed with bricks of triangle is _______.
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/8 (A) π (b2 − a 2 ) − n(b − a) 2 

(C) 1/2 (D) 1/4
(B) π (b2 − a 2 ) + n(b − a)2 
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (ME-2)]
Q.15 Circle A is 4 cm in diameter, circle B is 5 cm in  n 
(C) π  (b 2 − a 2 ) − (b − a ) 2 
diameter. Circle C has its circumference equal to  4 
the sum of the circumferences of both A and B  n 
(D) π  (b 2 − a 2 ) + (b − a ) 2 
together. What will be the ratio of the area of  4 
circle C, with respect to the area of circle A and [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (CS, IT)]
circle B respectively? Q.18 A square pyramid has a base perimeter x and the
[ESE 2018] slant height is half of the perimeter. What is the
(A) 5.0625 and 1.84 lateral surface area of the pyramid?
(B) 3.875 and 1.84 (A) x 2 (B) 0.75 x 2
(C) 5.0625 and 3.24 (C) 0.50 x 2 (D) 0.25 x 2
(D) 3.875 and 3.24
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE-2, MT, PI)]
Q.16 Consider following diagram : AC is a diameter
Q.19 In the figure PQRS is a square. the shaded portion
of the large circle and AB = BC.
is formed by intersection of sectors of circle with
[ESE 2019]
radius equal to the side of square and center at S
A B and Q.
P Q
r r
S r R
D C The probability that any point picked randomly

within square falls in shaded area is
The ratio of areas of the large circle to the small 1 π
(A) (B) 4 −
circle of a square is 2 2
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 π π
(C) −1 (D)
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 2 4
Q.17 The figure below shows an annular right with [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (CE-2)]
outer and inner radii as b and a, respectively. The Q.20 For a regular polygon having 10 sides, the
annular space has been painted in the form of interior angle between the sides of the polygon,
blue colour circles touching the outer and inner in degree is
periphery of annular space. If maximum n (A) 324 (B) 216
number of circles can be painted, then the (C) 144 (D) 396
unpainted area available in annular space is [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (EE)]
___________. Q.21 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects
in the descending order of their volumes :
(i) a cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6
b
cm.
(ii) a cube of side 8 cm.
a
(iii) a cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height
7 cm.
(iv) a sphere of radius 7 cm.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) P
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) r q
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CH, IN, MT)] S
Q R
Q.22 A rectangle becomes a square when its length p
and breadth are reduced by 10m and 5 m (q + r ) qr
(A) (B)
respectively. During this process, the rectangle qr (q + r )
losses 650 m2 of area. What is the area of the (q + r )2
(C) (q 2 + r 2 ) (C)
original rectangle in square meters? qr
(A) 1125 (B) 2250 [GATE 2015 : Kanpur (CS-2, EE-2)]
(C) 2924 (D) 4500 Q.27 Consider two rectangular sheets, M and N of
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME-1)] identical dimensions of 6 × 4 cm each
Q.23 The perimeters of a circle, a square and an Folding operation (i) : The sheet is folded into half
equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the by joining the short edges of the current shape.
following statement is true? Folding operation (ii) : The sheet is folded into
half by joining the long edges of the current
(A) The circle has the largest area.
shape.
(B) The square has the largest area.
Folding operation (i) is carried out on sheet M 3
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area
times.
(D) All the three shapes have the same area Folding operation (ii) is carried out on sheet N 3
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME-2, PI)] times.
Q.24 A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is The ratio of perimeters of the final folded shape
bent into a square. The wire is cut into two pieces. of sheet N to the final folded shape of sheet M is.
The longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter
piece. The long and the short pieces are bent into (A) 3 : 2 (B) 7 : 5
(C) 13 : 7 (D) 5 : 13
a square and a circle, respectively. Which of the
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (IN, CE-1)]
following choices is closest to the sum of the areas
Q.28 In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided
enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?
in 4 equal parts, side QR is divided into 6 equal
parts and PR is divided into 8 equal parts. The
(A) 1096 (B) 1111
length of each sub-divided part in cm is an
(C) 1243 (D) 2486 integer. The minimum area of triangle PQR
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME-2, PI)] possible, in cm2, is
Q.25 Suresh wanted to lay a new carpet in his new (A) 18 (B) 144 3
mansion with an area of 70 × 55 sq.mts. However
(C) 48 3 (D) 24
an area of 550 sq.mts., had to be left out for flower [GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (CE-2)]
pots. If the cost of carpet is Rs.50 per sq.mts., how Q.29 Consider a square sheet of side 1 unit. The sheet
much money (in Rs.) will be spent by Suresh for is first folded along the main diagonal. This is
the carpet now? followed by a fold along its line of symmetry. The
(A) Rs.1,65,000 (B) Rs.2,75,000 (C) resulting folded shape is again folded along its
Rs.1,92,500 (D) Rs.1,27,500 line of symmetry. The area of each face of the final
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CE-2)] folded shape, in square units, equal to _______
Q.26 In a triangle PQR, PS is the angle bisector of ∠ (A) 1/8 (B) 1/16
QPR and ∠ QPS = 600. What is the length of PS? (C) 1/4 (D) 1/3
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (ME-2)]
Q.30 A polygon is convex if, for every pair of points P When the area of the triangle ADE is 20 cm2, the
and Q belonging to the polygon, the line segment area of the rectangle ABCD will be
PQ lies completely inside or on the polygon. (A) 60 cm2 (B) 80 cm2
(C) 100 cm 2 (D) 120 cm2
Which one of the following is NOT a convex
polygon?
Self Practice Questions :
(A) (B) Q.1 If the length of the diagonal AC of a square ABCD
is 5.2 cm, then the area of the square is :
(C) (D)
(A) 15.12 sq.cm (B) 13.52 sq.cm
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (CS-1)]
(C) 12.62 sq.cm (D) 10.00 sq.cm.
Q.31 If θ is the angle, in degree, between the longest
Q.2 The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’
diagonal of the cube and any one of the edges of
cm. Which of the following represents the
the cube, then cos θ =
area of the square (in sq. cm.) ?
1 1 a
(A) (B) (A) 2a (B)
3 2 2
1 3 (C) a /2
2 (D) a /4
2
(C) (D)
2 2 Q.3 The diagonal of a square is 4 2 cm. The
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (CS-2)] diagonal of another square whose area is
Q.32 A wall, rectangular in shape, has a perimeter of double that of the first square is :
72 m. If the length of its diagonal is 18 m, what is (A) 8 2 cm (B) 16 cm
the area of the wall? [ESE 2018] (C) 32 cm (D) 8 cm
2
(A) 224 m (B) 486 m 2
Q.4 The diagonal of a square A is (a+b). The
(C) 572 m2 (D) 606 m2 diagonal of a square whose area is twice the
Q.33 Consider the length of a room is 15 m and width area of square A, is
is 10 m. If the sum of the areas of the floor and (A) 2 (a+b) (B) 2 (a+b)2
ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of the four (C) 2 (a+b) (D) 2 (a-b)
walls, then volume of the room is Q.5 The difference of the areas of two squares
[ESE 2018] drawn on two line segments of different
3 lengths is 32 sq.cm. Find the length of the
(A) 900 m (B) 1000 m3
greater line segment if one is longer than
(C) 1200 m3 (D) 1500 m3
the other by 2 cm.
Q.34 In two concentric circles, a chord length 80 cm of
(A) 7 cm (B) 9 cm
larger circle becomes a tangent to the smaller
(C) 11 cm (D) 16 cm
circle whose radius is 9 cm. The radius of the
Q.6 If the diagonals of two squares are in the
larger circle will be [ESE 2019]
ratio of 2 : 5, their area will be in the ratio
(A) 13 cm (B) 41 cm
of
(C) 52 cm (D) 75 cm
(A) 2: 5 (B) 2 : 5
1
Q.35 Consider the rectangle ABCD with DE = DC in (C) 4 : 25 (D) 4 : 5
3
Q.7 The perimeter of five squares are 24 cm, 32
the figure : [ESE 2020]
cm, 40 cm, 76 cm and 80 cm respectively.
A B The perimeter of another square equal in
area to sum of the areas of these squares is:
(A) 31 cm (B) 62 cm
D C (C) 124 cm (D) 961 cm

E
Q.8 The ratio of the area of a square to that of (A) 540 cm2 (B) 1080 cm2
the square drawn on its diagonal is : (C) 2160 cm2 (D) 4320 cm2
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 Q.16 A took 15 sec. to cross a rectangular field
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4 diagonally walking at the rate of 52 m/min.
Q.9 From four corners of a square sheet of side and B took the same time to cross the same
4 cm, four pieces, each in the shape of arc field along its sides walking at the rate of 68
of a circle with radius 2 cm, are cut out. The m/min. The area of the field is :
area of the remaining portion is : (A) 30 m2 (B) 40 m2
(A) (8– π) sq.cm. (B) (16–4π) sq.cm. (C) 50 m2 (D) 60 m2
(C) (16–8 π) sq.cm. (D) (4–2 π)sq.cm. Q.17 The difference between the length and breadth of
Q.10 The length of diagonal of a square is 15 2 a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then
cm. Its area is its area is
(A) 112.5 cm2 (B) 450 cm2 (A) 1520 m2 (B) 2420 m2
225 2 (C) 2480 m 2 (D) 2520 m2
(C) cm2 (D) 225 cm2
2 Q.18 There is a rectangular tank of length 180 m
Q.11 A kite in the shape of a square with a and breadth 120 m in a circular field. If the
diagonal 32 cm attached to an equilateral area of the land portion of the field is 40000
triangle of the base 8 cm. Approximately m2, what is the radius of the field ? (Take
how much paper has been used tomake it? 22
π= )
(Use 3 = 1.732) 7
(A) 539.712 cm2 (B) 538.721 cm2 (A) 130 m (B) 135 m
(C) 540.712 cm2 (D) 539.217 cm2 (C) 140 m (D) 145 m
Q.12 The breadth of a rectangular hall is three- Q.19 The length of a rectangular hall is 5m more than
fourth of its length. If the area of the floor its breadth. The area of the hall is 750m2. The
is 768 sq. m., then the difference between length of the hall is :
the length and breadth of the hall is: (A) 15 m (B) 22.5 m
(A) 8 metres (B) 12 metres (C) 25 m (D) 30 m
(C) 24 metres (D) 32 metres Q.20 If the length and breadth of a rectangle are
Q.13 The length of a plot is five times its breadth. in the ratio 3 : 2 and its perimeter is 20 cm,
A playground measuring 245 square metres then the area of the rectangle (in cm2) is :
occupies half of the total area of the plot. (A) 24 (B) 48
What is the length of the plot? (C) 72 (D) 96
(A) 35 2 metres (B) 175 2 metres


(C) 490 metres (D) 5 2 metres
Q.14 The length of a rectangular garden is 12 metres
and its breadth is 5 metres. Find the length of the
diagonal of a square garden having the same area
as that of the rectangular garden :
(A) 2 30 m (B) 13 m
(C) 13 m (D) 8 15 m
Q.15 A circular wire of diameter 42 cm is folded
in the shape of a rectangle whose sides are
in the ratio 6 : 5 . Find the area enclosed by
22
the rectangle. (Take π = )
7
A Answer Keys

1. 280 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. 180 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. C
16. C 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. A
26. B 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. A
9
Class Practice Questions : Q.3 Following table gives data on tourists from
different countries visiting India in the year 2011.
Q.1 Mola taxi offers 3 rides pool, mini, prime. Table Country Number of Tourists
given for number of rides for past 4 months mola USA 2000
platform earns 1 $ per ride. %share of revenue
contributed by prime to total revenue of mola for England 3500
entire duration is [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras] Germany 1200
Months Italy 1100
Type
Jan Feb Mar Apr Japan 2400
Pool 170 320 215 190 Australia 2300
Mini 110 220 180 70
France 1000
Prime 75 180 120 90
Which two countries contributed to the one third
(A) 16.24 (B) 23.97
of the total number of tourists who visited India
(C) 38.74 (D) 25.86
in 2011? [GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CH)]
Q.2 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on
(A) USA and Japan
annual expenditure of a firm for two years – 2010
(B) USA and Australia
and 2011.
(C) England and France
Category 2010 2011
(D) Japan and Australia
Raw material 5200 6240
Q.4 An electric bus has onboard instruments that
Power & fuel 7000 9450 report the total electricity consumed since the
Salary & wages 9000 12600 start of the trip as well as the total distance
Plant & machinery 20000 25000 covered. During a single day of operation, the
bus travels on stretches M, N, O and P, in that
Advertising 50000 19500
order. The cumulative distance travelled and the
Research & 22000 26400
corresponding electricity consumption are
development
shown in the Table below :
In 2011, which of the following two categories
Cumulative Electricity
have registered increase by same percentage? Stretch
distance (km) used (kWh)
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
M 20 12
(B) Salary & wages and Advertising
(C) Power & fuel and Advertising N 45 25
(D) Raw material and Research & Development O 75 45
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CE)] P 100 57
The stretch where the electricity consumption per (A) 2005 (B) 2004
km is minimum is (C) 2007 (D) 2006
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur, (EC-2, ME-2)] [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC Set-1, ME Set-1)]
(A) M (B) N
Q.7 The following graph represents the installed
(C) O (D) P
capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and
Q.5
the actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement
plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization
Sunday 65
55 of a plant is defined as ratio of actual production
of cement to installed capacity. A plant with
Saturday 50
60 installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a
large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is
Friday 35
20 called a small plant. The difference between total
production of large plants and small plants, in
Thursday 55
60 tonnes is ______. [GATE 2016 : IISc
Bangalore EE - 2]
Wednesday 50 300 Installed Capacity Actual Production
60
250
250 230
Tuesday 65 220
200 200
55 190 190 190
Capacity/Production (tonnes)
200
180
160 150 160 160 150
Monday 70 150 140
45 120
100
120
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 100
Y X 50
The number of minutes spent by two Students, X

0
and Y, exercising every day in a given week are 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
shown in the bar chart above. Plant Number
The number of days in a given week in which one Q.8 The following figure shows the data of students
of the student spent a minimum of 10% more enrolled in 5 years (2014 to 2018) for two schools
than the other student, on a given day, is P and Q. During this period, the ratio of the
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (EC)] average number of the students enrolled in
(A) 5 (B) 4 school P to the average of the difference of the
(C) 7 (D) 6 number of students enrolled in schools P and Q
Q.6 The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a is [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EC)]
country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the School P
following bar chart. If the trade deficit is defined
School Q
as excess of imports over exports, in which year
Number of students (in thousands)
8
is the trade deficit l/5th of the exports? 7
120 6
110 Exports Imports 5
100 4
3
90
2
80 1
70 Year
2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
60
50 (A) 31 : 23 (B) 23 : 8
40
(C) 23 : 31 (D) 8 : 23
30
20 Q.9 The revenue and expenditure of four different
10 companies P. Q, R and S in 2015 are shown in the
0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 figure. If the revenue of company Q in 2015 was
GATE ACADEMY ® Data Interpretation 47
20% more than that in 2014 and company Q had 70

60
earned a profit of 10% on expenditure in 2014, 60
50 50
then its expenditure (in million rupees) in 2014 50
was ________. [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EE)] 40
Revenue and Expenditure (in million Rupees) of four companies
P, Q, R and S in 2015 30
55
Revenue Expenditure 20
50 10
Revenue/Expenditure (in million Rupees)
45 10 5 3
40 0
35 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
30 Pass Fail
25
(A) 53 and 48 (B) 55 and 53
20
15 (C) 55 and 48 (D) 60 and 50
10 Q.12 40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to
5
drunken driving. The number of degrees needed
0
Company P Company Q Company R Company S
to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is
(A) 34.1 (B) 35.1
(C) 33.7 (D) 32.7
(A) 120 (B) 144
Q.10 The profit shares of two companies P and Q are
(C) 160 (D) 212
shown in the figure. If the two companies have
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC, BT, PI Set – 1)]
invested a fixed and equal amount every year,
then the ratio of the total revenue of company P Q.13 The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the
to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013 – population of animals in a reserve forest.
2018 is ______.
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (CH, BT)]
70 Beetle Tiger
Company P
Re
60
d-
Company Q
an
t
Ele
50
Honey-bee
Profit percentage
pha
Mammal
40
nt
Insect
30
ard
20 Leop
Reptile
10 Moth
Bird Snake
Cr
0
oc
Bu
od
Hawk
Drongo
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

il
lbu
Year Butterfly
l
(A) 15 : 17 (B) 16 : 17
(C) 17 : 15 (D) 17 : 16 The correct conclusions from this information are
Q.11 The number of student passing or failing in an (i) Butterflies are birds.
exam for a particular subject is presented in the (ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red
bar chart above. Students who pass the in exam ants.
cannot appear for the exam again. Students who (iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or
fails the exam in the first attempt must appear for crocodiles.
the exam in the following year. Students always
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this
pass the exam in their second attempt. The
forest.
number of students who took the exam for the
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-3, ME-3)]
first time in the year 2nd and the year 3rd
(A) (i) and (ii) only
respectively are ______.
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay (EE)] (B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only Q.16 The pie chart below has the breakup of the
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only number of students from different departments
Q.14 The total exports and revenues from the exports in an engineering college for the year 2012. The
of a country are given in the pie charts below. The proportion of male to female students in each
pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each
department is 5 : 4. There are 40 males in
item as a percentage of the total quantity of
Electrical Engineering. What is the difference
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the
percentage of the total revenue generated between the number of female students in the
through export of each item. The total quantity of Civil department and the female students in the
exports of all the items is 5 lakh tons and the total Mechanical department?
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio [GATE 2015 IIT Kanpur (CS-1, EE-1)]
of the revenue generated through export of item
1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through
export of the item 4 per kilogram?
Electrical
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE-2, IN, PI)] 20% Computer
Exports Revenues
Science
Mechanical 40%
Item 1 Item 1
Item 6
11%
Item 6
12% 10%
16% 16%
Item 5
Item 2 Item 2 Civil
20% Item 5 20%
12% 20%
30%
Item 4 Item 3 Item 3

19% Item 4 23%
22% 6%
Q.17 The two pie-charts given below. Show the data of
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 total students and only girls registered in
(C) 1:4 (D) 4:1 different streams in a university. If the total
Q.15 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in number of students registered in the university
2012. The following pie chart presents the share students is 5000, and the total number of the
of raw material, labour, energy plant and
registered girls is 1500; then the ratio of boys
machinery, and transportation costs in the total
enrolled in Arts to the girls enrolled in the
manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The
expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 450000. In Management is ______.
2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30% [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (ME-2, PI)]
Percentage of students enrolled Percentage of girls enrolled
and all other expenses increased by 20%. What is in different streams in a University in different streams
the percentage increase in total cost for the
En 10
company in 2013? 30%
Arts gin %
ee
Arts
20% rin 30%
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-4, ME-4)] Engineering
15% 20%
g
Management Man 15%
Commerce agem
ent
Tran 0%
15% 20%
25%
Commerce Science
Science
sport
1
Labour
15%
ation
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 9 : 22
(C) 11 : 9 (D) 22 : 9
Plant and Q.18 The monthly distribution of 9 Watt LED bulbs
Raw Material
machinery 30% sold by two firms X and Y from January to June
20%
2018 is shown in the pie-chart and the
corresponding table. If the total number of LED
Energy bulbs sold by two firms during April-June 2018 is
25%
50000, then the number of LED bulbs sold by the
firm Y during April-June 2018 is _________.
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (CE-2)]
The distribution of employees at the rank of

executives, across different companies C1, C2,
….., C6 is presented in the chart given above. The
ratio of executives with a management degree to
those without a management degree in each of
these companies is provided in the table above.
The total number of executives across all
companies is 10,000.
The total number of management degree holders
Ratio of LED bulbs
among the executives in companies C2 and C5
Month sold by two firms
together is _________ .
(X:Y)
[GATE 2021 : IIT Bombay ME-1]
January 7:8
(A) 2500 (B) 600
February 2:3 (C) 1900 (D) 225
March 2:1 Q.21 The bar graph in Panel (a) shows the proportion
April 3:2 of male and female illiterates in 2001 and 2011.
The proportions of males and females in 2001 and
May 1:4
2011 are given in Panel (b) and (c), respectively.
June 9:11
The total population did not change during this
(A) 8250 (B) 9750 period. The percentage increase in the total
(C) 8750 (D) 11250 numbers of literates from 2001 to 2011 is
Q.19 In a company P, Q, R, S, T categories of ___________.
employees’ work. In 2010, total number of
employees were 600. From 2010 to 2016 total
number of employees increased by 15%. In S
category number of employees were increased 2001
by 40% however, there is no change in number
2011
2011
of employees in P, Q and R categories. Calculate
number of T category employees in 2016?
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras]
Panel (a)
Q.20
C6
Company Ratio
C1
15% 20% C1 3:2
C5 C2
5% C2 1:4
20% C3 Panel (b) Panel (c)
8% C3 5:3 (A) 35.43 (B) 33.43
32%
C4 C4 2:3 (C) 30.43 (D) 34.33
C5 9:1 Q.22 The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a
journey while traveling at various speeds is
C6 3:4
indicated in the graph below.
120
Ratio of male to female students

3.5
(kilometres per litre)
90
Fuel consumption
3
60
2.5
30 2
1.5
0
0 15 30 45 60 75 90 1
Speed
(Kilometers per hour) 0.5
The distances covered during four laps of the
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
journey are listed in the table below :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
Average Speed
Distance (C) 1.5 : 1 (D) 2.5 : 1
Lap (Kilometers per
(Kilometers) Q.25 The data given in the following table summarizes
hour)
the monthly budget of an average household
P 15 15
Q 75 45 Category Amount (Rs.)
R 40 75 Food 4000
S 10 10 Clothing 1200
From the given data, we can conclude that the Rent 2000
fuel consumed per kilometers was least during
Savings 1500
the lap
Other expenses 1800
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (EC, EE, IN, MT)]
(A) P (B) Q The approximate percentage of the monthly
(C) R (D) S budget NOT spent on savings is
Q.23 The ratio of male to female students in a college (A) 10% (B) 14%
for five years is plotted in the following line (C) 81% (D) 86%
graph. If the number of female students doubled [GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (EC, EE)]
in 2009, by what percent did the number of male Q.26 A shaving set company sells 4 different types of
students increase in 2009? [CS-2, EE-2] razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive.
Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at
Ratio of male to female students
3.5 Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The

3 table below shows the numbers of each razor sold
in each quarter of a year.
2.5
Quarter/ Elegance Smooth Soft Executive
2
Product
1.5
Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
1
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
0.5
Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
Q.24 The ratio of male to female students in a college Which product contributes the greatest fraction
for five years is plotted in the following line to the revenue of the company in that year?
graph. If the number of female students in 2011 (A) Elegance (B) Executive
and 2012 is equal, what is the ratio of male (C) Smooth (D) Soft
students in 2012 to male students in 2011? [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CS-3, EE-3)] (CE Set – 1, CSE Set - 1)]
Q.27 The total runs scored by four cricketers P, Q, R, Q.30 The bar graph below shows the output of five
and S in years 2009 and 2010 are given in the carpenters over one month, each of whom made
following table : different items of furniture : chairs, tablet, and
Player 2009 2010 beds.
20
P 802 1008 Bed
18
Q 765 912 Table
Number of furniture items

16 Chair
R 429 619 14
S 501 701 12
10
The player with the lowest percentage increase in
8
total runs is
6
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (AE, AG, MN)]
4
(A) P (B) Q 2
(C) R (D) S 0
C1 C2 C3 C4 C5
Q.28 The statistics of runs scored in a series by four
Carpenter (C)
batsmen are provided in the following table. Who
Consider the following statements :
is the most consistent batsman of these four?
(i) The number of beds made by carpenter C2 is
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur, (EC-1, ME-1)]
exactly the same as the number of tables
Standard
Batsman Average made by carpenter C3.
deviation
(ii) The total number of chairs made by all
K 31.2 5.21 carpenters is less than total number of tables.
L 46.0 6.35 Which one of the following is true?
M 54.4 6.22 (A) Only I (B) Only II
N 17.9 5.90 (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I Nor II
(A) K (B) L [GATE 2017 IIT Roorkee (CE-1, CH)]
(C) M (D) N Q.31 The total revenue of a company during 2014-2018
is shown in the bar graph. If the total expenditure
Q.29 The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of a
of the company in each year is 500 million rupees,
country from the year 2000 to 2007 are given in
then the aggregated profit or loss (in percentage)
the following bar chart. In which year is the
on the total expenditure of the company during
combined percentage increase in imports and
2014-2018 is ________.
exports the highest?
120 [GATE 2020 IIT Delhi (CS, IT)]
110 Exports Imports 900
100 800
90
700
Revenue (in million rupees)
80
70 600
60 500
50
400
40
30 300
20 200
10 100
0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 0
2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set – 1, CSE Set - 3)] Year
(A) 20% profit (B) 20% loss Q.3 The number of Females passed out from RBI
(C) 16.67 % loss (D) 16.67% profit Exam is approximately what percent the total
Q.32 The total expenditure of a family, on different number of Females passed out from all the exams
activities in a month, is shown in the pie-chart. together?
The extra money spent on education as compared (A) 40 % (B) 30 %
to transport (in percent) is _______. (C) 50 % (D) 65 %
[GATE 2020 IIT Delhi (CE-1)] (E) 80 %
Q.4 What is the average number of students (Males
& Females) passed out from all the exams
together?
(A) 38000 (B) 48000
(C) 42000 (D) 51000
(E) None of these
Q.5 What is the respective ratio of the total number
(A) 100 (B) 50 of Males to the total number of Females passed
(C) 33.3 (D) 5 out from all the exams together?
Self Practice Questions : (A) 37:47 (B) 18:25
(C) 23:19 (D) 25:18
Directions (Q. 1 - 5) : Study the following graph carefully (E) None of these
to answer these questions. Number of students (Males Directions (Q.6 - 10) : Study the following table carefully
and Females) in thousands passed out from various and answer the questions given below.
exams in a year. Amount invested by six different companies during six
40
different months (in lakhs)
Number of students in thousands
35
30 Company
25 → A B C D E F
20 Month↓
15 January 25 28 50 32 24 35
10 February 45 40 60 55 28 38
5
March 52 38 46 72 83 65
0
IBPS SBI RBI SSC RRB April 80 45 70 90 65 76
Male Female May 15 20 47 25 13 30
Q.1 What is the difference between the total number June 62 95 27 80 50 20
of students passing out from IBPS Exam and the
total number of students passing out from RRB Q.6 What is the difference between the investment
Exam? made by company A and E together in March

and company B and D together in January (in
(A) 20,500 (B) 21,000
lakh)?
(C) 10,500 (D) 10,000
(A) 75 (B) 65
(E) None of these
(C) 50 (D) 85
Q.2 The number of Males passing out from IBPS
(E) None of these
Exam and SBI Exam together is what percent of
Q.7 What is the average of investment made by
the number of females passing out from RBI company C in May, D in February and E in
Exam and SSC Exam together? January (in lakhs)?
(A) 45 (B) 40 (A) 22 (B) 36
(C) 35 (D) 50 (C) 42 (D) 46
(E) None of these (E) None of these
Q.8 In which month was the investment made Q.12 The number of candidates recruited for
by companies maximum? Syndicate Bank in 2016 is approximately
(A) March (B) April what percentage of total candidates
recruited in that year?
(C) May (D) June
(A) 40% (B) 25%
(E) Other than given in the options
(C) 10% (D) 55%
Q.9 By what percent approximately is the
(E) 65%
investment made by company A in June
Q.13 The total number of candidates recruited for
less than that by company D in the same
Andra Bank in all the years is approximately
month?
what percent of the total candidates recruited in
(A) 23% (B) 12% 2015 in all banks?
(C) 35% (D) 42% (A) 60% (B) 40%
(E) 55% (C) 25% (D) 15%
Q.10 What was the average investment made by (E) 35%
company F during all the months (in Q.14 What is the ratio between the number of all
lakhs)? candidates selected in 2015 and selected
(A) 34 (B) 43 candidates of Canara Bank and UCO Bank
in all three years?
(C) 32 (D) 44
(A) 103 : 107 (B) 101 : 103
(E) 42
(C) 103 : 112 (D) 107 : 103
Directions (Q. 11 - 15): In the following graph, the
(E) 104 : 109
number of selected candidates for 6 different banks in
Q.15 The number of candidates recruited for Canara
three different years 2015, 2016 and 2017 has been shown.
Bank and Indian Bank in 2017 is approximately
Read the graph carefully and answer the questions.
what percent of the candidates recruited for UCO
260
UCO Bank Bank and Andra Bank by the 2017?
220
200 (A) 125% (B) 110%
350
Syndicate Bank (C) 135% (D) 140%
250
280 (E) 145%
290 Directions (Q.16 - 20): Study the following table carefully
Indian Bank 360
330 answer the questions given below:
130 Number of shirts of different prices bought over the
Canara bank 160
100 years.
70 Price Years
Bank of India 30
40 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
50 More than 50 106 2 30 25 75
Andra bank 10
80 5,00
0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 4,000-5000 105 1000 40 105 400 375
2017 2016 2015
3,000-3,999 70 100 80 115 200 240
Q.11 What is the respective ratio between the average
2,000-2,999 300 500 100 216 135 300
number of candidates selected in all banks in
1,000-1,999 140 370 200 225 175 470
2015 and 2017?
500-999 200 700 15 400 75 530
(A) 113 : 105 (B) 102 : 111
Less than 65 135 111 188 25 65
(C) 113 : 115 (D) 115 : 103
500
(E) 103 : 115
Q.16 In the price range of 1000 - 1999 the number of Q.18 What is the difference between the number
shirts bought in 2011 and 2016 together is of shirts bought in 2015 and 2016?
approximately what percent of the number of (A) 950 (B) 1080
shirts bought in 2013 and 2015 in the 2000 – 2999 (C) 1020 (D) 1210
price range?
(E) 1460
(A) 225 % (B) 260 %
Q.19 In which year maximum number of shirts
(C) 280 % (D) 245 % was bought?
(E) 200 % (A) 2012 (B) 2016
Q.17 What is the ratio between the number of shirts in
(C) 2014 (D) 2015
price range 4000 - 5000 bought in 2011 and 2015
(E) None of these
together and number of shirts in price range 1000
Q.20 In which price range maximum shirts were
- 1999 bought in 2012 and 2016 together?
bought in the given years taken together?
(A) 168 : 101 (B) 103 : 174
(A) 500 – 999 (B) 2000 - 2999
(C) 91 : 159 (D) 101 : 168
(C) 1000 – 1999 (D) 3000 - 3999
(E) None of these
(E) None of these

A Answer Keys

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D
120
6. D 7. 8. B 9. A 10. B
tonne
11. C 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. Rs.20000
16. 32 17. D 18. B 19. 60 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. 140% 24. C 25. D
26. D 27. B 28. A 29. 2006 30. C
31. A 32. B

1. E 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. D
11. E 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C
16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20 E

10
10.1 Direction & Distance Q.8 Minimum distance between Starting point &
Ending point?
Class Practice Questions : Q.9 Total distance covered by Kabir?
Q.10 At last Kabir is facing in which direction?
Directions for Questions 1 to 5
Q.11 Mr. Vivek walks 6 meters North-East, then turns
Kabir was going to Shopping mall. He started and walks 6 meters South-East, both at 60
walking 10m in East direction, from where he degrees to East. He further moves 2 meters
turns 90˚CW direction & walk for 6m, From South and 4 meters West. What is the straight
where he turns 90˚ACW & walk for 10m & again distance in meters between the point he started
he turns in that direction & covers the same from and the point he finally reached?
distance, Then he turns to his right & walk for (A) 2√2 (B) 2
10m, finally he walk for 4m before stopping
(C) √2 (D) 1/√2
towards his right.
[GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CE-2)]
Q.1 Ending Point is in which direction with respect
Q.12 Fatima starts from point P, goes North for 3 km
to Starting point?
and then East for 4 km to reach point Q. She
Q.2 Starting point is in which direction with respect
then turns to face point P and goes 15 km in that
to Ending point?
direction. She then goes North for 6 km. How
Q.3 Minimum distance between Starting point &
far is she from point P, and in which direction
Ending point?
should she go to reach point P?
Q.4 Total distance covered by kabir?
(A) 8 km, East (B) 12 km, North
Q.5 At last Kabir is facing in which direction?
(C) 6 km, East (D) 10 km, North
[GATE 2017 IIT-Roorkee (EC-2)]
Kabir was going to meet Priti. He started
Q.13 A person travelled by car 70 km towards north
walking 12m towards North direction, from
to A then covered 30 km turning left to B. Again
where he turns to his right & walk for 2m, from
he turned towards left and travelled 110 km to
where he again turns in that direction & walk
C. Then he cycled at the rate of 10 km/hour
for 4m, finally he walk for 8m before stopping
towards the starting point. The time taken by
towards his right.
him to reach the starting point from C will be
Q.6 Ending Point is in which direction with respect
(A) 3 hours (B) 5 hours
to Starting point?
(C) 7 hours (D) 21 hours
Q.7 Starting point is in which direction with respect
[ESE 2019]
to Ending point?
Q.14 A man walked 3 km towards East, then 5 km Q.19 There are five buildings called V, W, X, Y and Z
towards North-East, then 8 km towards South in a row (not necessarily in that order). V is to
and finally 5 km towards North-East direction. the West of W, Z is to the East of X and the West
The distance of his present location from the of V, W is to the West of Y. Which is the
starting point will be building in the middle?
(A) 9 km (B) 11 km (A) V (B) W
(C) 15 km (D) 21 km (C) X (D) Y
[ESE 2020] [GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee(CS-2, EE-2)]

Q.20 One day Sonu and Pinky was seating in a park
Q.15 On a planer field, you travelled 3 units East
on a bench, Facing each other. At that time
from a point O. Next you travelled 4 units South
sonu’s shadow was to the Right of Pinky.
to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in
North-East direction such that you arrive at a In which direction Pinky was facing?
point that is 6 units East of point O. Next, you (A) East (B) South
travelled in the North-West direction, so that (C) North (D) Either B or C
you arrive at point Q that is 8 units North of Q.21 One Evening Sonu and Pinky was seating in a
point P. The distance of point Q to point O, in park on a bench, After some time they started
same units, should be jogging. after crossing Each other Sonu’s
(A) 6 units (B) 4 units shadow was to the Left of Pinky. In which
direction Sonu is facing?
(C) 5 units (D) 3 units
(A) North (B) South
[GATE 2021 IIT-Bombay [AE, AR, BM, CE-2, MN, PH)]
(C) Either A or B (D) None of these
Q.16 I am standing at the center of the circular field
Q.22 One Evening Sejal was seating on a Beach
from where I go down south to the edge of the
watching sunset and Harry was seeing her. In
circular field, From where I turn to left & walk
which Direction harry was Facing?
along with the boundary of the circle covering
(A) North (B) South
its three-eight, from where I turn to my WEST &
(C) Either A or B (D) None of these
walk right across to the end of the circle. In
which direction I am from Starting Point? Q.23 Ms. X came out of a building through its front
door to find her shadow due to the morning sun
(A) North-east (B) North-west
falling to her right side with the building to her
(C) South-east (D) South-west
back. From this, it can be inferred that building
Q.17 K is to the north of J and I is to the east of N, is facing
who is to the east of J and south east of K.M is to (A) North (B) East
the south of I and L is to the north of N. (C) West (D) South
L is in which direction with respect to M? [GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (ME – 1, XH)]
(A) East (B) North-East Q.24 The front door of Mr. X’s house faces East. Mr. X
(C) South-East (D) NOT leaves the house, walking 50 m straight from the
back door that is situated directly opposite to
Q.18 X is 1 km North-East of Y. Y is 1 km South-East
the front door. He then turns to his right, walks
of Z. W is 1 km West of Z. P is 1 km South of W.
for another 50 m and stops. The direction of the
Q is 1 km East of P. What is the distance
point Mr. X is now located at with respect to the
between X and Q in km.
starting point is
(A) 1 (B) √𝟐
(A) North-West (B) North-East
(C) √3 (D) 2
(C) South-East (D) West
[GATE 2014 : IIT-Kharagpur (CE-2, IN, PI)]
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (ME – 1, MT)]
GATE ACADEMY ® Analytical Aptitude 57
Self Practice Questions : (A) East (B) West
Q.1 P is 6 km to the south of R. T is 4 km to the east (C) North (D) South

of P. Q is 10 km to the south-west of R. S is 3 km Q.8 In the evening after sunset, Mitu and Abhi were
to the south of T. In which direction is R with talking to each other standing in front of each
respect to S? other. If the shadow of Mitu falls to the right of
(A) North-East (B) South-West Abhi, then in which direction is Mitu’s face?
(C) North-West (D) South-East (A) East (B) West
Q.2 From point A, Mohan walks 20 m in the north. (C) North (D) South
Then turns to his right and walks 20 m to reach
Q.9 In the evening after sunset, Mitu and Abhi were
point B. In which direction is point B with
talking to each other standing in front of each
respect to point A?
other. If the shadow of Mitu falls to the right of
(A) North-East (B) South-West
Abhi, then in which direction is Abhi’s face?
(C) North-West (D) South-East
(A) East (B) West
Q.3 From point A, Mohan walks 20 m in the north.
(C) North (D) South
Then turns to his right and walks 20 m to reach
point B. Find the shortest distance between A Q.10 Anjana is facing South. She walks 9 km and
and B. reaches point Z and then after taking a right
(A) 5√2 m (B) 10√2 m turn she walks 12 km to reach point Y. Finally
she turns to the North and walks 4 km to reach
(C) 20√2 m (D) 20√5 m
point E. In which direction is point Z with
Q.4 Megha started walking from point A and walk
respect to point E?
15 km towards east and stops at point B. Now,
she turns 90 to her left and walks 12 km to (A) North-East (B) South-West
reach a point C. In which direction is point A (C) North-West (D) South-East
with respect to point C? Q.11 Anjana is facing South. She walks 9 km and
(A) North-East (B) South-West reaches point Z and then after taking a right
(C) North-West (D) South-East turn she walks 12 km to reach point Y. Finally
Q.5 Sharmila walks 100 m to the north direction she turns to the North and walks 4 km to reach
from her house. Then she walks 40m to the point E. Find the shortest distance between
south. Now she turns to her right and walks point Y and her starting point.
80m. In which direction is she now with respect (A) 10 m (B) 15 m
to her house?
(C) 5 m (D) 17 m
Q.12 Anjana is facing South. She walks 9 km and
reaches point Z and then after taking a right
Q.6 Sharmila walks 100 m to the north direction
turn she walks 12 km to reach point Y. Finally
from her house. Then she walks 40m to the
she turns to the North and walks 4 km to reach
south. Now she turns to her right and walks
point E. In which direction is point E with
80m. Find the distance between her initial and
respect to the starting point?
final point.
(A) 60m (B) 40m
(C) 80m (D) 100m
Q.7 In the morning after sunrise, Sita and Gita were Q.13 Amrita starts walking from Market towards her
talking to each other standing in front of each house. She walks 10 m towards east to reach Bus
other. If the shadow of Sita falls to the left of stand and then turns to her left and walks 15 m
Gita, then in which direction is Gita’s face? to reach a shop. She buys Lays and then turns to
her right and walks 25 m to reach her house. In Q.8 Find the angle between minute hand & Hour
which direction is her house with respect to Hand at 04:12.
market? Q.9 At what time between 6 am and 7 am will the
(A) North-East (B) South-West minute hand and hour hand of a clock make an
(C) North-West (D) South-East angle closest to 600?
Q.14 Amrita starts walking from Market towards her (A) 6:22 am (B) 6.27 am
house. She walks 10 m towards east to reach Bus (C) 6:38 am (D) 6:45 am
stand and then turns to her left and walks 15 m [GATE 2014 : IIT KHA (CS-2, EE-2)]
to reach a shop. She buys Lays and then turns to Q.10 It is quarter past three in your watch. The angle
her right and walks 25 m to reach her house. In
between the hour hand and the minute hand is
which direction is the nus stand with respect to ______.
Amrita’s house?
(A) 22.50 (B) 150
(C) 7.50 (D) 00
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EC)]
Q.15 Aditi is facing south. She turns to her left and
Q.11 Find the time between 4 to 5 at which minute
walks 25 m and now tales a right turn and walks
hand & hour hand will coincide?
5 m to reach point L. Now she turns to her right
OR
and walks 10 m and thus reaches point K. Find
the shortest distance between point K and At what time between 4 to 5 distance between
starting point. minute hand & hour hand will 00?
(A) 23√2 m (B) 10√23 m Q.12 Find the time between 4 to 5 at which minute
hand & hour hand will Opposite to each other?
(C) √230 m (D) √250 m
OR
10.2 Clock
At what time between 4 to 5 distance/Angle
between minute hand & hour hand will 1800?
Class Practice Questions :
Q.1 Find the Distance covered by minute hand in
hand & hour hand will make straight line?
2hr 46m.
Q.2 If minute hand travels for 3 hour 33 minute then
hand & hour hand will make Right Angle?
what will be the distance covered by hour hand.
OR
Q.3 If minute hand covers the distance of 1158˚ Then
At what time between 4 to 5 distance/Angle
find the time for which hour hand runs for.
between minute hand & hour hand will 90˚?
Q.4 What will be the angle made by minute hand in
Q.15 A watch uniformly gains 5 min per hour. It was
40 sec?
set right on 6 am Monday.
Q.5 What will be the angle made by Minute hand in
What time it will show on 7 pm of same day?
1 minute 15 second?
Q.16 A watch loses 5 min every hour and was set
Q.6 If the actual time is 11:30 and when we move
right at 6 am on a Monday. When will it show
minute hand towards clockwise direction of 135˚
the correct time again?
angle. Then what will be time in clock?
Q.17 A clock gain 1 hour in each 24 hour. If clock
Q.7 If we move the hour hand of a clock towards
shows correct time on Sunday 9 am then what is
clockwise direction by 85˚ angle which is
the correct time, when clock shows 11:00 am
showing 4 am, then what will be the time in
Tuesday?
clock.
Q.18 A clock gain 10 minute per hour. At 03:00 am Q.3 How many times in a day, do the hands of a
Monday it set right, after few days when it was clock coincide with each other?
checked it was showing 03:00 am Wednesday, (A) 11 (B) 48
what is the correct time? (C) 22 (D) 24
Q.19 A watch which gains uniformly, was observed Q.4 The hour hand takes _ fill rounds of a clock in a
to be 5 min slow at 12:00 noon on Monday. It day.
was noticed 10 min fast at 6 pm on the next day. (A) 12 (B) 2
When did the watch show the correct time? (C) 24 (D) 4
Q.5 If mirror shows 1:13 in a clock, then what will be
Q.20 A wall clock gains 5 min per hour while a table
actual timing?
clock looses 10 min per hour. They both set right
(A) 10:43 (B) 10:57
at 10:00 am on Sunday, when both of the clock
(C) 10:53 (D) 10:47
will show the same time again?
Q.6 What time is shown in the mirror if real time is
Q.21 A wall clock gains 02 min per 12 hour while a
8:45?
table clock looses 02 min per 36 hour.
(A) 2:15 (B) 3:15
They both set right at 12:00 am on Monday, (C) 6:25 (D) 7:15
when both of the clock will show the same time Q.7 What time is shown in the mirror if real time is
again? 1:47?
Q.22 A faulty wall clock is known to gain 15 minutes (A) 10:13 (B) 11:13
every 24 hours. It is synchronized to the correct (C) 12:13 (D) 2:13
time at 9 AM on 11th July. What will be the Q.8 Time shown in a clock is 3:13, what time will
correct time to the nearest minute when the appear in the water?
clock shows 2 PM on 15th July of the same year? (A) 1:13 (B) 2:17
(A) 12:45 PM (B) 12:58 PM (C) 2:13 (D) 3:17
Q.9 What angle is made by minute hand in 30
(C) 1:00 PM (D) 2:00 PM
seconds?
[GATE 2021 : IIT Guwahati (CE-2)]
(A) 3° (B) 29°
Q.23 Two and a quarter hours back, when seen in a (C) 30° (D) 2.9°
mirror, the reflection of a wall clock without Q.10 What will be the water image of 7:45?
number markings seemed to show 1:30. What is (A) 10:45 (B) 4:15
the actual current time shown by the clock? (C) 9:45 (D) 3:15
(A) 8 : 15 (B) 11 : 15 Counting of Figure
(C) 12 : 15 (D) 12 : 45 Q.1 How many Triangles are there in the figure?
[GATE 2016 : IISc-Banglore (EC-2, ME-3)]

Q.1 What is the angle between the hour hand and
the minute hand at 6:30 PM?
(A) 325° (B) 330°
(C) 345° (D) 315°
Q.2 What is the angle between the hour hand and
the minute hand at 2:45 AM?
(A) 227.5° (B) 127.5° (A) 33 (B) 59
(C) 172.5° (D) 272.5° (C) 71 (D) 61
Q.2 How many Triangles are there in the figure? (A) P is the son-in-law of M.
(B) P is the grandchild of M.
(C) P is the daughter-in law of M.
(D) P is the grandfather of M.
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EC-3, IN)]
Q.2 Each of P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z has been
married at most once. X and Y married and have
two children P and Q, Z is grandfather of the
(A) 16 (B) 27
daughter ‘S’ of P. Further Z and W married and
(C) 32 (D) 30
are parents of R. Which one of the following
Q.3 How many Quadrilateral are there in the figure?
must necessarily be FALSE?
(A) X is the mother-in-law to R
(B) P and R are not married to each other
(C) P is son of X and Y
(D) Q cannot be married to R
[GATE 2016 : IIT Roorkee (EC-2)]
(A) 70 (B) 100 Q.3 P, Q, R, S and T are related and belong to the
(C) 30 (D) 40 same family. P is the brother of S. Q is the wife
Q.4 In a 2×4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is of P, R and T are the children of the siblings P
a rectangle. How many rectangles can be and S respectively. Which one of the following
observed in the grid? statements is necessarily FALSE?
(A) S is the sister-in-law of Q
(B) S is the aunt of R
(C) S is the brother of P
(A) 21 (B) 27 (D) S is the aunt of T
(C) 30 (D) 36 [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CE-1)]
[GATE 2016 : IISc-Banglore (CS-2, EE-1)] Q.4 M and N had four children (P, Q, R and S) of
Q.5 How many Triangles are there in the figure? them, only P and R are married. They had
children X and Y respectively. If Y is the
legitimate child of W, which one of the
following statement is necessarily FALSE?
(A) W is the wife of P
(B) W is the wife of R
(C) M is the grandmother of Y
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10 (D) R is the father of Y
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (ME-1)]
10.3 Blood Relation
Q.5 Pointing towards a Man a woman said ‘he is the
Class Practice Questions : only son of my mother’s mother, How is the
woman related to the man?
Q.1 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no
other children. E is the mother of P and (A) Mother (B) Aunt
daughter-in-law of M. How is P related to M? (C) Cousin (D) Niece

Q.6 Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman Self Practice Questions :

says, He is the father-in-law of the wife of only
Q.1 Arshi is mother of Rekha. Sunita is sister-in-law
grandson of my own father-in-law.
of Rekha. Tapan is maternal grandfather of
How is woman related to man?
Girish. Anuj is son of Puneet. If Arshi is mother
(A) Son (B) Wife
of a son and a daughter, then how is Anuj
(C) Cousin (D) Nephew related to Sunita?
Q.7 Pointing towards Neha, Samar said ‘I am the
(A) Brother (B) Husband
only son of her mother’s son.’
(C) Father (D) Son
How is Neha related to Samar?
Q.2 Arshi is mother of Rekha. Sunita is sister-in-law
(A) Aunt (B) Niece
of Rekha. Tapan is maternal grandfather of
(C) Mother (D) Cousin
Girish. Anuj is son of Puneet. If Arshi is mother
Q.8 These questions are based on the following
of a son and a daughter, then how is Tapan
information.
related to Anuj?
‘X @ Y’ Means ‘X is the mother of Y’
(A) Father (B) Father-in-law
‘X $ Y’ Means ‘X is the husband of Y’
(C) Brother-in-law (D) Son-in-law
‘X # Y’ Means ‘X is the sister of Y’
Q.3 Mohan is son of Akash. Manchun is father-in-
‘X * Y’ Means ‘X is the son of Y’
law of Akash. Kamla is daughter-in-law of
M * H @ D * K, in this what is relation of K with
Paravati who is married to grandfather of
M?
Mohan. How is Kamla related to Anil, if Anil is
(A) Mother (B) Father
Mohan’s paternal uncle?
(C) Father-in-law (D) Sister
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Sister
Q.9 These questions are based on the following
information. (C) Brother (D) Brother-in-law
‘X @ Y’ Means ‘X is the mother of Y’ Q.4 Pointing to photograph of a man Kalika said,

‘X $ Y’ Means ‘X is the husband of Y’ “He is the son of the only son of my daughter”.
‘X # Y’ Means ‘X is the sister of Y’ How is Kalika related to that man?
‘X * Y’ Means ‘X is the son of Y’ (A) Mother (B) Grandmother

Which of the following indicates the relationship (C) Great grandmother (D) None of these
‘R’ is the daughter of T’? Q.5 Introducing to a girl a boy said, “She is the
(A) R # F * B @ T (B) R # F * B $ T daughter of the father of my maternal aunt”.
(C) T @ B # R * F (D) T @ B # F * R How is the girl related to the boy?
Q.10 These questions are based on the following (A) Mother (B) Cousin
information. (C) Sister (D) Paternal Aunt
‘X @ Y’ Means ‘X is the mother of Y’ Q.6 In a family, there are six members – P, Q, R, S, T
‘X $ Y’ Means ‘X is the husband of Y’ and U. There are two married couple in the
‘X # Y’ Means ‘X is the sister of Y’ family and the number of male in the family is
‘X * Y’ Means ‘X is the son of Y’ equal to the number of female. Q is daughter of
If F # J * T $ R @ L, then which of the following the son of T. R is son-in-law of S. U is father-in-
is definitely true? law of P. How is T related to S?
(A) L is the brother of F. (A) Mother (B) Sister
(B) F is the sister of L. (C) Mother-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
(C) F is the brother of J. Q.7 In a family, there are six members – P, Q, R, S, T
(D) L is the brother of J. and U. There are two married couple in the
family and the number of male in the family is Which of the following could mean ‘aftercare’?
equal to the number of female. Q is daughter of (A) Zentaga (B) Tagafer
the son of T. R is son-in-law of S. U is father-in- (C) Tagazen (D) Relffer
law of P. Who among the following is father of [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE-1, CS-1)]
S? Q.4 In a certain code,
(A) P (B) U AMCF is written as EQGJ and
(C) R (D) None of these NKUF is written as ROYJ.
Q.8 In a family, there are six members – P, Q, R, S, T How will DHLP be written in that code?
and U. There are two married couple in the
(A) RSTN (B) TLPH
family and the number of male in the family is
(C) HLPT (D) XSVR
equal to the number of female. Q is daughter of
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EE)]
the son of T. R is son-in-law of S. U is father-in-
Q.5 If E = 10; J = 20; O = 30; T = 40 , what will be P +
law of P. How is R related to P?
E+S+T?
(A) Son-in-law (B) Father-in-law
(A) 51 (B) 120
(C) Son (D) Father
(C) 82 (D) 164
Q.9 In a family, there is one father, two daughters,
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CE-1)]
three sisters, one mother, one brother and a
Q.6 If IMHO = JNIP, IDK = JEL and SO = TP then
husband, then how many members are there in
the family? IDC = ______.
(A) 9 (B) 8 (A) JDE (B) JED
(C) 7 (D) 6 (C) JCE (D) JEC
Q.10 G is mother of H who is sister of K. L is son of D [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (ME-2)]
and husband of P. If D is married to K, then how Q.7 P, Q, R and S are to be uniquely coded using α
is P related to K? and β. If P is coded as αα and Q as αβ, then R
(A) Daughter (B) Son and S respectively, can be coded as..
(C) Daughter-in-law (D) Son-in-law (A) βα and ββ (B) αβ and ββ

(C) ββ and αα (D) βα and αβ
10.4 Coding-Decoding
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (IN, ME-1, MT)]
Class Practice Questions : Q.8 If P = 3, R = 27, T = 243, then Q + S = ?

(A) 40 (B) 110
Q.1 If “KCLFTSB” stands for “best of luck” and
(C) 90 (D) 80
“SHSWDG” stands for “good wishes”, which of
the following indicates “ace the exam”? [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (CS, IT)]
(A) MCHTX (B) MXHTC Q.9 If 0, 1, 2…… 7, 8, 9 are coded as O, P, Q,….., V,

W, X then 4,5 will be coded as..
(C) XMHCT (D) XMHTC
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-4, ME-4)] (A) SU (B) ST
Q.2 If ROAD is written as URDG, then SWAN (C) SS (D) TS
should be written as.. [GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (CE-1)]
(A) VXDQ (B) VZDQ Letters Series

(C) VZDP (D) UXDQ Q.10 Given the sequence of terms, AD, CG, FK, JP,
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC-4, ME-4)] the next term is
Q.3 If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, (A) OV (B) OW
‘otaga’ means careful and (C) PV (D) PW
‘fertaga’ means careless, [GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (CE, CH, CS, ME, PI)]
Q.11 Find the next term in the sequence : Q.4 A series is given with one term missing. Select
7G, 11K, 13M, ___ the correct alternative from the given ones that
(A) 15Q (B) 17Q will complete the series.
(C) 15P (D) 17P LMK, FGE, ZAY, TUS, ?
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-3, ME-3)] (A) BMQ (B) SRB
Q.12 Find the next term in the sequence : (C) LZD (D) NOM
13M, 17Q, 19S, ____ Q.5 A series is given with one term missing. Select
(A) 21W (B) 21V the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series.
(C) 23W (D) 23V
HVG, FTE, DRC, ?, ZNY
Q.13 Find the missing sequence in the letter series (A) CQB (B) AOZ
below: A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY (C) HRB (D) BPA
(A) LMN (B) MNO

Odd One Out
(C) MNOP (D) NOPQ
Q.16 Find the odd one from the following group :
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC-3, CH)]
Q.14 Find the missing sequence in the letter series. W, E, K, O I, Q, W, A
B, FH, LNP, __. F, N, T, X N, V, B, D
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW (A) W, E, K, O (B) I, Q, W, A
(C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ (C) F, N, T, X (D) N, V, B, D
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CH, ME-2)] [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-1, ME-1)]
Q.15 Select the next element of the series : Q.17 Find the odd one in the following group
Z, WV, RQP, ___ ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) LKJI (B) KJIH (A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB
(C) NMLK (D) JIHG (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (EE)] [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE-1, CH, MT)]
Self Practice Questions : Q.18 Find the odd one in the following group :
Q.1 Complete the series. Q, W, Z, B B, H, K, M
DO, EP, FQ, GR, ? W, C, G, J M, S, V, X
(A) IT (B) IR (A) Q, W, Z, B (B) B, H, K, M
(C) HT (D) HS (C) W, C, G, J (D) M, S, V, X
Q.2 Select the letter cluster that will replace the ‘?’ in [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-2, ME-2)]
the given series. Q.19 Pick the odd one from the following options.
BCA, FGE, ? NOM, RSQ, VWU (A) CADBE (B) JHKIL
(A) JIL (B) JIK (C) XVYWZ (D) ONPMQ
(C) JKI (D) IJK [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CS-2, EE-1)]
Q.3 Select the term that will replace the ‘?’ in the Q.20 Pick the odd one out in the following :
given series. 13, 23, 33, 43, 53
J, M, P ?, V, Y.
(A) 23 (B) 33
(A) T (B) R
(C) 43 (D) 53
(C) Q (D) S
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EE-2)]
Self Practice Questions : Number Series
Q.21 Fill in the missing number in the series.

Q.1 Find the ODD one out from the given options.
2 3 6 15 _____ 157.5 630
(A) G (B) J
(C) T (D) P
Q.22 What is the next number in the series?
Q.2 Four words are given below among which three
are similar in some respects. Find out the odd 12 35 81 173 357 ____
one which is different from the rest. [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-1, ME-1)]
(A) Onion (B) Banana Q.23 The next term in the series is 81, 54, 36, 24___?
(C) Carrot (D) Potato [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EC-3, ME-3)]
Q.3 Find the odd one out. Q.24 What is the missing number in the following
(A) CX (B) DW sequence?
(C) IR (D) ST 2, 12, 60, 240, 720, 1440, _____, 0
Q.4 Four pairs of words are given below out of (A) 2880 (B) 1440
which three are alike in some manner and one is (C) 720 (D) 0
different. [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CS, MN)]
Which is different from the rest? Q.25 The missing number in the given sequence
(A) FL – UO (B) BD – YW 343, 1331, _______, 4913 is
(C) MK – NP (D) ER - VJ
(A) 4096 (B) 2744
Q.5 Find the odd one out.
(C) 2197 (D) 3375
(A) W23 (B) G7
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EE)]
(C) H18 (D) N14
Q.26 Fill in the missing value
Q.6 Four pairs are given below out of which three
6 5 4
are alike in some manner and one is different.
Which is different from the rest? 7 4 7 2 1
(A) MU - 34 (B) TY – 45 1 9 2 8 1 2 1
(C) LK – 23 (D) VF - 27 4 1 5 2 3
Q.7 Find the odd one out. 3 3
(A) BAL (B) FGT [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC-1, ME-1)]
(C) QEW (D) LPO Q.27 Find the missing element in the following figure
Q.8 Rearrange the jumbled letters to make a
5
meaningful word ant then select the one which t h
is different. n
? x
(A) GIANTLER (B) LECRIC 9
(C) MUBORSH (D) RASQUE
(A) e (B) y
Q.9 Find the odd one out.
(C) d (D) w
(A) NX (B) MW
[GATE 2020 : IIT Delhi (ME-2, PI)]
(C) BL (D) CN
Q.10 Find the odd one out. Self Practice Questions :
(A) RTVX (B) NPRT Q.1 Complete the series.
(C) FHJL (D) GILP 17, 23, 31, 37, 45, 51, 59, ?
(A) 82 (B) 64 Q.31 Which of the following may be the code for ‘Day
(C) 65 (D) 67 Was Good’ in the given code language?
Q.2 Find the missing number in the series. (A) su mu ku (B) da me mu
6, 8, 9, 12, ?, 18, 21 (C) su pe ma (D) ku pa da
(A) 14 (B) 15 Direction for Questions 32 and 36
(C) 13 (D) 16
In a certain code language
Q.3 Find the missing number in the series.
‘Indian banks are associates’ is written as ‘za pn
B-25, ?, F-9, H-4 ka sh’,
(A) C-16 (B) D-16 ‘SBI has associates banks’ is written as ‘pn za bi
(C) E-25 (D) C-25 ti’,
Q.4 Complete the series. ‘National and Indian institute’ is written as ‘na
12A6Z, 24C4X, 36E2V, ? ha sh sn’
(A) 48GOT (B) 48G0T ‘National has international banks’ is written as
(C) 4G80T (D) 4G8OT ‘bi na mn pn’.
Q.5 Select the number that will continue the given Q.32 How is ‘banks’ written in that code language?
series. (A) Pn (B) sn
4, 8, 8, 16, 12, 24, ? (C) ti (D) za
(A) 48 (B) 32 Q.33 International’ is written as?
(C) 16 (D) 12 (A) mn (B) na
(C) bi (D) Eithr 1 or 3
Coding Decoding
Q.34 What does ‘ti’ stands for?
Direction for Questions 28 and 30 (A) sbi (B) has
In a certain code language, (C) banks (D) Eithr 1 or 2
‘Live Today Like Last’ is written as ‘ra mu pe ka’ Q.35 What is the code for ‘Indian’?
‘Live Like A King’ is written as ‘su ka pe ke’ (A) na (B) sn
‘Be Like Last King’ is written as ‘pe na ke ra’ (C) pn (D) sh
‘A Good Day Today’ is written as ‘da ku mu su’ Q.36 What is code for national?
Q.28 What does the code ‘ka’ stands for in the given (A) na (B) sn
code language?
(C) ti (D) mn
(A) Live (b) Like
(C) A (d) King Direction for Questions 37 and 40
Q.29 What does the code ‘na’ stands for in the given
Letter MK A D E T R J I W U B F H Q
code language?
Digit 7 % $ 6 5 8 1 9 2 @ # © ¬ 3 4
(A) Be (B) Like
/Sym
(C) Last (D) King bol
Q.30 Which of the following is the code for ‘Good code
King’ in the given code language? Condition :
(A) su ke (B) ka da (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last
(C) pe ku (D) ke su letter is a vowel both are to be coded as the
(E) CND code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter Q.6 If OPERATE is written as QNGPCRG, then find
is a consonant, the codes for the first and the the code for RUSSIA.
last letters are to be interchanged. (A) TUSQKY (B) TSUQKY
(iii) If the third letter is a vowel it is to be coded (C) TSUKQY (D) TSUSQY
as ‘S’ Q.7 If three is written as 6, seven is written as 12,
Q.37 WHIMTD fourteen is written as 24, nine is written as 90,
(A) @3S786 (B) @3S768 ten is written as 34, then how is the product of 7
(C) 63S73@ (D) @3S78@ and 2 written in that code?
Q.38 WEMKUA (A) 6 (B) 34
(A) $5d %#$ (B) $d7%#$ (C) 24 (D) 12
(C) $57%#@ (D) $57%#$ Q.8 If red is written as blue, blue is written as green,
Q.39 EMDFHK green is written as yellow, yellow is written as
black, black is written as white, white is written
(A) %76¬3% (B) 576¬35
as pink, then which of the following is the code
(C) 576¬3% (D) %76¬35
for colour of blood of a cockroach?
Q.40 QTRUJE
(A) Blue (B) Black
(A) 48d#95 (B) 581#95
(C) Pink (D) White
(C) 581#94 (D) 582#95
Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘TULSI’ is written as
Self Practice Questions : ‘WXOVL’. How will ‘LEAST’ be written as in
that language?
Q.1 If in a certain code, “MOTHER” is written as
(A) OHWVW (B) ODHVE
'JRQKBU', then how will 'PRINCIPAL' be
(C) OHDVW (D) OHDEV
written in that code?
Q.10 If in a certain code, 'OTRIVIN' is written as
(A) MRFKZLMXI (B) SULQFLSDO
'NIVROTR', then how will 'RISKING' be written
(C) MUFQZLMDI (D) MRFKZFMXI
in that code?
Q.2 If in a certain code, 'CRAMP' is written as
(A) GINPRIS (B) GNIKRIS
'YNWIL', then how will 'GRASP' be written in
(C) GNPIRIS (D) GNIPRIS
that code?
Q.11 If in a certain code, 'BROMINE' is written as
(A) CNWOL (B) CWNOL
'RTCRHPJ', then how will 'RADICAL' be written
(C) CNOWL (D) CWONL
in that code?
Q.3 If APPLE is written as 36678, RUMMY is written
(A) GCSNOCD (B) GCNSOCD
as 91445, then ‘784539’ is the code for:
(C) GCSNCOD (D) GSCNOCD
(A) LEMYAR (B) LEYMAR
(C) LMEAYR (D) LMEYAR
10.5 Order & Ranking
Q.4 If PARTY is written as ‘!$%@#’, COAT is written Q.1 In a row of 45 students, Kabir is 26th from right
as ‘*?$@’, then find the code for CARROT. end of the row. What is the rank of Kabir from
left end of the row?
(A) *$%%?@ (B) *$%?%@
Q.2 In a row of 38 students, Priti is 21st from Left
(C) *&%%?@ (D) *$%%?#
end of the row. What is the rank of Priti from
Q.5 If JACK is written as ACJK, HUMAN is written
Right end of the row?
as AHMNU and DELIVER is written as
Q.3 In a Class of 36 students, Harry is 13th from left
DEEILRV, find the code for MONUMENT.
end of the row and Sejal is 15th from Right end
(A) EMMNNOUT (B) EMMNNTOU
of the row. How many students will sit between
(C) EMMNNOTU (D) EMMNONTU
them?
Q.4 In a Class of 28 students, Sonu is 17th from left (A) True (B) False
end of the row and Pinky is 19 from Right end
th
(C) Uncertain (D) Data insufficient
of the row. How many students will sit between [GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (IN, ME-3, MT, PI)]
them?
Q.11 In a group of four children, Som is younger to
Q.5 In a row of players Sachin is 13th from Left end
Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in
of the row and Saurav is 17th from Right end of
the group. Which of the following statements is
the row, If there are 10 players sit between them.
/are required to find the eldest child in the
Then how many players are there in the row? group?
Q.6 In a row of Actors Guddu is 11th from Left end Statements :
of the row and Bablu is 15th from Right end of
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
the row, If there are 10 Actors sit between them.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.
Then how many Actors are there in the row?
(A) Statement 1 by itself determines the eldest
Q.7 L, M and N are waiting in a queue meant for
child.
children to enter the zoo. There are 5 children
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest
between L and M, and 8 children between M
child.
and N. If there are 3 children ahead of N and 21
children behind L, then what is the minimum (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to
number of children in the queue? determine the eldest child.
(A) 28 (B) 27 (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to
(C) 41 (D) 40 determine the eldest child.
[GATE 2011 : IIT- Madras (AE, MN)] [GATE 2014 : IIT-Kharagpur (CE-2, IN, PI)]
Q.8 Ravi is taller than Arun but shorter than Iqbal. Q.12 Consider five people – Mita, Ganga, Rekha,
Sam is shorter than Ravi. Mohan is shorter than Lakshmi and Sana. Ganga is taller than both
Arun. Balu is taller than Mohan and Sam. The Rekha and Lakshmi. Lakshmi is taller than Sana.
tallest person can be : Mita is taller than Ganga.
(A) Mohan (B) Ravi Which of the following conclusions are true?
(C) Balu (D) Arun 1. Lakshmi is taller than Rekha
[GATE 2012 : IIT-Delhi (AR, GG, TF)] 2. Rekha is shorter than Mita
Q.9 Abhishek is elder to Savar. Savar is younger to 3. Rekha is taller than Sana
Anshul. Which of the given conclusions is 4. Sana is shorter than Ganga
logically valid and is inferred from the above (A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 only
statements?
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 only
(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
[GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (EE)]
(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
Q.13 Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U with distinct
(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age heights, compare their heights and make the
(D) No conclusions follows following observations.
[GATE 2013 : IIT-Bombay (CE, MT)] Observation I : S is taller than R.
Q.10 Tanya is older than Eric. Observation II : Q is the shortest of all.
Cliff is older than Tanya. Observation III : U is taller than only one
Eric is older than Cliff. student.
If the first two statements are true, then the third Observation IV : T is taller than S but is not
statement is: tallest.
The number of students that are taller than R is (A) 44 (B) 51

the same as number of student shorter (C) 79 (D) 108
than______. [GATE 2016 : IISc Banglore (EC-2, ME-3)]
(A) T (B) R Q.2 In the given diagram, teachers are represented
(C) S (D) P in the triangle, researchers in the circle and
[GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (CS-2)] administrators in the rectangle. Out of the total
Q.14 Consider the following gold articles P, Q, R, S number of the people, the percentage of
and T with different weights : administrators shall be in the range of ______.
• P weighs twice as much as Q Teachers
10
• Q weighs four and a half times as much as R
70
• R weighs half as much as S
20 Administrators
• S weighs half as much as T
• T weighs less than P but more than R 20
Article T will be lighter in weight than : Researchers
(A) P and S (B) P and R
40
(C) P and Q (D) Q and R

(A) 0 to 15 (B) 16 to 30
[ESE 2020]
(C) 31 to 45 (D) 46 to 60
Q.15 Consider the following students in an
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CH, CS)]
examination :
Q.3 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play
• A scored more than B
hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them
• C scored as much as D
play both hockey and football. Then the number
• E scored less than F
of persons playing neither hockey nor football is
• B scored more than C
(A) 2 (B) 17
• F scored less than D
(C) 13 (D) 3
Who scored the lowest?
[GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati (All Branches)]
(A) E (B) C
Q.4 500 students are taking one or more courses out
(C) D (D) F
of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics.
[ESE 2020]
Registration records indicate course enrolment
10.6 Venn Diagram as follows : Chemistry (329), Physics (186),
Mathematics (295), Chemistry and Physics (83),
Class Practice Questions : Chemistry and Mathematics (217), and Physics
Q.1 The Venn diagram shows the preference of the and Mathematics (63). How many students are
student population for leisure activities. From taking all 3 subjects?
the data given, the number of students who like (A) 37 (B) 43
to read books or play sports is ____. (C) 47 (D) 53
Read Watch [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC-2)]
books TV Q.5 Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55
13 12 9 are connected with each other through
7 Facebook® and 85 are connected through
44 17
WhatsApp®. 30 faculty members do not have
15 Facebook® or WhatsApp® accounts. The
number of faculty members connected only
Play sports
through Facebook® accounts is ______.
(A) 35 (B) 45 (A) 1000 (B) 975

(C) 65 (D) 90 (C) 900 (D) 225
[GATE 2016 : IISc Banglore (CS-2, EE-1)] [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (CH, CS)]
Q.6 There are 16 teachers who can teach Q.10 A gathering of 50 linguists discovered that 4
Thermodynamics (TD), 11 who can teach knew Kannada, Telugu and Tamil, 7 knew only
Electrical Sciences (ES), and 5 who can teach Telugu and Tamil, 5 knew only Kannada and
both TD and Engineering mechanics (EM). Tamil, 6 knew only Telugu and Kannada. If the
There are a total of 40 teachers, 6 can not teach number of linguists who knew Tamil is 24 and
any of the three subjects, i.e. EM, ES and TD. 6 those who knew Kannada is also 24, how many
can teach only ES. 4 can teach all three subjects linguists knew only Telugu?
i.e. EM, ES and TD. 4 can teach ES and TD. How (A) 9 (B) 10
many can teach both ES and EM but not TD?
(C) 11 (D) 8
(A) 1 (B) 2
[GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati (TF)]
(C) 3 (D) 4
Q.11 In a class of 300 students in an M.Tech
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE-2)]
programme, each student is required to take at
Q.7 Forty students watched films A, B and C over a
least one subject from the following three:
week. Each student watched either only one film
M600 : Advanced Engineering Mathematics
or all three. Thirteen students watched film A.
C600 : Computational Methods for Engineers
sixteen students watched film B and nineteen
students watched film C. How many students E600 : Experimental Techniques for Engineers
watched all three films? The registration data for the M.Tech class shows
(A) 0 (B) 2 that 100 students have taken M600, 200 students
(C) 4 (D) 8 have taken C600, and 60 students have taken

E600. What is the maximum possible number of
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME-2, PI)]
students in the class who have taken all the
Q.8 In a sports academy of 300 people, 105 play only
above three subjects?
cricket, 70 play only hockey, 50 play only
football, 25 play both cricket and hockey, 15 play (A) 20 (B) 30
both hockey and football and 30 play both (C) 40 (D) 50

cricket and football. The rest of them play all [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (GG, TF)]
three sports. What is the percentage of people Q.12 In a group of 1000 people, 750 speak Hindi and
who play at least two sports? 400 speak English. The number of only Hindi
(A) 25.00 (B) 28.00 speaking people is:
(C) 23.30 (D) 50.00 (A) 150 (B) 350
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (ME-2, PI)] (C) 600 (D) 750
Q.9 In a college, there are three student clubs. Sixty [ESE 2021]
students are only in the Drama club, 80 students Q.13 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at
are only in the Dance club, 30 student are only least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
in the Maths club, 40 students are in both Drama 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test.
and Dance clubs, 12 students are in both Dance Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
and Maths clubs, 7 students are in both Drama candidates. Question B was answered correctly
and Maths clubs, and 2 students are in all the by 2,50,000 candidates, Question C was
clubs. If 75% of the students in the college are answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both
not in any of these clubs, then the total number questions A and B were answered correctly by
of students in the college is ______. 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C
were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. (C) Down-Up-Down

Both questions A and C were answered correctly (D) Up-Down-Up
by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EC, BT, PI Set – 1)]
answering all questions correctly is the same as
Q.16 An air pressure contour line joins locations in a
the number answering none, how many
region having the same atmospheric pressure.
candidates failed to clear the test?
The following is an air pressure contour plot of a
(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 geographical region. Contour lines are shown at
(C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000 0.05 bar intervals in this plot. [EE (S2)/CS(S2)]
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CH, IN, MT)] R
0.65 0. 9
0.7
0.95
Contour Line S
0. 9
5
Q.14 A contour line joins locations having the same P
height above the mean sea level. The following 0 .9
0. 8
is a contour plot of a geographical region. Q
0 .8
Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this 0. 7
5
plot. If in a flood the water level rises to 525 m,
0 1 2 km
which of the villages P, Q, R, S, T gets
If the possibility of a thunderstorm is given by
submerged?
how fast air pressure rises or drops over a
4 26 Q region, which of the following regions is most
460 R
550
likely to have a thunderstorm?
P (A) P (B) Q
550
(C) R (D) S
T
500 [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS Set – 2)]
460
500
S
(A) P, Q (B) P, Q, T Self Practice Questions :
(C) R, S, T (D) Q, R, S
Q.1 Which of the following diagrams correctly
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS Set – 1)]
represents the relationship between the
Q.15 A contour line joins locations having the same
following classes.
height above the mean sea level. The following
Vehicle, Car, Auto
is a contour plot of a geographical region.
Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this
(A) (B)
plot.
425 Q
450 550
(C) (D)
575
P
550
500
Q.2 Select the option that is best represented by the
500 475 given set of Venn diagram.
The path from P to Q is best described by
(A) Up-Down-Up-Down
(B) Down-Up-Down-Up
(A) Lion, Animal, Rat (C) (D)

(B) Professors, Male, Humans
(C) Aunt, Teacher, Father
(D) Women, Brother, Sister Q.7 Which of the following diagrams correctly
Q.3 Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship between the
represents the relationship between the following classes.
following classes. Boys, Player, Singer
Mothers, Nephew, Daughter
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
Q.4 Which of the following diagrams correctly (A) C
(B) D
following classes.
(C) A
Brother, Mother, Father
(D) B
(A) (B)
Q.8 Which of the following diagrams correctly
following classes.
Earth, Sun, Moon
(C) (D)
Q.5 Which of the following diagrams correctly (A) (B)

following classes.
Octagon, Figure, Rectangle
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) C (B) D
(C) A (D) B
(C) (D) Q.9 Which of the following diagrams correctly
following classes.
Q.6 Which of the following diagrams correctly Wood, Table, Door
represents the relationship between the (A) (B)
following classes.
Surat, Gujarat, Assam
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.10 Which of the following diagrams represent the Q.4 Statements :

relationship between Nepal, Kathmandu, Asia. All film star are playback singers.
(A) (B) All film directors are film stars.
Conclusions :
I. All film directors are playback singers.
(C) (D) II. Some film stars are film directors.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Only conclusion I nor II follows.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
10.7 Syllogism
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC-2, ME-2)]
Q.5 Fact 1 : Humans are mammals.
Q.1 Arguments :
Fact 2 : Some humans are engineers.
All professors are researchers.
Fact 3 : Engineers build house.
Some scientists are professors.
If the above statements are facts, which of the
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid following can be logically inferred?
and is inferred from the above arguments :
I. All mammals build houses.
(A) All scientists are researchers II. Engineers are mammals.
(B) All professors are scientists III. Some humans are not engineers.
(C) Some researchers are scientists (A) II only (B) III only
(D) No conclusion follows (C) I, II and III (D) I only
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CH)] [GATE 2016 : IISc Banglore (CE-2, MT, PI)]
Q.2 Statements : Q.6 Some tables are shelves.
All women are entrepreneurs. Some shelves are chairs.
Some women are doctors. All chairs are benches.
Which of the following conclusions can be Which of the following conclusions can be
logically inferred from the above statements? deduced from the preceding sentences?
(A) All women are doctors. (i) At least one bench is a table.
(B) All doctors are entrepreneurs. (ii) At least one shelf is a bench.
(C) All entrepreneurs are women. (iii) At least one chair is a table.
(iv) All benches are chairs.
(D) Some entrepreneurs are doctors.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (iv)
Q.3 Statements :
[GATE 2016 : IISc Banglore (CE-2, MT, PI)]
No manager is a leader.
Q.7 Sentences :
All leaders are executive.
All benches are beds.
Conclusions :
No bed is a bulb.
I. No manager is an executive.
Some bulbs are lamps.
II. All executives are manager.
Which of the following can be inferred?
(A) Only conclusion I follows. (i) Some beds are lamps.
(B) Only conclusion II follows. (ii) Some lamps are beds.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(D) Both conclusion I and II follow. (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kh (IN, ME-3, MT, PI)] [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (CE-1, CH)]
Q.8 Statements : Based on the above statements and conclusions

(i) Some roses are red. which one of the following options is
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly. CORRECT?
(iii) Some roses fade quickly. (A) Only conclusion I is correct.
Which of the following statements can be (B) Only conclusion II is correct.
logically inferred from the above statements? (C) Both conclusion I and II are correct.
(A) If (i) is true & (ii) is false, then (ii) is false (D) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct.
(B) If (i) is true & (ii) is false, then (iii) is true [GATE 2021 : IIT B (ME-2)]
(C) If (i) & (ii) are true, then (iii) is true Q.12 Statement :
(D) If (i) & (ii) are false, then (iii) is false All bacteria are microorganisms.
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (ME-1)] All pathogens are microorganisms.
Q.9 Statement : Conclusion :
All purple are green. I : Some pathogens are bacteria.
All black are green. II : All pathogens are not bacteria.
Conclusion : Based on the above statements and conclusions,

which one of the following options is logically
I. Some black are purple
CORRECT?
II. No black is purple
(A) Only conclusion I correct.
Based on the above statements and conclusions,
(B) Only conclusion II is correct.
which one of the following options is logically
(C) Either conclusion I or II is correct.
CORRECT?
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is correct.
(A) Both conclusion I & II are correct.
[GATE 2021 : IIT B (CS-1)]
(B) Only conclusion I is correct.
(C) Only conclusion II is correct. Self Practice Questions :
(D) Either conclusion I or II is correct.
Q.1 In this question, two statements are given
[GATE 2021 : IIT B (EC)]
followed by two conclusions. Choose the
Q.10 Statement : Conclusion (s) which best fit(s) logically.
Some football players play cricket. Statements:
All cricket players play hockey. 1. Some A are B
Among the options given below, the statement 2. Some B are not C
that logically follows from the two statements 1 Conclusions :
and 2 above, is
I. No B is C
(A) All football players play hockey. II. Some A are C
(B) Some football players play hockey. (A) Only conclusion II follows
(C) No football player plays hockey. (B) Only conclusion I follows
(D) All hockey players play football. (C) Either conclusion I or II follows
[GATE 2021 : IIT B (CE-2)] (D) None of the conclusion follows
Q.11 Statement : Q.2 In this question, two statements are given
All entrepreneurs are wealthy. followed by two conclusions. Choose the
All wealthy are risk seekers. conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
Conclusion : Statements:
I : All risk seekers are wealthy. 1. Some apples are banana
II : Only some entrepreneurs are risk seekers. 2. All bananas are fruits
Conclusions: (A) Only conclusion II follows

I. Some fruits are apple (B) Only conclusion I follows
II. Some bananas are fruits (C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(A) Only conclusion II follows (D) Both conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only conclusion I follows Q.6 In this question, two statements are given
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows followed by two conclusions. Choose the
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
Q.3 In this question, two statements are given Statements:
followed by two conclusions. Choose the 1. Some donkeys are horse

conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. 2. Some tiger are donkey
Statements: Conclusions:
1. Some A is B I. All tiger is horse
2. Some B is not C II. Some horse is tiger

(A) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusions:
(B) Only conclusion I follows
I. Some C is B
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Some C is not B
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
Statements:
1. Some donkey is horse
2. Some tiger are donkey
Conclusions:
Statements:
I. All donkeys is horse
1. Some matters are elements
II. Some horse is not tiger
2. Some matters are not molecules
Conclusions:
I. All elements are matter (C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Some molecules are elements (D) Both conclusions I and II follow
(A) Only conclusion II follows Q.8 In this question, two statements are given
(B) Only conclusion I follows followed by two conclusions. Choose the
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow Statements :
Q.5 In this question, two statements are given 1. All trees are plant
followed by two conclusions. Choose the 2. All fruits are tree
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Conclusions:
Statements: I. Some fruits are plant
1. All men are fish II. No plant is fruit
2. Some birds are fish (A) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusions: (B) Only conclusion I follows
I. Some fishes are bird (C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Some birds are not man (D) Both conclusions I and II follow
Q.9 In this question, two statements are given Q.12 In this question, two statements are given
followed by two conclusions. Choose the followed by two conclusions. Choose the
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
Statements: Statements:
1. Some statements are paragraph 1. Some potato are chips
2. Some stories are not paragraph 2. All chips are crunchy

Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I. All chips are potato
I. No story is paragraph
II. All crunchy is potato
II. Some statements are not story
(B) Only conclusion I follows (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) None of the conclusion follows (D) None of the conclusion follows
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow Q.13 In this question, two statements are given
Q.10 In this question, two statements are given followed by two conclusions. Choose the
followed by two conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Statements:
Statements: 1. Some potato are chips
1) All pig are animal 2. All chips are crunchy
2) Some animal are not bird Conclusions:

I. Some chips are not crunchy
Conclusions:
II. Some chips are not potato
I. Some pig are not bird
II. Some animals are pig
(C) Both conclusions I and II follow
(D) None of the conclusion follows
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows Q.14 In this question, two statements are given
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow followed by two conclusions. Choose the
Q.11 In this question, two statements are given conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
followed by two conclusions. Choose the Statements:
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. 1. Some Al are Ca
Statements: 2. No Ca are Cu
1. No man is woman Conclusions:
2. No woman is lady I. Some Al are Cu
Conclusions: II. Some Al are not Cu

I. No man is lady
II. Some men are not woman
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically.
Statements: Conclusions:
1. No V is J I. All elements are molecules
2. Some J is not K II. Some elements are not molecules
Conclusions: (A) Only conclusion II follows
I. Some K is V (B) Only conclusion I follows
II. Some K is not V (C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(A) Only conclusion II follows (D) Either conclusion I or II follows
(B) Only conclusion I follows Q.19 In this question, two statements are given
(D) Either conclusion I or II follows
Statements:
1. Some planets are sun
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. 2. No sun is star
Conclusions:
Statements:
I. Some star is planet
1. No man is rat
II. Some star is not plane
2. No rat is cat
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are man
II. Some cats are not man
(D) Either conclusion I or II follows
10.8 Analogies
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows
Q.1 The question below consists of a pair of related
words followed by four pairs of words. Select
the pair that best expresses the relation in the
original pair.
Statements:
Unemployed : Worker
1. Some plants are trees
(A) Fallow : Land
2. Some leaves are trees
(B) Unaware : Sleeper
Conclusions:
(C) Wit : Jester
I. Some plants are not leaves
(D) Renovated : House
II. Some plants are leaves
[GATE 2010 : IIT- Guwahati (All branches)]
Q.2 The question below consists of a pair of related
(B) Only conclusion I follows words followed by four pairs of words. Select
(C) Either conclusion I or II follows the pair that best expresses the relation in the
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow original pair.
Q.18 In this question, two statements are given Preamble : Constitution
followed by two conclusions. Choose the (A) Amendment : Law
conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. (B) Prologue : Play
Statements: (C) Episode : Serial
1. Some matters are elements (D) Plot : Story
2. Some matters are not molecules [GATE 2010 : IIT- Guwahati (TF)]
Q.3 The question below consists of a pair of related Q.9 Select the word that fits the analogy
words followed by four pairs of words. Select Do : Undo : : Trust : ____
the pair that best expresses the relation in the (A) Intrust (B) Untrust
original pair : (C) Entrust (D) Distrust
Gladiator : Arena [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras (EE)]
(A) Dancer : Stage Q.10 Select the word that fits the analogy
(B) Commuter : Train Build : Building : : Grow : ______
(C) Teacher : Classroom (A) Growth (B) Grew
(D) Lawyer : Courtroom (C) Growed (D) Grown
[GATE 2011 : IIT-Madras (EC, EE, IN, MT)] [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras (IN, ME-1, MT)]
Q.4 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship Q.11 Select the word that fits the analogy :
similar to that expressed in the pair : White : Whitening : : Light : _____
Water : pipe : : ? : ? (A) Enlightening (B) Lightning
(A) Cart : road (C) Lightening (D) Lighting
(B) Electricity : wire [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras(ME-2, PI)]
(C) Sea : beach Q.12 Select the word that fits the analogy :
(D) Music : instrument Fuse : Fusion :: Use : _______
[GATE 2013 : IIT-Bombay (CH)] (A) Usage (B) User
Q.5 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship (C) Uses (D) Union
similar to the expressed in the pair [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras (CE-1)]
Medicine : Health Q.13 Select the word that fits the analogy :
(A) Science : Experiment Partial : Impartial : : Popular : ________
(B) Wealth : Peace (A) Unpopular (B) Impopular
(C) Education: Knowledge (C) Dispopular (D) Mispopular
(D) Money : Happiness [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras (CE-2)]
[GATE 2013 IIT-Bombay (CE, MT)] Q.14 Select the word that fits the analogy:
Q.6 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship Cook : Cook : : Fly : _____
similar to that expressed in the pair: (A) Flyer (B) Flying
Children : Pediatrician (C) Flew (D) Flightier
(A) Adult: Orthopedist [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras(CS, IT)]
(B) Females: Gynecologist Q.15 Select the word that fits the analogy:
(C) Kidney: Nephrologist Cover : Uncover : : Associate : ____
(D) Skin: Dermatologist (A) Unassociate (B) Dissociate
[GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CE-1, CS-3)] (C) Inassociate (D) Misassociate
Q.7 A court is to a judge as _________ is to a teacher. [GATE 2020 : IIT-Madras (CH, BT)]
(A) A student (B) A punishment Q.16 Nostalgia is to anticipation as _______is to
(C) A syllabus (D) A school _______.
Q.8 Select the word that fits the analogy : Which one of the following options maintains a
Explicit : Implicit : : Express : _____. similar logical relation in the above sentence?
(A) Repress (B) Suppress (A) Future, Past (B) Future, Present
(C) Compress (D) Impress (C) Past, Future (D) Present, Past
[GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (EC)] [GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (EC)]
Q.17 Oasis is to sand as island is to _______. Q.8 Elated : Despondent : : Enlightened : ____
Which one of the following options maintains a (A) Aware (B) Ignorant
similar logical relation in the above sentence? (C) Miserable (D) Tolerant
(A) Mountain (B) Stone Q.9 Select the words that sits the analog.
(C) Land (D) Water Sponge : Porous : : Rubber : ______
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (EE)] (A) Massive (B) Solid
Q.18 Pen : Write : : Knife : _____ (C) Elastic (D) Inflexible
Which one of the following options maintains a Q.10 Oar is to rowboat as foot is to _____
similar logical relation in the above? (A) Skateboard (B) Sneaker
(A) Sharp (B) Cut (C) Running (D) Jumping
(C) Blunt (D) Vegetables. Q.11 Choose the pair that best represents a similar
relationship to the one expressed. In the original
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (CS-2)]
pair of words.
Self Practice Questions : Monk : Devotion.
(A) Maniac : Pacifism
Direction
(B) Rover : Wanderlust
Select the related word/letters/numbers form the (C) Philistine : Culture
given alternatives. (D) Explorer : Contentment
Q.1 Chug is to train as Bang is to _____ Q.12 SPY : CLANDESTINE
(A) House (B) Animal (A) Accountant : Meticulous
(C) Door (D) Man (B) Furrier : Rambunctious
Q.2 Chiku : Fruit : Super market : : Novel : ____: (C) Lawyer : Ironic
_____ (D) Astronaut : Opulent
(A) Book : Stationary (B) Book : Bookstore Q.13 Dependable : Capricious
(C) Water (D) Shop : Market (A) Fallible : Cantankerous
Q.3 Air : Ubiquitous : : Fire : ______ (B) Erasable : Obtuse
(A) Explosion (B) Oxygen (C) Malleable : Limpid
(C) Water (D) Luminosity (D) Capable : Inept
Q.4 Cook : Cook : : Fly : ______ Q.14 Do : Undo : : Trust : ______

(A) Intrust (B) Untrust
(A) Flyer (B) Flying
(C) Entrust (D) Distrust
(C) Flew (D) Flighter
Q.15 Finch : Bird
Q.5 Jackal : Howl : : Rain : _____
(A) Frog : Toad
(A) Hustle (B) Thunder
(B) Elephant : Reptile
(C) Patter (D) Drops
(C) Dalmatian : Dog
Q.6 Marathon is to race as hibernation is to ____
(D) Ant : Ladybug
(A) Winter (B) Bear
Q.16 Lawyer : Court
(C) Dream (D) Sleep
(A) Chemist : Laboratory
Q.7 Yard is to inch as quart is to _____ (B) Businessman : Office
(A) Gallon (B) Ounce (C) Labour : Factory
(C) Milk (D) Liquid (D) Athlete : Olympics
Q.17 Kick : Football Q.3 P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a

(A) Wash : Dishes circular table.
(B) Dust : Rage (i) S is seated opposite to W.
(C) Mop : Sweep (ii) U is seated at the second place to the right of
(D) Throw : Ring R.
Q.18 Luckhnow, Patna, Bhopal, Jaipur (iii) T is seated at the third place to the left of R.
(A) Shimla (iv) V is a neighbor of S.
(B) Mysore Which of the following must be true?
(C) Pune
(A) P is not seated opposite to Q
(D) Indore
(B) R is the left neighbor of S
Q.19 ‘Indolence’ is related to ‘work’ in the same way
(C) Q is a neighbor of R
as ‘Taciturn’ is related
(D) P is a neighbor of R
(A) Cheat (B) Act
(C) Speak (D) Observe [GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CH, BT)]
Q.20 Nun is related to ‘Convent’ in the same way as Q.4 Six people are seated around a circular table.
‘Hen’ is related to There are atleast two men and two women.
(A) Nest (B) Shed There are atleast three right-handed persons.
Every woman has a left-handed person to her
(C) Cell (D) Cote
immediate right. None of the women are right-
10.9 Seating Arrangement handed. The number of women at the table is
(A) 2
(B) 3
Q.1 S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated around a
(C) 4
circular table. T’s neighbors are Y and V. Z is
seated third to the left of T and second to the (D) Cannot be determined
right of S. U’s neighbors are S and Y; and T and [GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee (CS-1, EE-1)]
W are not seated opposite each other. Who is Q.5 Four people are standing in a line facing you.
third to the left of V? They are Rahul, Mathew, Seema and Lohit. One
(A) X (B) W is engineer, one is a doctor, one a teacher and
(C) U (D) T another a dancer. You are told that :
[GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee (EC-1, PI)] 1. Mathew is not standing next to Seema.
Q.2 P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular 2. There are two people standing between
table. R is seated two places to the right of Q. P Lohit and the engineer.
is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated
3. Rahul is not a doctor.
opposite U. If P and U now switch seats, which
4. The teacher and the dancer are standing
of the following must necessarily be true?
next to each other.
(A) P is immediately to the right of R.
5. Seema is turning to her right to speak to the
(B) T is immediately to the left of P.
doctor standing next to her.
(C) T is immediately to the left of P or P is
immediately to the right of Q. Who among them is an Engineer?
(D) U is immediately to the right of R or P is (A) Lohit (B) Seema

immediately to the left of T. (C) Rahul (D) Mathew
[GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee(CE-2, IN)] [GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (EC)]
Q.6 Five friends P, Q, R, S and T went camping. At Q.11 Five person P, Q, R, S and T are to be seated in a
night, they had to sleep in a row inside the tent. row, all facing the same direction, but not
P, Q, and T refused to sleep next to R since he necessarily in the same order. P and T cannot be
snored loudly. P and S wanted to avoid Q as he seated at either end of the row. P should not be
usually hugged people in sleep. seated adjacent to S. R is to be seated at the
Assuming everyone was satisfied with the second position from the left end of the row. The
sleeping arrangements, what is the order in number of distinct seating arrangements
which they slept? possible is :
(A) RSPTQ (B) QRSPT (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) QTSPR (D) SPRTQ (C) 3 (D) 5
[GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CE-1)] [GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (ME-2)]
Q.7 Five different books (P, Q, R, S, T) are to be Q.12 Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated
arranged on a shelf. The books R and S are to be around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left
arranged first and second respectively from of Murali, Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul.
right side of the shelf. The number of different Which of the following pairs are seated opposite
orders in which P, Q and T may be arranged is each other?
________. (A) Rahul and Murali
(A) 6 (B) 2 (B) Srinivas and Arul
(C) 12 (D) 120 (C) Srinivas and Murali
[GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (EC)] (D) Srinivas and Rahul
Q.8 Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a [GATE 2017 IIT-Roorkee (CS-1, EE-1)]
row, all facing the same direction, but not Directions for Questions 13 to 15
necessarily in the same order. P and R cannot sit P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seating around a
adjacent to each other. S should be seated to the square table facing the center in such a way that
right of Q. Then number of distinct seating four of them sit at four corners of the square
arrangements possible is while four sit in the middle of each of the four
(A) 4 (B) 2 sides. P sits second to right of U. U sits in the
(C) 8 (D) 6 middle of one of the sides of the table. V who
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (IN, CE-1)] does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits
Q.9 Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in second to the right of S. Only two people sit
row. R should not be seated at the second between S and Q (taken from one side).R is not
position from the left end of the row. The an immediate neighbor of V. W is sits second to
number of distinct seating arrangements the left of Q.T is not an immediate neighbor of V
possible is or U.
(A) 6 (B) 18 Q.13 Who sits exactly between U and P?
(C) 24 (D) 9 (A) Q (B) R.
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (CE-2)] (B) T (D) W
Q.10 Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row Q.14 How many persons sit between P and W when
not necessarily in the same order. Q and R are counted in anti-clockwise direction from P?
separated by one person, and S should not be (A) One (B) Two.
seated adjacent to Q. The number of distinct (C) Three (D) four
seating arrangements possible is Q.15 What is the position of U with respected to R?
(A) 10 (B) 8 (A) Immediate to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) 4 (D) 16
(C) Immediate to the left.
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (ME-1)]
(D) Third to the right
Directions for Questions 16 to 18 Q.2 Who sits second to the left of V?

(A) R (B) P
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
square table in such a way that four of them sit (C) U (D) T
at four corners of the square while four sit in the Q.3 Who sits between U and P?
middle of each of the four sides. Those who sit (A) S (B) R
at the four corners faces outside while those (C) V (D) Q
who sit in the middle of the sides face the center
Direction
of the table. D sits third to the left of G. E sits
third to the left of C. C does not sits any of the Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
corners. Only one person sits between E and F. F Seating in a circle facing the centre. B is Seating
is not an immediate neighbour of C. H is facing between G and D. H is third to the left of B and
outside. A is not an immediate neighbour of F second, to the right of A. C is Seating between A
and H. The number of person sitting between B and G and B and E are not Seating opposite to
and D is same as between D and C. each other.
Q.16 Who sits exactly between E and F? Q.4 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) A (B) B (A) C is third to the right of D.
(C) C (D) H (B) E is Seating between F and D.
Q.17 Which of the following pairs represents the (C) A is Seating between C and F.
persons who sit in the middle of the sides and (D) E and C are Seating opposite of each other.
face to each other? Direction
(A) AC (B) BD
Study the following information carefully and
(C) BC. (D) EH
answer the questions given below :
Q.18 If A is made to face outside direction, who
Eight people X, W, Z, F, T, L, P and S are sitting
would sit to the immediate right of A?
in a straight line facing north and south
(A) G (B) D
directions. X is sitting second to the right of T
(C) B (D) E and W. T is sitting third to the right of F. S is
Self Practice Questions : sitting fourth to the left of X. Second and fourth
persons are facing south from the left end. F is
Direction for Questions 1 to 4 sitting fourth to the left of L who is second from
the left. Z is not facing towards south but sitting
Study the following information carefully to
fourth to the left of P who is third to the right of
answer these questions. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and
S who is facing north. W is not a neighbour of L.
W are sitting around a circular table, facing the
Q.5 In which direction is W facing?
centre. P sits third to the right of W and third to
(A) North (B) East
the left of Q. S sits second to the right of T. V sits
second to the left of R. T is not the neighbour of (C) West (D) South
Q while U is neither a neighbour of T nor of W. Q.6 If T changes his or her position with F, who
Q.1 Starting from P’s position, if all the eight are would be sitting fourth to right of F?
arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise (A) L (B) W
direction, the seating position of how many (C) Z (D) P
members (excluding P) would not change? Q.7 6 people are sitting in a row. A is sitting towards
(A) None (B) One immediate left of B and immediate right of C. C
(C) Two (D) Three is sitting to immediate right of F. D is immediate
right of E who is to the left of F, then which two Q.14 Who sits fourth to the left of B?
people are sitting in the center? (A) G (B) F
(A) D and B (B) A and B (C) D (D) C
(C) F and C (D) E and D Direction
Q.8 Five students P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have
bench. Q is to the left of P and right of T. S is at
different height. G is not 3rd shortest. D is not
the extreme right end and R is to the left of S.
5th tallest. Only two persons are taller than C. E
Who is sitting third from the left?
is taller than F but shorter than D. H is the
(A) P (B) Q
shortest. D is taller than G but shorter than A
(C) R (D) T
and C. A is not the 2nd tallest. E is not 3rd
Q.9 Vishu, Pooja, Vishakha, Rani and Ram are
shortest.
sitting in a line. Pooja is third to the extreme
Q.15 Who among the following is 2nd tallest?
right end. Vishu is second to the left of Pooja.
Vishakha is to the right of Pooja. Rani is third to (A) E (B) F
the right of Ram, who is the immediate (C) C (D) B

neighbour of Vishu. Who is sitting in the Q.16 How many persons are shorter than F?
middle? (A) Two (B) One
(A) Pooja (B) Ram (C) Three (D) Four
(C) Visakha (D) Rani Q.17 Who among the following is just taller to E?
Direction (A) D (B) F
Eight girl’s are seating around a square table, (C) C (D) B
they are facing center. Q.18 Who among the following is 5th shortest?
A sits 6th to the left of B, who is sits third to the (A) E (B) F
right of F. E sits 2nd to the left of F. G sits in (C) C (D) None of these
between A and B. C sits immediate left of F, who
Q.19 Who among the following is third shortest?
is immediate left of D
(A) E (B) F
Q.10 Who sits second to the left of D?
(C) C (D) B
(A) E (B) A
(C) C (D) F 10.10 Logical Puzzle
Q.11 What is the position of E with the respect to H? Q.1 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven
(A) 2nd to the left. of which have equal weight and one is slightly
(B) 2nd to the right. heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited
(C) Fourth to the right. capacity. Using this balance, the minimum
(D) Third to the left. number of weighings required to identify the
Q.12 What is G position with respect to C ? heavier bag is
(A) Third to the right. (A) 2 (B) 3
(B) Third to the left. (C) 4 (D) 8
(C) Fourth to the left. [GATE 2012 : IIT-Delhi (EC, EE, IN, MT)]
(D) 2nd to the right. Q.2 Two design consultants, P and Q, started
Q.13 Who sits in between E and D ? working from 8 AM for a client. The client
(A) AH (B) GB budgeted a total of USD 3000 for the
(C) CF (D) AB consultants. P stopped working when hour
(E) AG hand moved by 210 degrees on the clock. Q
stopped working when the hour hand moved by (A) 2, 5, 3, 4 (B) 5, 2, 4, 3

240 degrees. P took two tea breaks of 15 minutes (C) 3, 5, 4, 2 (D) 4, 5, 2, 3
each during her shift, but took no lunch break. Q [GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (EC-3, CH)]
took only one lunch break for 20 minutes, but no
Q.5 If two floors in a certain building are 9 feet
tea breaks. The market rate for consultants is
apart, how many steps are there in a set of
USD 200 per hour and breaks are not paid. After
stairs that extends from the first floor to the
paying the consultants, the client shall have
second floor of the building?
USD ________ remaining in the budget.
Statements :
(A) 000.00 (B) 300.00
I. Each step is 3/4 foot high.
(C) 166.67 (D) 433.33
II. Each step is 1 foot wide.
[GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (EC)]
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement
Q.3 There are three boxes. One contains apples,
II alone is not sufficient.
another contains oranges and the last one
contains both apples and oranges. All three are (B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but
known to be incorrectly labelled. If you are statement I alone is not sufficient.
permitted to open just one box and then pull out (C) Both statements together are sufficient, but
and inspect only one fruit, which box would you neither statement alone is sufficient.
open to determine the contents of all three (D) Statement I and II together are not sufficient.
boxes? [GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CS-1, EE-1)]
(A) The box labelled ‘Apples’ Q.6 Based on the given statements, select the most
(B) The box labelled ‘Apples and Oranges’ appropriate option to solve the given question.
(C) The box labelled ‘Oranges’ What will be the total weight of 10 poles each of
(D) Cannot be determined same weight?
[GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee(CS-2, EE-2)] Statements:
Q.4 In the following question, the first and the last I. One fourth of the weight of a pole is 5 kg.
sentence of the passage are in order and
II. The total weight of these poles is 160 kg
numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is
more than the total weight of two poles.
split into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3, 4 and 5.
(A) Statement I alone is not sufficient.
These 4 parts are not arranged in proper order.
(B) Statement II alone is not sufficient.
Read the sentences and arrange them in a logical
sequence to make a passage and choose the (C) Either I or II alone is sufficient.
correct sequence from the given options. (D) Both statement I and II together are not
1. On Diwali, the family rises early in the sufficient.
morning. [GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CS-2, EE-2)]
2. The whole family, including the young and Q.7 The head of a newly formed government desires
the old enjoy doing this. to appoint five of the six selected members P, Q,
3. Children let off fireworks later in the night R, S, T and U to portfolios of Home, Power,
with their friends. Defense, telecom and Finance. U does not want
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R wants
performs various rituals. either Home or Finance or no portfolio. Q says
5. Father, mother and children visit relatives that if S gets either Power or Telecom, then she
and exchange gifts and sweets. must get the other one. T insists on a portfolio if
6. Houses looks so pretty with lighted lamps P gets one.
all around. Which is the valid distribution of portfolio?
(A) P-Home, Q-Power, R-Defense, S-Telecom, T- A B C

Finance D
(B) R-Home, S-Power, P-Defense, Q-Telecom, T-
E F G
Finance
H
(C) P-Home, Q-Power, T-Defense, S-Telecom,
K
U-Finance
(D) Q-Home, U-Power, T-Defense, R-Telecom, (A) 1 (B) 4
P-Finance (C) 6 (D) 7
[GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CE-1, CS-3)] Q.11 P, Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P states
Q.8 P, Q, R and S crossed a lake in a boat that can that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has
hold a maximum of two persons, with only one less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his
set of oars. The following additional facts are knowledge, S has at least one car. Only one of P,
available. Q and R is right. The number of cars owned by S
(i) The boat held two persons on each of the is
three forward trips across the lake and one (A) 0

person on each of the two return trips. (B) 1
(ii) P is unable to row when someone else is in (C) 3
the boat. (D) Cannot be determined
(iii) Q is unable to row with anyone else except [GATE 2017 : IIT-Roorkee (ME – 1)]
R. Q.12 The police arrested four criminals – P, Q, R and
(iv) Each person rowed for at least one trip S. The criminals knew each other. They made
(v) Only one person can row during a trip the following statements :
Who rowed twice? P says “Q committed the crime”
(A) P (B) Q Q says “S committed the crime”
(C) R (D) S R says “I did not do it”
[GATE 2018 : IIT- Guwahati (EE)] S says “What Q said about me is false”
Q.9 Each of the letters arranged as below represents Assume only one of the arrested four committed
a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters are the crime and only one of the statements made
positioned in the figure such that (A × B × C) , above is true. Who committed the crime?
(A) P (B) R
(B × G × E) and (D × E × F) are equal. Which
(C) S (D) Q
integer among the following choices cannot be
[GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (CH, CS)]
represented by the letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G?
Q.13 Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are
A D
siblings (i.e. brothers and sisters). All were born
B G E on 1st January. The age difference between any
C F two successive siblings (that is born one after
(A) 4 (B) 5 another) is less than 3 years. Given the following
(C) 6 (D) 9 facts :
[GATE 2018 : IIT-Guwahati(CE-1)] (i) Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age + Saira’s
Q.10 Each of the letters in the figure below represents age.
a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters are (ii) The age difference between Gita and Saira is
positioned in the figure such that each of (A + B 1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and
+ C), (C + D + E), (E + F + G) and (G + H + K) is Saira is not the youngest.
equal to 13. Which integers does E represent? (iii) There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest first)? worked as a team for 2 hours. Krishna does not
(A) HSIG (B) SGHI want to work with Ram. Whom should Mohan
(C) IGSH (D) IHSG allot to work with John, if he wants all the
workers to continue working?
[GATE 2010 IIT-Guwahati (All Branches)]
(A) Amir (B) Krishna
Q.14 For submitting tax returns, all resident males
with annual income below Rs. 10 lakh should fill (C) Ram (D) None of the three
up form P and all resident females with income [GATE 2019 : IIT-Madras (CE-2)]
below Rs. 8 lakh should fill up form Q. All 10.11 Logical Reasoning
people with incomes above Rs. 10 lakh should
fill up form R, except non-residents with income Class Practice Questions :
above Rs. 15 lakhs, who should fill up form S.
All others should fill form T. An example of a Q.1 The given statement is followed by some
person who should fill form T is, courses of action. Assuming the statement to be
(A) A resident male with annual income Rs. 9 true decide the correct option.
lakh. Statement: There has been a significant drop in
(B) A resident female with annual income Rs. 9 the water level in the lakes supplying water to
lakh. the city.
(C) A non-resident male with annual income Rs. I. The water supply authority should impose a
16 lakh. partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
(D) A non-resident female with annual income II. The government should appeal to all the
Rs. 16 lakh residents through mass media for minimal
[GATE 2014 : IIT-Kharagpur (EC-1, ME-1)] use of water.

III. The government should ban the water
Q.15 Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, yellow)
supply in lower areas.
are hung on a ladder. On every step of the
ladder there are two lights. If one of the lights is (A) Statements I and II follow.
red, the other light on that step will always be (B) Statements I and III follow.
blue. If one of the lights on a step is green, the (C) Statements II and III follow.
other light on that step will always be yellow. (D) All statements follow.
Which of the following statements is not [GATE 2015 : IIT-Kanpur (CS-1, EE-1)]
necessarily correct? Q.2 Climate change and resilience deal with two
(A) The number of red lights is equal to the aspects - reduction of sources of nonrenewable
number of blue lights. energy resources and reducing vulnerability of
(B) The number of green lights is equal to the climate change aspects. The terms 'mitigation'
number of yellow lights. and 'adaptation' are used to refer to these
(C) The sum of the red and green lights is equal aspects, respectively.
to the sum of the yellow and blue lights. Which of the following assertions is best
(D) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal supported by the above information?
to the sum of the green and yellow lights. (A) Mitigation deals with consequences of
[GATE 2014 : IIT-Kharagpur (EC-2, ME-2)] climate change.
Q.16 Mohan, the manager, wants his four workers to (B) Adaptation deals with causes of climate
work in pairs. No pairs should work for more change.
than 5 hours. Ram and John have worked (C) Mitigation deals with actions taken to
together for 5 hours. Krishna and Amir have reduce the use of fossil fuels.
(D) Adaptation deals with actions taken to Q.5 The dawn of the 21st century witnessed the
combat green-house gas emissions. melting glaciers oscillating between giving too
[GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (ME-2, PI)] much and too little to billions of people who
Q.3 After several defeats in wars, Robert Bruce went depend on them for fresh water. The UN climate
in exile and wanted to commit suicide. Just report estimates that without deep cuts to ma-
before committing suicide, he came across a made emissions, at least 30% of the northern
spider attempting tirelessly to have its net. Time hemisphere’s surface permafrost could melt by
and again, the spider failed but that did not the end of the century. Given this situation of
deter it to refrain from making attempts. Such imminent global exodus of billions of people
attempts by the spider made Bruce curious. displaced by rising seas, nation-states need to
Thus, Bruce started observing the near rethink their carbon footprint for political
impossible goal of the spider to have the net.
concerns, if not for environmental ones.
Ultimately, the spider succeeded in having its
Which one of the following statements can be
net despite several failures. Such act of the
spider encouraged Bruce not to commit suicide. inferred from the given passage?
And then, Bruce went back again and won (A) Nation-states do not have environmental
many a battle, and the rest is history. concerns.
Which of the following assertions is best (B) Billions of people are responsible for man-
supported by the above information? made emissions.
(A) Failure is the pillar of success.
(C) Billions of people are affected by melting
(B) Honesty is the best policy.
glaciers.
(C) Life begins and ends with adventures.
(D) Nation-states are responsible for providing
(D) No adversity justifies giving up hope.
fresh water to billions of people.
[GATE 2013 : IIT-Bombay (CS, ME, PI)]
Q.4 The American psychologist Howard Gardner [GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CS, IT)]
expounds that human intelligence can be sub- Q.6 Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax
categorised into multiple kinds, in such a way introduced in India in 2017 that is imposed on
that individuals differ with respect to their the supply of goods and services, and it
relative competence in each kind. Based on this subsumes all indirect taxes except few. It is a
theory, modern educationists insist on destination-based tax imposed on goods and
prescribing multi-dimensional curriculum and services used, and it is not imposed at the point
evaluation parameters that enable development
of origin from where goods come. GST also has
and assessment of multiple intelligences.
a few components specific to state governments,
Which of the following statements can be
central government and Union Territories (UTs).
inferred from the given text?
Which one of the following statements can be
(A) Howard Gardner insists that the teaching
inferred from the given passage?
curriculum and evaluation needs to be
multi-dimensional. (A) GST is imposed at the point of usage of
(B) Modern educationists insist that the goods and services.
teaching curriculum and evaluation needs to (B) GST does not have a component specific to
be multi-dimensional. UT.
(C) Modern educationists want to develop and
(C) GST includes all indirect taxes.
assess the theory of multiple intelligences.
(D) GST in imposed on the production of goods
(D) Howard Gardner wants to develop and
assess the theory of multiple intelligences. and services.
[GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CE-1)] [GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CS, IT)]

Q.7 Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of (D) X does not marries Y and P marries Q.
India (RBI) lends commercial banks, and reverse [GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (IN, CE-1)]
repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows Q.10 Some people suggest Anti-Obesity Measures
money from commercial banks. (AOM) such as displaying calorie information in
Which of the following statements can be restaurant menus. Such measures sidestep
inferred from the above passage? addressing the core problems that cause obesity,
(A) Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of poverty and income inequality.
borrowing and increase lending by Which one of the following statements
commercial banks. summarizes the passage?
(B) Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of (A) AOM are addressing the core problems and
borrowing and decrease lending by are likely to succeed.
commercial banks. (B) The proposed AOM addresses the core
(C) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of problems that cause obesity.
borrowing and decrease lending by (C) AOM are addressing the problem
commercial banks. superficially.
(D) Increase in repo rate will increase cost of (D) If obesity reduces, poverty will naturally
borrowing and Increase lending by reduce, since obesity causes poverty.
commercial banks. [GATE 2021 : IIT-BOM (CS-1)]
[GATE 2020 : IIT-Delhi (CH, BT)]
Q.8 Geneticists say that they are very close to
confirming the generating roots of psychiatric Directions for Questions 1 to 4
illnesses such as depression and schizophrenia,
and consequently, that doctors will be able to Given statement is followed by four
eradicate these diseases through early assumptions numbered I, II, III and IV. An
identification and gene therapy. assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the statements
On which of the following assumptions does the
and the following assumptions and decide
statement above rely?
which of the assumptions is implicit in the
(A) Strategies are now available for eliminating
statement.
psychiatric illnesses.
Q.1 Statement: An advertisement: Now you can own
(B) Certain psychiatric illnesses have a genetic
a new car in just Rs 1,999 per month.
basis.
Assumptions:
(C) All human diseases can be traced back to
(A) People do not want to buy used cars.
genes and how they are expressed.
(B) Most people can afford to pay Rs 1,999 per
(D) In the future, genetics will become the only
month for a new car
relevant field for identifying psychiatric
illnesses. (C) People did not want to buy new cars.
(D) People wants to buy expensive cars
[GATE 2014 : IIT-Kharagpur (CS-1, EE-1)]
Q.2 Statement: Beware of dogs. Our dogs do not
Q.9 Statement : Either P marries Q or X marries Y.
bark but they are trained to distinguish between
Among the given options below, the logical
genuine guests and intruders.
negation of the above statement is
Assumptions:
(A) Neither P marries Q nor X marries Y.
(A) Barking dogs rarely bite.
(B) P does not marry Q and X marries Y.
(B) Our dogs could be dangerous for intruders.
(C) P marries Q and X marries Y.
(C) Biting dogs rarely barks. Arguments:

(D) Dogs are pet animals I. No, it is necessary for the students to know
Q.3 Statement: His recent investment in the shares of the methods of manual calculation to make
company 'A' is only a gamble. their concepts clear.
Assumptions: II. Yes, manual calculations are no more
(A) Gambling is a crime in the country. required with extensive use of computers in
all fields.
(B) Share market is full of risks & enjoyment.
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(C) He may incur loss or may gain from his
investment. (B) If only argument II is strong.
(D) Every one should plan investment is share (C) If either I or II is strong.
market. (D) If both I and II are strong.
Q.4 Statement : If you could not collect the required Directions for Questions 7 to 8
amount by oral call you must publish an
Based on the statement given below, choose the
advertisement in a widely read newspaper.
best possible conclusion(s) that follows.
Assumptions:
Q.7 Statement : "Triple your money in 6 months"
(A) People rarely respond to oral call
reads an advertisement.
(B) Generally, people are reluctant to read an
Conclusions:
advertisement in a newspaper.
I. The assurance is not genuine.
(C) advertisement in a read newspaper is better
II. People want their money to grow.
then oral call.
(A) Only Conclusion I follow
(D) None follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Each question below is followed by two
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
arguments numbered I and II. You have to
Q.8 Statement : Smoking is one of the human
decide which of the argument is a ‘strong’
weaknesses, which tends to test the willpower of
argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
the smoker to the edge.
Q.5 Statement : Should sex determination test
Conclusions :
during pregnancy be completely banned?
I. It is very difficult for the smokers to give up
Arguments :
smoking even if they want to.
I. Yes, this leads to indiscriminate female
II. Human beings have other weaknesses as
foeticide and eventually will lead to social
well.
imbalance.
(A) If only Conclusion I follow
II. No, people have a right to know about their
unborn child. (B) Only Conclusion II follows
(A) If only argument I is strong. (C) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(B) If only argument II is strong. (D) If both Conclusions I and II follows
(C) If neither 1 nor II is strong. Directions for Questions 9 to 10
(D) If both I and II are strong. Q.9 Assertion : (A) Earthworms are not good for
Q.6 Statement : Should the examination bodies for agriculture.
all university examinations permit the use of Reason: (R) Earthworms break down the soil
calculators? into fine particles and make it soft.
Choose the correct option Courses of action:

(A) A is true but R is false I. The local administration should
(B) A is false but R is true immediately put a complete ban on people
sleeping on the roadsides
(C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of (A) II. The driver of the speeding truck should be
nabbed and tried for the crime he
(D) Both A and R are false
committed.
Q.10 Assertion : (A) Water is essential for life.
(A) If only I follow
Reason : (R) It is formed using three parts of
(B) If only II follows
hydrogen and one part of oxygen.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (C) If neither I nor II follows
Reason is the correct explanation of (D) If both I and II follow

Assertion. Q.12 Statement : Many students were caught
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but redhanded while using unfair means during the
Reason is not the correct explanation of recent university examinations.
Assertion. Courses of action
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are false. I. All these students should be debarred from
(D) Assertion is true but Reason is false. taking university examination in future.
Directions for Questions 11 to 12 II. The students apprehended while using

unfair means should be handed over to the
In each question below is given a statement police.
followed by two courses of action numbered I
(A) If only I follow
and II. On the basis of the information given in
(B) If only II follows
the statement, you have to assume everything in
the statement to be true, then decide which of (C) If neither I nor II follows
the suggested courses of action logically (D) If both I and II follow
follow(s) for pursuing.

Q.11 Statement : A speeding truck has seriously
injured many persons sleeping on the roadside
early in the morning.
A Answer Keys
10.1 Direction & Distance [CPQ’s]

1. East 2. West 3. 30 m 4. 50 m 5. South
6. Northwest 7. Southeast 8. 10 m 9. 24 m 10. West
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. D 22. D 23. D 24. A
10.1 Direction & Distance [SPQ’s]
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C
10.2 Clock [CPQ’s]

1. 996° 2. 106.5° 3. 3h 13m 4. 4° 5. 7.5°
6. 11:52.5 7. 06:50 am 8. 54° 9. A 10. C
08:43*7/11 04:5*5/11
11. 04:21*9/11 12. 04:54*6/11 13. 14. 15. 08:05 pm
8:10*10/11 04:38*2/11
6 am 9am 08:08 pm 10 pm 10 am
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Sunday Tuesday Tuesday Monday Tuesday
After 135
21. 22. B 23. D
Days
10.2 Clock [SPQ’s]
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A
Counting of Figure
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D
10.3 Blood Relation [CPQ’s]

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B
10.3 Blood Relation [SPQ’s]
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C
10.4 Coding-Decoding [CPQ’s]

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B
Letters Series [CPQ’s]
10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. C
15. B
Letters Series [SPQ‘s]
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D
Odd One Out [CPQ‘s]
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B
Odd One Out [SPQ’s]
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. D
Number Series [CPQ‘s]
21. 45 22. 725 23. 16 24. B 25. C
26. 3 27. C
Number Series [SPQ’s]
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C
Coding Decoding [CPQ‘s]

28. A 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. A
33. A 34. A 35. D 36. A 37. A
38. D 39. D 40. B
Coding Decoding [SPQ’]
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D
11. A
10.5 Order & Ranking

1. 20 2. 18 3. 8 4. 6 5. 40 or 18
6. 36 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. A
10.6 Venn Diagram [CPQ’s]

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. D
Contour Line
14. C 15. C 16. B
10.6 Venn Diagram [SPQ’s]

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
10.7 Syllogism [CPQ’s]

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. D 12. D.
10.7 Syllogism [SPQ’s]
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. D
16. C 17. C 18. D 19. D
10.8 Analogies [CPQ’s]

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. D 18. B
10.8 Analogies [SPQ’s]

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. C
16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. D
10.9 Seating Arrangement [CPQ’s]

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. D
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. D
10.9 Seating Arrangement [SPQ’s]
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. C
11. C 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. D
16. B 17. A 18. D 19. B
10.10 Logical Puzzle

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. D
16. B
10.11 Logical Reasoning (CPQ’s)

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C
10.11 Logical Reasoning (SPQ’s)
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. B 12. C

11
11.1 Paper Folding & Cutting

Q.1 Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to (X)
how the pattern would appear when the
transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
(X) (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.4 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is
given in Figure. Find out from amongst the
alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
(1) (2) (3) (4) when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted
(A) 1 (B) 2 line.
(C) 3 (D) 4
Q.2 A figure of transparent sheet with a pattern is
given below. Select the option that shows how
the paper would appear when the transparent
Questions figure
sheet is folded at the dotted line.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Questions figure Q.5 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted
(A) (B) (C) (D) line.
Q.3 Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to
Questions figure (A) (B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.6 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is (C) (D)
when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted
line.
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay(CS-2)]

Q.9 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
below in the questions figures. Select from the
Questions figure given answer figure, how it will appear when
unfolded.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.7 A transparent square sheet shown below is Questions figure
folded along the dotted line. The folded sheet
will look like _____.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.10 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown
(A) (B)
below in the question figure. From the given
answer figure, indicate how it will appear when
opened.
(C) (D)
Questions figure
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay(EE)]
Q.8 A transparent square sheet shown below is
folded along the dotted line. The folded sheet
will look like_____
(A) (B) (C) (D)
below in the question figures. From the given
opened.
GATE ACADEMY ® Spatial Aptitude 95

answer figures, indicate how it will appear when
Questions figure opened?
?
(A) (B) Questions figure
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
answer figures, indicate how it will appear when
opened?
(C) (D)
Q.15 A circular sheet of paper is folded along the lines
in the directions shown. The paper, after being
punched in the final folded state as shown and
Questions figure unfolded in the reverse order of folding, will look
like________.
(A) (B)
Questions figure
(C) (D) (A) (B)

opened. (C) (D)
Questions figure Self Practice Questions :

(A) (B)
Problem Figure
(C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D) sheet is folded at the dotted line.
(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) A
the paper would appear when the transparent (A) (B)
Problem figure
(C) (D)
Q.6 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How

will it appear when unfolded?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) B (B) C (A) (B)
(C) D (D) A
given below. Select the option that shows how (C) (D)
(A) (B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) A (C) (D)
Q.4 Question figure :

(A) (B)
(C) (D) (A) (B)

(C) (D)

(A) (B) (D)

(A) A (B) B
(A) (B) (C) C (D) D
(C) (D) transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(A) (B) (D)

Answer figure (A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) A
(A) (B) (D)

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(X)
Q.15 A piece of paper is folded and punched as
shown. Indicate how it is when opened?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2
Options :
(C) 3 (D) 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Q.16 Appear when it is opened?
(C) (D)
Q.3 If a mirror placed on the line MN, then which of
the answer figure is the correct image of the
question figure?
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 Questions figure
(C) 3 (D) 4
11.2 Mirror Images
Class Practice Questions : (A) (B)

Q.1 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which
of the answer figures is the right image of the
given figure?
N (C) (D)
of the answer figure is the right images of the
M
given figure?
Questions figure M N
(A) (B) Questions figure
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(C) (D)
Q.5 Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror
image of the given figure, when the mirror is
held on the line AB?
given figures?
A
Y M
O Z
M N B
Questions figure
Questions figure
Y M M
O Y O
(A) (B) (A) (B)

Q.12 Choose the alternative which is closely resembles

M Y O Y
the water-image of the given combination?
O M
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
given figure?
M N the mirror image of the given combination?
(A)
(B)
Questions figure (C)
(D)
the mirror image of the given combination?
(A) (B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(C) (D)
(D)
(A) (B)
(A)
(C) (D)
(B)
(C)
the water-image of the given combination.?
(D)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A) (B)
(D)
(C) (D)
Q.17 The mirror image of the above text about the X-
axis is
Y
(A) (B)
(C) (D) TRIANGLE
the water-image of the given combination? X
(A) (B)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(C) (D) [GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (IN, CE-1)]
Q.18 The mirror image of the above text about the X- (A) (B)
axis is (C) (D)
Y
Q.7 If you put a mirror on the shaded line, which of
the following options would be the right image of
PHYLAXIS the given figure?
FRANCE
X
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (CE-2)]
Self Practice Questions : the following options would be the right image of
Q.1 Select the appropriate water image for the given the given figure?
question from the following options :
PELICAN
ALPACA
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
Q.2 Select the appropriate water image for the given
DIESEL the given figure?
(A) (B)
(C)
WASP
Q.3 Select the appropriate water image for the given (A) (B)
(C) (D)
AGOUTI
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
the given figure?
Q.4 Select the appropriate water image for the given
question from the following options : MONKEY
CROW
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
Q.5 Select the appropriate water image for the given 11.3 Figure Symmetry
BABOON
Q.1 Which of the following are the lines of
(A) (B)
symmetry?
(C) (D) C
E H
A B
the given figure?
G F
LATVIA
D
(A) AB and CD Q.7 The least number of squares that must be added
(B) EF and GH so that the line P-Q becomes the line of symmetry
(C) All of the above is _____.
P
(D) None of the above
Q.2 How many lines of symmetry can be drawn for
given figure?
Questions figure
(A) 01 (B) 02
(C) 04 (D) 06
Q
Q.3 How may capital letters of English alphabets
(A) 4 (B) 7
have both vertical line of symmetry?
(C) 6 (D) 3
(A) 04 (B) 06
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (EC)]
(C) 05 (D) 03
Q.8 A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is
Q.4 What letters of the English alphabet have
shown above. Which one of the given options for
reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related to
the missing piece when assembled will form a
mirror reflection) about a vertical mirror.
rectangle? The piece can be moved, rotated or
(A) 11 (B) 09
flipped to assemble with the above piece.
(C) 10 (D) 12
Q.5 In the following figures, the figure that is not
symmetric with respect to any line is :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.6 How may circles are needed to make line PQ (A)
symmetric?
P
(B)
Q
(A) 06 (B) 05
(C) 04 (D) 07
(C) (A)
(B)
(D)
(C)
[GATE 2021 : IIT-Bombay (ME-1)]

Q.9 A jigsaw puzzle has 2 pieces. One of the pieces is
(D)
shown above. Which one of the given options for
the missing piece when assembled will form a
rectangle? The piece can be moved, rotated or
flipped to assemble with the above piece.

A Answer Keys
11.1 Paper Folding & Cutting [CPQ’s]

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. A
11.1 Paper Folding & Cutting [SPQ’s]
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. A
16. A
11.2 Mirror Image [CPQ’s]

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C
6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. D 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. B
16. C 17. B 18. C
11.2 Mirror Image [SPQ’s]
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. D
11.3 Figure Symmetry [CPQ’s]

1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. B
12
12.1 Sentence Completion (A) hackneyed ... professional
(B) suspenseful ... poseur
Class Practice Questions : (C) transparent ... scamp
Q.1 She hadn’t eaten all day, and by the time she got (D) trite ... hack
home she was ______. Q.7 In making the decision on whether to drop the
(A) blighted (B) confutative atomic bomb, President Truman attempted to
(C) ravenous (D) ostentatious ______ the weapon’s ______ effects, ultimately
(E) blissful deciding that ending World War II outweighed
Q.2 The movie offended many of the parents of its the harmful consequences he imagined.
younger viewers by including unnecessary (A) foresee ... benevolent
______ in the dialogue. (B) presage ... deleterious
(A) Vulgarity (B) Verbosity
(C) prognosticate ... healthful
(C) Vocalizations (D) Tonality
(D) refute ... noxious
Q.3 His neighbours found his ______ manner bossy
Q.8 Oscar ______ the laundry right now.
and irritating, and they stopped inviting him to
backyard barbeques. (A) is making (B) is being
(A) Insentient (B) Magisterial (C) is doing (D) is having

(C) Restorative (D) Modest Q.9 The ______ woman has grey hair and many
Q.4 The two-child norm with _____ for the violators wrinkles. She was born many years ago.
will have significant implications for our (A) strong (B) young
demographic profile. (C) old (D) kind
(A) Disincentives (B) Incitements Q.10 Unlike Bermuda, which has a ______ climate,
(C) Restrictions (D) Restrains Minnesota is often ______, especially in the
[GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati] winter.
Q.5 Suresh’s dog is the one ______ was hurt in the (A) breezy … windy
stampede.
(B) stormy … unpredictable
(A) That (B) Which
(C) warm … humid
(C) Who (D) Whom
(D) tropical … frigid
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi]
Q.11 After living in a ______ for many years, Pete
Q.6 The author’s first novel had such a ______ story
realized he needed a change and decided to retire
that critics quickly dismissed the author as a
to a small cottage in a quiet, ______ town.
______.
GATE ACADEMY ® Verbal Ability & Verbal Grammar (VA VG) 105
(A) town … familiar Q.19 I thought over this decision to a great length after
(B) village … tiny we ______ it the other day.
(C) metropolis … country (A) discussed
(D) house … soothing (B) discussed about
Q.12 Jacob’s mother and father both had to ______ him (C) discussed regarding
from his sleep because he had slept through his (D) discussed on
alarm. Q.20 My coach is one of the best coaches _____.
(A) Rouse (B) Fluctuate (A) that I know
(C) Lull (D) Tremble (B) I know
Q.13 The coach just wanted Sara to ______ the new (C) who I know
technique, so she was upset when Sara refused to (D) which I know
______ it. Q.21 Choose the most appropriate word from the
(A) Explain … learn options given below to the complete the
(B) Perform … enjoy following sentence:
(C) Try … attempt His rather casual remarks on politics _______
(D) Examine … understand his lack of seriousness about the subject.
Q.14 Food prices ______ again this month. (A) Masked (B) Belied
(A) Have raised (C) Betrayed (D) Suppressed
(B) Have been raising [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati
(C) Have been rising (CSE, EE, ME, CE, EC, IN)]
(D) Have arose. Q.22 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi] options given below to complete the following
Q.15 Some people __________ themselves into sentence.
believing that, they are the only honest and I contemplated ________ Singapore for my
hardworking employees in the company. vacation but decided against it.
(A) Keep (B) Fool (A) To visit (B) Having To Visit
(C) Delude (D) Force (C) Visiting (D) For A Visit
Q.16 Rajesh, two of _____ brothers play cricket, wishes [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (CSE, ME, CE)]
to be a coach after his retirement. Q.23 Research in the workplace reveals that people
(A) Whom (B) Which work for many reasons _____.
(C) Them (D) Whose (A) Money beside (B) Beside money
Q.17 Even a _____ glance will let you catch the (C) Money besides (D) Besides money
mistake. [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS Set – 1)]
(A) Crude (B) Curious Q.24 Choose the most appropriate pair of words from
(C) Cursory (D) Prefers the options given below to complete the
Q.18 _____ students whether from primary or following sentence.
secondary divisions struggle to understand She could not _____ the thought of _________
mathematics. the election to her bitter rival.
(A) The large number of (A) Bear, loosing (B) Bare, loosing
(B) A large number of (C) Bear, losing (D) Bare, losing
(C) Large [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur
(D) More (EC Set - 2, ME Set - 2)]
Q.25 Choose the most appropriate word from the (A) Uphold (B) Restrain
options given below to complete the following (C) Cherish (D) Conserve
sentence the official answered _________ that the [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati
complaints of the citizen would be looked into.
(CSE, ME, EE, EC, CE)]
(A) Respectably (B) Respectfully
Q.31 Choose the most appropriate word from the
(C) Reputably (D) Respectively options given below to complete the following
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set - 2)] sentence: Under ethical guidelines recently
Q.26 The driver applied the _____ as soon as she adopted by the Indian Medical Association,
approached the hotel where she wanted to take human genes are to be manipulated only to
a_______? correct diseases for which______________
(A) Brake, Break (B) Break, Break treatments are unsatisfactory.
(C) Brake, Brake (D) Break, Brake (A) Similar (B) Most
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 1)] (C) Uncommon (D) Available
Q.27 “Although it does contain some pioneering ideas, [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (EC, EE)]
one would hardly characterize the work as Q.32 “When she fell down the ________, she received
_______.” many _______ but little help.” The words that
The word that best fills the blank in the above best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
sentence is (A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs
(A) Innovative (B) Simple (C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares
(C) Dull (D) Boring [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (IN Set – 1)]
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 2)] Q.33 "In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to
Q.28 “By giving him the last __________ of the cake, correct his ______ behaviour."
you will ensure lasting ________ in our house The word that best fills the blank in the above
today.” sentence is
The words that best fill the blanks in the above (A) rational (B) reasonable
sentence are (C) errant (D) good
(A) peas, piece (B) piece, peace [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (IN Set – 1)]
(C) peace, pieces (D) peace, peas Q.34 Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (EC Set – 1)] four options given below, to complete the
following sentence:
Q.29 “His face _______ with joy when the solution of
the puzzle was _______ to him.” Apparent lifelessness ___________ dormant life.
The words that best fill the blanks in the above (A) Harbours (B) Leads to
sentence are (C) Supports (D) Affects
(A) Shone, shown (B) Shone, shone [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (ME Set – 3, IN)]
(C) Shown, shone (D) Shown, shown Q.35 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati (CE Set – 2)] options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Q.30 Choose the most appropriate word from the
options given below to complete the following Despite several _____________ the mission
sentence: succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.
If we manage to ____________ our natural (A) Attempts (B) Setbacks
resources, we would leave a better planet for (C) Meetings (D) Delegations
our children. [GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (CSE, ME, CE)]
12.2 Sentence Improvement Q.6 Newton explored the Laws of motion.

(A) Decoded
Directions for Questions 1 to 12 (B) Discovered
In each question, a part of the sentence is underlined. (C) Invented

Each sentence is followed by some phrases which can (D) No improvement
replace the underlined part to make it better. Choose the Q.7 The SIT made a request to sought permission to
option that can correctly substitute that part of the conduct NARCO test on the convict.
sentence. If the sentence is correct as it, the answer is "No (A) To seeking permission
correction required" or "No improvement".
(B) For seeking permission
Q.1 John is as fast as or perhaps faster than Sarah.
(C) Seeking permission
(A) as fast
(D) No improvement
(B) almost as fast
Q.8 Had you been told father about your difficulties;
(C) equally fast
he would have helped you find a solution.
(D) No correction required
(A) Had you told
Q.2 This worker is the most skilled of all the other
(B) If you have told
workers in our factory.
(A) worker (C) Had you have told
(B) of all the others workers (D) No improvement
(C) of all workers Q.9 The analyst said that since the rate of gold would
(D) No improvement go up, the cost of ornaments is also increasing
Q.3 The girl told her teacher to explain the whole (A) Would also increase
lesson again. (B) Will increased
(A) Called her teacher (C) Will be also increasing
(B) Said to her teacher (D) No improvement
(C) Asked her teacher Q.10 What were you doing ever since mom left?
(D) No improvement (A) Are you doing
Q.4 The speaker of Lok Sabha broke away the (B) Did you do
meeting as it turned violent.
(C) Have you been doing
(A) broke up
(D) No improvement
(B) broke off
Q.11 Neither do I nor does my brother tell lies.
(C) broke through
(A) Neither I live nor does
(D) No improvement
(B) Neither I nor
Q.5 The burning of coal in thermal electricity plants
release dust particles and greenhouse gases that (C) Neither I do nor does
contribute to pollution. (D) No improvement
(A) Releases dust particles and greenhouse gases Q.12 I congratulated him because of his good
that performance in exams.
(B) Release dust particle and greenhouse gases (A) Due to
which (B) For
(C) Releases dust particles and greenhouse gas (C) On
that
(D) No improvement
(D) No improvement
Q.13 The following question presents a sentence, part Q.4 (A) People are rather impressed by the style of
of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you dressing than by a person's character.
find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. (B) People are impressed rather by the style of
Following the requirements of the standard dressing than by a person's character.
written English, select the answer that produces (C) Rather people are impressed by the style of a
the most effective sentence. dressing than by a person's character.
Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks one (D) People are impressed by the style of dressing
of the leading causes of death in India. than by a person's character.
(A) Ranks as one of the leading causes of death Q.5 (A) In four bomb-blasts, fortunately only three
(B) Rank as one of the leading causes of death lives were lost.
(C) Has the rank of one of the leading causes of
(B) In a four bomb-blasts only three lives were
death
fortunately lost.
(D) Are one of the leading causes of death
(C) Fortunately, in four bomb-blasts, only three
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (EC Set - 1]
lives were lost.
12.3 Sentence Correction (D) In fortunately four bomb- blast, only three
lives were lost
Q.6 (A) As one travels from kulumanali to shimla, he
In each of the following questions, select the most finds the line most beautifully laid.
preferable sentence with respect to grammar, meaning
(B) Travelling from kulumanali to shimla, one
and usage.
finds the line most beautifully laid.
Q.1 (A) Our team had won the competition if only
(C) While travelling from kulumanali to shimla,
we would have concentrated.
one would find the line most beautifully laid.
(B) Our team would have won the competition if
(D) If one travels from kulumanali to shimla, he
only we had concentrated.
will find the line beautifully laid.
(C) Our team would win the competition only if
Q.7 (A) Being two years completed, Sahil will be
we had concentrated.
working in this office till May next.
(D) Our team had won the competition if only
(B) Till May next year, Sahil will work in the
we would have concentrated.
office for two years.
Q.2 (A) She came in too quickly to avoid waking her
(C) By May next year, Sahil will have been
child.
working in the office for two years.
(B) She entered in quickly, so as not to wake her
child. (D) Sahil will be working in this office upon
(C) Having not to wake her child, she came in completing two years by next May.
quickly. Q.8 (A) I went yesterday to the school to collect the

(D) She came in very quickly so that she might Leaving certificate.
avoid waking her child. (B) To collect the Leaving certificate yesterday, I
Q.3 (A) Many trains must stop owing to floods, if the went to the school.
rains last till the weekend. (C) Yesterday to collect the Leaving certificate I
(B) If the rains last for the weekend, owing to went to the school.
floods, many trains must stop. (D) I went to the school yesterday to collect the
(C) Owing to floods, many trains must stop if the Leaving certificate.
rains last over the weekend. Q.9 (A) There will be a meeting in the long room at
(D) Having the rains lasting to the weekend, 11 o' clock of all the students who play
many trains must stop. badminton.
(B) There will be a meeting of all the students Q.14 Which of the following options is the closest in
who play badminton in the long room at 11 o' meaning to the sentence below?
clock. “As a woman, I have no country.”
(C) There will be in the long room at 11 o' clock a (A) Women have no country
meeting of all the students who play
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
badminton.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national
(D) In the long room, at 11 o' clock there will be a
boundaries
meeting of all the students who play
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal
badminton.
rights.
Q.10 (A) As soon as rains begin than this waterfall will
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE Set – 2, IN)]
look very beautiful.
Q.15 “India is a country of rich heritage and cultural
(B) As soon as the rains begin this waterfall will
diversity”.
look very beautiful
(C) No sooner did the rains begin than this Which one of the following facts best supports
waterfall will look very beautiful. the claim made in the above sentence?
(D) Scarcely had the rains begin than this (A) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union
waterfall becomes very beautiful. territories.
Q.11 Which of the following options is the closest in (B) India has a population of over 11 billion.
meaning to the sentence below? (C) India is home to 22 official languages and
She enjoyed herself immensely at the party. thousands of dialects.
(A) She had a terrible time at the party. (D) The Indian cricket team draws players from
(B) She had a horrible time at the party. over ten states.
(C) She had a terrific time at the party [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur
(D) She had a terrifying time at the party (EC Set – 3, ME Set - 3)]
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur Q.16 Out of the following four sentences, select the
(CSE Set - 1, EE Set - 1)] most suitable sentence with respect to grammar
Q.12 Ram and Shyam shared a secret and promised to and usage.
each other that it would remain between them. (A) Since the report lacked needed information, it
Ram expressed himself in one of the following was of no use to them.
ways as given in the choices below. Identify the (B) The report was useless to them because there
correct way as per standard English. were no needed information in it.
(A) It would remain between you and me. (C) Since the report did not contain the needed
(B) It would remain between I and you information, it was not real useful to them
(C) It would remain between you and I (D) Since the report lacked needed information, it
(D) It would remain with me. would not had been useful to them.
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur
(EC Set - 3, ME Set - 2)]
(CSE Set - 2, EE Set - 2)]
Q.13 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence
12.4 Idioms and Phrases
(A) Two and two add four
(B) Two and two become four
(C) Two and two are four
(D) Two and two make four Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (EC, EE, IN)] the given idiom.
Q.1 To talk one's head off Directions for Questions 9 to 20

(A) To shout loudly
Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the
(B) To talk in whispers idioms and phrases underlined in the given sentences.
(C) To talk to oneself Q.9 After facing all the hardships, I'm happy to see
(D) To talk excessively that you have turned a new leaf.
Q.2 To save one's face (A) Proved to be successful
(A) To hide oneself (B) Stayed strong
(B) To oppose (C) Begun a different mode of life
(C) To evade disgrace (D) Applied common sense
(D) To protect Q.10 The rich and the poor sat cheek by jowl in the
Q.3 Hush money rescue ferry.
(A) Money overdue (A) Separately
(B) Easy money (B) Very near
(C) Bribe paid to secure silence (C) Irritated
(D) Money earned by illegally (D) Very far
Q.4 To bite one's lips Q.11 Try to end your dependency on alcohol
(A) To gossip otherwise you'll end in smoke one day.
(B) To have doubt (A) Ruin yourself completely
(C) To feel sorry (B) Become the victim

(C) Die
(D) To be angry
(D) Loose all your money
Q.5 A tall order
Q.12 Inspite of the immense pressure by the
(A) A big issue
opposition, the ruling party, has decided not to
(B) A royal disperses
give in.
(C) A task difficult
(A) Conform
(D) A big demand
(B) Accede
Q.6 To see eye to eye with
(C) Oblige
(A) To love someone
(D) Yield
(B) To agree
Q.13 Being an introvert that he is wearing his heart on
(C) To be angry his sleeves is not possible to him.
(D) To take revenge (A) Talking endlessly
Q.7 To talk shop (B) Saying something which can't be taken
(A) To talk about interesting facts seriously
(B) To talk reasonably (C) Being friendly with others
(C) To abuse someone (D) Exposing innermost feelings to others
(D) To talk about business Q.14 I did not even listen to him, he was only talking
Q.8 To strike one's colors through his hat.
(A) To fight vigorously (A) Talking ignorantly
(B) To surrender (B) Talking non-stop
(C) To work hard (C) Talking garrulously
(D) To make a rude gesture (D) Talking nonsense
Q.15 The thieves took to heels as they heard the siren. Q.22 After India’s cricket world cup victory in 1985,
(A) Moved back Shrotria who was playing both tennis and cricket
(B) Ran away till then, decided to concentrate only on cricket.

And the rest is history.
(C) Took off their shoes
What does the underlined phrase mean in this
(D) Put on the shoes
context?
Q.16 I cannot put up with your insulting behaviour
(A) history will rest in peace
now.
(B) rest is recorded in history books
(A) Refuse (B) Accept
(C) rest is well known
(C) Excuse (D) Tolerate
(D) rest is archaic
Q.17 The mob outside the police station was up in
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore
arms against the recent incidence of child abuse.
(A) Vandalising the check post
Q.23 He turned a deaf ear to my request.
(B) Pained
What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?
(C) Shouting slogans
(A) Ignored (B) Appreciated
(D) Angry
(C) Twisted (D) Returned
Q.18 The bus sped and turned turtle in the ditch.
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE Set-2)]
(A) Stopped
Q.24 In a press meet on the recent scam, the minister
(B) Failed
said, “The buck stops here”. What did the
(C) Turned upside down minister convey by the statement?
(D) Fell flat (A) He wants all the money
Q.19 Nobody takes Reema's complains seriously as (B) He will return the money
she is a cry wolf.
(C) He will assume final responsibility
(A) Raises false alarms
(D) He will resist all enquiries
(B) Selfish
(C) Always keeps crying
(D) Always complaining
12.5 Synonyms & Antonyms
Q.20 This project is a Gordian knot.
(A) Ordinary project Directions for Questions 1 to 10
(B) Big project
(C) Easy job In each of the questions below, choose the word opposite
in meaning to the given word.
(D) Difficult job
Q.1 Endanger
Q.21 Select the alternative meaning of the underlined
part of the sentence. The chain snatchers took to (A) Venture (B) Threatens
their heels when the police party arrived. (C) Defends (D) Careless
(A) Took shelter in a thick jungle Q.2 Judicious
(B) Open indiscriminate fire (A) Indiscreet (B) Unlawful
(C) Took to flight (C) Impure (D) Unequal
(D) Unconditionally surrendered Q.3 Stimulate
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (A) Yield (B) Grab
(EE Set - 1, CSE Set - 1)] (C) Benign (D) Discourages

Q.4 Knack Q.17 Insurmountable

(A) Flair (B) Ineptitude (A) Defeatable (B) Reachable
(C) Expertise (D) Capability (C) Impossible (D) Attainable
Q.5 Inquisitive Q.18 Soporific
(A) Insincere (B) Insensitive
(A) Lethargic (B) Happy
(C) Indifferent (D) Insulting
(C) Terrifying (D) Alert
Q.6 Hegemony
Q.19 Doleful
(A) Leadership (B) Helplessness
(A) Mournful (B) Regretful
(C) Dominance (D) Discipline
(C) Cheerless (D) Sober
Q.7 Sow
(A) Scatter (B) Sprinkle Q.20 Squander
(C) Reap (D) Water (A) Procure (B) Hoard

Q.8 Subsume (C) Save (D) Misuse
(A) Hold (B) Exclude Q.21 Which of the following options is closest in
(C) Enclose (D) Classify meaning to the word given below
Q.9 Fickle Nadir
(A) Quick (B) Erratic (A) Highest (B) Lowest
(C) Constant (D) Volatile (C) Medium (D) Integration
Q.10 Conformity [GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CSE, ME)]
(A) Distraction (B) Dilution Q.22 Which of the following options is closest in
(C) Deviation (D) Diversion meaning to the word Circuitous.
Directions for Questions 11 to 20 (A) Cyclic (B) Indirect
In each of the questions below, choose the word that best (C) Confusing (D) Crooked
expresses the meaning of the given word. [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati
Q.11 Perpetuate (EC, EE, ME, IN, CE, CSE)]
(A) Halt (B) Neglect
Q.23 Which of the following options is the closest in
(C) Maintains (D) Let go the meaning to the word below :
Q.12 Mendicant
Inexplicable
(A) Reformer (B) Advisor
(A) Incomprehensible (B) Indelible
(C) Beggar (D) Dealer
(C) Inextricable (D) Infallible
Q.13 Privy
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras (CSE, ME, CE)]
(A) Obvious (B) Known
Q.24 There was no doubt that their work was
(C) Secret (D) Candid
thorough.
Q.14 Frivolous
(A) Sensible (B) Silly Which of the words below is closest in meaning
to the underlined word above?
(C) Wise (D) Supported
Q.15 Asperity (A) Pretty (B) Complete
(A) Mild (B) Civil (C) Sloppy (D) Haphazard

(C) Polite (D) Harshness [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (IN, CE Set - 2)]
Q.16 Monument Q.25 Which one of the following options is the closest
(A) Epitaph (B) Memorial in meaning to the word given below?
(C) Tomb (D) Mausoleum Mitigate
(A) Diminish (B) Divulge Q.32 Which word is not a synonym for the word
(C) Dedicate (D) Denote vernacular?
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (BT, ME, CE)] (A) Regional (B) Indigeneous
Q.26 The word similar in meaning to ‘dreary’ is (C) Indigent (D) Colloquial
(A) Cheerful (B) Dreamy [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set- 2)]
(C) Hard (D) Dismal Q.33 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set - 2)] grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it
Q.27 Which one of the following option is the closest at someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”
in meaning to the word given below Select the word below which is closest in
Latitude meaning to the word underlined above.
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (A) Burning (B) Igniting
(C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness (C) Clutching (D) Flinging
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi (EC, EE, IN)] [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EC Set – 3, IN)]
Q.28 Which of the following options is closest in Q.34 Choose the option with words that are not
meaning to the word given below? synonyms.
“Primeval” (A) Aversion, dislike
(A) Modern (B) Historic (B) Luminous, radiant
(C) Primitive (D) Antique (C) Plunder, loot

[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay (CE)] (D) Yielding, resistant
Q.29 Which of the following options is the closest in [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee (EE, CS Set – 2)]
meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence Q.35 Match the columns :
below? Column 1 Column 2
It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied (1) Eradicate (P) Misrepresent
environmental conditions.
(2) Distort (Q) Soak Completely
(A) Adopt to (B) Adapt to
(3) Saturate (R) Use
(C) Adept in (D) Accept with
(4) Utilize (S) Destroy Utterly
(A) 1:S, 2:P, 3:Q, 4:R
(CSE Set -1, EE Set-1)]
(B) 1:P, 2:Q, 3:R, 4:S
Q.30 While receiving the award, the scientist said, "I
(C) 1:Q, 2:R, 3:S, 4:P
feel vindicated". Which of the following is closest
(D) 1:S, 2:P, 3:R, 4:Q
in meaning to the word ‘vindicated’?
(A) Punished (B) Substantiated
(CSE Set -2, EE Set-2)]
(C) Appreciated (D) Chastened
Q.36 Which of the following options is closest in
meaning to the word given below
(EC Set -4, ME Set-4)]
VERNACULAR
Q.31 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to
the word “coherent”. (A) Faulty speech
(A) Sticky (B) Well-connected (B) Language of a locality
(C) Rambling (D) Friendly (C) Foreign accent
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (EE)] (D) Gibberish
(CSE Set -3, EE Set-3)] [GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (EE)]

Q.37 Which of the following options is closest in Q.13 Identify the correct spelling out of the given
meaning to the word given below options :
Puerile (A) Manageable (B) Manageble
(A) Humorous (B) Virtuous (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible
(C) Childish (D) Whimsical [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EE Set - 2)]
[GATE 2019 : IIT Madras (ME)] Q.14 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, “What
did you __________ ?
12.6 Spellings
(A) Loose (B) Lose
Directions for Questions 1 to 2 (C) Loss (D) Louse
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (EC Set - 1)]
In each of the following questions, choose the correctly
spelt word out of the given alternatives. 12.7 One Word Substitution
Q.1 (A) Apalogy (B) Apollogie
(C) Appology (D) Apology
Q.2 (A) Ceasar (B) Cizaer
In each of the following questions, out of the four
(C) Cizar (D) Caesar
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
Directions for Questions 3 to 12 the given words/ sentence.
Q.1 A short, amusing story about some real person or
In the following questions, groups of four words are
event is called as ________
given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find out
(A) Myth (B) Anecdote
the wrongly spelt word and mark the answer.
(C) Fable (D) Allegory
Q.3 (A) Attendence (B) Providence
Q.2 Act of bringing gentle and painless death from
(C) Evidence (D) Preference
incurable disease is called as ________
Q.4 (A) Deleterious (B) Perseverence
(A) Suicide (B) Fatality
(C) Inexorable (D) Bowdlerise
(C) Euthanasia (D) Gallows
Q.5 (A) Genarally (B) Normally
Q.3 A small enclosure for cattle, sheep, poultry etc. is
(C) Effectively (D) Grandly
called as _________
Q.6 (A) Genre (B) Obsene
(A) Eyrie (B) Sty
(C) Caliber (D) Cavil
(C) Pen (D) Lair
Q.7 (A) Argument (B) Trickery
Q.4 Music sung or played at night below a person's
(C) Comotion (D) Uproar
window is called as _________.
Q.8 (A) Agrendise (B) Squalid
(A) Serenade (B) Sonnet
(C) Squeamish (D) Rudimentary
(C) Lyric (D) Primo
Q.9 (A) Sympathatic (B) Generous
Q.5 Anything written in a letter after it is signed is
(C) Compassionate (D) Benevolent
known as __________.
Q.10 (A) Acquiesce (B) Acquire
(A) Corrigendum (B) Postdiction
(C) Acquatic (D) Acquittal
(C) Postscript (D) Plutocracy
Q.11 (A) Manhandle (B) Associate
Q.6 Endurance of pain without display of feelings or
(C) Bruere (D) Traipse complaint
Q.12 (A) Therapeutic (B) Barricade (A) Stoicism (B) Perseverance
(C) Thermometer (D) Bureaucretic (C) Reticence (D) Tolerance
Q.7 In a state of anxiety - Q.4 Had you been to Mumbai, (A)/ I would also go
(A) Bellicose (B) Frightened (B)/ with you (C)/ No error (D).
(C) Gloom (D) On tenterhooks Q.5 She ran so fastly (A)/ that she was able to catch
Q.8 A word that refers to small, fast, continuous (B)/ the running bus (C)/ No error (D)
shaking movement Q.6 He met me two days ago (A)/ but he never told
(A) Oscillation (B) Vibration me (B)/ about his grandmother's death. (C)/ No
(C) Distillation (D) Permutation error (D).
Q.9 The act of walking slowly, wasting time - Q.7 I would request to you (A)/ to consider my
application (B)/ for the role of junior engineer.
(A) Stagger (B) Stride
(C)/ No error (D)
(C) Dawdle (D) Plod
Q.8 We are (A)/ looking forward (B)/ to see you
Q.10 A person who easily gives up his party -
personally. (C)/ No error (D)
(A) Turntake (B) Turncoat
Q.9 Companies who are (A)/ into manufacturing,
(C) Turnover (D) Turnaround
particularly in the (B)/ gems and stones business,
Q.11 A rewording of something written or spoken is a would benefit the most from the new scheme.
______________. (C)/ No error (D)
(A) Paraphrase (B) Paradox Q.10 The bill that I have (A)/ says the payment can be
(C) Paradigm (D) Paraffin made (B)/ until April 30, 2018. (C)/ No error (D)
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (CE Set - 1)] Q.11 A student is required to demonstrate a high level
Q.12 A generic term that include various items of of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
clothing such as a skirt, a pair of trousers and a social sciences. The word closest in meaning to
shirt is comprehension is
(A) Fabric (B) Textile (A) Understanding (B) Meaning
(C) Fibre (D) Apparel (C) Concentration (D) Stability
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur (CE Set - 1)]
(CSE Set - 2, EE Set - 2)] Q.12 Choose the statement where underlined word is
12.8 Error Finding used correctly.
(A) When the teacher eludes to different authors,
Directions for Questions 1 to 10 he is being elusive
Every sentence is divided into four sections (a, b, c). (B) When the thief keeps eluding the police, he is
There is some error in one of these sections. Read the being elusive
sentence carefully and mark the incorrect section. (C) Matters that are difficult to understand,
However, if you feel the sentence contains no error, mark identify or remember are allusive
part 'd'. (D) Mirages can be allusive, but a better way to
Q.1 Although he was late (A)/ but he stopped on the express them is illusory
way (B)/ to have coffee with his friends. (C)/ No [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (ME Set - 3, IN]
error (D) Q.13 Choose the statement where underlined word is
Q.2 She was taking care of her baby for two hours used correctly
(A)/ before she (B)/ was called by her mother. (C)/ (A) The minister insured the victims that
No error (D) everything would be all right.
Q.3 No sooner did he see his teacher (A)/ when he (B) He ensured that the company will not have
(B)/ stopped copying. (C)/ No error (D) to bear any loss.
(C) The actor got himself ensured against any

accident.
(D) The teacher insured students of good results
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur (CE Set - 2)]
Q.14 Choose the statement where underlined word is
used correctly.
(A) The industrialist load a personnel jet.
(B) I write my experience in my personnel diary.
(C) All personnel are being given the day off.
(D) Being religious is a personnel aspect.
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur
Q.15 Choose the statement(s) where the underlined
word is used correctly :
(i) A prone is a dried plum.
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart
disease.
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore (ME Set - 2)]

A Answer Keys
12.1 Sentence Completion

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D
11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. C
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. C 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. B
26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. B
12.2 Sentence Improvement

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C
11. D 12. C 13. A
12.3 Sentence Correction

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. C
16. A
12.4 Idioms & Phrases

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. B
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. A 24. C
12.5 Synonyms & Antonyms

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. D
16. D 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. A
26. D 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. A
36. A 37. C
12.6 Spellings
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. C
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B
12.7 One Word Substitution

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. A 12. D
12.8 Error Finding

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D

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Street - 04, Narsingh Vihar, Katulbod,

(A) 1668 (B) 2084 (vi) 2333 is divided by 21.

5 Q.63 Find the sum of the expression

numbers of rooms required to conduct the (A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 215 (D) 127 HCF is 27. The number are –

Q.17 Find the number of positive integers co-prime to

Class Practice Questions (CPQ’s)

Self Practice Questions (SPQ’s)

Class Practice Questions : (CPQ’s) (i) Exactly one 5

(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600 Q.17 A three-member committee has to be formed a

2.1 Number Arrangement

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

Class Practice Questions : (v) Multiple of 2

(ii) A boll is picked from the 1st bag and put in 3 1

Class Practice Questions (CPQ’s)

Self Practice Questions (SPQ’s)

Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

6. 11 days 7. 9 days 8. B 9. 40 men 10. 6 days

11. 4 days 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C

16. C 17. D 18. D 19. D 20. D

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C

16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. 7.5 min

21. D 22. D 23. B 24. C 25 B

Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

Q.2 If Tushar goes from Delhi to Noida at a speed of (C) 35 km from A

Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

6. 10 km 7. 40 min 8. 55 min 9. 12 km 10. 16 km

11. 14 sec 12. A 13. 560 m 14. D 15. B

16. 800 m 17. B 18. 22.22 m 19. D 20. A

21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. 4 kmph

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A

(C) 21 : 22 (A) 400 kg (B) 560 kg

(A) 18 litres (B) 24 litres Self Practice Questions :

(A) 7 : 3 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 76 kg. (D) 80 kg.

(C) 10 : 3 (D) 10 : 6 Q.3 The avg. wt. of 47 students in a class is 52 kg.

(A) 2 years (B) 10 years (A) 62 kg. (B) 65 kg.

(C) 2 years (D) 15 years (C) 68 kg. (D) 70 kg.

age is (C) 157 : 53 (D) 5 : 2

(C) 3 : 4 (D) 2 : 5 chhaya is 6 : 5 and fifteen years from now, the

Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

(A) 15.10 (B) 8.50 dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 6 cm . If 60% of the wall

(A) 1/6 (B) 1/8 (A) π (b2 − a 2 ) − n(b − a) 2 

D C The probability that any point picked randomly

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) P

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

D C (C) 124 cm (D) 961 cm

(A) 35 2 metres (B) 175 2 metres

Class Practice Questions [CPQ’s]

Self Practice Questions [SPQ’s]

The number of minutes spent by two Students, X

20% more than that in 2014 and company Q had 70