NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Paper 8527521718

Physics - Section A 4 If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities, then find
1 Polar molecules are the molecules: the dimensions of energy.
that acquires a dipole moment only when the 1. [F][A][T-1]
1. 2. [F][A-1][T]
magnetic field is absent.
2. having a permanent electric dipole moment. 3. [F][A][T]
3. having zero dipole moment. 4. [F][A][T2]
that acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of
4.
an electric field due to displacement of charges. 5 The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another planet
2 A particle is released from a height of S above the having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass
density is:
surface of the earth. At a certain height, its kinetic 1. 3v
energy is three times its potential energy. The distance 2. 4v
from the earth's surface and the speed of the particle at 3. v
that instant are respectively: 4. 2v
√3 gS

1.
S
,

6 A small block slides down on a smooth inclined

2 2

3 gS
2.
S
, √
4 2 plane starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be the
3 gS
3.
S

4
,
2
distance travelled by the block in the interval t= n-1 to
Sn

4.
S
,
√3 gS
t=n. Then the ratio Sn+1
is:
4 2

1.
2n +1

2n−1

3 Column-I gives certain physical terms associated 2. 2n

2n−1
with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving 3.
2n −1

2n

electrical quantities. 4.
2n −1

2n+1

Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate

relations. 7 The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
Column-I Column-II becomes constant after some time. If the density of
(P)
m

(A) Drift Velocity ne ρ

2 glycerine is then the viscous force acting on the ball
d

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nev d will be:

3M g
(C) Relaxation Period (R)
eE

m
τ 1. 2

(D) Current Density (S) E 2. 2M g

J Mg
3. 2

(A) (B) (C) (D) 4. M g

1. (R) (P) (S) (Q)
2. (R) (Q) (S) (P)
3. (R) (S) (P) (Q)
4. (R) (S) (Q) (P)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

8 A thick current-carrying cable of radius 'R' carries 10 A screw gauge gives the following readings when
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. used to measure the diameter of a wire :
The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable Main scale reading: 0 mm
with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is Circular scale reading: 52 divisions
represented by: Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale, the diameter of the wire
that can be inferred from the given data is
1. 0.26 cm
2. 0.052 cm
1. 2. 3. 0.52 cm
4. 0.026

11 A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into

fragments each of mass number 120. The binding energy
per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while
that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the
3. 4. binding energy in the process is:
1. 804 MeV
2. 216 MeV
3. 0.9 MeV
4. 9.4 MeV
9 Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
prism given below for the incidence ray shown. The
12 Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15
refractive index of the glass is √3. kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional
force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is
generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s ) 2

1. 12.3 kW
2. 7.0 kW
3. 10.2 kW
4. 8.1 kW

13 A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a

concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the
same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel
beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam,
then the distance 'd ' in cm will be:
1. 50
2. 30
3. 25
1. 45° 4. 15
2. 90°
3. 60° 14 A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
4. 30° best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
since:
1. a large aperture contributes to the quality
and visibility of the images.
2. a large area of the objective ensures better
light-gathering power.
3. a large aperture provides
a better resolution.
4. all of the above.

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

15 The electron concentration in an n-type 20 A radioactive nucleus

A

Z
X undergoes spontaneous
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a decay in the sequence X →
A

Z
B →
z−1 C →
z−3 D, z−2

p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is where Z is the atomic number of element X. The
applied across each of them. Compare the currents in possible decay particles in the sequence are:
them. 1. β , α, β
+ −

1. current in n-type > current in p-type. 2. β , α, β

− +

no current will flow in p-type, current will only flow 3. α, β , β

− +

2. 4. α, β , β
in n-type. + −

3. current in n-type = current in p-type.

4. current in p-type > current in n-type. 21 A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
which direction will it move?
16 If a body is executing simple harmonic motion with
frequency 'n', then the frequency of its potential energy
is:
1. 3n
2. 4n
3. n
4. 2n

17 A cup of coffee cools from 90° to 80° C in t

minutes, when the room temperature is 20°C. The time
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from
80° to 60°C at room temperature same at 20°C is :

1. t 10

13

2. 5

13
t
1. towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
3.
13
t 2. towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
10
3. towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
4. 13
t
5 4. towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.

18 In a potentiometer circuit, a cell of emf 1.5 V gives

a balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of
emf 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of
the wire, the balance point occurs?
1. 64 cm
2. 62 cm
3. 60 cm
4. 21.6 cm

19 The effective resistance of a parallel connection that

consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
cross-section and same material is 0. 25 Ω . What will
be the effective resistance if they are connected in
series?
1. 1 Ω
2. 4 Ω
3. 0.25 Ω
4. 0.5 Ω

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

22 An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 25 For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in

capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are the x-direction, which one of the following combinations
connected in series to an ac source of potential gives the correct possible directions for the electric field
difference 'V' volts as shown in fig. The potential (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40V, 1. ^j + k,
^ ^
− j − k
^

respectively. The amplitude of the current flowing 2. −^j + k,

^ ^
− j + k
^

through the LCR series circuit is 10√2 A. The 3. ^j + k,

^ ^
j + k
^
impedance of the circuit will be:
4. −^j + k,
^ ^
− j − k
^

26 The number of photons per second on an average

emitted by a source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3. 3 × 10 watt will be: (h = 6. 6 × 10
−3
Js)
−34

1. 10 16

2. 10 15

3. 10 18

4. 10 17

27 A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric

1. 4 Ω field E→ in the space between the plates. If the distance
2. 5 Ω between the plates is d and the area of each plate is A
3. 4√2 Ω the energy stored in the capacitor is:
4. 5/√2 Ω (ϵ = permittivity of free space)
0

1. 1
ε0 E
2
Ad
23 The equivalent capacitance of the combination
2
2

2. E Ad

shown in the figure is: ε0

3. ε E
1

2
0
2

4. ε EAd 0

28 A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected across an

ac source of voltage V, given by;
V = V0 sinωt

The displacement current between the plates of the

capacitor would then be given by:
1. C/2 1. I d =
V0
sinωt
2. 3C/2 ωC

2. I = V0 ωCsinωt
3. 3C d

3. I = V0 ωCcosωt
4. 2C d
V0
4. I d =
ωC
cosωt

24 Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and

identify the correct answer.
A. A zener diode is connected in reverse bias when used
as a voltage regulator.
B. The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.2
V to 0.3 V.
1. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
2. (A) is incorrect and (B) is correct.
3. (A) and (B) both are correct.
4. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

29 Two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 and 32 An infinitely long straight conductor carries a
R2 are connected by a wire. The ratio of surface charge current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a
σ1 speed of 10 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
5

densities of spheres ( ) is: σ2

perpendicular distance between the electron and the
R1 conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
1. √( ) R2 magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at
R
2 that instant.
2. 1

2
R
2

3.
R1

R2

R2
4. R1

30 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength λ is

incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
function. If 'm' is mass of photoelectron emitted from the
surface and λ is the de-Broglie wavelength, then:
d

1. λ =( 2 mc
)λd
2
1. 4π × 10 −20
N
h
2. 8 × 10 −20
N

2. λ =( 2h

mc
)λd
2
3. 4 × 10 −20
N

4. 8π × 10 −20
N
3. λ =( 2m

hc
)λd
2

4. λ d
=(
2 mc
)λ
2 33 The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours.
h
The fraction of original activity that will remain after
31 A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The 150 hours would be:
1. 2

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is 3

suspended by it is: 2. 2

3√2
1. 3.14 s 3. 1/2
2. 0.628 s
4. 1

3. 0.0628 s 2√2

4. 6.28 s
34 Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
correct match from the given choices.
Column -
Column - I
II
root mean square speed of gas
(A) (P)
1 2
nmv̄
molecules 3

(B) pressure exerted by ideal gas (Q) √ 3RT

average kinetic energy of a

(C) (R)
5
RT
molecule 2

total internal energy of 1 mole of a

(D) (S)
3
kB T
diatomic gas 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. (Q) (P) (S) (R)
2. (R) (Q) (P) (S)
3. (R) (P) (S) (Q)
4. (Q) (R) (S) (P)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

35 If E and G, respectively, denote energy and 39 A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10
gravitational constant, then E
has the dimensions of: m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
G
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
1. [M][L ][T ] 0 0

(g = 10 m/s ) nearly:
2

2. [M ][L ][T ]
2 −2 −1

1. 2.1 kg m/s
3. [M ][L ][T ]
2 −1 0

2. 1.4 kg m/s
4. [M][L ][T ] −1 −1
3. 0 kg m/s
4. 4.2 kg m/s
Physics - Section B
40 A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
36 From a circular ring of mass "M" and radius "R", an supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp.
arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about current in the primary circuit?
an axis passing through the centre of the ring and 1. 2 A
2. 4 A
perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times ' MR ' 2

3. 0.2 A
. The value of 'K' will be:
4. 0.4 A
1. 1

2. 1

8
41 Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220
3. 3
V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate
4
the potential of the bigger drop.
4. 7

8 1. 1520 V
2. 1980 V
37 A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and 3. 660 V
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in 4. 1320 V
the shape of,
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'
(ii) a square of side 'a'
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case
respectively are:
1. 3 Ia and 4 Ia
2 2

2. 4 Ia and 3 Ia
2 2

3. √3 Ia and 3 Ia2 2

4. 3 Ia and Ia
2 2

38 Two conducting circular loops of radii R 1 and R2

are placed in the same plane with their centres

coinciding. If R >> R , the mutual inductance M
1 2

between them will be directly proportional to:

2
R

1. R2
1

2
R

2. R1
2

R1
3. R2

R2
4. R1

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

42 For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 44 A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s . At t
2

applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the = 4s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person
output at terminal y? sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of
the ball at t = 6 s?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
1. 20√2 m/s, 0 m/s 2

2. 20√2 m/s, 10 m/s 2

3. 20 m/s, 5 m/s 2

4. 20 m/s, 0

45 A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor,

80 μF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V
variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of
the source at which power transferred to the circuit is
half the power at the resonant angular frequency are
likely to be:
1. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
2. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
3. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
4. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

46 A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a

uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution.
1. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an
angle 'θ' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained
by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given
by:
2. 1/2
2

1. θ = sin −1
(
π R

2
)

3. gT

1/2
2
2 gT
2. θ = sin −1
( )
4. 2
π R

1/2
2
gT
3. θ = cos −1
(
2
π R
)

43 A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity,

1/2

from the surface of the earth. The 4. θ = cos

2
−1 π R
v = kVe (k < 1) ( )
2

maximum height, above the surface, reached by the gT

particle is: (Where V = escape velocity, R = radius of

e

the earth)
2

1.
R k

1+k
2

2. Rk

2
1−k
2

3. R( k

1−k
)

4. R( k

1+k
)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

47 Three resistors having resistances r 1, r2 and r3 are 49 A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
of balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2
i3
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i1
kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another
currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is: unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm
mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such
that the rod is in equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2)

r1
1. r1 +r2
r2
2. r1 +r3
r1
3. r2 +r3
r2
4. r2 +r3
1. 1

6
kg

48 A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from 2.

1
kg
12

a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror 3. 1

kg
2
were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens
4. 1
kg
and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would 3

be formed at a distance of:

50 In the product
→
F = q (v × B) → →

→ ^ ^ ^
= qv × (B i + B j + B0 k)

For q = 1 and v→ = 2^i + 4^j + 6k

^

and F→ = 4^i − 20^j + 12k

^

→?
What will be the complete expression for B
1. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
virtual image. 1. 8 i + 8 j − 6k
^ ^ ^

2. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a 2. 6^i + 6^j − 8k

^

virtual image. 3. −8^i − 8^j − 6k^

3. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
4. −6^i − 6^j − 8k^
4. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

Chemistry - Section A
51 The compound which shows metamerism is:
1. C3H6O
2. C4H10O
3. C5H12
4. C3H8O

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Paper 8527521718

52 The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is : 57 Following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10

g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of
urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of
1. 2. sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The
decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions
is:
1. P > P > P
2 3 1

2. P > P > P
3 1 2

3. P > P > P
3. 4. 2 1 3

4. P > P > P
1 2 3

58 Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

which of the following particles?
53 For the following compounds, what is the correct 1. Gamma (γ)
sequence of the bond enthalpy of the "C-X" bond? 2. Neutron (n)
1. CH3-F < CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I 3. Beta (β ) −

2. CH3-Cl > CH3-F > CH3-Br > CH3-I 4. Alpha (α)

3. CH3-F < CH3-Cl < CH3-Br < CH3-I
4. CH3-F > CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I
59 Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is:
1. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
54 Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and 2. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
ionic radii because of: Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N'' donor
3.
1. lanthanoid contraction atoms
2. having similar chemical properties 4. Unidentate ligand
3. belonging to same group
4. diagonal relationship 60 What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction ?
55 The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in (i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
2 5

hexagonal primitive unit cell are respectively: Acetone −−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Product

+

1. 2, 1 (ii) H O, H
2

2. 12, 6 1. pentan-3-ol
3. 8, 4 2. 2-methyl butan-2-ol
4. 6, 12 3. 2-methyl propan-2-ol
4. pentan-2-ol
56 BF3 is a planar and an electron deficient compound. The major product formed in the
61
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
central atom, respectively are: dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is
Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on:
1. sp2 and 6 1. Hofmann Rule
2. sp2 and 8 2. Huckel's Rule
3. sp3 and 4 3. Saytzeff's Rule
3
4. sp and 6 4. Hund's Rule

62 The correct example of metal displacement reaction

among the following is -
1. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl + H ↑ 2 2

2. 2 Pb (NO ) → 2PbO + 4 NO
3 2 2 + O2 ↑

3. 2 KClO 3 → 2KCl + 3O2

Δ

4. Cr 2 O3 + 2Al → Al2 O3 + 2 Cr

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

63 Which one among the following is the correct 68 Match List - I with List - II
option for right relationship between Cp and CV for one List - I List - II
mole of an ideal gas ? (a) PCl 5 (i) Square pyramidal
1. C = RC
P V (b) SF 6 (ii) Trigonal planar
2. C = RC
V P
(c) BrF (iii) Octahedral
3. C + C = R
5
P V

4. C − C = R (d) BF 3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal

P V
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
64 The RBC deficiency is a deficiency disease of: (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Vitamin B1 1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
2. Vitamin B1 2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. Vitamin B12 3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
4. Vitamin B6 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

The major product of the following chemical

65 Which one of the following polymers are prepared 69
reaction is
by addition polymerization?
1. Novolac
2. Dacron
3. Teflon
4. Nylon-66

66 An organic compound contains 80 % (by wt.)

1.
carbon and the remaining percentage of hydrogen. The
empirical formula of this compound is:
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
1. CH3
2. CH4 2.
3. CH
4. CH2

67 The dihedral angle of the least stable conformer of 3.

ethane is-
1. 60°
2. 0°
3. 120°
4.
4. 180°

70 Which one of the following methods can be used to

obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
temperature?
1. Distillation
2. Zone refining
3. Electrolysis
4. Chromatography

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Paper 8527521718

71 Identify the compound that will react with 75 The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in exhibited by", is:
alkali. 1. Starch solution
2. Urea solution
3. NaCl solution
1. 2. 4. Glucose solution

76 The correct option for the number of body centred

unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
3. 4. 1. 2
2. 3
3. 7
4. 5
72 In the light of the below statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
Acid strength increases in the order given as
I:
HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
II: down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCI, HBr,
and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
1. I is correct but II is false.
2. I is incorrect but II is true.
3. Both I and II are true.
4. Both I and II are false.

73 The pKb of dimethylamine and pka of acetic acid

are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution
is:
1. 7.75
2. 6.25
3. 8.50
4. 5.50

74 The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI, and

CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16, and
91.0 S cm mol-1 respectively. The molar conductance of
CH3COOH at infinite dilution will be:
1. 698.28 S cm2 mol-1
2. 540.48 S cm2 mol-1
3. 201.28 S cm2 mol-1
4. 390.71 S cm2 mol-1

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Paper 8527521718

77 Choose the correct option for graphical 79 Which of the following is incorrect regarding noble
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of gases?
pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures : 1. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
Noble gases have large positive values of electron
2.
gain enthalpy.
3. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
1. 4.
points.

80 For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is

−4. 2 kJ mol
−1
and enthalpy of activation is
9. 6 kJ mol
−1
. The correct potential energy profile for
the reaction is:

2.
1. 2.

3. 3. 4.

81 Among the following alkaline earth metal halides,

the one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
is:
1. Magnesium chloride
4.
2. Beryllium chloride
3. Calcium chloride
4. Strontium chloride

82 The maximum temperature that can be achieved in

78 The incorrect statement among the following is: blast furnace is :
1. Upto 1900 K
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat 2. Upto 5000 K
1.
and electricity. 3. Upto 1200 K
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when 4. Upto 2200 K
2.
finely divided.
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element
3.
than Lanthanoid contraction.
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in
4.
the solid-state.

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 NEET 2021 Exam Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Paper 8527521718

83 Based on the statements below: 88 From the following pairs of ions which one is not
an iso-electronic pair?
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
I:
narcotic analgesics. 1. Mn2+, Fe3+
2. Fe2+, Mn2+
II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
3. O2-, F-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. Na+, Mg2+
below:
1. I is correct but II is false. 89 Consider the below reaction and identify the
2. I is incorrect but II is true. missing reagent/chemical.
3. Both I and II are true. NaOH, + ?
− +
4. Both I and II are false. CH CH COO Na 3 2
−−−−−− → CH CH + Na CO 3 3 2 3

Heat
1. CaO
84 The structures of beryllium chloride in solid-state, 2. DIBAL-H
and vapour state are : 3. B2H6
1. Dimer, and Linear, respectively. 4. Red Phosphorus
2. Chain in both.
3. Chain, and dimer, respectively. 90 The non-polar molecule among the following is-
4. Linear in both.
1. SbCl5
85 A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, 2. NO2
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The 3. POCl3
wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by 4. CH2O
the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 10 ms ]
8 −1

1. 2192 m 91 Match List-I with List-II

2. 21.92 cm
3. 219.3 m List-I List-II
4. 219.2 m (a) [FeCN6]3- (i) 5.92 BM
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
Chemistry - Section B
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (iii) 4.90 BM
86 In which one of the following arrangements the (d) [Fe(H O) ]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
2 6
given sequence is not strictly according to the properties
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
indicated against it?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
NH3 < PH3 < Increasing acidic
1. 1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
AsH3 < SbH3 character
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < Increasing 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
2.
PbO2 oxidizing power 4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. HF < HCl < HBr < HI Increasing acidic strength
H2O < H2S < H2Se < 92 The correct option for the value of vapour pressure
4. Increasing pKa values
H2Te of a solution at 45 °C with benzene to octane in a molar
ratio 3:2 is :
[At 45 °C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
87 For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
isothermal condition, the correct option is : 1. 336 mm of Hg
1. ΔU = 0, Δ S total≠ 0
2. 350 mm of Hg
2. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ S total= 0
3. 160 mm of Hg
3. ΔU = 0, Δ S total= 0
4. 168 mm of Hg
4. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ S total≠ 0

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93 The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of a chemical 95 The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is
reaction is : 20 S cm2 mol-1. The dissociation constant of acetic acid
is -
(Λo

H
= 350 S cm mol
+
2
) −1

(Λo
CH3 COO
= 50 S cm mol
−
)
2 −1

1. 1. 75 × 10 −5
mol L-1
2. 2. 50 × 10 −5
mol L-1
3. 1. 75 × 10 −4
mol L-1
4. 2. 50 × 10 −4
mol L-1

96 The correct option for the total pressure (in atm) in

a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total
volume of one litre at 0°C is :
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol-1 K-1, T=273 K]
1. 25.18
2. 26.02
1. HI 3. 2.518
2. CuCN/KCN 3. 2.602
3. H2O
97 The slope of Arrhenius Plot (ln k v/s
1
) of the first-
4. CH3CH2OH T

order reaction is −5 × 10 K. 3

The value of Ea of the reaction is-

94 Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II [Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1]
Hell- 1. 166 kJ mol-1
Volhard- 2. -83 kJ mol-1
(a) (i)
Zelinsky 3. 41.5 kJ mol-1
reaction 4. 83.0 kJ mol-1
Gattermann-
(b) (ii) Koch
reaction
H2
Conc. H2 SO4
Haloform
(c) R − C − OH −−−−−−−−→ (iii)
+ RCOOH
reaction

(d) (iv) Esterification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

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98 The product formed in the following chemical 99 Match List-1 with List-II
reaction is : List-I List-II
(a) 2 SO 2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g) (i) Acid rain
(b)

(ii) Smog

(c)
CaCO3 + H2 SO4 →
(iii) Ozone
depletion
CaSO4 + H2 O + CO2

1. (iv)
hv

(d) NO 2 (g) → NO(g) + O(g) Tropospheric

pollution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
2. 2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

3.

4.

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100 The intermediate compound 'X' in the following 103 Match List I with List II
chemical reaction is : List - I List - II
a) Cells with
(i) Vascular
active cell
tissues
division capacity
(b) Tissue having
(ii) Meristematic
all cells similar in
tissue
structure and function
(c) Tissue having
1. different types (iii) Sclereids
of cells
(d) Dead cells
with highly thickened (iv) Simple tissue
walls and narrow lumen
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
2. (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

3. 104 Which of the following stages of meiosis involves

division of centromere?
(1) Anaphase II
(2) Telophase II
(3) Metaphase I
4. (4) Metaphase II

105 Match List - I with List - II

List -I List - II
Biology - 1 - Section A (a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(b)
(ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
101 When the centromere is situated in the middle of Thylakoids
two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is (c)
(iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
referred as : Centromere
1. Sub-metacentric (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in
(d) Cisternae
2. Acrocentric stroma of plastids
3. Metacentric Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
4. Telocentric (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
102 In the equation GPP - R = NPP, R represents: 2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
1. Environment factor 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. Respiration losses
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. Radiant energy
4. Retardation factor Diadelphous stamens are found in:
106
(1) Pea
(2) China rose and citrus
(3) China rose
(4) Citrus

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107 The term used for transfer of pollen grains from 114 A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which 1. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
during pollination, brings genetically different types of 2. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
pollen grains to stigma, is: 3. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
1. Chasmogamy 2. Cleistogamy 4. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
3. Xenogamy 4. Geitonogamy
115 The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum
108 The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
is: (1) Succinic acid
1. 2, 4-D (2) Phosphoglyceric acid
2. IBA (3) Pyruvic acid
3. IAA (4) Oxaloacetic acid
4. NAA
116 Plants follow different pathways in response to
109 Which of the following algae contains mannitol as environment or phases of life to form different kinds of
reserve food material? structures. This ability is called:
(1) Volvox 1. Plasticity
(2) Ulothrix 2. Maturity
(3) Ectocarpus 3. Elasticity
(4) Gracilaria 4. Flexibility

Match List - I with List - II

110 DNA strands on a gel, stained with ethidium 117
bromide, when viewed under UV radiation, appear as: List - I List - II
1. Dark red bands (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
2. Bright blue bands (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
3. Yellow bands (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
4. Bright orange bands (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given
111 Which of the following are not secondary below:
metabolites in plants? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Vinblastin, curcumin
(2) Rubber, gums 1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Morphine, codeine 2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Amino acids, glucose 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
112 Inspite of interspecific competition in nature,
which mechanism the competing species might have 118 Which of the following is not an application of
evolved for their survival? PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
1. Mutualism 1. Purification of isolated protein
2. Predation 2. Detection of gene mutation
3. Resource partitioning 3. Molecular diagnosis
4. Competitive release 4. Gene amplification

113 Amensalism can be represented as: 119 Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
(1) Species A (-) : Species B (-) (1) Red algae
(2) Species A (+) : Species B (0) (2) Blue-green algae
(3) Species A (-) : Species B (0) (3) Green algae
(4) Species A (+) : Species B (+) (4) Brown algae

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120 The production of gametes by the parents, 125 During the purification process for recombinant
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
understood from a diagram called: out:
(1) Punnett square (1) Histones
(2) Net square (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Bullet square (3) RNA
(4) Punch square (4) DNA

121 Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 126 Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
1. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the 1. Gamma rays
materials present inside the nucleus and that of the 2. Zeatin
cytoplasm. 3. Kinetin
2. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA 4. Infrared rays
molecules in both directions between nucleus and
cytoplasm. 127 Which of the following statements is not correct?
3. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous 1. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles. 2. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is
4. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal upright.
cells. 3. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
4. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
122 Gemmae are present in:
(1) Some Gymnosperms 128 Match List-I with List-II.
(2) Some Liverworts List -I List-I
(3) Mosses (a)Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(4) Pteridophytes (b)Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
123 Complete the flow chart on central dogma (d)Cork (iv) Phelloderm
(a) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) (c) 1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
→ mRN A → (d) 2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(1) (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription;
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) - Translation; (d) - Protein
(2) (a) - Transduction; (b) - Translation;
(c) - Replication; (d) - Protein
129 The site of perception of light in plants during
(3) (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; photoperiodism is:
(c) - Transduction; (d) - Protein 1. Axillary bud
(4) (a) - Transcription; (b) - Replication; 2. Leaf
(c) - Transcription; (d) - Transduction 3. Shoot apex
4. Stem
124 Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
130 The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing population is:
(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension 1. Mutation
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension 2. Genetic drift
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing 3. Natural selection
4. Genetic recombination

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131 The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, Biology - 1 - Section B

phosphorus, and calcium present in the soil at any given
time, is referred to as: 136 What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
1. Standing state
process of transcription in eukaryotes?
2. Standing crop
1. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
3. Climax
2. Transcribes only snRNAs
4. Climax community
3. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Match List - I with List-II. 4. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
132
List-I List-II 137 Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase 1. Organisms that depend on living plants are called
(b) Adhesion (ii)Mutual attraction among water saprophytes.
(c) Surface molecules 2. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen
tension (iii)Water loss in liquid phase in specialized cells called sheath cells.
(d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces 3. The fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 4. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-
(a) (b) (c) (d) motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 138 Match Column-I with Column- II.
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Column I Column II
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a)
(i) Denitrification
133 When gene targetting involving gene amplification Nitrococcus (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(b) Rhizobium
is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is (c) (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
known as: (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen
Thiobacillus
1. Molecular diagnosis to ammonia
(a) Nitrobactèr
2. Safety testing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
3. Biopiracy
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Gene therapy
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
134 Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two 3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1. Homosporous
2. Heterosporous 139 Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme site
3. Homosorus
4. Heterosorus within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If
this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-
135 Which of the following plants is monoecious? galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is
inserted in an E.coli strain,
1. Marchantia polymorpha
1. it will lead to the lysis of host cells.
2. Cycas circinalis
2. it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual
3. Carica papaya
abilities.
4. Chara
3. it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the
host cell.
4. the transformed cells will have the ability to resist
ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.

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140 Match Column I with Column II 143 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying
Column I Column II differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence
called:
(a) (i) Brassicaceae 1. Single nucleotides
2. Polymorphic DNA
3. Satellite DNA
(b) (ii) Liliaceae 4. Repetitive DNA

144 Match List-I with List-II

(c) (iii) Fabaceae List-I List-II
(a) S phase I. Proteins are synthesized
(b) G2 phase II. Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent III. Interval between mitosis and
(d) (iv) Solanaceae stage initiation of DNA replication
(d) G1 phase IV. DNA replication
Select the correct answer from the options given below. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
145 Identify the correct statement:
141 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to
1. ATP is synthesized through complex V. 1.
an mRNA.
2. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce a proton
gradient in respiration. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
2.
3. During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is prokaryotes.
limited to the terminal stage. In capping, methylguanosine triphosphate is added to
3.
4. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of the 3' end of hnRNA.
NADH+H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one RNA polymerase binds with the Rho factor to
4.
FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules. terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.

142 Match List -I with List - II. 146 Select the correct pair.
1. Cells of medullary rays that form part of a cambial
List-I List-Ii
ring - Interfascicular cambium
(a) Protein I. C-C double bonds 2. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and
(b) Unsaturated fatty acid II. Phosphodiester bonds forming a lens-shaped opening in the bark - Spongy
(c) Nucleic acid III. Glycosidic bonds parenchyma
(d)Polysaccharides IV. Peptide bonds 3. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. leaves - Subsidiary cells
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

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147 Which of the following statements is incorrect? Biology - 2 - Section A

1. Grana lamellae have both PSI and PS II.
2. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and 151 Match List - I with List - II
PS II.
List - I List - II
3. Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are non-cyclic
(a) Aspergillus Niger (i) Acetic Acid
synthesized during photophosphorylation.
4. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
reductase. (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
148 Nowadays, it is possible to detect the mutated gene Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
causing cancer by allowing the radioactive probe to (a) (b) (c) (d)
hybridise its complementary DNA in clone of cells, (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
followed by its detection using autoradiography because: (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film
1. (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
as the probe has no complementarity with it.
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film
2.
as the probe has complementarity with it.
152 If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic
3. will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
film.
Cytosine in it?
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a
4. 1. T:30 ; G:20 ; C:20
photographic film.
2. T:20 ; G:25 ; C:25
3. T:20 ; G:30 ; C:20
149 In the exponential growth equation Nt =N0ert, e 4. T:20 ; G:20 ; C:30
represents :
1. The base of natural logarithms 153 Which one of the following is an example of
2. The base of geometric logarithms Hormone releasing IUD?
3. The base of number logarithms 1. Cu 7
4. The base of exponential logarithms 2. Multiload 375
3. CuT
150 In some members of which of the following pairs 4. LNG 20
of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
after release? 154 Which one of the following characteristic is
1. Poaceae; Solanaceae incorrect with respect to cockroach?
2. Rosaceae; Leguminosae
3. Poaceae; Rosaceae 1. In females, 7th - 9th sterna together form a genital
4. Poaceae; Leguminosae pouch.
2. 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of
anal cerci.
3. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of
midgut and hind gut.
4. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the
mouth parts.

155 Identify the incorrect pair.

1. Lectins - Concanavalin A
2. Drugs - Ricin
3. Alkaloids - Codeine
4. Toxin - Abrin

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156 Venereal diseases can spread through: 161 Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
(a) Using sterile needles 1. Ozone
(b) Transfusion of blood from an infected person 2. Troposphere
3. CFCs
(c) Infected mother to foetus
4. Stratosphere
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance 162 The organelles that are included in the
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
endomembrane system are:
1. (b) and (c) only (1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
2. (a) and (c) only Lysosomes
3. (a), (b), and (c) (2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulus, Mitochondria
4. (b), (c), and (d) and Lysosomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes
157 Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro and Lysosomes
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and (4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as: and Vacuoles
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Gout 163 Which of the following RNAs is not required for
(3) Arthritis the synthesis of protein?
(4) Muscular dystrophy 1. rRNA
2. siRNA
158 With regard to insulin, choose the correct options: 3. mRNA
a. C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. 4. tRNA
The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
b. 164 Match List - I with List - II
peptide.
c. The pro-insulin has C-peptide. List - I List - II
(a) Metamerism
A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected (i) Coelenterata
d.
by disulphide bridges. (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(c) Comb Plates (iii) Annelida
1. (a), (c) and (d) only (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
2. (a) and (d) Only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
3. (b) and (d) only
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. (b) and (c) only
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
159 Which of the following statements wrongly (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
represents the nature of smooth muscle? (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Communication among the cells is performed by
intercalated discs 165 Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
(2) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distincitve feature?
vessels
(1) Diakinesis
(3) These muscle have no striations
(2) Pachytene
(4) They are involuntary muscles
(3) Leptotene
The centriole undergoes duplication during: (4) Zygotene
160
(1) Metaphase 166 Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as
(2) G2 phase
"Universal recipients". This is due to:
(3) S-phase (1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(4) Prophase (2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
(3) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(4) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

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167 The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) 172 Read the following statements.
and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
diffusion) are : (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
1. pO2=95 and pCO2 = 40 (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
organization
2. pO2 = 159 and pCO2 =0.3
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
3. pO2 = 104 and pCO2=40 (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
4. pO2 = 40 and pCO2=45 Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
168 Succus entericus is referred to as: 1. (a), (d) and (e) are correct
1. Gastric juice 2. (b), (c) and (e) are correct
2. Chyme 3. (c), (d) and (e) are correct
3. Pancreatic juice 4. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
4. Intestinal juice
173 Sphincter of Oddi is present at :
169 Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are 1. Gastro-oesophageal junction
present on: 2. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
1. Perivitelline space 3. Ileo-caecal junction
2. Zona pellucida 4. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
3. Corona Radiata
4. Vitelline membrane 174 Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
170 Match the following 1. Epinephrine
2. Thrombokinase
List-I List-II
3. Thrombin
(a) Physalia I. Pearl oyster 4. Renin
(b) Limulus II. Portuguese Man of War
(c) Ancylostoma III. Living fossil 175 Which one of the following belongs to the family
(d) Pinctada IV. Hookworm
Muscidae?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. Cockroach
below.
2. House fly
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Fire fly
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. Grasshopper
2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
4. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
176 The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
During the interphase of Mitosis if the number of
171 In a cross between a male and female, both chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what number of chromosomes after the S phase?
percentage of the progeny will be diseased? 1. 4
1. 25% 2. 32
2. 100% 3. 8
3. 50% 4. 16
4. 75%
177 Which of the following is not an objective of
Biofortification in crops?
1. Improve vitamin content
2. Improve micronutrient and mineral content
3. Improve protein content
4. Improve resistance to diseases

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178 A specific recognition sequence identified by 182 During the process of gene amplification using
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the
the DNA is: beginning, then which of the following PCR will be
1. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences affected first?
2. Poly(A) tail sequences 1. Denaturation 2. Ligation
3. Degenerate primer sequence 3. Annealing 4. Extension
4. Okazaki sequences
183 Which is the "Only enzyme" that has the
179 Match List-I with List-II
"Capability" to catalyze Initiation, Elongation, and
List-I List-II Termination in the process of transcription in
I. Entry of sperm through the Cervix is prokaryotes?
(a) Vaults blocked 1. DNA Ligase
2. DNase
(b) IUDs II. Removal of Vas deferens 3. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
4. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(c) Vasectomy III. Phagocytosis of sperms within the
Uterus 184 Which one of the following organisms bears
(d) Tubectomy hollow and pneumatic long bones?
IV. Removal of the fallopian tube 1. Macropus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 2. Ornithorhynchus
3. Neophron
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Hemidactylus
1. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 185 Erythropoietin, hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) formation, is produced by:
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 1. The cells of bone marrow
2. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
3. Alpha cells of the pancreas
180 For effective treatment of the disease, early 4. The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis
diagnosis and understanding of its pathophysiology is
very important. Which of the following molecular
diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection? B iology -2-S ection B
1. ELISA Technique
2. Hybridization Technique 186 Which of the following secretes the hormone,
3. Western Blotting Technique relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
4. Southern Blotting Technique 1. Foetus
2. Uterus
181 Select the favorable conditions required for the 3. Graafian follicle
formation of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli. 4. Corpus luteum
1. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:
187
2. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature 1. Digestive disorder
3. High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature 2. Addison's disease
3. Dysfunction of Immune system
4. Low pO2 high pCO2 more H+, higher temperature 4. Parkinson's disease

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188 Which of these is not an important component of 192 Following are the statements about prostomium of
initiation of parturition in humans? earthworm.
1. Release of oxytocin (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
2. Release of prolactin (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can
3. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio crawl.
4. Synthesis of prostaglandins (c) It is one of the sensory structures.
(d) It is the first body segment.
189 Which one of the following statements about Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Histones is wrong? 1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
1. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and 2. (b) and (c) are correct
Arginine. 3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
2. Histones carry a positive charge in the side chain. 4. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
3. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic. 193 Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
190 1. Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
Statement The codon AUG' codes for methionine and Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at
2.
I: phenylalanine. 8-32 cell stage
Statement AAA' and 'AAG are both codons that code Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity
3.
II: for the amino acid lysine. for superovulation
4. Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: 194 Match List-I with List-II
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. List-I List-II
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. (a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth
(d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal
191 Following are the statements with reference to Choose the correct answer from the options given below
'lipids'. :
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called (a) (b) (c) (d)
unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. 1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. 2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including 3. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
carboxyl carbon. 4. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. (b) and (c) only
2. (b) and (e) only
3. (a) and (b) only
4. (c) and (d) only

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195 Match List-I with List-II 198 Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
List-I List-II the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
1. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints 2. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone 3. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 4. Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 199 During muscular contraction which of the
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) following events occur?
3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
196 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A person goes to high altitude and 1. (b), (c), (d), (e) only
experiences 'altitude sickness' with 2. (b), (d), (e), (a) only
Assertion (A):
symptoms like breathing difficulty and 3. (a), (c), (d), (e) only
heart palpitations. 4. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high
Reason (R): altitudes, 200 Match List-I with List-II:
the body does not get sufficient oxygen. List-I List-II
In light of the above statements, choose the correct (i) Selection of resistant varieties
answer from the options given below. (a) Adaptive radiation due to excessive use of
1. (A) is true but (R) is false. herbicides and pesticides
2. (A) is false but (R) is true. (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct evolution and Whale
3.
explanation of (A). (c) Divergent
(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct evolution
4.
explanation of (A). (d) Evolution by
(iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic action
197 Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
List-I List-II (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae 1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton 2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica 4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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