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Past Papers IGCSE 2023 22

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2

1 Forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles, as shown.

X Y

Cambridge IGCSE
3N
PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2023
45 minutes O Z
4N
You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.
What is the resultant force?
*8001247384*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
A 1 N along XZ
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) B 5 N along XZ

INSTRUCTIONS C 5 N along OY
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct D 7 N along OY
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil. 2 A light ball is held at rest at the top of a tall cliff. It is released and falls through the air, eventually
reaching its terminal velocity.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid. Which row describes the behaviour of the ball as it descends?
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator. the initial the final
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2). acceleration acceleration
of the ball of the ball

INFORMATION A 0 0
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
B 0 g
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper. C g 0
D g g

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


3 4

3 The graph represents the motion of a car. 7 A truck is towing a car along a straight horizontal road at a constant speed.

10 truck
car
speed rope
m/s 8

6
The rope breaks.
4
Which row gives the direction of the initial acceleration of the truck after the rope breaks and the
2 reason for the acceleration?

0 direction of
0 1 2 3 4 5 acceleration reason
time / s of the truck

How far has the car moved between 0 and 5 s? A left the driving force is greater than
the resistive forces on the truck
A 2m B 10 m C 25 m D 50 m B left the driving force is smaller than
the resistive forces on the truck
4 Which statement about mass or weight is not correct? C right the driving force is greater than
the resistive forces on the truck
A Masses can be compared using a balance.
D right the driving force is smaller than
B Mass is a force. the resistive forces on the truck
C Weights can be compared using a balance.
D Weight is a force. 8 A uniform beam is pivoted at the centre and two identical masses, X and Y, are placed so that the
beam balances.

5 A sphere P, made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Earth. A smaller mass is then added at the position shown.

Another sphere Q, also made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Mars. position of


small mass
The gravitational field strength on Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on Mars. X Y

Which statement is correct?

A The mass of sphere P is the same as the mass of sphere Q. pivot

B The mass of sphere P is less than the mass of sphere Q. How can the masses be positioned so the beam balances again?
C On Mars, the weight of sphere P is the same as the weight of sphere Q. A Move X away from the pivot.
D On Earth, the weight of sphere Q is less than 10 N. B Move X towards the pivot.
C Move Y towards the pivot.
6 Which two quantities must be known to determine the density of a material?
D Move the small mass away from the pivot.
A mass and area
B mass and volume
C weight and area
D weight and volume

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


5 6

9 A resultant force of 2.0 N acts on an object of mass 3.0 kg for 6.0 s. 14 Four students describe the phrase ‘absolute zero’ during a lesson on the particle model.

What is the change in velocity of the object? Which student is correct?

A 0.25 m / s B 1.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 36 m / s A This is the lowest possible temperature.


B Particles in a solid start vibrating.
10 The diagram shows the energy stores for a mobile (cell) phone and how the energy is transferred C Particles do not have any weight.
between stores.
D Particles have the least gravitational potential energy.
internal
heating
energy
chemical 15 Four students are asked to state and explain the relative magnitudes of the thermal expansion of
?
energy kinetic solids and gases.
sound
energy
Which student is correct?
What describes how the chemical energy is transferred? A Gases expand more than solids because the molecules in a gas are in random motion.
A electrical work done B Gases expand more than solids because the attractive forces between molecules are much
weaker in gases.
B mechanical work done
C Solids expand more than gases because the molecules are closer together in solids.
C electromagnetic waves
D Solids expand more than gases because the molecules in a solid are in a regular pattern.
D sound waves

16 Four cups A, B, C and D contain hot coffee.


11 A wind turbine is 30% efficient and has an output of 2.5 MW of electrical power.
Which cup keeps the coffee warm the longest?
What is the power input to the turbine?

A 0.75 MW B 8.3 MW C 75 MW D 83 MW the outside


the top of the cup
surface of the cup

12 Which two physical quantities must be used to calculate the power developed by a student A black covered with a lid
running up a flight of steps? B black no lid
A force exerted and the vertical height of the steps only C white covered with a lid
B force exerted and the time taken only D white no lid
C work done and the vertical height of the steps only
D work done and the time taken only

13 The density of sea water is 1030 kg / m3.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth is 9.8 N / kg.

Atmospheric pressure is 101 000 Pa.

At which depth in sea water is the total pressure due to the atmosphere and the water equal to
513 000 Pa?

A 40.8 m B 50.8 m C 400 m D 498 m

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


7 8

17 The diagram shows a wave. 19 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

8 cm A light of a single frequency


B light transmitted by a transparent prism
C visible light
3 cm
D white light
6 cm

20 A beam of light consists of yellow and blue light.

The beam of light is incident on a glass prism.

4 cm Which diagram is correct?

A B
What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?
yellow blue
amplitude / cm wavelength / cm blue yellow
glass prism glass prism
A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8
C D

18 Optical fibres are used to transmit digital signals using infrared radiation. glass prism glass prism
blue yellow
The average refractive index of the fibres is 1.50.

Which row describes a digital signal and gives the speed of infrared radiation in the fibres? yellow blue

speed of infrared radiation in the fibres


digital signal 21 A radio station broadcasts a signal with a frequency of 89 MHz.
m/s
8
A a signal that consists 2.0 × 10 What is the wavelength of this signal?
of only two values
A 3.7 µm B 3.4 m C 3.7 km D 3.4 Mm
B a signal that consists 4.5 × 108
of only two values
C a signal that consists of 2.0 × 108 22 A boy shouts and hears the echo from a tall building 2.2 s later.
a continuous range of values
The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.
D a signal that consists of 4.5 × 108
a continuous range of values How far away from the boy is the building?

A 150 m B 300 m C 360 m D 730 m

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


9 10

23 The magnetic field of a bar magnet can be represented by magnetic field lines. 27 An electric fire is connected to a 240 V supply and transfers energy at a rate of 1.0 kW.

Which diagram shows two magnetic field lines correctly? How much charge passes through the fire in 1.0 h?

A B C D A 42 C B 250 C C 1.5 × 104 C D 2.4 × 105 C

N S N S N S N S
28 Two lamps are connected in parallel.

24 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?


S1 S2
A It has gained electrons.
B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons. S3

D It has lost neutrons.

25 Which statement about electric current in a conductor is correct?


Which switches must be closed so that both lamps light?
A In a d.c. circuit, the electric current gradually decreases along the conductor.
A S1 and S2 only
B In a d.c. circuit, the free electrons flow back and forth.
B S1 and S3 only
C In an a.c. circuit, the electric current remains exactly the same all the time.
C S2 and S3 only
D In an a.c. circuit, the flow of charge changes direction continually.
D S1, S2 and S3

26 A piece of metal wire X with a uniform diameter has resistance R.


29 The diagram shows a circuit that switches on a lamp when there is a change in the environment.
X

A second piece of wire Y is made of the same metal and has a uniform diameter.

Y has double the cross-sectional area of X and half the length of X.

What is the resistance of Y? Which change in the environment causes the lamp to be switched on?

R R A a decrease in light intensity


A B C R D 4R
4 2
B a decrease in temperature
C an increase in light intensity
D an increase in temperature

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


11 12

30 A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output 33 Fission and fusion are two types of nuclear process.
voltage of 60 V a.c.
How does the total mass of the nuclides produced compare with the total mass of the original
The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A. nuclide or nuclides in these nuclear processes?

What is the current in the secondary coil?


total mass of fission total mass of fusion
A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A products compared products compared
to original nuclide to original nuclides

A same same
31 The diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field due to the current I in a straight wire.
B more less
I C less more
Y
D less less

Q P
34 The table shows the composition of three different nuclei.
X
number of number of
nucleus
protons neutrons
Which row is correct?
X 3 3

relative Y 3 4
direction of field
strength of field
Z 4 3
A X greater at P than Q
Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?
B Y greater at P than Q
A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only
C X greater at Q than P
D Y greater at Q than P
35 Which change occurs in the nucleus of a radioactive atom during β-emission?

A A neutron transforms into a proton and an electron.


32 In which device is the magnetic effect of a current not used?
B A neutron transforms into a proton only.
A electromagnet
C A proton transforms into a neutron and an electron.
B loudspeaker
D A proton transforms into a neutron only.
C potential divider
D relay

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


13 14

36 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days. 40 What is the definition of the Hubble constant?

A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute. A the ratio of the speed at which a galaxy is receding from the Earth to its distance from the
Earth
Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute.
B the value of the change in wavelength of the galaxy’s starlight due to redshift
What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days? C the constant used to represent the rate of expansion of the Universe in all directions
A 80 counts per minute D the estimated constant equal to the age of the Universe
B 90 counts per minute
C 100 counts per minute
D 110 counts per minute

37 Which statement about the Solar System is correct?

A All the planets are rocky.


B Only the Earth has a moon.
C Pluto is a dwarf planet.
D There are many stars in the Solar System.

38 Comets are bodies which orbit the Sun in the Solar System.

What is the shape of the orbit and how is the Sun positioned within the orbit?

shape of orbit position of the Sun

A circular centre of orbit


B circular not at centre of orbit
C elliptical centre of orbit
D elliptical not at centre of orbit

39 Which nuclear reaction produces the release of energy to power a star?

A nuclear fission of helium into hydrogen


B nuclear fission of hydrogen into helium
C nuclear fusion of helium into hydrogen
D nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 [Turn over © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23


15 16

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23 © UCLES 2023 0625/22/M/J/23

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