Nums Chemistry Most Repeated Mcqs Wisegot
Nums Chemistry Most Repeated Mcqs Wisegot
Nums Chemistry Most Repeated Mcqs Wisegot
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Q.67 Freezing point will also be defined as that temperature at which its solid and liquid
phases have the same:
A) Concentration C) Vapour pressure B) Ratio between the particles D) Attraction between
the phases
Q.68 What mass of NaOH is present in 0.5 mol of sodium hydroxide?
A) 40 gm C) 15 gm B) 2.5 gm D) 20 gm
Q.69 The diagram shows a galvanic cell. The current will flow from:
A) Hydrogen electrode to copper electrode C) Hydrogen electrode to HCl solution B) Copper
electrode to hydrogen electrode D) CuSO4 solution to hydrogen electrode
Q.70 Study the following redox reaction: 10Clˉ +16H+ + 2MnO4ˉ 5Cl2 + 2Mn+2 + 8H2O
A) Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2 C) Chlorine is reduced from zero to -1 B) Chlorine
ions are reduced from -1 to zero D) Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2
Q.71 Human blood maintains its pH between:
A) 6.50 - 7.00 C) 7.50 - 7.55 B) 7.20 - 7.25 D) 7.35 - 7.40
Q.72 Value of Ksp for PbSO4 system at 25 °C is equal to:
A) 1.6 x 10-5 mol2dm-6 C) 1.6 x 10-8 mol2dm-6 B) 1.6 x 10-6 mol2dm-6 D) 1.6 x 10- 7
mol2dm-6 V H2(g) Cu 1M CuSO4 1M HCl Solution Solution Porous Partition C C H H H H
Q.73 2A + B Product If the reactant ‘B’ is in excess, the order of reaction with respect to ‘A’ in
given rate law, Rate = k[A]2[B] is:
A) 2nd order reaction C) Pseudo 1st order reaction B) 1st order reaction D) 3rd order
reaction
Q.74 The rate constant ‘k’ is 0.693 min-1. The half-life for the 1st order reaction will be:
A) 1 min C) 0.693 min B) 2 min D) 4 min
Q.75 Melting points of group IIA elements are higher than those of group I-A because:
A) Atoms of II-A elements have smaller size C) Atoms of II-A elements provide two binding
electrons B) II-A elements are more reactive D) I-A elements have smaller atomic radius
Q.76 The ionic radius of fluoride ion is:
A) 72 pm C) 136 pm B) 95 pm D) 157 pm
Q.77 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) NaCl + NaClO + H2O proceed at:
A) 500 °C C) -10 °C B) 200 °C D) 15 °C
Q.78 Which halogen molecule ‘X2’ has lowest dissociation energy?
A) Cl2 C) I2 B) Br2 D) F2
Q.79 The anomalous electronic configuration shown by chromium and copper among 3-d
series of elements is due to:
A) Colour of ions of these metals C) Stability associated with this configuration B) Variable
oxidation states of metals D) Complex formation tendency of metals
Q.80 Which element of 3d series of periodic table shows the electronic configuration of 3d6,
4s2?
A) Copper C) Zinc B) Cobalt D) Nickel
Q.81 The %age of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate is:
A) 46% C) 33% B) 82% D) 13%
Q.82 Which one of the following is anhydride of sulphuric acid?
A) Sulphur (II) oxide C) Iron pyrite B) Sulphur (VI) oxide D) Sulphur (VI) oxide
Q.83 During contact process of H2SO4 synthesis, the following reaction occurs: 2SO2(g) +
O2(g) 2SO3(g) ΔH = - 96 kJmol-1 Which step is used to increase the yield of SO3?
A) Temperature is raised to very high degree C) Both temperature and pressure are kept
very low B) SO3 formed is removed very quickly D) An excess of air is used to drive the
equilibrium to the right side
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Q.84 Synthesis of ammonia by Haber’s process is a reversible reaction. What should be
done to increase the yield of ammonia in the following reaction? N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ΔH
= - 92 kJmol-1
A) Pressure should be decreased C) Pressure should be increased B) Ammonia should
remain in reaction mixture D) Concentration of nitrogen should be decreased
Q.85 Which one of the following reactions shows combustion of a saturated hydrocarbon?
A) C2H4 + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2O C) CH4 + 1 2 O2 Cu 400°C, 200 atm CH3OH B) CH4 + 2O2
CO2 + 2H2O D) C2H2 + 5 2 O2 2CO2 + H2O ⇌ ⇌
Q.86 Skeletal formula of an organic compound is given below: It is a hydrocarbon. IUPAC
name of the compound is:
A) 3, 3-dimethyl-3-hexene C) 3- hexene B) 3, 4-dimethyl-3-hexene D) 2,3-
dimethyl-1-hexene
Q.87 Which one of the following pairs can be cis-trans isomer to each other?
A) CHCl=CCl2 and CH2=CH2 C) CH3−CH=CH−CH3 and H3C−CH=CH−CH3 B) CHCl=CH2
and CH2=CHCl D) CH3−CH3 and CH2=CH2
Q.88 Consider the reaction given below: CH3CH2Br KOH alcohol H2C=CH2 + HBr
Mechanism followed by the reaction is:
A) E2 C) SN1 B) E1 D) SN2
Q.89 The average bond energy of C-Br is:
A) 228 kJmol-1 C) 250 kJmol-1 B) 200 kJmol-1 D) 290 kJmol-1
Q.90 Which one of the following is NOT a nucleophile:
A) NH2ˉ C) BF3 B) H2O D) CH3ˉ
Q.91 Which one of the following is an appropriate indication of positive iodoform test?
A) Formation of H2O C) Brick red precipitate B) Release of H2 gas D) Yellow crystal
Q.92 Which one of the following is the proper classification of above formula:
A) Primary C) Tertiary B) Secondary D) Polyhydride
Q.93 Which one of the following is an appropriate structure of product of bromination?
A) Br OH Br Br C) OH Br Br Br B) OH Br D) Br OH Br Br
Q.94 Which one of the following is an appropriate name of above compound?
A) 1,3,6-Trinitrophenol C) Tartaric acid B) m-Nitrophenol D) Picric acid
Q.95 It is the general formula of:
A) 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine C) Phenyl hydrazone B) 1, 3-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone D) 2,
4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone
Q.96 Which one of the following is the IUPAC name of above given structure:
A) Propionaldehyde C) Acetaldehyde B) Methanone D) Methanal
Q.97 Which one of the following test is given by both aldehyde and ketone?
A) Silver mirror test C) 2, 4 DNPH test B) Fehling’s solution test D) Benedict’s solution test
Q.98 CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH CH3COOC2H5 + H2O Which one of the following will act as
a catalyst in above reaction?
A) HNO3 C) Acidified potassium dichromate B) H2SO4 D) SOCl2
Q.99 CH3COOH + PCl5 ? Which one of the following options shows the products of above
reaction?
A) POCl2 + CH3COCl2 + HCl C) CH3COCl + POCl2 + HCl B) POCl3 + CH3COCl2 + H2
D) POCl3 + CH3COCl + HCl
Q.100 Which one of the following reaction of carboxylic acid is reversible?
A) Esterification C) Reaction with PCl5 B) Salt formation D) Reaction with SOCl2
Q.101 Select the best option indicating the name of the above structure:
A) Cation C) Internal salt B) Neutral amino acid D) Anion
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Q.102 When acid is added to an amino acid, which one of the following will act as a base?
A) NH3+ C) H+ B) COOˉ D) R group
ANSWER
47 D 93 C 48 D 94 D 49 C 95 D 50 C 96 D 51 C 97 C 52 D 98 B 53 D 99 D 54 C 100 A 55
D 101 C 56 D 102 B 57 A 103 X 58 C 104 B 59 C 105 D 60 C 106 C 61 C 62 D 63 C 64 A 65
A 66 D 67 C 68 D 69 A 25 A71 D 26 A 72 C 27 A 73 A 28 C 74 A 29 B 75 C 30 A 76 C 31 X
77 D 32 D 78 D 33 C 79 C 34 C 80 D 35 C 81 C 36 B 82 D 37 C 83 D 38 C 84 C 39 D 85 B
40 D 86 B 41 A 87 C 42 D 88 A 43 C 89 D 44 B 90 C 45 A 91 D
Q.45 ‘Ka’ values of few organic acids are given: Acid Ka Value CH3COOH 1.85 x 10-5
CCl3COOH 2.3 x 10-2 CHCl2COOH 5.0 x 10-3 CH2ClCOOH 1.3 x 10-3 The order of acid
strength is:
A) CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH B) CH3COOH > CHCl2COOH
> CCl3COOH > CH2ClCOOH C) CHCl2COOH > CH3COOH > CCl3COOH > CH2ClCOOH
D) CCl3COOH > CH3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH
Q.46 An organic acid ‘z’ reacts separately with sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide and
sodium carbonate. Which one of the following represent the structure of ‘z’?
A) HCOOC2H5 C) CH3CH2OH B) CH3―CH=CH2 D) H3C―CH2―COOH
Q.47 Carboxylic acids are rather hard to reduce, which powerful reducing agent can be used
to convert them to the corresponding primary alcohol:
A) H2SO4/HgSO4 C) LiAlH4 B) V2O5 D) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
Q.48 N C H H H H C N C C H CH3 H O O OH This structure is
A) Gly-Ala (dipeptide) C) Gly-Val (dipeptide) B) Asp-Gly (dipeptide) D) Asp-Val (dipeptide)
Q.49 Which one of the following amino acids is basic in nature?
A) Glycine C) Lysine B) Alanine D) Glutamic acid Intensity Wavelength Intensity Wavelength
Intensity Wavelength Intensity Wavelength
Q.50 Which one of the following structures shows the correct formula of glutamic acid?
A) H2N CH2 COOH C) H2N CH COOH COOH B) H2N CH COOH (CH2)2 COOH D) H2N
CH COOH COOH CH3
Q.51 Select the correct Zwitter ionic structures of an amino acid.
A) NH2 R C COOH + H C) H2N+ CH2 COOB) H3N + C H R COOD) H3N + C H R+ COO
Q.52 How many moles of sodium are present in 0.1 g of sodium?
A) 4.3 × 10-3 C) 4.01 × 10-2 B) 4.03 × 10-1 D) 4.3 × 10-2
Q.53 The structural formula for alanine is:
A) NH2 CH C COOH H H3C H3C C) NH2 CH2 C COOH H HO B) NH2 H C COOH H
D) NH2 H3C C COOH H
Q.54 With the help of spectral data given calculate the mass of Neon and encircle the best
option. (Percentage of 10Ne20, 10Ne21 and 10Ne22 are 90.92%, 0.26% and 8.82%
respectively).
A) 22.18 amu C) 20.18 amu B) 21.18 amu D) 22.20 amu
Q.55 Which one of the following pairs has the same electronic configuration as possessed
by Neon (Ne-10)?
A) Na+, Cl― C) Na+, Mg2+ B) K+, Cl― D) Na+, F―
Q.56 If the volume of a gas collected at a temperature of 600 oC and pressure of 1.05 × 105
Nm-2 is 60 dm3, what would be the volume of gas at STP (P=1.01 × 103 Nm-2, T = 273 K)?
A) 25 cm3 C) 100 cm3 B) 75 cm3 D) 51 cm3
Q.57 There are four orbitals s, p, d and f. Which order is correct with respect to the
increasing energy of the orbitals?
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A) 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f C) 4s < 4f < 4p < 4d B) 4p < 4s < 4f < 4d D) 4f < 4s < 4d < 4p
Q.58 Which graph represents Boyle’s law?
A) C) B) D)
Q.59 Which one of the following hydrogen bonds is stronger than others?
A) Nδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Nδˉ―Hδ+ C) Oδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Oδˉ―Hδ+
B) Fδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Fδˉ―Hδ+ D) Nδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Oδˉ―Hδ+
Q.60 The half-life of N2O5 at 0 oC is 24 minutes. How long will it take for sample of N2O5 to
decay to 25% of its original concentration?
A) 24 minutes C) 120 minutes B) 72 minutes D) 48 minutes
Q.61 When the change in concentration is 6 x 10-4 mol dm-3 and time for that change is 10
seconds, the rate of reaction will be
A) 6 × 10-3 mol dm-3 sec-1 C) 6 × 10-2 mol dm-3 sec-1 B) 6 × 10-4 mol dm-3 se -1
D) 6 × 10-5 mol dm-3 sec-1
Q.62 Which one of the following will have the smallest radius?
A) Al+3 C) Mg+2 B) Si+4 D) Na+1
Q.63 Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct?
A) N > C C) Ar > Cl B) P > Si D) Li > Be
Q.64 On the basis of oxidizing power of halogens, which reaction is possible?
A) I2 + 2Clˉ Cl2 + 2Iˉ C) Cl2 + 2Fˉ F2 + 2Clˉ B) Br2 + 2Iˉ I2 + 2Brˉ D) I2 + 2Brˉ Br2 + 2Iˉ
Q.65 Which one of the following gases is used as mixture for breathing by sea divers?
A) Oxygen and Nitrogen C) Helium and Oxygen B) Nitrogen and Helium D) Helium and
Hydrogen
Q.66 [Ti(H2O)6]+3 transmits
A) Yellow and Red light C) Red and white light B) Yellow and Blue light D) Red and blue light
Q.67 Electronic configuration of Gold [Au79] is
A) [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s1 C) [Xe] 4f14, 5d9, 6s2 B) [Xe] 4f10, 5d10, 6s2 D) [Xe ]4f14, 5d10,
6s2
Q.68 About 80% of ammonia is used for the production of
A) Explosives C) Nylon B) Fertilizers D) Polymers V P PV=k P P 1/V 1/V P
Q.69 Urea is the most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan. Its composition Is
A) NH2CO C) N2H4CO2 B) N2H5CO2 D) N2H4CO
Q.70 During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide. This
reaction is given as: 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) ΔH = ―114 kJ/mol According to Le
Chatelier’s Principle
A) Reaction must not be temperature dependent C) Reaction must be carried out at low
temperature B) Reaction must be carried out at room temperature D) Reaction must be
carried out at high temperature
Q.71 What is the percentage of nitrogen in NH3NO3?
A) 65% C) 20% B) 35% D) 58%
Q.72 The structural formula of 2,3,4 trimethylpentane is:
A) H3C CH CH CH CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 C) H3C CH2 C CH CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 B) H3C C
CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 D) H3C CH2 CH C CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
Q.73 Which one of the following is a powerful electrophile used to attack on the electrons of
benzene ring?
A) FeCl2 C) Cl+ B) FeCl4 – D) Cl2
Q.74 Order of reactivity of alkenes with hydrogen halide is:
A) HBr > HI > HCl C) HF > HI > HCl B) HI > HBr > HF D) HI > HBr > HCl
Q.75 The given three hydrocarbons are Benzene Naphthalene Anthracene
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A) Alicyclic hydrocarbons C) Acyclic Hydrocarbons B) Aromatic hydrocarbons D)
Heterocyclic hydrocarbons
Q.76 The IUPAC name of the given compound is H3C CH CH2 Cl CH3
A) 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane C) Isobutyl chloride B) 1-Chloro-2-methylbutane D) 2-
Methyl-3-chloropropane
Q.77 Which one of the following was used as one of the earliest antiseptic and disinfectant?
A) Phenol C) Ethanol B) Ether D) Methanol
Q.78 Which one of the following is NOT able to denature the ethanol?
A) Methanol C) Pyridine B) Lactic acid D) AcetoneHO - + C Br H H H C + H H H Br - HO -
HO C H H H + Br -
Q.79 In the below reaction, the configuration of product is δ+ δ― δ― δ+
A) 100% same of the configuration of reactant C) 50% inverted B) 50% retained
D) 100% opposite from configuration of reactant
Q.80 How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?
A) By Lucas test C) By oxidation B) By silver mirror test D) By Iodoform test
Q.81 To produce absolute alcohol (100%) from rectified spirit (95.6% alcohol), the remaining
4.4% water must be removed by a drying agent such as
A) Calcium oxide C) Calcium carbonate B) Calcium chloride D) Carbon monoxide
Q.82 Which one of the following is also called silver mirror test?
A) Fehling’s solution test C) Tollen’s reagent B) Iodoform test D) Benedict’s solution tests
Q.83 When acetaldehyde reacts with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4- DNPH), which one of
the following products is formed?
A) C CH3 H N NH NO2 C) C CH3 CH3 N NH NO2 NO2 B) C CH3 H N NH NO2 NO2
D) C CH3 H N NH NO2 NO2
Q.84 Both aldehydes and ketones are planer to the neighborhoods of carbonyl (C=O) group.
Which one of the following bonds is distorted towards the oxygen atoms?
A) π-bond of C and O C) Sigma bond of C and O B) Sigma bond of C and H D) Sigma bond
of C and C
Q.85 In which one is α-carbon atom?
A) 1 C) 2 B) 3 D) 4
Q.86 The specific substances (metabolite) that fits on the enzyme surface and is converted
to products is called
A) Co-factor C) Isoenzyme B) Prosthetic group D) Substrate
Q.87 Polymide is formed due to the condensation od hexane-dioic acid with
A) Hexane-1,5-diamine C) Hexane1,4-diamine B) Hexane-1,6-diamine D)
Hexane2,5-diamine
Q.88 Haemoglobin is a
A) Genetic protein C) Transport protein B) Building protein D) Structural protein COOH 1 CH
2 CH 3 CH3 4 CH3 CH3
Q.89 Which one of the following polymer is polystyrene?
A) CH2 CH C6H5 n C) CF2 CF2 n B) CH2 CH2 n D) CH2 CH CH3 n
Q.90 Out of these which nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?
A) Adenine C) Uracil B) Guanine D) Thymine
Q.91 Which one of the following is an example of co-polymer?
A) Polyamide C) Polyvinyl acetate B) Polystyrene D) Polyvinyl chloride
Q.92 The biggest source of acid rain is the oxide of
A) N C) O B) S D) C
Q.93 Burning of which one of the following waste is considered as useful industrial fuel or to
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produce electricity
A) Metals C) Paper B) Grass D) Plastic
Q.94 Which of the following is the correct dot and cross diagram of bonding between two
chlorine atoms?
A) C) B) D)
Q.95 The equation that represents standard enthalpy of atomization of hydrogen is:
A) 1 2 H2O(l) H2(g) + 1 2 O(g) +218 kJ mol-1 C) 1 2 H2(g) H(g) +218 kJ mol-1 B) 1 2 H2O(l)
H2(g) + 1 2 O(g) –218 kJ mol-1 D) 1 2 H2(g) H(g) –218 kJ mol-1
Q.96 Standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite at 25 oC is – 393.51 kJ mol-1 and that of
diamond is –395.41 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change for graphite is:
A) – 1.91 C) –2.1 B) +2.1 D) +1.91
Q.97 10.0 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 100 cm3 of its solution, its
molarity is:
A) 0.55 C) 10 B) 0.1 D) 1
Q.98 Given solution contains 16.0 g of CH3OH, 92.0 g of C2H5OH and 36 g of water.
Which statement about mole fraction of the components is true?
A) Mole fraction of CH3OH is highest among all C) Mole fraction of CH3OH and C2H5OH is
same components B) Mole fraction of C2H5OH and H2O is the same D) Mole fraction of
H2O is the lowest among all
Q.99 Study the following facts Zn Zn+2 + 2e― Eo = +0.76 V Cu Cu+2 + 2e― Eo = – 0.34 V
A) Cu + Zn+2 Cu+2 + Zn C) Cu+2 + Zn Cu + Zn+2 B) Cu+2 + Zn+2 Cu + Zn D) Cu+2 +
Zn+2 Cu + Zn+2 Cl + Cl Cl Cl + Cl Cl Cl Cl + Cl Cl + Cl Cl + Cl Cl + Cl
Q.100 Keeping in mind the electrode potential, which one of the following reactions is
feasible?
A) Zn+2 + Cu Cu+2 + Zn C) Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu B) Zn + MgSO4 ZnSO4 + Mg D) Cd
+ MgSO4 CdSO4 + Mg
Q.101 What is the correct relation between pH and pK?
A) pH = pKa + log[ Acid Base ] C) pH = pKa ― log[ Base Acid ]
B) pH = pKa ― log[ Acid Base ] D) pH = pKa + log[ Base Acid ]
Q.102 Which one of the following is the correct presentation for Ksp?
AgCl Ag+ + Cl― A) Ksp = [AgCl] [Ag+1] [Cl-1] C) Ksp = [Ag+1] [Cl-1] [AgCl]
B) Ksp = [Ag+1] [Cl-1] D) Ksp = [AgCl]
ANSWER .
92.B 4 C 93 D 48A 94 C 9 C 95 C 50 B 96 D 51 B 97 A 52 A 98 B 53 D 99 C 54 C 100 C 55
D 101 B 56 D 102 B 57 A 103 B 58 B 59 B 61 D 62 B 63 D 64 B 65 C 66 D 67 A 68 B 69 D
70 C 71 B 72 A 73 C 74 D 75 B 76 A 77 A 78 B 79 D 80 D 81 A 82 C 83 D 84 A 85 C 86 D
87 B 88 C 89 A 44 A 90 C 45 A 91 A
Q.61 Which type of bonding is present in NH4Cl?
A) Ionic. C) Coordinate covalent. B) Covalent. D) All of these.
Q.62 When CuSO4 is electrolyzed in aqueous solution using copper electrodes, then the
substance which deposits at the cathode is:
A) Copper metal. C) Hydrogen. B) Copper ions. D) Oxygen.
Q.63 Aldehydes can be synthesized by the oxidation of
A) Primary alcohols. C) Organic acids. B) Secondary alcohols. D) Inorganic acids.
Q.64 The products of the fermentation of a sugar are ethanol and
A) Water. C) Carbon dioxide. B) Oxygen. D) Sulfur dioxide.
Q.65 __________ serve as carriers of heredity from one generation to the other.
A) Lipids. C) Formaldehydes. B) Caseins. D) Nucleoproteins.
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Q.66 __________ extraction is controlled by partition law.
A) Iodine. C) Solvent. B) Benzoic acid. D) Stationery.
Q.67 The process of effusion is best understood by __________ law.
A) Graham’s. C) Boyle’s. B) Charles’s. D) None of these.
Q.68 __________ has dipole moment.
A) CO. C) Benzene. B) CO2. D) All of these.
Q.69 __________ is used as catalyst in Haber’s process for NH3 gas manufacture.
A) Iron. C) Copper. B) Carbon. D) Silver.
Q.70 In many of its properties __________ is quite different from the other alkali metals.
A) Li. C) Na. B) Be. D) K.
Q.71 Which element forms long chains alternating with oxygen?
A) Carbon. C) Nitrogen. B) Silicon. D) All of these.
Q.72 The percentage of carbon in medium carbon steel is
A) 0.7-1.5. C) 0.2-0.7. B) 0.1-0.2. D) 1.6-2.00.
Q.73 Name the rare halogen among the following.
A) F. C) I. B) Cl. D) At.
Q.74 Which bond will break when electrophile attacks an alcohol?
A) O – H. C) Both A and B. B) C – O. D) None of these.
Q.75 The extent of un-saturation in a fat is expressed as its
A) Acid number. C) Saponification number. B) Iodine number. D) None of these.
Q.76 The process of filtration is used to separate __________ particles from liquids.
A) Radial. C) Insoluble. B) Angular. D) Soluble.
Q.77 London forces are very significant in __________
A) Sulphur. C) Argon. B) Phosphorous. D) Sugar.
Q.78 Which of the following formation is endothermic reaction?
A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l). C) N2(g) + O2(g) N2O2(g). B) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g). D) None of
these.
Q.79 Name the partially miscible liquids from the following?
A) Alcohol-ether. C) Benzene-water. B) Nicotine-water. D) Both A and B.
Q.80 AlI3 (Aluminium Iodide) is electrically a __________
A) Conductor. C) Semiconductor. B) Non-conductor. D) None of these.
Q.81 The elements of IIIA to VIIIA subgroups except He are known as __________ block
elements.
A) q. C) p. B) s. D) None of these.
Q.82 Concentrated nitric acid gives __________ when it reacts with tin.
A) Nitric oxide. C) Ammonium nitrite. B) Meta stannic acid. D) None of these.
Q.83 Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture
A) HCl and HNO3. C) Both A and B. B) H3PO4. D) Both HCl and 2COOH.
Q.84 Alkanes containing __________ carbon atoms are waxy solids.
A) up to 4. C) 18 or more. B) 5 to 17. D) None of these.
Q.85 Which of the following is used to make chloral hydrate?
A) Acetaldehyde. C) None of these. B) Formaldehyde. D) Both A and B.
Q.86 Ten moles of hydrogen are allowed to react with 6 moles of oxygen. How much water
will be obtained from reaction on complete consumption of one gas?
A) 10 moles. C) 6 moles. B) 8 moles. D) 4 moles.
Q.87 The highest temperature a substance can exist as __________ is called its critical
temperature.
A) Solid. C) Gas. B) Liquid. D) Isotope.
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Q.88 __________ hybridization leads to a regular tetrahedral structure.
A) sp3. C) sp. B) sp2. D) All of these.
Q.89 Osmotic pressure of a solution is __________ property.
A) Obligative. C) Colligative. B) Fractional. D) Automated.
Q.90 Magnesium reacts with hydrogen at high pressure in the presence of catalyst
__________ forming magnesium hydride.
A) Dolomite. C) Mg3N2. B) MgI2. D) Epsom salt.
Q.91 Which element has the largest number of allotropic forms?
A) Phosphorous. C) Oxygen. B) Sulphur. D) Both A & C.
Q.92 With increase in number of unpaired electrons, paramagnetism:
A) Increases. C) Remains constant. B) Decreases. D) Decreases then increases.
Q.93 Which metal is commonly used to remove air bubbles from molten metals?
A) Aluminium. C) Sodium. B) Copper. D) Calcium.
Q.94 Which of the following bonds has minimum bond energy?
A) C – F. C) C – I. B) C – Cl. D) C – Br.
Q.95 Which of the following does not react with water?
A) Li. C) Mg B) Na. D) Be.
Q.96 Al2O3(SiO2).2H2O is called
A) Clay. C) Asbestos. B) Talc. D) None of these.
Q.97 CaO forms fertilize slag by reacting with
A) P2O5. C) Silica. B) Fe2O3. D) FO.
Q.98 __________ is colorless volatile liquid at room temperature.
A) HCl. C) HI. B) HF. D) HBr.
Q.99 Hydrogen passed through phenol at 150 ºC in the presence of __________ catalyst
gives cyclohexanol.
A) Tin. C) Iron. B) Nickel. D) Sodium.
Q.100 Ethanol-water is __________ mixture.
A) Azeotropic. C) Benedict’s. B) Ideal. D) Aliphatic.
Q.101 The mobile phase in paper chromatography is usually
A) An organic liquid. C) Water. B) Sulphuric acid. D) Silver nitrate.
Q.102 The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of solid at 1 atm when it melts into liquid
form is denoted by __________
A) Δ Hv. C) Δ Hi. B) Δ Hf. D) Δ Hs.
Q.103 In synthetic fibres __________ bonding is responsible for tensile strength.
A) Nitrogen. C) Oxygen. B) Hydrogen. D) None of these.
Q.104 Boiling point of HF is __________ H2O.
A) Lower than. C) Equal to. B) Higher than. D) Almost same as.
Q.105 __________ is necessary for development of leaves and it tends to accumulate in
leaves and bark.
A) NO2. C) Gypsum. B) Calcium. D) Nitrogen.
Q.106 Which of the following is pale yellow to reddish yellow in color?
A) Pb2O. C) PbO. B) PbO2. D) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2.
Q.107 In which of the following carbon is double bonded with itself?
A) Alkane. C) Alkene. B) Ether. D) Alkyne.
Q.108 In this process, higher hydrocarbons can be cracked at lower temperature and lower
pressure.
A) Thermal cracking. C) Steam cracking. B) Catalytic cracking. D) Reforming.
Q.109 Acetic acid is called __________ acid.
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A) Methanoic. C) Ethanoic. B) Propanoic. D) Butanoic.
Q.110 Na may be denoted by __________ electron configuration notation
A) 1s2 2s1. C) [Ne] 3s1. B) [Ar] 4s1. D) None of these.
Q.111 Which is the best drying agent in desiccators?
A) KOH. C) CaCl2. B) Gypsum. D) Silica sand.
Q.112 100 m3 of a gas at 3 atm pressure and 27 oC is transferred to a chamber of 300 m3
volume maintained at a temperature of 327 oC. What will be the pressure in chamber?
A) 6 atm. C) 2 atm. B) 4 atm. D) 1 atm.
Q.113 The crystals of __________ are ionic solids.
A) Sugar. C) Diamond. B) Iron. D) NaCl.
Q.114 Which material possesses the highest pH?
A) Soft drinks. C) Milk of magnesia. B) Bananas. D) Sea water.
Q.115 The electron present in a particular orbit __________ energy.
A) Releases. C) Absorbs. B) Does not radiate. D) None of these.
Q.116 Al2F2SiO4 is named as
A) Gibbsite. C) Bauxite. B) Emerald. D) Cryolite.
Q.117 Name the oxide in which N has the highest oxidation number.
A) Nitrous oxide. C) Nitrogen peroxide. B) Nitric oxide. D) Nitrous anhydride.
Q.118 Sulphur has oxidation state of __________
A) ± 2. C) None of these. B) + 4 and +6. D) Both A and B.
Q.119 CH3-O-CH3 is example of __________ isomerism.
A) Metamerism. C) Chain. B) Functional group. D) Position.
Q.120 __________ are product of reaction of an alcohol and aromatic bi-functional acids.
A) Acrylic resins. C) PVCs. B) Polyester resins. D) Polyamide resins.
ANSWER:
46 D 92 A 47 C 93 A 48 A 94 C 49 B 95 X 50 C 96 A 51 D 97 C 52 B 98 B 53 B 99 B 54 B
100 A 55 C 101 A 56 B 102 B 57 A 103 D 58 A 104 B 59 B 105 B 60 B 106 C 61 C 107 C 62
A 108 B 63 A 109 C 64 C 110 C 65 D 111 C 66 C 112 C 67 A 113 D 68 A 114 C 69 A 115 B
24 A 70 A 116 B 25 D 71 D 117 D 26 D 72 C 118 D 27 D 73 D 119 B 28 B 74 A 120 B 29 D
75 B 30 A 76 C 31 C 77 C 32 B 78 C 33 A 79 B 34 C 80 B 35 B 81 C 36 A 82 C 37 C 83 D
38 B 84 C 39 D 85 A 40 D 86 A 41 D 87 B 42 D 88 A 43 A 89 C 44 C 90 B
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