NEPAL ENGINEERING COUNCIL REGISTRATION LICENSE EXAM PREPARATION

IMPORTANT MODEL SET TO CRACK NEC LICENSE EXAM

Model set-8 FM:-100

Time: 2 hours PM:-50

Group: A (60*1= 60 marks)

1. The figure below represents:

a) Twisted fiber
b) Knots
c) Wind cracks
d) Upsets

2. Deficiency of lime in cement leads to:

a) Unsound cement
b) Disintegration of cement
c) Quick setting of cement
d) Expansion of cement

3. Which of the below is not to be followed for stone masonry construction?

a) Header stones are dumb-bell shaped
b) Properly cured for 2-3 weeks
c) Construction to be raised uniformly
d) Wetted stones to be used

4. What will be the moment of inertia of the given triangle about the base?

a) 20.33 mm4
b) 21.33 mm4
c) 24.33 mm4
d) 22.33 mm4

5. Which of the following acts as a key to GIS?

a) Topology
b) Platform
c) Software
d) Terrain

6. __________ is the built up covered area of a building measured at floor level of any storey.
a) Covered area
b) Carpet area
c) Total area
d) Plinth area

7. _________ apparatus is used to test liquid limit of a soil.

a) Mohr
b) Casagrande
c) Otto
d) Terzaghi

8. The flow lines and equipotential lines are ____________

a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Elliptical
d) All of the mentioned

9. The three-dimensional state of stress consists of 3 unequal principal stresses acting on a point, this is
called the triaxial state of stress. If all the three principal stresses are equal, the state of stress is known as
__________
a) cylindrical
b) uniaxial
c) spherical/hydrostatic
d) triaxial

10. The factor that is responsible for inclination of resultant pressure to the retaining wall is __________
a) Frictional force
b) Surcharge
c) Earth pressure
d) Weight of the wall

11. The component Sc, used in the total settlement of clay refers to which of the following?
a) Total settlement
b) Consolidation settlement
c) Immediate plastic settlement
d) Settlement due to secondary consolidation of clay

12. The immediate settlement can be computed from the expression, based on ____________
a) Theory of plasticity
b) Theory of elasticity
c) Terzaghi’s analysis
d) Pressure distribution

13. Equal amount of a particular liquid is poured into three similar containers, namely 1, 2 and 3, at a
temperature of T1, T2 and T3 respectively. If T1 < T2 < T3, the liquid in which container will have the highest
vapor pressure?
a) container 1
b) container 2
c) container 3
d) the vapor pressure of the liquid will remain the same irrespective of it’s temperature

14. A beaker half-filled with water is exposed to the atmosphere. If the pressure at points A, B and C as
shown are Pa, Pb and Pc respectively, which one of the following will be the relation connecting the three?
a) Pa > Pb = Pc
b) Pa > Pb > Pc
c) Pa < Pb < Pc
d) Pa < Pb = Pc

15. A liquid has a mass density of 1550 kg/m3. Calculate its specific weight.
a) 1.50×102 N/m3
b) 1.52×104 N/m3
c) 1.54×104 N/m3
d) 1.50×104 N/m3

16. The head loss at the entrance of the pipe is that at it’s exit
a) equal to
b) half
c) twice
d) four times

17. Which of these fluids have their stress tensor linearly varying to the strain rate?

a)

b)
c)

d)

18. Centrifugal force elements are used for ___________

a) High flow rate
b) Low flow rate
c) All range of flow rate
d) None of the mentioned

19. How does an increase in the pitch of the roof affects the amount of load that can be placed on it?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Depends upon case

20. A lower ratio leads to ____________

a) Higher strength and durability
b) Higher strength but low durability
c) Lower strength but high durability
d) Lower strength and durability

21. The partial factor of safety for resistance governed by ultimate strength is :
a) 1.10
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 1.25

22. The minimum diameter provided for the longitudinal bars is ________
a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 18 mm

23. Shear strength of bolt is given by ____

a) fu(nnAnb+ nsAsb)/(√3 x 1.1)
b) fy(nnAnb+ nsAsb)/(√3 x 1.1)
c) fu(nnAnb+ nsAsb)/(√3 x 1.25)
d) fy(nnAnb+ nsAsb)/(√3 x 1.25)
24. High strength concrete is used in prestressed member?
a) To overcome bursting stresses at the ends
b) To provide high bond stresses
c) To overcome cracks due to shrinkage
d) To overcome bursting stresses, provide high bond stresses and overcome cracks

25. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.

a) Permanent hardness is due to dissolved chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium
b) It can be removed by mere boiling of water
c) It is also known as non-alkaline hardness
d) The difference between the total hardness and the alkaline hardness gives the non-alkaline hardness

26. What is the maximum concentration of total solids present in waste water?
a) 850 mg/L
b) 1200 mg/ L
c) 720 mg/L
d) 350 mg/L

27. Which method is evolved by khosla for designing of hydraulic structures?

a) Method of Gradients
b) Method of Variables
c) Method of Independent Variables
d) Method of Flow Nets

28. In the concept of self purification of natural streams, complete the following phrase. Solution to pollution
is _________
a) Control
b) Dilution
c) Reuse
d) Recycle

29. What is the facility provided to stop the entry of heavy debris present in the storm water into the sewers
called?
a) Curb inlet
b) Gutter inlet
c) Catch basin
d) Clean-outs

30. What is the detention time considered for aerated grit chamber?
a) 5-6 mins
b) 2-5 mins
c) 1-2 mins
d) 3-4 mins

31. How many days are generally taken to obtain field capacity after free gravity drainage?
a) 3 to 7 days
b) 4 to 8 days
c) 5 to 9 days
d) 2 to 5 days

32. What is the effect of silting in channels?

a) Reduced Discharge Capacity of Channel
b) Causes Loss of Command
c) Breaching of Canal Banks
d) Failure of Irrigation Structures

33. The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the common methods of energy
dissipation because ______________________
a) it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the jump
b) it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow
c) its action is not understood
d) it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow

34. What number of causes is responsible for the failure of weirs?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1

35. The type of canal alignment which involves maximum CD works is a ______________
a) ridge canal
b) contour canal
c) side slope canal
d) both ridge and contour canal

36. What is the name given to the drains used in depressions?

a) Shallow Surface Drains
b) Deep Surface Drains
c) Open Drains
d) Drains

37. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant

38. In high head hydro power plant the velocity of water in penstock is about _________

a) 1 m/s

b) 4 m/s

c) 7 m/s

d) 12 m/s

39. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity is ____ m/Sec.
a) 3
b) 0.3
c) 0.03
d) 0.003

40. Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at relatively high efficiencies and
helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a) Run-off river plant
b) Storage plant
c) Pumped storage plant
d) Tidal plant

41. The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a) line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b) line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c) center-line of the top width of the dam
d) line joining mid-points of the base
42. Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel

43. Which of the following is the process of removing and controlling excess surface and sub soil water
within the roadway?
a) Highway finance
b) Highway drainage
c) Highway Engineering
d) Highway maintenance

44. The ruling minimum radius in the curve is given by ___________

a) R=V/127(e+f)
b) R=V^2/127 (e+f)
c) R=127(e+f)
d) R=127/(e+f)

45. Which of the below is not an example of filler used in mix design?
a) Rock dust
b) Bitumen
c) Cement
d) Lime

46. Which of the following is not a requirement for the intersection at grade?
a) Area of conflict should be large
b) Adequate visibility
c) Avoiding sudden change of path
d) Sufficient radius should be provided

47. What is the most commonly used overlay?

a) Flexible over rigid
b) Rigid over flexible
c) Flexible over flexible
d) Rigid over rigid

48. Which of the following grade of bitumen is harder?

a) 30/40
b) 60/70
c) 80/100
d) All are equal

49. Identify the front view of the below isometric view.

a)

b)

c)

d)

50. What is the earliest start time rule?

a. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.
b. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.
c. It directs when a project can start.
d. It regulates when a project must begin.

51. Two basic measures of liquidity are _____.

a) Current ratio and Quick ratio.

b) Gross Profit ratio and Operating ratio.

c) Current ratio and Average collection period.

d) Inventory turnover and Current ratio.

52. Working Capital is the ______.

a) Capital borrowed from the Banks.
b) Difference between Current Assets and Current Liabilities.
c) Difference between Current Assets and Fixed Assets.
d) Cash and Bank Balance.

53. Which of the following is the design vehicle for parking lots?
a) Passenger car
b) Single-unit truck
c) Intercity bus
d) Triple semi-trailer

54. Stress condition in the Unconfined compression test represents ____________

a) Drained test
b) Un-drained test
c) Quick test
d) All of the mentioned

55. What is the accumulated layer at the bottom of the tank called as?
a) Flocs
b) Sediment
c) Sludge
d) Sewage

56. The full form of CPM is ___________

a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management

57. A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented.

a) event-oriented. b) activity oriented c. both of above d. None of above
58. Which of the following relation between load factor, collapse load (Wc) and working load (W)
a) F = W / Wc
b) F = Wc + W
c) F = Wc W
d) F = Wc / W

59. Pre-qualification of contractor is a process that is done ________ to actual tendering process

a. after b. before c. Simultaneously d. Repetitively

60. .When buyer has a requirement of solution and its prices they will invite ________ from

a. Expression of Interest (EOI) b. Request for Proposal (RFP)

c. Request for Quotation (RFQ) d. Tender Documents

GROUP: B ( marks MCQ=2x20=40marks)

61. On a 2 phase road, the saturation flow on road A is 1000 and normal flow is 250,whereas on road B the
saturation flow is 1500 and normal flow is 500,the total red time is 10 sec, find optimum cycle length.
a) 35sec
b) 36sec
c) 37sec
d) 38sec

62. he capacity of rotary in PCU per hour for a proportion of weaving traffic 0.5 and the width of weaving
section is 12m, average width of entry is 0.4m and length of the weaving section is 7.2m.
a) 1088 PCU
b) 1100PCU
c) 1200 PCU
d) 1300PCU

63. 400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the downstream demand through the
turbines of the connected hydro plant. The effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The
efficiency of the hydro plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is __________________
a) 1,56,800 MW
b) 156.8 M kW
c) 156.8 MW
d) 156.8 kW

64. How many cubic metres of water will be removed for this particular period of a system designed to use a
D.C of 1.5 cm draining 20 hectares for a capacity of 5 days?
a) 10000 m3
b) 25000 m3
c) 15000 m3
d) 20000 m3

65. For what value of Froude number the jump is steady jump?
a) F1 = 1
b) F1 = 1.7 to 4.5
c) F1 = 4.5 to 9
d) F1 = 9

66. Calculate the top width of the weir wall (B’) if the head of the water over the weir wall at the time of the
maximum flood is 2 m. Take the specific gravity of the floor material as 2.4.
a) 1.7 m
b) 2 m
c) 2.4 m
d) 1.3 m

67. The transplantation of rice takes 18 days and the total depth of water required by the crop is 60 cm on the
field. During this transplantation period, rain starts falling and about 10 cm of rain is being utilized to fulfill the
rice demand. Find the duty of irrigation water required for rice assuming 25% losses of water in watercourses.
a) 233.28 hectares/cumec
b) 240 hectares/cumec
c) 230 hectares/cumec
d) 244.44 hectares/cumec

68. Determine the discharge required at the head of the distributary in a canal where Kharif area to be
irrigated is 2400 hectares and Rabi area to be irrigated is 1800 hectares, for fulfilling maximum crop
requirement. Assume suitable values for kor depth and kor period.
a) 2.08 cumec
b) 2 cumec
c) 2.1 cumec
d) 2.2 cumec

69. Calculate the amount of air required for the equalization tank with the following details
Flow: 500 m3/h
BOD load: 800 mg/L
a) 950 m3/hr
b) 800 m3/hr
c) 2000 m3/hr
d) 785 m3/hr

70. Which of the following order is correct regarding coefficient of cohesion?

a) Hard clay < Dense sand > Medium clay > Soft clay
b) Hard clay > Dense sand > Medium clay > Soft clay
c) Medium clay > Dense sand > Hard clay > Soft clay
d) Dense sand > Medium clay > Hard clay > Soft clay

71. Find the force in member ED?

a) 1KN (COMPRESSIVE)
b) 1KN (TENSILE)
c) 2–√ KN (TENSILE)
d) 0KN

72. Two pipes, each of diameter d, converge to form a pipe of diameter D. What should be the relation
between d and D such that the flow velocity in the third pipe becomes double of that in each of the two pipes?
a) D = d
b) D = 2d
c) D = 3d
d) D = 4d

73. In a water supply system, water flows in from pipes 1 and 2 and goes out from pipes 3 and 4 as shown. If
all the pipes have the same diameter, which of the following must be correct?
a) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to that in 3 and 4
b) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 3 is equal to that in 2 and 4
c) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 4 is equal to that in 2 and 3
d) the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to that in 3 and 4

74. Compute the active pressure intensity when the backfill has unit weight of 18 KN/m3 and height of

wall is 6 m. The angle of internal friction is 300. The backfill has surcharge of 36 KN/m2.

a) 45 KN/m2
b) 75 KN/m2
c) 48 KN/m2
d) 78 KN/m2

75. If a body is subjected to stresses in xy plane with stresses of 60N/mm² and 80N/mm² acting along x and y
axes respectively. Also the shear stress acting is 20N/mm²Find the maximum amount of shear stress to which
the body is subjected.

a) 22.4mm
b) 25mm
c) 26.3mm
d) 27.2mm

76. Find the perpendicular distance if the radius of the curve is given as 10.26m and the angle as θ = 10˚24 ꞌ .

a) 0.042m
b) 0.402m
c) 0.204m
d) 0.024m

77. Determine section modulus for beam of 100mm diameter.

a) 785 × 103 mm3

b) 456 × 103 mm3
c) 87 × 103 mm3
d) 98 × 103 mm3
78. For the usual turbulent flow, calculate the critical shear stress if the mean diameter of the grain particle of
bed material is 0.3 mm.

a) 0.300 N/m2
b) 0.106 N/m2
c) 0.206 N/m2
d) 0.116 N/m2

79. Water is flowing at a rate of 0.04 m3/s in a soil sample of 12m thick and cross section of 50m2. The
coefficient of permeability is 1.6*10-3m/s. What will be the seepage pressure?

a) 50.76 kN/m2
b) 52.34 kN/m2
c) 55.34 kN/m2
d) 58.86 kN/m2

80. The initial population of a country is 1000000. If the birth rate and the death rate is 10% and 4%
respectively, then find the population of the country after 2 years.

a) 1126000
b) 1023600
c) 1123000
d) 1123600