The Navyandhra School

Term I Exam 2023–2024

Class: XII Subject: Chemistry
Total Marks: 70 Time: 3 hrs.

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
(a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple -choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 2 case - based questions carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
(The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries 1 mark . there is no internal choice in this section)

1. The reaction A+2B → C+D obeys the rate equation, Rate = k [A}x [B]y what would be the order of
this reaction?
a) x b) x + y c) x – y d) Cannot be predicted with the equation

2. In a lead storage battery:

a) All of these
b) Pb is oxidised to PbSO4 at the anode.
c) Both electrodes are immersed in the same aqueous solution of H2SO4.
d) PbO2 is reduced to PbSO4 at the cathode.

3. At 227°C, the presence of catalyst causes the activation energy of a reaction

to decrease by 4.606 KCal, the rate of the reaction will be increased by:
a) 1000 times b) 2 times c) 100 times d) 10 times

4. 50 mL of an aqueous solution of glucose C6H12O6 (Molar mass: 180 g/mol) contains 6.02 × 1022
molecules. The concentration of the solution will be
a) 1.0 M b) 0.2 M c) 2.0 M d) 0.1 M
5. Anomalous electronic configuration in the 3d series are of
a) Cr and Fe b) Cu and Z c) Fe and Cu d) Cr and Cu
6. Partial pressure of a solution component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is known as
(a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law (c) Distribution law (d) Ostawald’s dilution law
 7. EDTA is used for the estimation of
(a) Na+ and K+ ions (b) Cl– and Br– ions (c) Cu2+ and Cs+ ions (d) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions
8. IUPAC name of CH3CH2C(Br) = CH—Cl is
(a) 2-bromo-1-chloro butane (b) 1-chloro-2-bromo butene
(c) 3-chloro-2-bromo butane (d) None of the above
9. When a solute is present in trace quantities the following expression is used
(a) Gram per million (b) Milligram percent (c) Microgram percent (d) Parts per million
10. The emf of the cell:
Ni / Ni2+ (1.0 M) // Au3+ (1.0 M) / Au (E° = -0.25 V for Ni2+/Ni; E° = 1.5 V for Au3+/Au) is
(a) 1.25 V (b) -1.25 V (c) 1.75 V (d) 2.0 V
11. When two halogen atoms are attached to same carbon atom then it is :
(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide (c) α, ω –halide (d) α, β –halide
–
12. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4 to MnO2 is
(a) 1 F (b) 3 F (c) 5 F (d) 6 F

Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions
also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
13. Assertion (A): Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
Reason (R): Osmotic pressure is directly proportional to molarity.
a. A is false but R is true.
b. A is true but R is false.
c. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
14. Assertion (A): Conductivity of an electrolyte decreases with decrease in concentration.
Reason (R): Number of ions per unit volume increases on dilution.
a. A is false but R is true.
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. A is true but R is false
15. Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+.
a. A is false but R is true.
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. A is true but R is false
16. Assertion : [Fe(CN)6]3– is weakly paramagnetic while [Fe(CN)6]4– is diamagnetic.
Reason : [Fe(CN)6]3– has +3 oxidation state while [Fe(CN)6]4– has +2 oxidation state.
a. A is false but R is true.
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. A is true but R is false
. Section B
(This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are very short
answer type and carry 2 marks each)
17. In the series Sc(Z = 21) to (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest i.e.,
126 kJmol-1. Why?
18. Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.
OR
Define electrochemical cell. What happens if external potential applied becomes greater than Eocell of
electrochemical cell?
19. What is the effect of catalyst on:
(i) Gibbs energy (ΔG) and
(ii) activation energy of a reaction?
21. In the plot of molar conductivity (∧m) vs square root of concentration (c1/2),
following curves are obtained for two electrolytes A and B :

Answer the following:

i) What happens on extrapolation of ∧m to concentration approaching zero for electrolytes A and B?
ii) Predict the nature of electrolytes A and B.
21. In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN1 reaction?

v
Section C
(This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are short
answer type and carry 3 marks each.)
22. Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) —-> 7M2+(aq) + 2Ag (s) takes place. Further show:
(i) Which of the electrode is negatively charged?
(ii) The carriers of the current in the cell.
(iii) Individual reaction at each electrode.
23. a) For the reaction ; 2A + B → A2B, the reaction rate = k [A][B]2 with k = 2·0 x 10-6 mol-2 L2 s-1. Calculate
the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0·1 mol L-1; [B] = 0·2 mol L-1. Also calculate the reaction rate when
[A] is reduced to 0·06 mol L-1.
b) Define order of reaction. Write the condition under which a bimolecular reaction follows first order kinetics.
24. Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (Vitamin C, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75 g of acetic acid to lower its
melting point by 1.5oC. Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1.

25. a) A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the
concentration of the reactant is:
i) doubled
ii) reduced to half
b) Write two differences between 'order of reaction' and 'molecularity of reaction

26. a) Following reaction takes place in the cell:

Zn(s)+Ag2O(s)+H2O(l)→Zn2+(aq)+2Ag(s)+2OH−(aq)
Calculate ΔrG0 of the reaction.
[Given: E0(Zn2+/Zn)=−0.76V,
E0(Ag+/Ag)=0.80V,1F=96,500Cmol−1]
b) How can you determine limiting molar conductivity, (∧mo) for strong electrolyte and weak electrolyte?
27. a) Explain why Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?

b) Out of and Which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution

reaction and why?

c) Out of and which one is optically active and why?

OR
How can the following conversions be carried out?
a) Aniline to bromobenzene
b) Chlorobenzene to 2-chloroacetophenone
c) Chloroethane to butane

28. a) Define order of reaction. How does order of a reaction differ from molecularity for a
complex reaction?
b) A first order reaction is 50% complete in 25 minutes. Calculate the time for
80% completion of the reaction.

Section D
(The following questions are case -based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries 4 marks
each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.)

29. The f-block consists of elements in which 4f and 5f orbitals are progressively filled. They are placed in a
separate panel at the bottom of the periodic table. The names transition metals and inner transition metals
are often used to refer to the elements of d-and f-blocks respectively. The d–block occupies the large middle
section of the periodic table flanked between s and p blocks in the periodic table. In general, the electronic
configuration of the outer orbitals of these elements is (n-1)d1-10ns1-2. The electronic configurations of outer
orbitals of Zn, Cd, Hg and Cn are represented by the general formula (n-1)d10ns2. The transition metals and their
compounds also exhibit catalytic property and paramagnetic behaviour. Transition metal also forms an
alloy. An alloy is a blend of metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys may be homogeneous solid
solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among the atoms of the other.
The following questions are multiple-choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
i. Which of the following has a magnetic moment value of 5.9?
a. Fe2+
b. Fe3+
c. Ni2+
d. Cu2+
ii. Which of the following are d-block elements but not regarded as transition elements?
a. Cu, Ag, Au
b. Zn, Cd, Hg
c. Fe, Co, Ni
d. Ru, Rh, Pd
iii. Transition elements form alloys easily because they have
a. Same atomic number
b. Same electronic configuration
c. Nearly same atomic size
d. None of the above
iv. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with higher catalytic
activity?
a. High enthalpy of atomisation
b. Paramagnetic behaviour
c. Colour of hydrate ions
d. Variable oxidation states
30. Coordination compounds are formulated and named according to the IUPAC system.
Few rules for naming coordination compounds are:
(I) In ionic complex, the cation is named first and then the anion.
(II) In the coordination entity, the ligands are named first and then the central metal ion.
(III) When more than one type of ligands are present, they are named in alphabetical order of preference with
any consideration of charge
The following questions are multiple-choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
(i) The IUPAC name of [Ni(CO)4] is
(a) tetracarbonylnickel(II)
(b) tetracarbonylnickel(0)
(c) tetracarbonylnickelate(II)
(d) tetracarbonylnickelate(0)

(ii) The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is

(a) triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum(IV) chloride
(b) triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum(IV) chloride
(c) triamminebromidochloronitroplatinum(IV) chloride
(d) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV) chloride

(iii) As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is

(a) tetraaquadiamminecobalt(II) chloride
(b) tetraaquadiamminecobalt(III) chloride
(c) diamminetetraaquacobalt(II) chloride
(d) diamminetetraaquacobalt(III) chloride

(iv) Which of the following represents correct formula of dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(III)

ion?
(a) [CoCl2(en)]2+
(b) [CoCl2(en)2]2+
(c) [CoCl2(en)]+
(d) [CoCl2(en)2]+

SECTION E
(The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions have an internal
choice).
31. a) Using valence bond theory, predict the hybridization and magnetic character of [Ni(CN)4]2-.
(Atomic number of Ni = 28)
b) Write the formula of the following complex using IUPAC norms:
Dichloridobis (ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt (III)
Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
Hexaammineplatinum (IV) chloride
OR
a) Write the hybridisation and magnetic characters of the following complexes :
i) [Fe(CN)6]4– [CoF6]3– [Ni(CO)4] [Atomic number : Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28]
b) What is meant by ‘Chelate effect’? Give an example
c) Give the IUPAC name and electronic configuration of central metal atom in terms
of t2g and eg of K4[Mn(CN)6].

32. Attempt any five:

a) Copper (I) compounds are white whereas Copper (II) compounds are coloured.
b) Chromates change their colour when kept in an acidic solution.
c) Zn, Cd, Hg are considered as d-block elements but not as transition elements.
d) Give three points of difference between lanthanoids and actinoids.
e) Transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activities.
f) Separation of a mixture of Lanthanoid elements is difficult.
g) Zn, Cd and Hg are soft and have low melting point.

33. a) An antifreeze solution is prepared by dissolving 31 g of ethylene glycol (Molar mass = 62 g mol-1) in
600 g of water. Calculate the freezing point of the solution. (Kf for water = 1·86 K kg mol-1)
b) State Henry’s law. Why is air diluted with helium in the tanks used by scuba divers?
OR
a) A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of non-volatile solute in 200 g of water. It has a vapor
pressure of 31.84 mm of Hg at 308 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.
(Vapour pressure of pure water at 308 K = 32 mm Hg)
b) State Raoult's law for a solution containing volatile components. What is the similarity
between Raoult’s law and Henry's law?