UNN Past Questions (MED)

University of Nigeria, Nsukka
UNN
POST–UTME
Past Questions
[Medicine & Medical Science]
Subjects:
 English Biology Chemistry
 Mathematics Physics Agriculture
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UNN 2005/2006 ENGLISH QUESTIONS (1)
COMPREHENSION what happened, but also who did

INSTRUCTION: or said what, including how and
Read the passage carefully when.
and answer the questions that
follows. 1. The author believes that
electronic recording is ______.
Developments in electronic
science have transformed the art A. superior to mental recording
of record keeping in the modern B. inferior to both mental
age. Traditionally, records of recording and writing
events were kept only in peoples C. superior to both mental
mind. It depended very much on recording and writing
the retentive power of the human D. inferior to only writing
memory.
This was extremely dangerous as 2. The writer believes that the art
people either forgot events wholly of record keeping has ____
or in parts, or deliberately falsified
details to suit their various A. improved over the years
interests. Interminable arguments B. endangered the art of writing
were thus the order of the day. C. changed human memory
Even writing which replaced D. overcome all problems facing it
mental recording was not entirely
free from these shortcomings as 3. How many stages of
untruths could be written as true development did the writer
records either willingly or mention while discussing the art
inadvertently. With the advent of of record keeping?
electronic memory, however,
these dangers now show not only A. Two
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B. Three LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
C. Four
D. Five In question 6 and 7, select the
option that best explains the
4. According to the author, information conveyed in the
human memory is unreliable sentence
because people ____.
6. You are driving too fast for
A. die and we forget what they safety
said
B. forget events or tell lies A. that speed is all right and safe
C. do not always know when B. that speed is not fast enough
events happen for safety
D. do not always know who did C. that speed is not entirely safe
what and when D. you should drive faster too
ensure safety
5. From the passage, we gather
that writing is almost ____ 7. For all I care, the man may be
dead
A. as unreliable as human
memory A. I am not sure that the man is
B. as reliable as electronic dead
memory B. I am not interested in his death
C. more reliable than electronic C. I very much care in case he is
recording dead
D. not to be compared to any D. I am ignorant of the mans
other recording system death
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In each of questions 8 – 11, 11. Enemies of progress covertly
choose the most appropriate strife to undermine the efforts of
option opposite in meaning to this administration.
the word in italics.
A. secretly
8. The priest was invited to B. boldly
consecrate the new building. C. consistently
D. overtly
A. destroy
B. abuse In each of questions 12-15, fill
C. tarnish the gap with the most
D. pollute appropriate option from the
list following gap.
9. A majority of those who sat for
the last JAMB examination are 12. The boy is constantly under
sanguine of success. some ______ that he is the best
student in the class.
A. hopeful
B. unsure A. elusion
C. pessimistic B. delusion
D. disheartened C. illusion
D. allusion
10. When we woke up this
morning, the sky was overcast. 13. Her parents did not approve
of her marriage two years ago
A. cloudy because she has not reached her
B. clear ______.
C. shiny
D. brilliant A. maturity
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B. puberty Facebook Study Group
C. majority
D. minority
If you need an explanation to
any these answers or you want to
14. Our teacher ______ the
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A. emphasized on Click to ENTER our Facebook
B. emphasized study group
C. layed emphasis on
D. put emphasis
15. Young men should not get

mixed ______politics.
A. in with
B. up with
C. up in
D. on with
UNN ENGLISH 2005/2006

ANSWERS [SESSION ONE]
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13.
C 14. B 15. C
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COMPREHENSION market, a woman would walk all

the way from her village to town
INSTRUCTION: Read the with half a dozen eggs. She would
passage carefully and answer spread them on a little bit of
the questions that follow. ground for which she paid rent.
Through the day she would squat
The market was old, timeless on the ground and talk to others
Africa, loud, crowded and free. who came for the same reason.
Here, a man sat making sandals
from old discarded motor-car She would refuse to sell her wares
tyres; there another worked at an till it was time to leave. They
old sewing machine, making a were the excuse for her being
nightgown-like affair while the there. There were many like that.
buyer waited; a little further on, But there were many others for
an old goldsmith worked at his whom trade was an earnest
dying art, but using, now, copper business. Whether in earnest or
filings instead of gold) to fashion as an excuse, the traders were
the lovely trinkets women wear boisterously free, loud-mouthed
the world over; elsewhere a and happy. The laughter of the
woman sold country cloth market was a laughter found
fashioned with such fine art that nowhere else in all the world.
only Africans think of it as a
garment of utility. 1. According to the passage, the
woman with half a dozen eggs in
Trade was slow and loud the market _____.
everywhere. This was as much a
social as a shopping centre. For A. is doing earnest business.
an excuse to spend the day at the
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B. comes purposely to enjoy 4. Which of the following
herself. statements BEST illustrates the
C. is like other traders in the impression the writer has created
market. about the market?
D. does not like her husband at
home. A. An old, timeless and scantily
populate place.
2. "An old goldsmith worked on B. A place people come to for
his dying art" means that the business or pleasure.
C. An old, crowded and discarded
A. goldsmith's trade was no place.
longer popular D. A place for all types of wares
B. goldsmith was old and must and laughter.
soon die
C. goldsmith knew well the art of 5. Which of the following groups
dying of items may be found for sale in
D. goldsmith now used copper the market?
filings
A. Motorcar tyres, eggs and gold
3. Which of the following titles trinkets
BEST reflects the content of the B. Eggs, sandals and gold trinkets
passage? C. Country cloth, gold trinkets
and sandals
A. Market scene D. Country cloth, copper trinkets
B. An African market scene and eggs
C. Trading in the market
D. An African shopping centre
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LEXIS AND STRUCTURE C. an outstanding
D. an influential
In each of questions 6-9,
choose the option nearest in 9. The patient disregarded the
meaning to the word or advice of the doctor.
phrase in italics.
A. ignored
6. Much of his chagrin, he did not B. disobeyed
win the race. C. questioned
D. respected
A. stupefaction
B. disappointment In each of questions 10-12, till
C. shock the gap with the most
D. surprise appropriate option from the
list following the gap.
7. Traditional rulers are not
supposed to be involved in 10. The lawyer pleaded-with the
partisan politics. judge to ____ justice with mercy.
A. dirty A. tempar
B. party B. temper
C. modern C. tamper
D. surprise D. taper
8. Mr. Adamu is a dominant 11. So far, no... [A. effected B.

partner in our business. efficient C. efficacious D.
effectual] drug has been
A. a prominent discovered as a cure for the AIDS
B. an important diseases.
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12. The student leaders were In the following question, the
____punished. words in capital letters have
the emphatic stress. Choose
A. unduly the option that best fits the
B. undully expression in the sentences.
C. unduely
D. unduelly 15. The secretary enjoys
travelling AT NIGHT.
In each of questions 13-14,
choose the word that has the A. Did the secretary enjoy
same consonant sound as the travelling by day
one represented in the letter B. Does the secretary enjoy
underlined. travelling by day
C. Who enjoys travelling by night
13. Vision D. Does the secretary hate
travelling at night
A. Mansion
B. Profession UNN USE OF ENGLISH
C. Cession 2005/2006 SECTION TWO
D. Precision ANSWERS
14. Chair 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D
A. Chancellor 14. A 15. B
B. Chiffon
C. Chalet
D. Champaign
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UNN 2005/2006 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS
1. The difference between the cell D. stigma

wall of a plant cell and animal cell
is that 4. All birds have ____.
A. plant cell wall contains silica A. two-chambered heart

B. animal cell contains stomata in B. three-chambered heart
its membrane C. four-chambered heart
C. plant cell is made up of D. one-chambered heart
membranes only
D. plant cell wall contains 5. The list of important types of
cellulose supporting tissues on plant does
not include
2. In mammals, digestion of
starch starts in the A. collenchyma
B. cambium
A. stomach C. sclerenchyma.
B. small intestine D. xylem
C. mouth
D. liver 6. Bones of birds are modified for
flight by
3. In the process of pollination of
a flowering plant, the pollen grain A. being long
must touch this structure to start B. being cartilaginous
off. C. containing air spaces
D. being filled with Marrow
A. petals
B. calyx
C. ovary
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7. The waste product of plant like 10. The following are some
glycosides, tannins, alkaloids and examples of food chain in the
plant oils may be stored in the savanna terrestrial ecosystem
except
A. xylem
B. cell vacuoles and cell wall of A. grass → zebra → lion
leaves B. diatoms → crayfish → bony fish
C. roots, stem tissues and bark C. seeds → weaverbird → civets
D. pith, stomata and root hairs D. leaves → elephant → vulture
8. The part of the alimentary 11. Reptiles and birds lay eggs on
system of bird where grinding of dry land. These are special eggs
maize occurs is described as
A. crop A. ammonic
B. gizzard B. amniotic
C. cloak C. embryonic
D. rectum D. chorionic
9. To study the structure of 12. A pollen grain produces two

mammalian kidney in a secondary male gametes; one is used to
school you need form the zygote while the other
forms the endosperm by fusing
A. to get fresh kidney of a sheep with
or a pig
B. to get a fresh kidney of a man A. other pollens
C. to get a fresh kidney of a chick B. embryo sac
D. to get a fresh kidney of a toad C. polar nuclei
D. haploid spore
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13. The main vector of malaria UNN BIOLOGY 2005/2006
parasite is ANSWERS
A. culex mosquito 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. B
B. chrysops 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. C
C. anopheles mosquito 14. B 15. D
D. aedes mosquito
14. When a plant bearing ripe

fruits is swayed by the wind and
in the process the seeds are
scattered the phenomenon is
called
A. wind dispersal
B. censer mechanism
C. winged fruits
D. explosive mechanism
15. One of these is not

amendment of Mendelian genetics
A. multiple alleles
B. incomplete dominance
C. sex-linked character
D. single factor inheritance
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UNN 2005/2006 PHYSICS QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following at a fixed temperature for a given

represents the correct t precision pressure
if the length of a piece of wire is II. Evaporation is a surface
measured with a meter rule? phenomenon while boiling is an
interior phenomenon
A. 35mm III. Evaporation is affected by
B. 35.0mm surface area while boiling is not
C. 35.00mm
D. 35.01.mm A. I and II only
B. I and III only
2. To keep a vehicle moving at a C. II and III only
constant speed V requires power D. I, II and III only
P, from the engine. The force
provided by the engine is 4. Equal masses of copper and
rubber are raised to the same
A. P/V temperature. After sometime, the
B. V/2 copper was observed to be at a
C. PV lower temperature because _____
D. P/V
A. the specific heat capacity of
3. Which of the following copper is lower than that of
statements give the TRUE rubber.
difference between evaporation B. copper expands more than
and boiling? rubber.
C. the specific heat capacity of
I. Evaporation occurs at all rubber is lower than that of
temperatures while boiling occurs copper.
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D. rubber expands more than 7. If two parallel wires carry
copper. currents flawing in the same
direction, the conductors will
5. Which of the following
statements is correct about a A. attract each other
long-sighted boy who does not B. repel each other
put on glasses? C. both move in the same
direction
A. He cannot see distant objects D. have no effect on each-other
clearly
B. Rays of light from a close 8. From the generating station to
object are focused in front of the each sub-station, power is
retina transmitted at a very high voltage
C. His eyeball is too long so as to reduce
6. A 12V battery has an internal A. eddy current loss

resistance of 0.5Ω. If a cable of B. hysteresis loss
1.0Ω resistance is connected C. heating in the cable
across the terminals of the D. magnetic flux leakage
battery, the current drawn from
die battery is 9. Two tuning forks of frequencies
256Hz and 260 Hz are sounded
A. 16.0A close to each other. What is the
B. 8.0A frequency of the beats produced?
C. 0.4A
D. 0.4 A A. 516Hz
B. 258Hz
C. 4 Hz
D. 300Hz
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10. The fundamental frequency of 13. 4g of radioactive material of
vibration of' a sonometer wire half-life 10days is spilled on a
may be halved by laboratory floor. How long would
it take to disintegrate 3.5g of the
A. doubling the length of the wire material?
B. doubling the mass of the wire
C. 240V A. 11/4 days
D. 60V B. 8 1/4 days
C. 30 days
11. A transformer has a primary D. 80 days
coil with 500 turns and a
secondary coil with 2500 turns 14. Which of the following
and a secondary coil with 2500 statements correctly describe(s)
turns. When the voltage input to cathode rays?
the primary is 120V, the output is
____. I. They consist of tiny particles
carrying negative electric charges
A. 6000 V II. They are deflected in a
B. 600 V magnetic field but not in an
C. 240 V electric field
D. 60 V III. They consist of fast-moving
neutrons and are deflected in an
12. The principle of operation of electric field
an induction coil is based on
A. I only
A. Ohm's law B. II only
B. Ampere's law C. I and II only
C. Faraday's law D. II and III only
D. Coulomb's law
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15. Which of the following is most Facebook Study Group
strongly deflected by a magnetic
field? If you need an explanation to
A. γ-rays download more past questions
B. ∝-rays for FREE.
C. β-particles
D. X-rays Click to ENTER our Facebook
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ANSWERS TO UNN PHYSICS
2005/2006 QUESTIONS
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C
14. A 15. C
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UNN 2005/2006 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is a D. 25%

mixture?
4. an alkanoic acid has a
A. Sodium Chloride molecular mass of 88. Its
B. Sea water molecular formula is __
C. Iron fillings
D. Granulated sugar A. C4H9COOH
B. C5H11COOH
2. Two elements, X and Y, have C. C3H5COOH
atomic numbers E and 13 D. C3H7COOH
respectively. The formula for the
possible compound found 5. If the rate of diffusion of
between X and Y is ___ Oxygen is taken as 1cms-1, what
will be the rate of diffusion of
A. Y2X2 methane whose molecular mass is
B. XY2 16?
C. X3Y2
D. X2Y3 A. 2.0
B. 1.8
3. 3g of a mixture of CaO and C. 1.4
CaCO3 was heated to a constant D. 1.0
mass. If 0.44g of CO2 was
liberated, calculate the 6. An increase in temperature
percentage of CaO in the mixture. causes an increase in the
pressure of a gas in a fixed
A. 33.3% volume due to an increase in the
B. 50% ____
C. 66.67%
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A. number of molecules of the gas D. sodium hydroxide forms a
B. density of the gas molecules carbonate in the presence of air
C. number of collisions between and chlorine
the gas molecules
D. number of collisions between 9. In what way is equillibrum
the gas molecules and the walls of constant for the reaction related
the container to that of the reverse reaction?
7. In electrolysis, the chemical A. The two equilibrium constants

reaction which takes place at the are identical
anode is ____ B. The product of the two is
always greater than one
A. dissociation C. The product of the two is
B. hydrolysis expected to be one
C. oxidation D. The addition of the two is
D. reduction expected to be one
8. In the electrolysis of brine, it is 10. When chlorine water is

essential to prevent the mixing of exposed to sunlight, the gas
the products because ____ evolved is ____
A. sodium and chlorine readily A. Cl 2

combine B. O2
B. chlorine gives a green C. HCl
coloration D. CO2
C. chlorine readily recombines
with sodium hydroxide 11. PbCl 2 does not dissolve in
liquid ammonia while AgCl does.
This is because ____
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A. Pb is not a transition metal 14. Which of the following is NOT
while Ag is a monomer?
B. Ag is not a transition metal
while Pb is A.
C. AgCl turns grey on exposure to B. CH2=CH2
light C. CH2=CHCl
D. AgCl dissolves in hot water D. C2H5
12. When sodium hydroxide

pellets are exposed to the
atmosphere, the first gas they 15. Which of the following
absorb is ____ behaves like ethyne?
A. CO2 A. CH3CH=CHCH3
B. Water vapour B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2
C. Oxygen C. CH2=CH2
D. Nitrogen D. CH3CH3
13. What is the IUPAC name of ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY

the hydrocarbon? 2005/2006
CH3 – C = CH – CH – CH3 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C
CH2 CH3 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C
CH3 14. A 15. C
A. 2-ethy1-4-methyl pent-2-ene
B. 3,5 dimethyl hex-3-ene
C. 2,4-dimethyl hex-3-ene
D. 3-methyl 2-ethyl hex-2-ene
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UNN 2006/2007 ENGLISH QUESTIONS
COMPREHENSION effect on all members of the

community. I have gone to these
INSTRUCTION: Read the lengths to itemize these examples
passage carefully and answer of current development for two
the questions that follow. main reasons.
The approach to the university is Firstly, to advise you that the

being restructured to ease the road diversions and other physical
flow of traffic, give better security inconveniences currently being
and provide an appropriate experienced will be on the
introduction to a seat of higher increase because of intense
learning. The Works and Services development activity. We
Complex is also under therefore appeal to you to bear
construction, and we intend to with us in full knowledge and
move into the completed (major) consolation that such
part of it within the next few inconveniences are temporary and
weeks. will soon yield final tangible
results.
All these projects are being
executed with an eye to Secondly, to demonstrate our
aesthetics, for we recognize the capacity for executing approved
important influence of a beautiful projects with dispatch. and to
and healthy environment on its assure Government that we are
inhabitants and feel that a cluster up to the task. Indeed. I can
of buildings on a small space such assure Government that its ability
as we have, should be so well to disburse funds to us will be
designed as to have a beneficial more than matched by our
psychological and sociological capacity to collect and expend
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them on executing various worthy E. the road diversions and other
projects in record time. inconveniences will continue
1. From the passage, we can 3. An eye on aesthetics in this

gather that passage means ______.
A. there is not much consideration A. regard for space

for the of the inhabitants B. beneficial psychological effects
B. there is deliberate effort to C. regard for health
inconvenience the people D. consideration for beauty
C. buildings are put up anyhow E. a cluster of buildings
D. projects are carried out without
approval 4. In this passage, the author
E. the inconveniences suffered by tries to explain why.
inhabitants will be for a while
A. it is necessary to establish the
2. Unless it can be shown that Works and Services Complex in
money voted for projects can be the University
spent on them in good time. B. beauty should not be taken
into consideration when building
A. the development activity will on such a small space as we have
not be intense C. the gateway to the university is
B. it will not be easy to convince being rebuilt
the government of our executive D. a major part of the project
ability should be completed in the next
C. it will not be difficult to ask few weeks
government for funds E. visitors should be debarred
D. our final result will be from using the gates in the
unreliable meantime
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5. Which of these is NOT among B. circumscribe
the reasons given by the author C. circumspect
for enumerating the examples of D. circumvent
the current development?
7. It happened that our dog is
A. To show that we are capable of male but ... are all females.
executing approved projects
B. To convince the government A. their's
that we can be trusted with tasks B. there's
C. The inconvenience currently C. theirs'
being experienced will go on D. theirs
indefinitely.
D. We are fully aware of the 8. We can use the telephone; the
inconveniences being caused but lines are all _____.
we do not want you to complain.
E. We have the capacity to A. on
complete worthy projects within B. off
the scheduled time. C. up
D. down
In each of questions 6-15, fill
the gap with the most 9. Ayayi cashed _______ our
appropriate option from the boy's defensive error to score the
list following the gap. equalizer.
6. Some smugglers have created A. on

a road diversion in order to B. in with
______ the new import duty. C. in on
D. in
A. circumflex
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10. I heard that Italy's victory at A. few
the world cup _____ the radio. B. a few
C. a lot of
A. in D. little
B. on
C. over 14. Some students____ believed
D. from they can succeed in exams
without working hard.
11. He travels very often as if he
does not know that a car runs A. many a times
______ Petrol. B. many at time
C. many a time
A. with D. many at times
B. by
C. on 15. The defendant claimed that he
D. in had been _______ making a
statement.
12. We were all delighted when
the lady ____ a bouncing baby A. coarced
boy. B. coaxed
C. coarsed
A. delivered D. coerced
B. brought forth
C. gave birth to UNN USE OF ENGLISH
D. was delivered of 2006/2007 ANSWERS
13. Although the problem was 1. E 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. D

simple, _________ student were 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A
able to solve it. 14. C 15. D
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1. The mitochondrion consists of 4. Odontophore is a skeletal

structure in the phylum of
A. chemicals that break up
complex compounds in the cells A. pisses
into simpler compounds B. echinoderms
B. rich store of ribonucleic acid C. Mollusca
C. digestive enzymes and D. amphibians
hormones
D. protein phosphorus and fats 5. Wattle is a name of a structure
found in
2. In amoeba, the ectoplasm is
bounded by a thin membrane A. lizard
known as the B. chameleon
C. cock
A. plasmasol D. dogfish
B. plasmagel
C. plasmalemma 6. One of these is not a feature of
D. protoplasm the caudal vertebrae in mammal
3. Centipedes are A. they possess neural canal

B. their transverse process is
A. equally dangerous as poorly developed.
millipedes C. their neural spines are
B. less dangerous than millipedes gradually lost
C. more dangerous than all D. there are not many articular
D. not dangerous at all surfaces
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7. The inner ear has two types of D. soredium and basisiopot
coiled structure called cochlea
which 10. The palisade parenchyma is
found in the
A. receives sound impulses
B. has sensory cell which carry A. steam
impulses to the spinal cord B. leaf
C. connects to the eusta chain C. flower
tube D. root
D. possess cells sensitive to
balance 11. The tomato fruit is a very
good example of
8. The viruses are the smallest
known organisms and are divided A. an aggregate fruit
into two parts; the outer part and B. a drupe
the inner part. The outer part is C. a berry
protein and the inner part is D. a multiple fruit
A. nucleus 12. Crenation occur in the red

B. vacuole blood cell when
C. particle
D. DNA and RNA A. it is placed in isotonic solution
B. it is placed in hypertonic
9. The thallus of a lichen consists solution
of C. osmosis is allowed to occur
D. transpiration occurs
A. a virus and a fungus
B. algae cells and fungal hyphae 13. The capillaries act as filters
C. bacterial and fungal cells between
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A. the veins Facebook Study Group
B. the arteries
C. the venules
D. the arteries and the veins
14. The primary openings for
for FREE.
gaseous exchange in a plant stem
at night are
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A. openings in the cuticles study group
B. stomata
C. lenticels
D. branches
15. The outer membrane covering

the brain is known as
A. a brain ventricle
B. a choroid
C. pia mater
D. dura mater
UNN BIOLOGY 2006/2007

ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13.
D 14. C 15. D
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Indicate the correct option in A. its density is equal to the

each of the following density of air
questions B. the Viscous force of air and up
thrust completely counteract its
1. Which of the following is a set weight
of vectors? C. it expands as a result of
reduced external pressure
A. force, mass and momentum D. the viscous force of the air is
B. acceleration, velocity and equal to the sum of the weight
momentum and upthrust
C. mass, weight and density
D. mass, volume and density 4. An electrical heater is used to
melt a block of ice, mass 1.5kg, If
2. A catapult used to hold a stone the heater is powered by a 12V
of mass 500g is extended by battery, and a current of 20A
20cm with an applied force, F. If flows through the coil, calculate
the stone leaves with a velocity of the time taken to melt the block
40m/s, the value of F is of ice at 0°C. (specific latent heat
of fusion of ice = 336 x103J/kg)
A. 4.0 x 102 N/m2
B.2.0 x 103 N A. 76.0 min
C.4.0 x 103 N B. 35.0 min
D.4.0 x 104 N C. 21.0 mn
D. 2.9 min
3. A parachute attains terminal
velocity when 5. 200g of water at 90°C is mixed
with same quantity of water at
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30°C. What is the final A. different hidden colours of the
temperature? glass
B. different speeds of various
A. 50°C colours in glass
B. 60°C C. defect in the glass
C. 70°C D. high density in glass
D. 80°C
9. To produce an enlarged and
6. The equation PxVyTz = constant erect image with a concave
is Charles law when mirror, the object must be
positioned
A. x=1, y=1, z=1
B. x=0, y=1, z=1 A. between the principal focus
C. x=1, y=0, z=1 and the centre of curvature
D. x=0, y=1, z=1 B. at the principal focus
C. between the principal focus
7. For short-sighted person, light and the pole
rays from a point on a very D. beyond the centre of curvature
distant object is focused
10. To convert an ac dynamo to
A. in front of the retina dc dynamo, the
B. behind the-retina
C. behind the retina by a A. number of turns of the coil is
diverging lens increased
D. in front of the, retina a B. slip rings are replaced with a
distance 2F from the lens split-ring commutator
C. number of turns of the" coil is
8. Dispersion of light by a glass reduced
prism is due to the
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D. split-ring commutator is B. 1200
replaced with slip rings C. 1600
D. 2400
11. In an AC circuit that contains
only a capacitor, the voltage 14. If light with photon energy
2eV is incident of surface of a
A. lags behind the current by 90° metal with work function 3eV,
B. leads the current by 90° then
C. lags behinds the currents by
180° A. no electron will be emitted
D. leads the current by 180° B. the few electrons emitted will
have maximum kinetic energy of
12. The purpose of dielectric 1eV
material in a parallel plate C. the few electrons emitted will
capacitor is to have a maximum kinetic energy
of 3eV
A. increase the capacitance D. many electrons will be emitted
B. decrease its capacitance with maximum kinetic energy of
C. insulate the plates from each 5eV
other
D. increase the magnetic field 15. In a nuclear fusion
between plate experiment, the loss of m amount
to 1.0x 10-6 kg. The amount of
13. A substance has a half-life of energy obtained from the fusion
3min. After 6m the count rate (speed of light = 3.0 x 106m/s) is
was observed to be 600. What its
count rate at zero time? A. 3.0 x 10-4J
B. 3.0 x 10-4J
A. 200 C. 9.0x 10-4J
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D. 9.0 x1010 J

2006/2007
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13.
D 14. A 15.
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1. A mixture of iron and sulphur D. 20 cm3

can be separated. by dissolving
the mixture in 4. HNO3 + H2O = H3O + NO3- In
the reaction above, NO3- is the
A. Steam
B. Dilute hydrochloric acid A. Conjugate acid
C. Dilute sodium hydroxide B. Acid
D. Benzene C. Conjugate base
D. Base
2. If 67.5g of oxide of lead was
reduced to 61.2g of metal, 5. The pH range of a
calculate the formula of the oxide. neutralization product of
(Pb = 207, 0 = 16) CH3COOH and KOH is
A. PbO A. 1 - 3
B. PbO3 B. 7 - 8
C. Pb3O4 C. 6 - 7
D. Pb2O3 D. 12 – 14
3. Calculate the minimum volume 6. How much NaOH is required to

of the oxygen that is required for make 250 cm3 of 0.1 mol/dm3
complete combustion of a mixture solution?
of 20 cm3 of CO and 10 cm3 of
hydrogen. A. 10g
B. 1.0g
A. 5 cm3 C. 0.1g
B.10 cm3 D. 4g
C. 15 cm3
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7. 2PbO2 → 2PbO + O2 reaction. The heat of reaction is
In the equation above, the represented by
oxidizing agent is
A. I
A. Pb4+ B. II
B. Pb2+ C. III
C. O2- D. IV
D. O2
8. A current of 0.5 A flows for samples will react fastest with
1930 seconds and deposits 0.325 dilute HCL?
g of metal M. If the charge is +2,
the relative molecular mass is A.10 g of lumps of CaCO3 at 25⁰C
B. 10g of powdered CaCO3 at
A. 65 g 25°C
B. 32 g C. 10g of lumps of CaCO3 at 50
C. 24 g °C
D. 40 g D. 10g of powdered CaCO3 at
50°C
9. Emission of chlorofluorocarbon
(CFC) into the atmosphere causes 12. The colour exhibited by
copper in a flame test is
A. global warming
B. acid rain A. green
C. depletion of ozone layer B. lilac
D. greenhouse effect C. blue-green
D. crimson
10. The diagram above shows the
reaction path of an exothermic
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13. Which of the following B. 3-methylpentan-2-one
statements is correct? C. Hex-3-.ene
D. 2-methylprop-1-ene
A. Chlorine bleaches by oxidation
while sulphur(1V) oxide bleaches ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
by reduction 2006/2007
B. Chlorine bleaches h reduction
while sulphur( IV) oxide bleaches 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A
by oxidation 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. C 13.
C. Both of them bleach by A 14. A 15. A
oxidation
D. Both of them bleach by
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14. The IUPAC name for is If you need an explanation to
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A. 1-chlorobenzoic acid study group
B. 3-chlorobenzoic acid
C. M-chlorobenzoic acid
D. P-chlorobenzoic acid
15. 3-methylbutan-2-one is an
isomer of
A. Pentanal
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UNN 2007/2008 USE OF ENGLISH QUESTIONS
COMPREHENSION somehow conveyed an impression

of strength.
INSTRUCTION: Read the Eze Diali, the chief, sat at one end
passage carefully and answer of his reception hall ringed by the
questions 1-5 below. village elders whom he had called
to a meeting. The rest of the hall
Olumba removed a small black was filled with much younger
amulet from his neck and men.
substituted a bigger one. The
former was for general protection "People of Chiolu," the chief
at home, the latter for protection began, "I have learnt that
and luck whilst travelling. Ready poachers from Aliakoro 'will be at
at last he picked up his matchet the Great Ponds tonight. There is
and headed for the chief’s house no doubt that they will try to steal
with Ikechi behind him. from the Pond of Wagaba which
as you know is rich in fish.
Olumba walked ahead looking Our plan tonight is to bring one or
upward as usual. Just what he more of these thieves home alive
was searching for in the sky and ask for very large ransoms.
Ikechi couldn't tell. Perhaps, his This line of action will have two
shortness accounted for this habit effects. Firstly. it will prove our
since he often had to look up into charges of poaching against the
the faces of his taller companions. people of Aliakoro, and secondly,
What he lacked in height he made the payment of very large
up in solid muscle and he looked ransoms would be a deterrent.
strong. His wrestling pseudonym We need seven men for this
was Agadaga, a name which venture. I call for volunteers."
meant nothing but which
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"Who will head this party?" the D. wanted to instill fear in Eze
Chief asked, looking around. Diali.
Chituru, one of the elders, said: E. believed in their power of
"Eze Diali, let us not waste time. protection
Olumba is the man for the job. 2. Olumba looked upwards

We all know that he has led many because _______.
exploits like this one."
"We still need six men," Eze Diali A. he was searching for
said. Eager youths came surging something in the sky.
forward. Their well-formed B. this was his usual practice.
muscles rippled as they elbowed C. he was short and often had to
one another. It was difficult to look up.
choose.' D. he lacked height.
E. his wrestling pseudonym was
"I suggest Olumba should choose Agadaga
his men. He knows the boys very
well and his judgment should be 3. "Poaching" means
reliable." It was Wezume, another
village elder, who spoke. A. stealing
B. cracking eggs
1. Olumba wore amulets because C. fishing
he ________. D. deterring thieves
E. demanding ransoms from
A. was superstitious. Aliakoro
B. was a strong and fearless
fighter. 4. The chief called the meeting
C. wanted to please his wile. because
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A. he wanted volunteers to go to 6. We watched the woman as she
Aliakoro stood up and ____ herself more
B. he wanted to announce the fact comfortably.
that there would definitely be
poachers from Chiolu at the Great A. reseated
Ponds that night B. resat
C. he wanted to ask for very large C. reseat
ransoms D. resifted
D. the elders had devised a plan
to prevent the poaching 7. The students _______ the
E. seven men were needed to principal's appeal for and took to
bring seven the streets.
5. Why was Olumba chosen'? A. deferred

B. differed
A. in order not to waste time C. defied
B. because his nickname D. defined
conveyed an impression of
strength 8. The noise from the record
C. his amulets for luck was were seller's workshop _______on for
stronger fishing. my ears.
D. he had caught thieves alive
before A. jeers
E. the passage doesn't say B. jars
C. jams
In each of questions 6-8 D. jabs
choose the word(s) that best
complete the meaning in the
sentence
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In question 9-11, choose the In questions 12-14 choose the
option opposite in meaning to words or which best fill(s) the
the word(s) in italics. gap(s).
9. The Military Governor upheld 12. There's _____ventilation in

the decision of his cabinet. this room; that's you don't
breathe well.
A. Held up
B. Undercut A. few
C. Maintained C. a few
D. Abolished B. little
E. Reversed D. a little
10. Chidi is naturally taciturn. 13. Whenever he puts the light

on, someone_______ to disturb
A. Friendly him.
B. Cheerful
C. Dumb A. came
D. Lively B. has come
E. Reserved C. comes
D. would come
11. James is a disco-addict. He
takes his student rather lightly. 14. It____ be taken tier repair
after all: it's working again.
A. Humorously
B. Gloomily A. couldn't
C. Tediously B. shouldn't
D. Carefully C. mightn’t
E. Seriously D. needn't
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In question 15 choose the
word that has the same
consonant sound as the one
represented by the letter(s)
underlined.
15. Chassis
A. Chip
B. Cheat
C. Sharp
D. Character
ANSWERS FOR UNN USE OF

ENGLISH 2007/2008
1. E 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. E 10. A 11. E 12. B 13. B
14. D 15. C
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1. Increasing complexity due to C6H12O6 → 2C2H6O + 2CO2 +ATP

multicellularity first appeared in
this animal group A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
A. protozoa C. photosynthesis
B. coelenterate D. respiration
C. Sarcodina
D. Protista 5. In any population, any specific
allele will mutate at one time or
2. In the angiosperms, the sieve another, usually to a non-
tube members are living non- functional or harmful form. The
nucleated, but they are usually proportion of gametes carrying
accompanied by new mutant alleles of a given
locus is culled
A. cork cambium
B. phloem rays A. the mutation rate
C. vascular cambium B. the selection coefficient
D. companion cells C. the relative fitness
D. the lethal genotype
3. Abscisic acid is a chemical that
prepares plants for 6. In mosses, the sporophyte
generation is highly prominent
A. ripening fruits producing spores in a cone- like
B. emergence of seedlings
C. for leaf fall A. gametophyte
D. reproduction B. strobilus
C. Antheridium
4. The formula below represents D. archegonium
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7. When Sudan III solution is 10. In a pyramid of numbers, it is
boiled with a solution of food common to have_____ with the
substances, it gives a colour black smallest of individuals
precipitate showing the presence
of A. secondary consumers
B. tertiary consumers
A. fats and oil C. primary consumers
B. protein D. primary producers
C. amino acid
D. starch 11. In blood transfusion,
agglutination occurs when____
8. Plants adapted to life in salty
marsh are known as A. white blood cells from two
people meet
A. hydrophytes B. two different antibodies meet
B. xerophytes C. two different antigen meet
C. halophytes D. contrasting antigens and
D. epiphytes antibodies meet
9. A circulatory system that does 12. Genetic counselling is

not allow mixing oxygenated important when marriage is
blood in the mammalian heart is planned between a
referred to as
A. Rh+ woman and Rh- man
A. open B. Rh- woman and Rh+ man
B. double C. Rh- man and Rh- woman
C. single D. Rh+ woman and Rh+ man
D. closed
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13. One of these animal groups ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY
contain acoelomate members 2007/2008
A. Mollusca 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A
B. coelentrata 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. B
C. Arthropoda 14. B 15. A
D. reptilian
14. The enzyme invertase will

hydrolyse sucrose to give
A. mannose and galactose

B. glucose and fructose
C. maltose and galactose
D. glycerol and fatty acids
15. A flower that has both stamen

and pistil is said to be
A. perfect
B. imperfect
C. pistillate
D. staminate
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1. The extension of a spring when its other end to keep it in

5 g weight was hung from it was horizontal equilibrium is
0.56cm. If Hooke’s law is obeyed,
what is the extension caused by a A. 15N
load 20g weight? B. 20N
C. 30N
A. 1.12 cm D. 60N
B. 2.14 cm
C. 2.52cm 4. Two points on a velocity-time
D. 2.2401 graph have coordinates (5s,
10m/s) and (20s, 20m/s).
2. The distance travelled by a Calculate the mean acceleration
particle starting from rest is between the two points.
plotted against the square of the
time-elapsed from the A.0.67m/s2
commencement of motion. The B. 0.80 m/s2
resulting graph is a measure of C. 1.50 m/s2
D. 2.00 m/s2
A. initial displacement.
B. initial velocity 5. Which of the folloWing
C. acceleration statements are correct?
D. average velocity
i. Land and sea-breezes are
3. A 90cm uniform lever has a natural convection
load of 30N suspended at 15cm ii: The vacuum in a thermos flask
from one of its ends. If the prevents heat lo due to
fulcrum is at the centre of gravity, convection only
the force that must be applied at
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iii. Convection may occur in 8. An object is placed in front of
liquids or gases but in solids two plain mirrors inclined at an
angle of θ˚ . If the total number
A. i and ii only of images formed is 7, find the
B. ii arid- iii only value of θ˚
C. i and iii only
D. I. ii and iii only A. 30°
B.45°
6. The property of the eye known C. 517
as its power of accommodation it D. 90°
controlled by the
9. The north pole of a magnet can
A. pupil never be separated from the
B. vitreous humour south pole because of a property
C. iris known as _____.
D. ciliary muscles
A. magnetic dipole.
7. Under constant tension and B. magnetic moment
constant mass per unit length, the C. magnetic monopole
note produced by a plucked string D. magnetic quadrupole
is 500Hz when the-length of the
wire is 0.9m. At what length is 10. If the distance between two
the frequency 150Hz? points charges is increased by a
factor of four, the magnitude of
A. 3m electrostatic force between them
B. 0.27m will be
C. 8.33m
D. 6740m A. ½ of its initial value
B. ¼ its initial value
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C. 1/16 of its initial value 13. Which of the following is
D. 4 times of Its initial value required to convert a
milliammeter to ammeter?
11. The terminal voltage of a
battery is 4.0V when r supplying a A. A high resistance in Parallel
current of 2.0A; and 2:0V when B. A low resistance in series
supplying a current of 3:0A. The C. A low resistance in parallel
internal resistance of the battery D. A high resistance in series
is
14. A light of energy 5eV falls on
A. 0.5 Ω a metal and electrons with a
B. 1.0 Ω maximum kinetic energy of 2eV
C. 2.0 Ω are ejected. The work function of
D. 4.00 the metal is
12. The primary aim in high A. 0.4eV

tension transmission is to B. 2.5eV
C. 3.0eV
A. Minimize electrical energy loses D. 7.0eV
due to heat production
B. Increase the rate of energy 15. One of the features of fission
transfers by using high voltage process is that
C. Increase the current-in the
wires A. its products are not radioactive
D. Generate electricity at high B. it leads to chain reaction
current and low voltage C. neutrons are not released
D. the sum of the masses of the
reactants equals the sum of the
masses of the products
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2007/2008
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. C
14. C 15. B

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1. Two immiscible liquids with 4. 20 cm3 of H2 mixed and

different boiling points can be separated with 100 cm3 of air
separated by containing 21% O2. Calculate the
volume of the residual gases at
A. the use of separating funnel 110⁰C.
B. evaporation
C. distillation A. 31 cm3
D. decantation B. 11 cm3
C. 90 cm3
2. A mixture of CaCl 2 and CaCO3 D. 110 cm3
in water can be separated by
5. What is responsible for metallic
A. evaporation bonding?
B. sublimation
C. distillation A. Sharing of electrons between
D. decantation the metal atoms
B. Attraction between the atomic
3. Consider the reaction nuclei and the cloud of electrons
represented by C. Transfer of electrons from one
xPb(NO)2 → 2PbO + yNO2 + zO2 atom to another
What are the values of x, y and z D. Attraction between positive
respectively? and negative ions
A. 2, 6, 3 6. 25 cm3 of 1.5 M solution of

B. 1, 4, 2 NaCl are added to 50 cm3 of 3 M
C. 2, 4, 1 NaCl. The molar concentration of
D. 2, 4, 2 the resulting solution is
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A. 2.5 M A. 43.2g
B. 3 M B. 21.6g
C. 2.25 M C. 10.8 g
D. 4.5 M D. 5.4 g
7. A solution of salt formed from 10. Pollution of underground

HCl and NH3 solutions is water by metal ions is very likely
in a soil that has high
A. acidic
B. basic A. acidity
C. complex B. alkalinity
D. neutral C. chloride content
D. nitrate content
elements will burn in excess 11 . Producer gas is a gas with
oxygen to form a product that is low calorific value because it
neutral to litmus? contains more
A. Carbon A. CO2 than O2

B. Hydrogen B. N2 than CO
C. Sulphur C. CO2 than N2
D. Sodium D. N2 than CO2
9. A current was passed for 10 12. For most reversible reactions,

mins and 0.2 mole of Cu was
deposited. How many grams of Ag A. the reaction rate increase with
will it deposit? (Cu = 64, Ag = time
108) B. the reaction rate decreases
with time
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C. the rate stabilizes with time D. CH3-C≡C-CH3
D. the rate produces a curve with
time ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
2007/2008
compounds will leave a metal 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A
residue when heated? 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B
14. A 15. D
A. Cu(NO3)2
B. AgNO3
C. K2CO3
D.Na2CO3
14. Which of the polymers

contains nitrogen?
A. Nylon
B. PVC
C. Polyethene
D. Cellulose
15. A red precipitate of

copper(I)dicarbide is formed when
ammonium solution of copper(l)
chloride is introduced into
A. CH2=CH-CH2-CH3
B. CH3-CH2-C≡CH
C. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
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COMPREHENSION mathematician have a lot in

common.
INSTRUCTION: Read the Fundamental to all their studies
passage carefully and answer and works is their common
the questions that follow it. interest in the logical study of
related concepts and objects to
Mathematics is the language in form patterns which will produce
which the Book of Nature is beauty, harmony and order.
written: Mathematics is the queen
of the sciences. It is universally Thus, the poet arranges words to
agreed that Mathematics is the produce a pattern called music;
backbone of Science and the artist arranges colours to
Technology. For without produce a pattern called painting
mathematics, the engineer is but and the mathematician arranges
an artist or a sculptor. He can abstract ideas into a pattern using
build his bridge, attest to its form symbols, to produce equations.
and beauty, but without Each of these patterns -the poem,
mathematics he cannot guarantee the music, the painting and the
its reliability to serve the purpose equation must stand up to the
for which it is built. test of the same order, harmony
and beauty. So, if Mathematics is
Mathematics is indeed the science not an art, what is art?
of sciences. It is also art of all
arts. It is right, legitimate and 1. The views expressed in this
defensible to consider passage belong to
mathematics as an Art. The poet,
the musician, the artist and the A. JAMB
B. artists
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C. mathematicians. A. question for the reader to
D. the poet answer.
E. the author of the passage B. statement put in form of a
question.
2. The expression "Mathematics is C. question combined with a
the queen of sciences- contains statement.
D. mathematical question stated
A. a contradiction in words.
B. an analogy E. pattern which illustrates
C. an irony. beauty, harmony and order in
D. a lie language.
E. nonsense
5. "Mathematics" can be
3. "Mathematics'' is written with a considered as a form of art
capital M in this passage because because _____
A. the writer a mathematician, A. its main principles is made use

B. the writer does not know to of by the arts.
use punctuation correctly B. it involves drawing in figures.
punctuation correctly. C. it is a form of Fine Arts.
C. the writer wants to distinguish D. it is a type of Graphic Arts
between concept and a subject. E. it also involves a study of
D. it is the normal way of writing beauty, harmony and order
about the sciences.
E. the writer is confused. In questions 6 and 7 Choose
the Word that has been
4. The last sentence in the correctly spelt
passage, “So if Mathematics is not
an art, what is art?” is a _____.
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6. It is not easy to ______ jobs D. whom
sweeping in the streets and on
campus. 9. My sister has ____ several food
packages for my birthday party.
A. maneuver
B. manouever A. laid on
C. maneuver B. layed up
D. maneuver C. laid off
D. layed on
7. The defendant claimed he had
been ______ into making a 10. Many students were _____
statement into rioting by the more radical
ones
A. coarced
B. coaxed a. guided
C. coarsed B. gathered
D. coerced C. guarded
D. goaded
In questions 8-10 choose the
option that best completes the In question 11 choose the
gap option that explains the
information conveyed in the
8. I have reminded him that he is sentence.
the only ______ can solve my
problem. 11. Posters have been printed,
and would be distributed to the
A. who rank and file.
B. which
C. that
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A. to both the ordinary members D. ostracized
and the leaders.
B. to those of high ranks and file. In question 14, choose the
C. to the leaders alone. option that has the same
D. to the ordinary members vowel sound as the one
alone. represented by the letter(s)
underlined
In questions 12 and 13,
choose the option nearest in 14. Flood
meaning to the word(s) in A. Stop
italics B. flock
C. blood
12. Because more reliable
evidence is needed to prosecute In question 15 choose the
the case, it is now in abeyance. option that has the same
A. court record represented by the letter(s)
B. suspension underlined
C. privacy
D. secret 15. Echelon
13. In the olden days. mothers of A. Church

twins were never accepted as B. Character
members of the society. They C. Chief
were simply _____. D. Chassis
A. banished
B. excommunicated
C. expelled
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ANSWERS TO UNN USE OF
ENGLISH 2008/2009 POST
UTME
1. E 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. E 6. A 7. D
8. C 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. B 13.
D 14. C 15. D

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1. From the following list of types B. sterol

of mutation, identify the one that C. glycerol
is hereditary D. lecithin
A. genetic mutation 5. Phototropism is

B. somatic mutation
C. germinal mutation A. a unilateral response to light
D. gametic mutation B. a bilateral response to light
C. both unilateral and bilateral
2. Which of these would not be a response to light
limiting factor in photosynthesis? D. a hormonal gradient created
within the organ
A. O2
B. CO2 6. The site of protein synthesis in
C. chlorophyll a cell is
D. light
A. golgi apparatus
3. In a cell digestive enzyme B. ribosomes
mostly occur in C. lysosomes
D. nucleus
A. ribosome
B. lysosome 7. On storage, the sweetness of
C. mitochondria corn is lost. This is because
D. plastids
A. polysaccharide is reconverted
4. Which of these is no a lipid? into soluble sugar
B. concentration of sugar
A. wax increases due to storage
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C. of conversion of sugar to 11. The highly developed cortex
polysaccharide of the brain of man enables us to
D. enzymes responsible for the do the following except
conversion are lost
A. think
8. The eye worm is known as B. reason out
C. memorize
A. Wuchereiria bancrofti D. maintain balance of the body
B. Brugia malayi
C. Loa loa 12. Lamp brush chromosome
D. Dracunenlus rnedinensis occurs in
9. Which of these plants is not a A. salivary gland

pitcher plant? B. lymph glands
C. cancer cells
A. nepenthes D. oocytes
B. crotalaria
C. sarracenia 13. Insulin is secreted by the
D. Dionaea
A. gall bladder
10. One of these arthropods is a B. pancreas
carrier of viruses and other micro C. liver
organism D. spleen
A. termite 14. The principal energy storing

B. ant molecule is
C. bee
D. flea A. NADP
B. FAD
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C. ATP
D. ADP
15. Each month the uterus lining

thickens up in readiness to
receive the fertilized egg. If the
egg is not fertilized, the lining and
some blood is lost through the
vagina, This is
A. ovulation
B. gestation
C. fertilization
D. menstruation
ANSWERS TO UNN BIOLOGY

2008/2009
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. D 13.
B 14. C 15. D
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1. A body of mass 5kg initially at 3. The efficiency of a machine is

rest is acted upon by two always less than 100% because
mutually perpendicular forces 12N
and 5N as shown in the figure A. load lifted is always greater
below. If the particle moves in the than work input
direction QA, calculate the B. load lifted is always greater
magnitude of the acceleration. than the applied effort
A C. effort applied is always greater
than mechanical advantage
12N e D. velocity ratio is always greater
than the mechanical advantage
Q 5N
4. Which of these statements is
A. 2.60m/s2 not true?
B. 0.26m/s2 Thermostats are used to control
C.3.40 m/s2 the temperature of
D.1.40 m/s2
A. pressure cookers
2. A car of mass 1500kg goes B. laundry irons
round a circular curve of radius C. hot water storage tanks
50m at a speed of 40m/s. The D. aquaria for tropical fish
magnitude of centripetal force on
the car is 5. A given mass of an ideal gas
occupies a volume V at a
A. 1.2 x 102N temperature T and under a
B. 1.2 x 103N pressure P. lf the pressure is
C. 4.8 x 103N increased to 2P and the
D. 4.8 x 104N temperature reduced to ½ T, then
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the percentage change in volume in the measurement of the depth
of the gas is of the sea?
A. 25% A. Refraction
B. 75% B. Reflection
C. 300% C. Diffraction
D. 1% D. Interference
6. The thermometric property of a 9.Which of the following eye

constant volume of thermometer defects can be corrected using a
is cylindrical lens?
A. change in pressure A. Astigmatism

B. change in length B. Presbyopia
C. differential expansion C. Chromatic aberration
D. change in volume D. Myopia
7. The combination of sound 10. The resistance of a wire

waves with different frequencies depends on
is known as
A. the length of the wire
A. interference B. the area of the wire
B. diffraction C. the temperature of the wire
C. superposition D. all of the above
D. resonance
11. A dynamo primarily converts
characteristics of a wave is used A. mechanical energy into
electrical energy
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B. electrical energy into kinetic 14. The difference between X-rays
energy and γ-rays is that
C. potential energy into kinetic
energy A. X-rays arise from energy
D. kinetic energy into potential changes and are due to electrons
energy while γ -rays come from the
nucleus
12. If a current carrying coil is B.X-rays are electromagnetic
mounted on a metal frame, the radiations while γ -rays are not
back emf induced in the coil C.X-rays have higher frequencies
causes than γ -rays
D. X-rays are more penetrating
A. inductance than γ -rays
B. eddy current
C. electromagnetism 15. When an atom loses or gains
D. dipole moment a charge, it becomes
13. Which of the following may be A. an electron

found in light nuclei? B. an ion
C. a neutron
i. β- particles D. a proton
ii. protons
iii. neutrons ANSWERS TO UNN PHYSICS
iv. ∝-particles 2008/2009
A. i and ii only 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C
B. i and iii only 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. B 13.
C. i and iv only D 14. A 15. B
D. ii and iii only
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1. What are the values of p q, r A. 0.6 atm

and s respectively in the B. 0.5 atm
equation? pCH4 + qO2 → rCO C. 0.4 atm
+sH2O D. 1.6 atm
A. 1, 2, 1, 2 4. The major reason why chemical

B. 1, 3, 2, 2 reaction occurs among elements
C. 2, 3, 2, 4 is that they have the tendency to
D. 2, 3, 2, 2
A. attain the nearest noble gas
2. KHCO3 is contaminated with structure
K2CO3 as impurity. If 2.5 g of the B. become a metal
impure KHCO3 on heating C. become a non-metal
produces 0.224 dm3 of CO2 at D. become a noble element
s.t.p., calculate the percentage of
K2CO3 impurity. (K=39, H = 1, 5. Given that the pH of a solution
C= 12, 0 = 16) of KOH is 12, what is the
concentration oh he OH-ions?
A.30%
B.40% A. 0.01 mol/dm3
C. 10% B. 1 x 10-12 mol/dm3
D. 20% C. 1 x 10-14 mol/dm3
D. 1 x 10-7 mol/dm3
3. The partial pressure of N2 in a
container at 50⁰C in which there 6. Which of the following salt has
are 0.30 mole of N2 and 1.2 mole a pH less than 7?
of CO2 at a pressure of 2.00 atm
is? A. NaHCO3
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B. NH4Cl D. Conduction of heat
C. Na2SO4
D. NaCl 10. Apiece of radioactive element
has initially 8.0x1027 atoms. Half-
7. In which of the following life is two days. After 16 days the
reactions. does hydrogen number of atoms is
peroxide act as a reducing agent?
A. 5 x 1021
A. PbO2 +2HNO3 + H2O2→ B. 5 x 1022
Pb(NO2)3 + 2H2O + O2 C. 2 x 1022
B. H2S _H2O2 → S + 2H2O D. 2 x 1021
C. PbSO2 + H2O2 → PbSO4 + H2O
D. 2I + 2H + H2O2 → I2 + 2H20 11. Which of the following pairs of
substances are hygroscopic?
8. Temporary hardness of water is
removed by the use of the A. CaCl and NaOH
following EXCEPT B. CaO and KOH
C. Conc. H2SO4 and MgCl 2
A. Boiling D. CuO and CaO
B. Use Ca(OH)2
C. Use of Na2CO3 12. Zinc is not regarded as a
D. Use of alum transition metal even though it is
a d-block element because
9. Hydration of ions in solution is
associated with A. It has no election in 3d-orbitals
B. It has all 3d-orbitals
A. Liberation of heat completely filled
B. Absorption of heat C. It blends with other
C. Reduction of heat neighbouring elements
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D. It does not form complex ions ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
like others 2008/2009
13. Silver chloride turns grey 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A

when exposed to sunlight because 8. D 9. A 10. – 11. D 12. B 13.
D 14. A 15. C
A. The silver ion is reduced to
silver
B. The silver ion is oxidized to
silver
C. Silver is a transition metal If you need an explanation to
D. The silver chloride forms any these answers or you want to
complexes in the sun download more past questions

for FREE.
14. Which of these compounds

exhibits resonance? Click to ENTER our Facebook
study group
A. Benzene
B. Ethanol
C. Propene
D. Butyne
15. Hydrolysis of CH3COOCH2CH3

in dilute HCI produces
A. CH3COOH + CH3CH3
B. CH3CH2OH. + CH3COCl
C. CH3COOH; + CH3CH2OH
D.CH3COOH + CH3CH3
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COMPREHENSION But, once man has begun to

interfere with nature, he cannot
INSTRUCTION: Read the afford to stop half way. We
passage below carefully and cannot, with impunity, cut down
answer the questions 1-5 that the death-rate and at the same
follow. time allow the birth-rate to go on
taking nature's course. We must
All over the world till lately, and in consciously try to establish an
most of the world till today equilibrium or, sooner or later,
mankind has been following the famine will stalk aboard again.
course of nature: that is to say, it
has been breeding up to 1. The author observes that
maximum.
To let nature, take her A. war, pestilence and famine
extravagant course in the were caused by the extravagance
reproduction of the human race of nature.
may have made sense in an age B. nature was heartless and
in which we were also letting her senseless.
take her course in decimating C. there was a time when
mankind by the casualties of war, uncontrolled birth made sense.
pestilence, and famine. Being D. it was wise at a time when
human, we have at least revolted mankind did not interfere with
against that senseless waste. We normal reproduction.
have started to impose on E. nature was heartless in its
nature's heartless play a humane reproductive process.
new order of our own.
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2, Which of these statements passage implies that mankind
does not express the opinion of must
the author?
A. realistically find an equation.
A. mankind has started to B. strive not to be wasteful.
interfere with the work of nature. C purposely try to fight nature.
B. many people had died in the D. try to fight nature;
past through want and disease. E. deliberately find a balance.
C. mankind should have the
maximum number of children 5. The main idea of this passage
possible is that
D. mankind should take care of its
children A. nature is heartless.
E. man's present relationship with B. man should control the birth
nature in matters of birth and rate
death is a happy one. C. mankind will soon perish of
Starvation.
3. "Humane" as used in the D. pestilence causes more deaths
passage means than war.
E. man should change nature's
A. sensible course gradually
B. wise
C. human In questions 6 and 7, select
D. benevolent the option that best explains
E. thorough the information conveyed in
the sentence
4. "We must consciously try to
establish equilibrium" in the
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6. With the screening test around D. loosened
the corner, I've got the jitters
already. 9. Something is being done to
detect the person who____ the
A. I've felt confident. crime.
B. I've felt secured and hopeful.
C. I’m getting anxious. A. perpetrated
D. I’m getting afraid B. perpetuated
C. performed
7. The teacher warned her D. promoted .
students against resting on them
10. The lawyer pleaded with the
A. relaxing on soft chairs judge to _______ justice with
B. taking things for granted mercy.
C. depending on past
achievements A. tempar
D. feeling satisfied and making no B. temper
new efforts C. tamper
D. taper
In questions 8-11, choose the
word(s) that best completes 11. Obi bought five novels last
the meaning in the sentences week and has gone through all.
He is totally a_____ reader.
8. The door handle was shaky
because the screws had____ A. vicarious
B. voracious
A. lost C. vivacious
B. loosed D. veracious
C. losed
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In questions 12 and 13, A. Had it been 1 saw
choose the option nearest in B. if I saw
meaning to the word(s) or C. Had I seen
phrase(s) in italics D. Should 1 see
12. He lost his voice momentarily. 15._____ he had insufficient

qualification; he was denied
A. in a moment admission.
B. in a split moment .
C. for a brief period of time A. Hence
D. without delay B. For the fact
E. instantly C. Being
D. As
13. In some parts of India, people
are ostracized simply because of UNN USE OF ENGLISH
their ancestry. 2009/2010 ANSWERS
A. abandoned 1. C 2. E 3. A 4. E 5. B 6. C 7. D
B. shut off from society 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B
C. refused education 14. C 15. D
D. rendered unhappy
E. hated
In questions 14-15 choose the

word(s) or phrase which best
fills the gap(s)
14._____ him in the crowd, 1

would have told you at once.
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1. The bryophytes are important B. osmosis

parts of certain food chains C. osmotic potential
because they D. turgor pressure
A. grow in great masses 4. When the chromosomes

B. play a role in the natural aging condense and the nucleoli and
of lakes and ponds nuclear membrane disappear, the
C. they choke up other life forms cell is said to be undergoing
in the lakes
D. they resemble green algae A. metaphase
B. prophase
2. In many plants, the growing C. anaphase
tips elongate fastest and are said D. telophase
to be
5. While the metabolizing
A. meristematic enzymes are inducible other
B. apically dominant enzymes are said to be
C. phototropic
D. geotropic A. synthetases
B. repressible
3. Movement of water through a C. will bind the operator
semi permeable membrane D. will not bind the operator
because the membrane moves or
expands thus overcoming the 6. In which of the following
resistance of hydrostatic pressure organisms does a single cell
is referred to as perform all the functions of
movement, nutrition, growth,
A. diffusion excretion, and photosynthesis
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A. paramecium D. cervical vertebra
B. euglena
C. amoeba 10. A sex-linked defect that
D. spirogyra allows small cuts to bleed
severely is known as
7. An important abiotic factor that
affects plants and animals in their A. anaemia
habitats is B. anorexia
C. haemophilia
A. turbidity D. haemolysis
B. rainfall
C. wind direction 11. In the adult mammalian
D. temperature blood, the cell which lack nuclei
are the
8. Discontinuous variations is
observed in a man using the A. erythrocytes
following B. lymphocytes
C. leucocytes
A. tongue rolling D. phagocytes
B. body weight
C. height 12. In which of the following
D. skin colour groups of plant fruits is the
pericarp inseparable from the
9. The bone illustrates the seed coat?
structure of
A. caryopsis
A. lumber vertebra B. nut
B. thoracic vertebra C. follicle
C. caudal vertebra D. cypsela
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13. The part of the brain that UNN BIOLOGY 2009/2010
controls body posture in ANSWERS
mammals is
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D
A. thalamus 8. A 9. - 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. D
B. cerebrum 14. B 15. B
C. spinal cord
D. cerebellum
14. The ability of an organism to'

survive in air environment
successfully known as
A. residence
B. adaptation ,
C. secession
D. competition
15. One of the adaptations to life,

on a tree by a monkey is its
possession of digits which are
A. long
B. opposable
C. extensible
D. big
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1. A body falls freely under coefficient of friction between the

gravity (g = 9.8 m/s2) from a bead and the wire is 0.1,
height of 10 m on top of a determine the work done by
platform 0.8 m above the ground. friction.
Its velocity on reaching the
platform is A. 2 x10-4J
B. 2 x 103J
A. 7848 m/s C. 2 x 101J
B. 80 m/s D. 2 x 102J
C. 78 m/s
D. 27.78 m/s 4. A machine whose efficiency is
60% has a velocity ratio of 5. If a
2. A hydrometer is an instrument force of 500N is applied to lift a
used for measuring the load of P(N), what is the
magnitude of P?
A. depth of water in a vessel
B. relative density of a liquid by A. 750N
method of flotation B. 4166N
C. relative density of a liquid by C. 500N
finding the apparent loss in D. 1500N
weight
D. relative humidity of the 5. A mass of gas at 7°C and 70cm
atmosphere of mercury has a volume of 1200
cm3. Determine its volume at
3. A bead traveling on a straight 27°C and a pressure at 75cm of
wire is brought to rest at 0.2 m mercury.
by friction. If the mass of the
bead is 0.01 kg and the A. 1200 cm3
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B. 1378 cm3 the frequency is 200KHz. What is
C. 4320 cm3 the velocity of the propagation?
D. 4629 cm3
A. 3 x 108ms-2
6. A motor tyre is inflated to a B. 7 x 103ms-2
pressure of 2.0 x 105 Nm-2 when C. 3 x104ms-2
the temperature of air is 27°C. D. 7ms-2
What will be the pressure at 87°C
assuming the volume does not 9. A boy on looking into a mirror
change? discovers that his face appeared
to have grown bigger. The boy
A. 2.6 x10-5 Nm-2 must have been looking at a
B. 2.4 x 10-5 Nm-2
C. 2.2 x 10-5 Nm-2 A. convex mirror with his face at
D. 1.3 x 10-5 Nm-2 the focus
B. concave mirror with his face
7. A beam of light is incident from between the focus and the mirror
air to water at an angle of 30°. C. convex mirror with his face
Find the angle of refraction if the between the focus and the mirror
refractive index of water is 4/3. D. concave minor with his face at
this focus
A. 15°
B. 18° 10. Find the frequencies of the
C. 22° first three harmonics of a piano
D. 240˚ string of length 1.5m, if the
velocity of the string is 120m/s.
8. The wavelength of signal from
a radio transmitter is 1500m and A. 40Hz, 80Hz, 120Hz
B. 180Hz, 360Hz, 540Hz
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C. 80Hz, 160Hz, 240Hz B. 122.5Ω
D. 36011z, 180Hz, 90Hz C. 245.0Ω
D. 39KΩ
11. The resistance of a piece of
wire of length 20 cm and cross- 14. The half-life of a radioactive
sectional area 8 x 105 m2 and clement is 9days. Calculate the
resistivity 4 x 10-7 Ωm is fraction that remains after
36days.
A. 1.0 Ω
B. 10.0 Ω A. 1/32
C. 400.0 Ω B. 1/16
D. 1.0 x 10-13 C. 1/4
D. 15/32
12. An electric device is rated
2000W, 250 V. The correct fuse 15. The graphite rods surrounding
rating of the device is the uranium fuel rods in a nuclear
reactor are used to
A. 8A
B. 9A A. absorb the neutrons and hence
C. 7A halt the nuclear process
D. 6A B. create the neutrons- and hence
slow down the nuclear process
13. Determine the inductive C. slow down the neutrons and
reactance when a 30.0mH hence slow down the nuclear
inductor with negligible resistance process
is connected to a 1.3 KHz D. speed up the neutrons and
oscillator hence speed up the nuclear
process
A. 39.0Ω
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2009/2010
1. – 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C
14. B 15. C

for FREE.

study group
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1. The presence of NaCl in ice will 4. The boiling points of water,

ethanol, methylbenzene and
A. lover the boiling point of NaCl butan-2-ol are 373.0K, 351.3K,
B. increase the melting point of 383.6K and 372.5K respectively.
NaCl Which liquid has the highest
C. make NaCl impure vapour pressure at 323.0K
D. lower the melting point of ice
A. Water
2. What are the values of x, y and B. Methylbenzene
z in the equation below? xNH3 + C. Ethanol
yO2 → zNO + 6H2O D. Butan-2-o1
A. 2, 3, 4 5. The conclusion from

B. 4, 5, 4 Rutherford’s alpha-scattering
C. 6, 5, 4 experiment is that
D. 2, 3, 4
A. Atoms are mostly empty space
3. Calculate the volume of CO2 with a small nucleus
measured at sip produced on B. Emissions from radioactive
heating 250g of potassium hydro, substances consist of three main
trioxocarbonate(IV) strongly. (K = components
39, H = 1, C=12, O=16) C. There is a nuclear pull on
orbital electron.
A. 28 dm3 D. Electrons are deflected by both
B. 2.8 dm3 magnetic electric fields
C. 5.6 dm3
D. 11.2 dm3 6. Elements P, Q and R have
atomic numbers 9, 16 and 20
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respectively. Which of them would The change in the oxidation
gain electron(s) during ionic number of oxygen in the equation
bonding? above is
A. Q and R A. 0
B. P and R B. 1
C. P and Q C. 2
D. P, Q and R D. 7
7. Which of the following has the 10. During the electrolysis of

lowest pH? CuSO4, solution using Platinum
electrodes, which of the following
A. 5 cm3 of M/10 HCl occurs?
B. 10 cm3 of M/10 HCl
C. 20 cm3 of M/8 HCl A. Acidity increases at the
D. 15 cm3 of M/2 HCl cathode
B. Oxygen is liberated at the
8. Which of the following is an cathode
acid salt? C. pH decreases at the cathode
D. pH of solution decreases
A. (NH4)2CO3
B. CHCOONa 11. Which of the following ions is
C. KHSO4 a pollution in drinking water even
D. MgSO4.7H20 in trace quantities?
9. CrO72- + 14H+ + 6I → 2Cr3+ + A. Ca2+

3I2 + 7H2O B. Pb2+
C. Mg2+
D. Fe2+
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12. The solubility of a salt of C. Pentanoic acid
molar mass 100g at 20°C is D. But-2-ionic acid
0.34mol/dm3. If 3.4g of that salt
dissolved completely in 250cm3 of 15. Ethyne undergoes the
water at that temperature, the following reactions except
resulting solution is
A. Polymerization
A. A suspension B. Addition
B. Saturated C. Substitution
C. Unsaturated D. Etherification
D. Supersaturated
ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
13. Catalyst is important in 2009/2010
chemical industry in that
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. D
A. It affects the purity of the 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13.
products C 14. B 15. D
B. It affects the quantity of the
products
C. It increases the time for
reaching equilibrium
D Bond breaking is slowed down
14. alkanoic acid has a molecular

mass of 88. Name the acid. (C=
12, 0 16, H= 1)
A. Propanoic acid
B. Butanoic acid
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COMPREHENSION world of today so that he fits into

our different personalities in
INSTRUCTION: Read the terms of motivation,
passage carefully, and answer aggressiveness, achievement and
the questions that follow it. the integration of the individual
into the community socially and
Although our aim is to nurture culturally. It is important that,
children, Nigerian children are still while we struggle with the visible
subjected to severe physical, organic diseases, we fix our gaze
social and mental stress as they on the other important measure
develop. So far, our interest and to attain this one a healthy child.
activities have been to ensure
their physical well-being through The process of social adjustment
the reduction of high mortality begins from the moment of birth.
and morbidity rates, still Many of our traditional birth
inadequate as this may be. But practices ensure that the mother
we need to examine from time to either carries or suckles her child
time the other needs of the immediately after birth. The baby
Nigerian child which will ensure a therefore comes into close contact
totally healthy development. with the mother at this critical
time.
We are split between two cultures Moreover, she is forced to stay
our traditional and the western, a indoors with the baby for varying
relic of our colonial past. This also periods of time. By this means,
affects our child rearing practices. the attachment of the baby to the
Therefore, these practices must mother, so essential for the
have a very important bearing on child's ability to relate to her in
how the child is prepared for our future, is secured.
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This crucial moment in the baby's C. it is necessary to take care of
life is now being recognized in other things in addition to the
western countries, whilst birth child's physical well-being
practices in some hospitals and D. it is important to keep to the
maternity homes separate mother rules of hygiene
and child immediately after birth E. it is necessary to copy foreign
to the extent that their ability to ways of bringing up children
develop a close relationship may
be jeopardized. Our Nigerian child 2. It is said that differences in
of today may, therefore, be worse ways of bringing up children and
off than that of yesterday. As we educating them
move towards the training of our
traditional birth attendants with a A. achieve the same results
view to incorporating them into B. are reflected in the
our health services, healthy personalities, attitudes and
practices such as the one achievements of the individual
described above must be C. make people aggressive
maintained and encouraged. D. have nothing to do with
educational attainments
1. In the passage there is an E. are a matter of the cultural
attempt to explain that to ensure background of the people
a totally healthy child
3. Since the training for social
A. it is necessary to concentrate adjustment begins from the
on the child's physical well-being moment of birth, our traditional
alone practices
B. it is essential to reduce the
high child mortality and morbidity A. are too uncivilized to be helpful
rate B. need to be modernized
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C. ate very helpful to the proper 5. Unless the training of our
growth of the child traditional birth, attendant is
D. make the child stranger to based on healthy practices
modern civilization
E. are the cause of under- A. our children will be under-
development developed
B. our children will be worse off
4. In spite of the fact that the than those brought up in the
western countries now recognize traditional way
the importance of the early period C. our medical services will be
of childhood in forming a unable to provide the right
relationship, Nigerian hospitals services
and maternity homes D. our economic progress will be
adversely affected
A. copy the wrong-western E. the role of the mother will be
practice now being criticized in rendered useless
western countries .
B. improve on local practices and In the following sentences,
the future, of the child is secure choose the word that is
C. ensure that the child is brought SIMILAR IN MEANING to the
up in the right way word italicized/underlined in
D. ensure that the child develops each of the sentences.
the right skills - for establishing
relationships 6. We consider the recent silver
E. do not know which practice to jubilee celebration in the state a
choose very historic event.
A. important
B. memorable
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C. ancient C. suggests
D. critical D. emphasizes
7. The governor's address during 10. The candidate was disqualified

his recent visit to our town was as a result of his irreverent
delivered extempore. behaviour.
A. out-of-hand A. shameful
B. timely B. disrespectful
C. off-hand C. careless
D. expertly D. abnormal
8. One of the candidates was In each of the questions in

handed over to the police for this section, choose the option
attending the interview with that best completes the gap.
spurious credentials.
11. The rain......when the
A. false accident took place.
B. incomplete
C. unsigned A. has stopped
D. altered B. stopped
C. was stopped
9. There is a theory that D. had stopped
postulates that all Nigerian
languages derive from one 12. Players for the next FIFA
source. world competition have been
_____.
A. confirms
B. affirms A. choosen
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B. chosed ANSWERS TO UNN ENGLISH
C. chosen 2010/2011 (Session 1)
D. choosed
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
13. The boy was ____ by snake 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. B
early this morning. 14. B 15. C
A. beaten
B. bitten
C. bit
D. bite
14. It is desirable that you ____

there when he arrived.
A. be
B. are
C. will be
D. should be
15. If I _____ in Udenta’s

position, I would go into politics.
A. am
B. was
C. were
D. be
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COMPREHENSION The richer countries of the world

are mainly responsible for
INSTRUCTION: Read the industrial pollution. This is where
passage carefully, and answer most of all the commercial energy
the questions that follow it. is produced. In developing
countries, poverty cause people to
Our planet is at risk. Our change their environment to
environment is under threat. The overgraze grassland, to cut down
air we breathe, the water we trees for new land and firewood,
drink, the seas we fish in, and to farm poor soil for food.
soils we farm, the forests, animals
and plants which surround us are The United Nations Environmental
in danger. New terms and words Protection Agency says that an
describe these problems - acid area of forest the size of Sierra
rain, the greenhouse effect, global Leone disappears every year.
warming, holes in the ozone Trees are cut down for timber
layer, desertification and which is used for building,
industrial pollution. furniture, paper and fuel. They
are also destroyed to provide land
We are changing our on which to graze animals and
environment. More and more build new villages and towns. But
gases and wastes escape from trees have many other important
our factories. Rubbish, oil uses. Trees protect the land from
spillages and detergents damage heavy downpour of ram and their
our rivers and seas. Forests give roots help to hold the soil
us timber and paper, but their together. Forests are also the
loss results in soil erosion and home of many living things. The
also endangers wildlife. Amazon forest contains one fifth
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of all the species of birds in the A. take more care of their
world. environment than those in
developed countries
In our forests, there may be B. generate more harmful
plants and animals which could industrial by-products
help in the discovery of new C. degrade the environment to
medicines of crops. To rescue and eke out a livelihood
conserve our beautiful world, we D. cut down trees only for
must act cooperatively. farmlands and fuel
Individuals, communities, nations
and international associations, all 3. According to the passage, the
have a responsibility. By learning size of forest depleted annually is
to protect the natural
environment, we can manage the A. minimal
earth's resources for generations B. colossal
to come. C. infinitesimal
D. Infinite
1. The risk referred to in the
passage is ______. 4. The writer holds the richer
countries responsible for industrial
A. environmentally induced pollution because of their _____.
B. industrially produced
C. man-made A. technological innovations
D. sociologically produced B. energy requirement
C. industrial revolution
2. From the passage, it can be D. lack of interest in
deduced that the inhabitants of environmental protection
developing countries
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5. The message of the writer is 7. The usefulness of the fertilizer
the _____. in modem farming should be
widely ......
A. need for the developed
countries to assist the poorer A. diffused
ones B. disseminated
B. grave dangers of global C. spread
warming D. scattered
C urgent need to protect the
natural environment 8. He was the only candidate who
D need to research into other failed the interview. So, he had to
uses of the trees in our forest bear his ____.
In the following sentences, A. disaster

choose the word that best B. misfortune
completes the meaning in C. catastrophe
each of the sentences. D. calamity
6. The manager failed to control 9. The death of the night-guard

his staff because he was very continues to be a _____ to the
______. police.
A. rash A. confusion
B. indiscreet B. puzzle
C. reckless C. quagmire
D. tactless D. problem
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10. A few politicians were ______ A. hostile
from the accusation of wrong B. inhospitable
doing. C. aggressive
D. offensive
A. restrained
B. rescued 13. The new chairman has
C. absolved exhibited prudence in his handling
D. precluded of the revenue.
In the following sentences, A. impudence

choose the word that is B. shabbiness
OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the C. dishonesty
word in italic/underlined in D. recklessness
each of the sentences
14. There is no point dissipating
11. The officer has commended energy on a useless argument.
the cordial relationship existing
between the soldiers and the A. destroying
civilians. B. marshalling
C. storing
A. disordered D. conserving
B. confused
C. strained 15. There is much apathy among
D. unfortunate youths nowadays towards reading
novels.
12. Many foreign experts would
like to establish in this country A. indecision
because the environment is B. indifference
congenial. C. enthusiasm
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D. inclination
ANSWERS TO USE OF ENGLISH

2010/2011 (Session 2)
1. C 2. C 3. B. 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D
14. D 15. C

for FREE.

study group
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UNN 2010/2011 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS (1)
1. Which of the following parts of A. Transport

a cell is living? B. Diffusion
C. Fission
A. Cell wall D. Transpiration
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Food vacuole 5. Which one of these functions is
D. Mitochondria not performed by the nervous
system?
2. Cells without an organized
nucleus are called A. Receive sensory input from
internal and external environment
A. Heterokaryote B. Digestion
B. Eukaryote C. Integration
C. Prokaryote D. Response to stimuli
D. Synkaryote
6. In man, gas exchange occurs
3. The sites for energy transfer in the
within cell are known as
A. Heart
A. Golgi apparatus B. White blood cells
B. Parenchyma C. Lungs
C. Mitochondria D. Kidney
D. Nucleolus
7. Three chambered heart is
4. Food and dissolved oxygen found in
pass from-the water directly into
the amoeba by a process called A. Insects
B. Amphibians
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C. Man A. Animal cells
D. No animal B. Plant leaves
C. Plant roots
8. A plant cell is different from an D. Plant stem
animal cell because
11. In the nephron, reabsorption
A. The nucleus is pushed to the of water takes place in the
centre
B. The nucleus is small A. Bowman's capsule
C. The cell wall is made of B. Glomerulus
cellulose C. Renal tubules
D. The cytoplasm fills up the D. Selective membranes
entire cell space
12. The mixture of a food
9. In a transverse section of a substance and Benedict's solution
divot stem, was warmed. The solution
changed from blue to brick-red
A. The xylem is more deeply indicating that there is
located than the phloem
B. The cambium lies between the A. Fatty acid
vascular bundles and the cortex B. Sucrose
C. The epidermis is completely C. Amino acid
encircled by the cortex D. Reducing sugar
D. The vascular bundles are
randomly distributed within the 13. Sperm cells are produced in
cortex the
10. The spongy mesophyll is a A. Penis

tissue found in B. Bladder
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C. Testes
D. Prostrate
14. Photosynthetic pigments are

localized in
A. Chloroplast
B. Stroma
C. Stomata
D. Night blindness
15. If a person lives exclusively

on a diet of milk, egg and bread,
he is likely to suffer from
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Beri-beri
D. Night blindness

ANSWERS [SESSION 1]
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. C
14. A 15. A
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1. The joint of a skeleton that B. Gene

allows movement in only one C. Chromatid
plane is D. Centromere
A. ball and socket joint 5. The site of fertilization in

B. gliding joint humans is
C. vertebral joint
D. hinge joint A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tube
2. Incomplete metamorphosis is C. Vagina
found in these organisms except D. Uterus
A. Dragon fly 6. Fish liver oil is rich in

B. House fly
C. Locust A. Vitamin A & D
D. Cockroach B. Vitamin C & E
C. Vitamin A & E
3. Which one of these insects is to D. Vitamin A & K
be found in flour mills?
7. In animals, food is stored as
A. Trogoderma
B. Tribolium A. Glucose
C. Sitophilus B. Fructose
D. Callosobruchus C. Glycogen
D. Starch
4. The unit of heredity is
8. June 5 each year is associated
A. Chromosome with
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A. AIDS day 12. Which one is not an insect?
B. Ozone day
C. World environment day A. Tick
D. World population day B. Ant
C. Beetle
9. Leishmania donovani causes D. Locust
A. Kala-azar 13. Bowing of legs in children is

B. Elephantiasis due to the deficiency of
C. Sleeping sickness
D. Malaria A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin A
10. In which region of the human C. Vitamin B-complex
body does the adult filarial worm D. Vitamin K
reside?
14. Which one of the following
A. Muscle organs does not produce any
B. Nervous system hormone?
C. Blood
D. Lymph A. Spleen
B. Ovary
11. An animal shows resemblance C. Kidney
with its surroundings. This D. Placenta
phenomenon is called _____.
15. Horizontal stems that grow
A. Mimicry below the ground often near the
B. Camouflage surface of the soil are
C. Ammensalism
D. Photo-cooperation A. Rhizomes
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B. Bulbs
C. Tubers
D. Corms

ANSWERS [SESSION 2]
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. A
14. A 15. A
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UNN 2010/2011 PHYSICS QUESTIONS (1)
1. Two forces whose resultant is direction. The change in

100N are at right angles to each momentum is
other. if one of them makes an
angle of 30° with the resultant, A. 8.0 Ns
find the magnitude of the other B. 1.2 Ns
force. C. 12.0 Ns
D. 80 Ns
A. 8.66 N
B. 86.6 N 4. A 12V battery supplying a
C. 50.0 N current of 20A was used to melt
D. 5.0 N 1.5kg of ice at 0°C. Calculate the
time required if the latent heat of
2. A body of weight W N rests on fusion of ice is 336 × 103J/Kg.
a smooth plane inclined at an
angle θ° to the horizontal. The A. 35.0 min
component of the weight down B. 3.5 min
the slope is C. 76 min
D. 21.0min
A. W sin θ
B. W cos θ 5. The light from the sun reaches
C. W tan θ the earth mainly by.
D. W sec θ
A. convection
3. A body of mass 100g moves B. conduction
with a velocity of 10.0ms-1 and C. radiation
collides with a wall. After the D. reflection
collision, the body moves with a
velocity of 2.0ms-1 in the opposite
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6. One valid assumption of the A. different hidden colours of the
kinetic theory of gases is that glass
B. different speeds of their
A. the molecules are in random various colours in glass
motion and the number of C. defects in the glass
collisions is constant D. high density of glass
B. the number of molecules
increases with the pressure 9. A guitar string of length 33cm
C. the molecules of the gas are all is under a tension of 55N. If the
identical and are very small in fundamental frequency is 196Hz,
size find the speed of wave on string.
D. the number of molecules
increases with temperature A. 6m/s
B. 0.33m/s
7. An astronomical telescope is C. 129m/s
said to be in normal adjustment
when the 10. A transformer has 400 turns
as its primary winding and 100
A. eye is accommodated turns as secondary winding. If the
B. focal length or objective lens is primary coil is connected to a 12V
longer than that of the eye piece source, the transformer functions
C. final image is at the near point as
of the eye
D. final image is at infinity A. a step-down transformer with
secondary emf= 6V
8. Dispersion of light by a glass B. a step-down transformer with
prism is due to the secondary emf= 3V
C. a step-up transformer with
secondary emf- 24V
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D. a step-up transformer with Z, mass number A and neutron
secondary emf- 48V number N. Therefore:
11. A battery of internal A. A= Z+N

resistance of 2Ω has a voltage of B. Z= A+N
4.0V when supplying a current of C. N= A+Z
2.0A. Calculate the terminal D. A= N-Z
voltage if it now supplies a
current of 3.0A. 14. A nuclear reaction initiated by
adding neutron is called
A. 2.0V
B. 6.0V A. nuclear fission
C. 1.5V B. nuclear fusion
D. 12.0V C. nuclear enrichment
D. radioactivity
12. The purpose of a dielectric
material in a parallel plate 15. The mass defect resulting
capacitor is to from a thermonuclear reaction is
9.8x 10-30Kg. Calculate the energy
A. increase its capacitance released. Take c= 3 x 108m/s
B. decrease its capacitance
C. insulate the plates from each A. 2.94 x 10-22 J
other B. 8.82 x 10-22 J
D. increase the magnetic field C. 8.82 x 10-14 J
between them D. 8.82 x 10-13
13. The name of an atom is

associated with its atomic number
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2010/2011 (SESSION 1)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. A
14. A 15. D

for FREE.

study group
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1. Which of the following 3. The atmospheric pressure due

statements is true of the period of to water is 1.3 x 106 Nm-2. What
a simple pendulum? is the total pressure at the bottom
of an ocean 10m deep? (Density
A. it depends on the mass of the of water = 1000kgm-3 and
bob and the acceleration due to g=10ms-2)
gravity
B. it depends on the length of the A. 1.3 x 107 Nm-2
string and the acceleration due to B. 1.4 x106 Nm-2
gravity C. 1.4 x 104 Nm-2
C. it depends on the mass of the D. 1.0 x 105 Nm-2
bob and the length of the string
D. it depends on the mass of the 4. Which of the f011owing
bob, the length of the string and conditions will make water boil at
acceleration due to gravity a temperature of 100℃ and
saturation vapour pressure of
2. A boat travels due east with a 750mmHg?
speed of 40ms-1 across a river
flowing due south at 30ms-1. A. decrease the external pressure
Calculate the resultant speed of B. heat more rapidly at the same
the boat. pressure
C. increase the external pressure
A. 1.3 ms-1 D. reduce the quantity of water
B. 10.0 ms-1
C. 50.0 ms-1 5. The density of a fixed mass of
D. 70.0 ms-1 gas at constant pressure is
A. constant with temperature
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B. directly proportional to the D. 5 cm, 2x 10-3rad/s, 0.05cm
temperature
C. inversely proportional to the 8. When a plane mirror at which a
temperature ray of light is incident is rotated
D. directly proportional to its through an angle θ, the reflected
volume ray will be rotated through
6. Which of the following A. 1/2θ

equations is incorrect about an B. θ
ideal gas (all the symbols have C. 2 θ
their usual meanings) D. 3 θ
A. PV=nRT 9. The quality of sound depends
B. = constant on its
C.
A. frequency
D. = constant B. wavelength
C. velocity
7. The equation of a wave D. harmonics
traveling Along the positive x-
direction is given by y = 10. The resistance of a piece of
0.20sin(500t - 20x). The wire of length 20m and cross-
amplitude, angular frequency and sectional area 8 x 10-6 m2 has a
wavelength of the wave are resistance of 1Ω. The resistivity of
respectively given by the wire is
A. 0.2 cm, 500rad/s, 20 cm A. 3 x 10-7 Ω/m

B. 0.2 cm, 500rad/s, 0.1 πcm B. 4 x 10-7 Ω/m
C. 0.2 cm, 2x10-3rad/s, 0.1πcm C. 1.6 x 10-5 Ω/m
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D. 4 x 10-5 Ω/m C. protons and neutrons have
approximately equal mass
11. In an AC circuit that contains D. the number of electrons
only a capacitor the voltage orbiting the nucleus is equal to
the number of nucleons
A. leads the current by 90˚
B. lags behind the current by 90˚ 14. The half-life of a radioactive
C. leads the current by 180˚ element is 9 days. Calculate the
D. lags behind the current by fraction that remains after 36
180° days.
12. The angle between the A. 1/32

direction of the earth's magnetic B. 1/16
field and the horizontal is called C. 1/4
D. 15/32
A. angle of deviation
B. magnetic declination 15. One of the features of the
C. magnetic meridian fission process is that
D. angle of dip
A. it leads to chain reaction
13. Which of these statements is B. its products are not radioactive
not correct concerning atomic C. neutrons are p not released
structure? D. mass and' energy are
conserved
A. negatively charged electrons
orbit the positively charged
nucleus
B. electromagnetic forces bind the
electrons to the nucleus
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2010/11 (SESSION 2)
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. D 13.
D 14. B 15. A
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UNN 2010/2011 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS (1)
1. Crystallization is a better B. Fe2O3

method of separation than C. Fe3O4
precipitation because D. Fe2O
A. precipitation tends to bring 4. Which of the following

other solutes out of solution decreases when a given mass of
B. crystallization is applicable to gas is compressed to half its
all solids initial volume?
C. precipitation always involves
salting-out A. average intermolecular
D. crystallization can only be done distance
at high temperatures B. frequency of collision
C. number of molecules present
2. Which of the following is not a D. atomic radius of each particle
chemical change?
5. The densities of two gases X
A. burning of magnesium and Y are 2.5 gdm-3 and 10.0
B. rusting of iron gdm-3 respectively. What is the
C. action of water on potassium rate of diffusion of X relative to Y?
D. dissolving powdered sulfur in
carbon disulfide A. 1:2.5
B. 2.5:1
3. An important ore of iron C. 1:2
contains 72.36% iron and 27.64% D. 2:1
oxygen. Determine its empirical
formula 6. The properties of elements are
periodic functions of their
A. FeO
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A. atomic number A. chlorine atom gains an electron
B. atomic radius B. chloride ion gains an electron
C. atomic volume C. chloride ion is oxidized
D. mass number D. sodium ion is oxidized
7. Which of the following solutions 10. Coffee stains are removed

containing only hydroxyl ions will with
liberate hydrogen gas when
reacted with Mg metals? A. turpentine
B. ammonia
A. 1.0x 10-5 moldm-3 C. borax in water
B. 1.0x10-13 moldm-3 D. kerosene
C. 1.0x 10-3 moldm-3
D. 1.0x 10-2 moldm-3 11. What is the value of All for
this reaction?
8. In the redox reaction
2Fe2+ + Cl2 → 2Fe3+ + 2Cl - Fe2O3(s) + 3H2O → 2Fe(OH)3(s)
A. Cl 2 is reduced because it has Substance ∆Hf(KJ/mol)

lost electrons Fe2O3(s) -824.2
B. Cl2 is reduced because its Fe(OH)3(s) -823.0
oxidation number has decreased H2O(l) -285.8
C. Fe2+ is reduced because it has
lost electrons A. 35.6 KJ
D. Fe2+ is reduced because it has B. 286. 0 KJ
gained electrons C. 858.6 KJ
D. -536 KJ
9. During electrolysis of molten
sodium chloride; 12. N2O4(g) = 2NO2(g) ∆H=+ve
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What happens to the equilibrium 15. In the reaction: H3C-C≡CH +
constant of the reaction above if 2HBr→X, X is
the pressure is increased?
A. CH3CBr2CH3
A. it becomes zero B. CH3CH2CHBr2
B. it decreases C. CH3CHBrCHBr
C. it increases D. CH2BrCH2CH2Br
D. it is unaffected
UNN CHEMISTRY 2010/2011
13. Radioisotopes are used tier ANSWERS [Session 1]
the following EXCEPT
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B
A. development of photographic 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. A
films 14. D 15. A
B. generation of electricity
C. radio carbon dating
D. tracers in chemical reactions
14. The common characteristics

shared by iron and aluminium is
that both
A. are extracted by reduction

method
B. form only basic oxides
C. show oxidation states of +2
and +3
D. form soluble hydroxides
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1. The separation of oil and water B. number of collisions between

with different boiling points can the gas molecules
best be achieved by C. density of the gas. molecules
D. free mean path between each
A. fractional distillation molecule and the other
B. decantation
C. evaporation 4. A liquid begins to boil when
D. using a separating funnel
A. its vapour pressure is equal to
2. Calculate the minimum volume the vapour pressure of its solid at
of oxygen that is required for the a given temperature
complete combustion of a mixture B. molecules start escaping from
of 20cm3 of CO and 25cm3 of the surface
hydrogen. C. its vapour pressure equals the
atmospheric with pressure
A. 45cm3 D. its volume is slightly increased
B. 22.5 cm3
C. 20 cm3 5. If the relative rate of diffusion
D. 10 cm3 of a gas is 0.25 and that of Cl 2
under the same conditions is
3. An increase in temperature 0.20, calculate the relative
causes an increase in the molecular mass of the gas.
pressure of a gas because there is
an increase in the A. 22.7
B. 45.4
A. average velocity of the gas C. 68.1
molecules D. 90.8
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6. The following molecules contain Cu was deposited. How many
hydrogen bonding EXCEPT grams of silver will be deposited
by the same quantity of
A. ammonia electricity? {Ag=108}
B. ethanoic acid
C. hydrogen fluoride A. 10.8g
D. Water B. 21.6 g
C. 5.4 g
7. If 20cm3 of distilled water is D. 108 g
added to 80cm3 of 0.50 mol/dm3
HCl solution, the new 10. Which of the following
concentration of the acid is statements is correct?
A. 0.10 mol/dm3 A. dissolution of anhydrous CuSO 4

B. 0.20 mol/dm3 is exothermic while that of
C. 0.40 mol/dm3 hydrated CuSO4 is endothermic
D. 2.00 mol/dm3 B. dissolution of anhydrous CuSO 4
is endothermic while that of
8. What is H202 acting as in the hydrated CuSO4 is exothermic
equation below? C. dissolution of both anhydrous
H2O2 + 2H+ + 2Fe2+ CuSO4 and hydrated CuSO4 is
exothermic
A. oxidizing agent D. dissolution of both anhydrous
B. reducing agent CuSO4 and hydrated CuSO4, is
C. an acid endothermic
D. a base
11. NO(g) +CO(g) → N2(g) +
9. A current was passed for CO2(g) ∆H=-89.3KJ
10mins 20 secs and 0.1 mole of
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What conditions would favour B. hot. concentrated NaOH
maximum conversion of C. warm dilute NaOH
nitrogen(II) oxide and D. hot dilute NaOH
carbon(II)oxide in the reaction
above? 14. Ethanol reacts With. aqueous
sodium oxoiodate(I) to give a
A. low temperature and high bright yellow solid with a
pressure characteristic smell. The product
B. high temperature and low is
pressure
C. high temperature and high A. trichloramethane
pressure B. ethanal
D. low temperature and low C. iodoethane
pressure D. triiodomethane
12. Which of the alloys below 15. An alkanoic acid has a molar
does not contain copper? mass of 102g. Derive its
molecular formula and hence
A. brass name the acid
B. bronze
C. type metal A. propanoic acid
D. solder B. butanoic acid
C. pentanoic acid
13. 2Al (s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 6H2O(l) → D. hexanoic acid
2NaAl(OH)4(aq) + 3H2(g)
From the equation, give the
condition of reaction
A. cold dil. NaOH
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ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
2010/2011 (SESSION 2)
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. - 7. D
8. A 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. A
14. B 15. C
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COMPREHENSION of women. The solution is to get

her married as soon as possible,
INSTRUCTION: Read the with the inevitable result that she
following passage carefully, produces children too soon, too
and answer the questions that often and too late. With no formal
follow. education, she is hardly aware
that there is any alternative. In a
If we examine the opportunities study made in Thailand, it was
for education of girls or women in noted that the literate woman
less developed countries, we marries later and ceases
usually find a dismal picture. In childbearing earlier than her non-
some countries, the ratio of boys literate counterpart.
to girls in secondary schools is
more than seven to one. But the latter is so chained in her
What happens to the girls? Often, household by the necessities of
they are kept at home to look gathering fuel, preparing food and
after younger siblings and to tending children that she is very
perform a variety of domestic difficult to reach, even if health
chores. Their education is not services, nutrition, education,
perceived as in any way equal in maternal and child health centres
importance to that of the boys. are available in her community.
She does not understand what
When a non-literate or barely they are intended to do.
literate girl reaches adolescence,
she has little or no qualification 1. The phrase "a dismal picture"
for employment, even if her means
community provides any
opportunity for the employment A. a dull show
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B. an interesting show 4. The phrase "too late" as used
C. a sad situation in the passage implies that the
D. a dreadful appearance woman
2. According to the writer, most A. ought to have stopped

girls in less developed countries producing children earlier
are not in school because B. goes on producing children
when she ought to have stopped
A. they refuse to be educated C. fails to marry early enough for
B. they prefer getting married and her to produce children .
having children D. had all her children at an
C. the education of boys is rated advanced age
higher
D. the girls have no employment 5. The writer 'emphasizes that in
less developed countries -
3. The non-literate woman is very
difficult to reach because she A. the education of girls is not
important
A. does not understand the value B. the non-literate woman has
of education and health services some advantage because she has
B. is too far from the city and more
from school C. the literate female is a threat
C. is not permitted to go out to to the male in employment
attend clinics for health services D. there is a need to give boys
D. can only gather fuel and and girls equal opportunities in
prepare food education
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LEXIS AND STRUCTURE 8. The man's story gave Us an
inkling of what we went through
From the options in questions during the war.
6 and 7, choose the one that
best completes the sentences. A. a taste
B. a possible idea
6. One of the hens we bought C. a wrong notion
_____ten eggs already. D. a suggestion
A. have laid 9. The statement credited to the

B. has lain honourable member is an
C. has layed aspersion on the reputation of my
D. has laid company.
7. My friend and classmate A. a libel

______ present when the girls B. a slander
insulted me. C. a condemnation
D. an abuse
A. were
B. is In each of the questions 10
C was and 11, choose the option that
D. are has the same consonant sound
as the one represented by the
In the following sentences, letter(s) underlined.
choose the word that is similar
in meaning to the word 10. vision
underlined in each of the
sentences. A. attention
B. repression
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C. intention 13. It is DANGEROUS to drive
D. illusion without spare tyre.
11. waste A. Is it safe to drive with spare

tyre?
A. surtax B. Is it safe to drive without spare
B. cursed tyre?
C. paused C. Is it dangerous to fly without
D. washed spare tyre?
D. Is it safe to fly with spare tyre?
In each of questions 12 and
13, the words in capitals have In the following sentences,
the emphatic stress. Choose choose the word that is
the option that fits, the word opposite in meaning to the
in the sentence. word underlined in each of the
sentences.
12. My brother bought EXACTLY
twenty cups of rice. 14. Indiscreet actions have
always led to regrets. that is why
A. Who bought exactly twenty one should be _____
cups of beans?
B. Did your mother sell exactly A. judicious
twenty cups of rice? B. frugal
C. Did your mother buy nearly C. circumspect
twenty cups of rice? D. thrifty
D. Did your sister buy exactly
twenty cups of rice? 15. His remark during the send-
off party was very apt to serve as
a warning.
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A. inept
B. Foolish
C. ridiculous
D. silly

2011/2012
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. B 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B
14. C 15. A

for FREE.

study group
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1. Two stones P and Q of different II. Acceleration

masses were projected III. Work
horizontally at different angles of IV. Momentum
15℃ and 75℃ respectively but
with the same velocity. The A. I and II
ranges covered by the stones will B. I and III
be C. Ill and W
D. II only
A. greater for P
B. greater for Q 4. In which of the following are
C. same for P and Q the substances arranged in the
D. greater for the heavier of the descending order of their
two stones conductivities?
2. If the torque on a body is zero, A. copper. steel, glass

the angular momentum of the B. steel, copper, glass
body will C. copper, glass, steel
D. glass, copper, steel
A. decrease continuously to zero
B. increase then decrease to zero 5. The linear expansivity of brass
C. be constant is 2x10-5/⁰C; the volume of a
D. increase continually piece of brass 10 cm3 at 0˚C,
what will be its volume at 100˚C
3. For which of the following ?
quantities is the derived unit
ML2T-2 correct? A. 10.02 cm3
B. 10.04 cm3
I. Moment of force C. 10.06 cm3
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D. 10.20 cm3 9. A student with a sight defect
has a least distance of distinct
6. The thermometric property of vision of 150 cm. For him to read
the thermocouple is that its a material placed at a distance of
25 cm, what is the focal length of
A. emf changes with temperature the glasses he should wear?
B. resistance changes with
temperature A. 15.0 cm
C. volume changes with B. 17.0 cm
temperature. C. 21.4 cm
D. resistance changes with length D. 30.0 cm
7. A concave lens of focal length 10. A dynamo primarily converts

20 cm forms an image ½ the size
of the object, the object distance A. mechanical energy into
is electrical energy
B. electrical energy into kinetic
A. 100 cm energy
B. 30 cm C. potential energy into kinetic
C. 60 cm energy
D. 40 cm D. kinetic energy into potential
energy
8. The quality of sound depends
on 11. Three capacitors 2μF, 3 μF
and 6 μF are connected in series.
A. frequency If the pd across the system is
B. wavelength 12V, the pd across the 6 μF
C. velocity capacitor is
D. harmonics
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A. 4V A. metals are harder than
B. 6V semiconductors
C. 12V B. the resistance of metals
D. 2V decreases with temperature while
the reverse is the case with
12. A current of 0.5A flows semiconductors
through a resistor when C. the resistance of metals
connected to a 40V battery. The increases with temperature while
energy dissipated in 2 minutes is the reverse is the case with
semiconductors
A. 1200 J D. metals have forbidden band
B. 1500 J gaps while semiconductors do not
C. 2400 J have
D. 9600 J
15. A light of energy 5 eV falls on
13. Which of the following is most a metal and the electrons with a
strongly deflected by a magnetic maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV
field? are ejected. The work function of
the metal is
A. γ-rays
B. X-rays A. 0.4eV
C. β-rays B. 2.5 eV
D. α- rays C. 3.0 eV
D. 7.0 eV
14. The major difference between
semiconductor and a pure metal
is that
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2011/2012
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. C 13.
C 14. C 15. C
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1. Addition of water to calcium D. C6H12

oxide leads to
4. A gas X diffuses twice as fast
A. a physical change as a gas Y under the same
B. a chemical change conditions. If the relative
C. the formation of a mixture molecular mass of Y is 112,
D. an endothermic reaction calculate the relative molecular
mass of X.
2. 15 g of impure Na2CO3 reacted
with excess HNO3. If 0.1 mole of A. 28
CO, is produced, what is the B. 14
percentage purity of the Na2CO3? C. 56
[Na=23, C=12, 0 =16] D. 120
A. 35.3% 5. In the periodic table, what is

B. 10.0% the property that decreases along
C. 70.66% the period and increases down the
D. 90.0% group?
3. 0.14g of a hydride of carbon A. Atomic number

occupies 112.0 cm3 at STP when B. Electron affinity
evaporated. The ratio of carbon to C. Ionization potential
hydrogen is 1:2. The relative D. Ionic radius
molecular formula is
6. 10 cm3 of 0.1 M HCL are added
A. C2H4 to 10 cm3 of NaOH solution
B. C3H6 containing 8g of NaOH per dm3 of
C. C4H8
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solution. What is the pH of the 9. The solubility of alkanols in
resulting solution? water is due to
A. 11 A. their covalent nature

B. 13 B. hydrogen bond
C. 7 C. their low boiling point
D. 8 D. their ionic character
7. What is the formula of sodium 10. If a reaction is exothermic

gallate if gallium (Ga) shows an and there is a great disorder, it
oxidation number of +3? means
A. NaGaO3 A. the reaction is in a state of

B. Na2Ga(OH)2 equilibrium
C. NaGa(OH)3 B. there will be a large increase in
D. NaGa(OH)4 free energy
C. there will be a large decrease
8. The mass of Ag deposited when in free energy
a current of 10 A is passed D. the reaction is static
through a solution of silver salt
for 4830 secs is [Ag = 108, 1F = 11. In what way is the equilibrium
96500C] constant for the forward reaction
related to that of the reverse
A. 54.0 g reaction?
B. 27.0 g
C. 13.5 g A. the two equilibrium constants
D. 108.0 g are identical
B. the product of the two is
expected to be one
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C. the product of the two is 14. The IUPAC name for the
always greater than one compound
D. the addition of the two is
expected to be one A. 1 -chloro-2-methylprop-2,3-
ene
12. Natural radioactivity is the B. 1-chloro-2-methylprop-2-ene
random spontaneous C. 3 -chloro-2-methylprop-1-ene
disintegration of the nucleus of D. 3-chloro-2-methylprop-1,2-ene
heavy isotope certain elements
with the emission of 15. Which of the following
behaves like ethyne?
A. α, β and X-rays
B. α, β and γ -rays ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
C. a, X and γ -rays 2011/2012
D. β, X and γ -rays
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. D
13. Mg ribbon was allowed to bum 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. A
inside a giver gas P leaving a 14. C 15. B
white solid residue Q. Addition of
water to Q liberated a gas which
produces dense white fumes with
a drop of hydrochloric acid. The
gas P was
A. Nitrogen
B. Chlorine
C. Oxygen
D. Sulphur(IV) oxide
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COMPREHENSION contemporary clinical care in the

curing of diseases are all obvious,
INSTRUCTION: Read the well documented but well
following passage and answer suppressed. Neither the
the questions that follow. proportion of doctors in a
population nor the quality of the
The diseases afflicting Western clinical tools at their disposal nor
societies have undergone the number of hospital beds is a
dramatic changes. In the course causal factor in the striking
of a century, so many mass killers changes in disease patterns.
have vanished such that two-
thirds of all deaths are now The new techniques available to
associated with the diseases of recognize and treat such
old age. Those who die young are, conditions as pernicious anaemia
more often than not, the victims and hypertension, or to correct
of accident, violence and suicide. congenital malformations by
surgical interventions, increase
These changes in public health our understanding of disease but
are generally equated with do not reduce its incidence.
progress and are attributed to
more or better medical care. In The fact that there are more
fact, there is no evidence of any doctors where certain diseases
direct relationship between have become rare has little to do
changing disease patterns and the with their ability to control or
so-called progress of medicine. eliminate them. It simply means
The impotence of medical services that doctors, more than other
to change life expectancy and the professionals, determine where
insignificance of much they work. Consequently, they
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tend to gather where the climate D. are resistant to drugs
is healthy, where the water is
clean, and where people work and 3. The author thinks that the
can pay for their services. presence of a large number of
doctors in a community
1. The statement 'the diseases
afflicting Western societies have A. does not have much effect on
undergone dramatic changes', the control of - diseases
implies that B. distinguishes the true facts
about diseases
A. changes have taken place in C. controls the spread-of diseases
the mode of disease affliction D. improves the overall quality of
B. medical services have been life in the community
important in charming life
expectancy 4. Many doctors, according to the
C. a lot of significant progress has passage, choose to live where
taken place in public health
D. deaths from diseases in A. research facilities are available
Western societies are minimal B. they are most needed
C. they can be near colleagues
2. The writer is of the view that D. conditions are more in their
the diseases which prevail in favour
contemporary Western societies
Correct the following
A. resulted from modern life sentences by choosing one the
styles words which you consider
B. are concentrated among the appropriate
elderly
C. kill many people at once 5. His father has a _____.
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A. round wooden beautiful table 8. Three policemen were killed
B. wooden round beautiful table when the bomb they were trying
C. beautiful wooden round table to_____ exploded.
D. beautiful round wooden table
A. difuse
6. Anichebe is one of the.... B. diffuse
sportsmen C. defuse
D. deffuse
A. ten highly your Nigerian
talented 9. The discontented men _____
B. ten highly talented Nigerian up trouble among the workers.
young
C. highly talented ten young A. starred
Nigerian B. steered
D. ten young highly talented C. stirred
Nigerian D. started
7. Tell her I can't attend the party In each of the questions 10 to

_____a cold. 12, choose the option that has
the same consonant sound as
A. I am having the one represented by the
B. I have had letter(s) underlined
C. I have got
D. I have 10. Yolk
In each of the questions 8 and A. Could

9, choose the word(s) that B. Build
best completes the meaning in C. Silk
the sentence D. Sulk
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11. Osmosis 15. A. ulTImatum
B. ultiMAtum
A. Ostrich C. Ultimatum
B. Music D. ultimaTUM
C. Scene
D. Sign ANSWERS TO USE OF ENGLISH
2012/2013
12. Younger
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. C
A. Singer 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. B
B. Longer 14. B 15. B
C. Banger
D. Ringer
In each of the questions 13 to

15, choose the correct stress
pattern from the options. The
syllables are written in capital
letters.
13. A. Reverential
B. reveRENtial
C. reVErential
D. reverential
14. A. orGAnizer
B. ORganizer
C. orgaNIzer
D. organizer
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UNN 2012/2013 ENGLISH QUESTIONS (D.E)
COMPREHENSION relative to rural centres and the

rather naive one of the 'bright
Instruction: Read the lights' in the cities so much touted
following passage and answer by early foreign sociologists.
the questions that follow
The most often mentioned
Over the years, there has been consequences of this rural-urban
this hue and cry by governments migration include depopulation of
and public policy advisers against the' rural areas leading to
the phenomenon of the rural- overcrowding of the cities and the
urban drift. Researches have been resultant housing and sanitation
conducted on various aspects of problems; decline in the
this phenomenon, which have agricultural population resulting in
resulted in the identification of the less food crops being grown and
various causes and consequences high food prices in the cities; and
of it. In addition, prescriptions increasing urban unemployment.
have been given for controlling The results of the phenomenon
the rural-urban drift. are seen largely as negative.
Among the causes most often Measures to control the rural-

mentioned are population urban drift include the
pressures in some rural areas establishment of essential
resulting in dwindling farmlands; amenities like water, electricity,
increasing school enrolment and hospitals, colleges and cinema
the resultant rise in educational houses; the location of
levels which qualified many employment-generating
people for urban employment; establishments and the building of
higher wages in the urban centres good interconnecting roads.
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The sum total of these D. the easy life and the comfort in
prescriptions in essence, the city
unwittingly or paradoxically, is for
the rural areas to be transformed 3. Migration in large numbers is
into urban centres. said to result in
1. The author explains that A. juvenile delinquency

researches conducted on various B. a fall in the production of food,
aspects of rural-urban drift have accommodation and health in
cities
A. failed to provide effective C. highway robbery
solution D. difficulty of life in rural areas
B. revealed the causes and effects
of this drift 4. One suggested solution to the
C. increased the hue and cry problem is to
against it
D. provided effective solutions to A. provide social amenities and
the problem create employment opportunities
in rural areas
2. One of the reasons why people B. encourage mechanized
drift from the rural areas to the agriculture in order to raise
urban area is income
C. force the young rural people to
A. hunger resulting from drought stay by warning them about the
B. laziness and ignorance problems in cities
C. better rural education and D. mount road blocks
possession of qualifications which
make better jobs available in Correct the following
urban areas sentences by choosing one he
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words which you consider 8. We were asked to ______ the
appropriate . matter, and to give our reply the
following day.
5. Everybody knows that
______should return the gown A. sleep over
after the matriculation. B. sleep on
C. sleep through
A. he D. sleep with
B. he or she
C. they In each of the following
D. they all questions 9 and 10, choose
the option nearest in meaning
6. The senator has donated some to word or phrase in italics.
......... machines to the village
school. 9. We all praised the students'
leaders for their intrepid stand
A. modern duplicating large during the crisis.
B. large modern duplicating
C. large duplicating Modem A. fearless
D. modern large duplicating B. cheerful
C. reasonal
7. Did I hear someone _____ my D. impressive
name?
10. There is a theory that
A. mentioning postulates that all Nigerian
B. to be mentioning languages. derive from one
C. mention source.
D. to be mentioned
A. confirms
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B. affirms best fits the expression in the
C. suggests sentence.
D. emphasizes
14. The telephone line has been
In each question 11 to 13, RESTORED.
choose the word that has a
different stress pattern from A. Has the electric light been
the others restored?
B. Has the electric light been cut
11. A. Guarantee off?
B. Decompose C. What happened to the electric
C. Afternoon line?
D. Fortunate D. Has the telephone line been
cut off?
12. A. Inundate
B. Computer 15. My elder brother was
C. Alternate (adj) appointed minister of FINANCE.
D. Efficient
A. Was your younger brother
13. A. Galvanize appointed Minister of Finance?
B. Convocation B. Was your elder brother
C. Habitable appointed Minister of Finance?
D. Momentary C. Was your elder brother
appointed Commissioner of
In each of the questions 14 Finance?
and 15, the word in capital D. Was your elder brother
letters has the emphatic appointed Minister of Works?
stress. Choose the option that
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2012/2013 [D.E]
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B
14. D 15. D

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study group
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1. Erythrocytes are produced in 4. Washing cuts and wounds with

the salt solution can
A. spleen A. make them salty

B. liver B. prevent them from being
C. pancreas infected
D. bone marrow C. damage them even more
D. be dangerous for the person
2. The breaking up of the body of
a simple multicellular organism 5. The vector for Guinea worm is
into pieces, each of which grows
into a completely new organism is A. Female Anopheles mosquito
called B. Culex mosquito
C. Cyclops
A. spore formation D. Aedes mosquito
B. budding
C. vegetative reproduction 6. The most successful group of
D. fragmentation animals in terms of diversity of
species is
3. When two parents are crossed
the offspring are referred to as A. Mollusca
B. Arthropoda
A. recessives C. Mammalia
B. test cross D. Cnidaria
C. F1 generation
D. F2 generation 7. The bone the peck on which
the skull rests is called
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A. odontoid process 11. Which of the following group
B. axis of characteristics is possessed by
C. atlas all living organisms?
D. occipital condyle
A. growth, feeding, reproduction
8. The digestive enzyme that and respiration
coagulates protein into milk is B. birth, irritability, feeding and
excretion
A. ptyalin C. respiration, excretion, aging
B. pepsin and death
C. rennin D. growth, locomotion,
D. trypsin reproduction and excretion
9. Which of the following animals 12. Which of these will not be a

is cold-blooded limiting factor in photosynthesis?
A. cat A. O2
B. whale B. CO2
C. lizard C. Chlorophyll
D. bird D. Light
10. The deficiency of Vitamin D 13. Not drinking enough on a hot

leads to day and exercise produce
A. Scurvy A. a little concentrated urine

B. Pellagra B. a lot of dilute urine
C. Rickets C. a lot of sweat at night
D. Beri beri D. a lot of concentrated urine
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14. In which of the following do
the cells have the ability to
divide?
A. Meristem
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Collenchyma
D. Pith
15. Which one of the following

pairs is correctly matched?
A. Enterobius vermicular - guinea

worm
B. Loa loa - eye worm
C. Dracunculus medinensis - pin
worm
D. Ancylostoma duodenale -
filarial worm

ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. A
14. A 15. B
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UNN 2012/2013 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS (D.E
1. The gap between two nerve B. plant cell wall

cells is called C. both plants and animals
D. amoeba
A. dendrite
B. synapse 5. The end product of the
C. axon digestion of fats and oils
D. meninge mammals are
2. The ovary of a flower develops A. maltose and fatty acids

and becomes a B. amino acids arid glucose
C. fatty acids and fructose
A. seed D. fatty acids and glycerol
B. fruit
C. stalk 6. The oxygen given off during
D. petal the process of photosynthesis is
derived from
3. The organisms that help in
recycling the material in the A. sunlight
ecosystem are known as B. chlorophyll
C. carbon dioxide
A. herbivores D. water
B. carnivores
C. omnivores 7. In anaerobic respiration,
D. decomposers glucose is converted to one of the
following
4. Cellulose is commonly found in
A. carbon(IV) oxide and water
A. animal cell membrane B. carbon(IV) oxide only
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C. water and acetic acid A. Ebonyi State only
D. alcohol and water B. Ebonyi and Imo states
C. Abia State
8. The mushroom is an organism D. Anambra state
that feeds
12. Reiter's syndrome is the name
A. parasitically given to a form of
B. holozoically
C. symbiotically A. body odour
D. saprophytically B. stomach disorder
C. infectious arthritis
9. Mitochondria are D. gout
A. seat of photosynthesis 13. Which of these is not a type of

B. seat of enzyme degradation soil?
C. seat of respiration
D. seat of photosynthesis A. sand
B. loam
10. Mama river forest reserve is C. granite
in D. clay
A. Kogi State 14. Skeletal structures of

B. Anambra State terrestrial animals are more
C. River State elaborate than those of aquatic
D. Sokoto State vertebrates because
11. In Igboland, Guinea worm is a A. air is more mobile than water

common health problem in B. water contains more nutrients
than air
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C. movement is much easier in air
than on water
D. density of water is greater than
that air
15. In trying to find out the order

in which organisms appear on a
cleared plot, you are studying
A. ecosystem
B. food chain
C. succession
D. food web
UNN BIOLOGY 2012/13

(DIRECT ENTRY) ANSWERS
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. B
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1. The force on a current carrying A. 90°

conductor in a magnetic field is B. 180°
greatest when the C. 30°
D. 60°
A. conductor makes an angle of
39
60° with the field 4. The particle emitted when 19K
39
B. force is independent of the decays to 19K is
angle between the conductor and
the field A. gamma
C. conductor is parallel with the B. beta
field C. electron
D. conductor is at right angles D. alpha
with the field
5. The particle and wave nature of
2. A magnetic field is said to exist matter is demonstrated by
at a point if a force is
A. Bragg's equation
A. exerted on a stationary charge B. de Broglie equation
at that point C. Schrodinger equation
B. exerted on a moving charge at D. Pauli's exclusive principle
that point
C. deflected at that point 6. The ray which causes gas
D. strengthened at that point molecules to glow is
3. In an a.c circuit that contains A. cathode ray

only a capacitor, the voltage lags B. anode ray
behind the current by C. molecular ray
D. gamma ray
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7. If the distance between two C. h=
suspended masses 10 Kg each is
D. h=
tripled, the gravitational force of
attraction between them is
10. The rate of heat loss by a
A. reduced by one-half body is proportional to the
B. increased by one-third
C. decreased by one-third A. difference in temperature
D. decreased by one-ninth between the body and its

surrounding
8. If the radius of the earth is 6.4 B. temperature of its surrounding
x 106m, the escape velocity of a C. ratio of the temperature of the
satellite from the earth (take body to that of the surrounding
g=10 ms-2) D. temperature of the body
A. 1.13 x 104 ms-1 11. In a gas experiment, the
B. 9.00 x 103 ms-1 pressure of the gas is plotted
C. 8.00 x 103 ms-1 against the reciprocal of the
D. 1.27 x 104 ms-1 volume of the gas at constant

temperature, the unit of the slope
9. If a body of mass 5 Kg is of the resulting curve is
thrown vertically upwards with a

velocity U, at what height will the A. force
potential energy equal to the B. temperature
kinetic energy? C. power

D. work
A. h=
12. A bar of initial length l o is
B. h= heated through a temperature
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range ∆θ to a new length ι . The D. −1
linear expansivity of the bar is -
15. A light wave has a wavelength

A. of 500 nm in air. The frequency of
B. the wave is
C. l o(l+∆θ)
A. 3.0 x 1014 Hz
D.
B. 6.0 x 1014 Hz
C. 6.0 x 1012 Hz
13. The real depth of a pond is
D. 2.5 x 1014 Hz
6.0 in. A boy observes a fish at
the bottom of the pond. What is
the apparent depth if the
2012/2013
refractive index is 4/3?
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D
A. 8.0m
8. A 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. B 13.
B. 5.5m
D 14. D 15. B
C. 5.0m
D. 4.5m
14. If U is the object distance and

V the image distance, which of
the following expressions gives
the linear magnification produced
by a convex lens of focal length f?
A. −f
B. +f
C. +1
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UNN 2012/2013 PHYSICS QUESTIONS (D.E)
1. The ratio of electrostatic force B. 4.00 W

FE to gravitational force FG, C. 38.40 W
between two protons each of D. 60.00 W
charge e and mass m, at a
distance d is 4. The time it will take a certain
radioactive material with a half-
A. life of 50 to reduce to 1/32 of its
π
original number is
B.
C. A. 250 days
π
D. B. 150 days
π
C. 300 days
2. The energy stored in an D. 200 days
inductor of inductance 5mH when

a current of 6A flows through it is 5. The unit of moment of a couple
can be expressed in
A. 9.0 x 10-3J
B. 9.0 x 10-2J A. Nm-1
C.1.4 x 10-2J B. Nm-2
D. 1.8 x 10-2J C. Nm
D. Nm2
3. An electric heater with a pd of

240V connected across its 6. The resultant of two forces 12N
terminals has a total resistance of and 5N is 13N. What is the angle
960 Ω, Calculate power range of between the two forces?
the heater
A. 0°
A. 0.25 W B. 45°
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C. 90° B. proportional to its volume
D. 180° C. inversely proportional to its
temperature
7. A body of mass 12Kg traveling D. independent on its volume
at 4.2ms-1 collides with another
body of mass 18Kg at rest. 10. When the vapour of a
Calculate their common velocity if substance is in equilibrium with
the two bodies coalesce after its own liquid, it is said to be
collision.
A. gaseous
A. 1.5 ms-1 B. liquified
B. 1.4 ms-1 C. diffused
C. 2.1 ms-1 D. saturated
D. 1.7 ms-1
11. If the pressure of 100 cm3 of
8. When left in a freezer, a bottle an ideal gas is doubled while its
full of water cracks on freezing Kelvin temperature is halved,
into ice because of the then the new volume of the gas is
A. increase in the volume of water A. 25cm3

B. contraction of the bottle B. 50cm3
C. expansion of the bottle C. 100cm3
D. decrease in the volume of D. 200cm3
water
12. The eye controls the amount
9. At constant pressure, the of light reaching the retina by
density of a given gas is adjusting the
A. constant with temperature A. cornea
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B. iris B. twice its former value
C. retina C. one-third its former value
D. optic nerve D. one-sixth its former value
13. Transverse waves can be UNN PHYSICS 2012/2013

distinguished from longitudinal ANSWERS [DIRECT ENRTY]
waves using the characteristics of
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D
A. diffraction 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C
B. refraction 14. B 15. A.
C. polarization
D. reflection.
14. The production of pure

spectrum could easily be achieved
using
A. a glass prism with a pin

B. triangular prism with two
convex
C. triangular prism only
D. triangular prism with two
concave lenses
15. When the length of a vibrating

string is reduced by one-third, its
frequency becomes
A. three times its former value
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1. Which of the following 3. The vapour pressure of water

statements is incorrect? at 15°C is 13 mmHg. At a
barometric pressure of 747
A. The addition of Water to mmHg, 2 dm3 of nitrogen gas is
quicklime is an example of a collected over water at 15°C, the
physical change pressure of nitrogen gas is
B. A chemical change is
irreversible and a no substance is A. 760 mmHg
formed B. 747 mmHg
C. A physical change can easily be C. 734 mmHg
reversed and no new substances D. 114.3 mmHg
are formed
D. Separating a mixture by 4. Elements X, Y and Z belong to
distillation is an example of groups I, V and VI respectively.
physical change Which of the following is TRUE
about the bond types of XZ and
2. 20g of calcium YZ3?
trioxocarbonate(IV) is heated to a
constant mass and 11.2g of A. Both are electrovalent
calcium oxide is left as residue. B. Both are covalent
The mass of the gaseous product C. XZ is electrovalent and YZ is
left is____ [Ca = 40, C 12, 0 = covalent
16] D. XZ is covalent and YZ3 is
electrovalent
A. 11.2 g
B. 44 g 5. Which of the following is a
C. 2.2 g double salt?
D. 8.8 g
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A. K3Fe(CN)6 9. In which of the following is the
B. KAl(SO4)2. 12H2O change in entropy positive?'
C. Pb(OH)2. 2PbCO3
D. KHSO4 A. 2H2O(g) +SO(g) → 2H2O(l) + 3S(s)
B. H2O(s) →H2O(l)
6. Find the value all in the C. N2(g) +3H2(g) →2NH3(g)
equation D. Cu2+(aq) + Fe(s) → Fe2+(aq) +
XO3n- + 4H+ + 3e− → XO + 2H2O Cu(s)
A. 1 10. The formation of SO3 in the

B. 2 equation above will be favoured
C. 3 by
D. 5
A. addition of SO3
7. Corrosion in metals is an B. high pressure
example of C. high temperature and low
pressure
A. electrochemical process D. high temperature and addition
B. half-cell reaction of catalyst
C. metal-plating device
238
D. metal coupling device 11. When 92U emits an x-ray
and a β-ray, the product X has a
8. An example of a suspension of mass number and an atomic
solid particles in a gas is number respectively
A. Harmattan A. 234 and 90

B. Aerosol spray B. 234 and 91
C. Fogs C. 230 and 88
D. Emulsion D. 238 and 93
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12. The producer gas is a mixture 15. Plastics which lose their
of plasticity on being subjected to
heat are said to be
A. CO and CO2
B. CO and N2 A. biodegradable
C. CO and H2 B. polymeric
D. CO and CO2 C. thermosets
D. thermoplastics
13. The IUPAC name of the
compound below is ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
H3CCH(CH3)CHCHCH3 2012/2013
A. Hex-2-ene 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B
B. 2-methylpent-4-ene 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. B 13.
C. Hex-3-ene D 14. D 15. C
D. 4-methylpent-2-ene
14. Ethanol reacts with aqueous

Sodium oxoiodate(I) to give a
bright yellow solid with a
characteristic smell. The product
is
A. trichloromethane
B. triiodornethane
C. iodoethane
D. ethanol
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UNN 2012/2013 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS (D.E)
1. 1g of compound X (m.pt. 122 C. remains the same

°C) is added to 100g of another D. fluctuates
compound Y (m.pt. 95°C). Which
of the following is likely to be the 4. A species W has 16 protons, 17
melting point of the mixture? neutrons and 18 electrons. W
must be_____
A. 95 °C
B. 120 °C A. a neutral atom of a metal
C. 96 °C B. a cation of two positive charges
D. 94 °C C. an anion of one negative
charge
2. The density of a certain gas is D. an anion of two negative
1.98 gdm-3 at s.t.p. What is the charges
molecular mass of the gas? [GMV
= 22.4dm3] 5. A solution of NaOH containing
6.0 g in 250 cm3 of solution has a
A. 26.0 g concentration of
B. 31.0 g
C. 54.0 g A. 0.04 moldm-3
D. 44.0 g B. 0.15 moldm-3
C. 0.60 moldm-3
3. When a substance changes D. 0.96 moldm-3
from liquid state to gaseous state,
the attractive force between the 6. When CO2 is passed through
molecules clear limewater it turns milky.
Which of the following statements
A. increases is correct of the limewater?
B. decreases
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A. The clear limewater is harder 9. Which of the following
than the one turned milky by CO 2 statements is CORRECT about the
B. The clear limewater is softer difference between nuclear
than the one turned milky by CO 2 reaction and chemical reaction?
C. CO2 causes the hardness of the
limewater A. Heat energy is emitted in
D. The clear limewater is soft nuclear reaction but not in
water chemical reaction
B. New substances are formed in
7. Heat content difference nuclear reaction while in chemical
between the products and reaction no new substances are
reactants of a chemical reaction is formed
called C. Rays are emitted in nuclear
reaction but not in chemical
A. activation energy reaction
B. endothermic reaction D. Chemical reaction involves
C. exothermic reaction changes in orbital electrons while
D. enthalpy change nuclear reaction affects only the
nucleus
8. The concentration of iodine in
the equilibrium mixture can be 10. The alloy used for metal work
increased by 2HI(g) = H2(g) + I2(g) and plumbing contains
∆H=+10KJ
A. Aluminium and Copper
A. raising the pressure B. Iron and Carbon
B. lowering the pressure C. Iron and Nickel
C. raising the temperature D. Lead and Tin
D. lowering the temperature
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11. Which of the following turns brick-red on heating was
compounds will undergo thermal formed. To which of the following
dissociation? does X belong?
A. AgCl A. Carbohydrates
B. CaCO3 B. Fats and oils
C. K2SO4 C. Vitamins
D. NH4Cl D. Proteins
12. CH3C(CH3)2C2H2CH(CH3)2 The 15. Which of the following is not

IUPAC name of the compound an addition polymer?
above is
A. Bakelite
A. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane B. Neoprene
B. 4,4,2-trimethypentane C. PVC
C. Octane D. Perspex
D. 2,4-dimethylhexane
ANSWERS TO UNN CHEMISTRY
13. Which of the following pairs 2012/2013 (DIRECT ENTRY)
are isomers?
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. D
A. 1-propanol and methoxyethane 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. A
B. 1-propanol and propanal 14. D 15. A
C. 2-propanol and propanone
D. 2-propanol and propanal
14. When two drops of Million's

reagent was added to a substance
X in a test tube, a white ppt which
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UNN 2013/2014 USE OF ENGLISH QUESTIONS (DIRECT ENTRY)
COMPREHENSION fund and that he should meet Abu

to get details of the fund. I told
Instruction: Read the him, "You will find that the
following passage and answer purpose of the fund was primarily
the questions that follow to defray political expenses." In
answer to another one of his
My good people, come to you this questions, said that neither
evening as a man whose honesty contributors to this fund, nor
and integrity has been contributors to any of my
questioned. Now, the usual campaigns had ever received any
political thing to do when charges special consideration that he
are levelled against you is either would not have received as an
to ignore them or deny them ordinary constituent.
without giving details. But before And I can say that never, since I
I answer any of your questions, became a Senator, have I made a
let me state. Categorically that I telephone call for them to an
have not touched a kobo of the agency or have I gone down to an
N50,000 we contributed. Every agency on their behalf. Records
kobo of it has been used in will show that, and all these
defraying political campaign records are in the hands of the
expenses. Administrator.
As a matter of fact, during one of 1. The author is _____.

my meet- the-press conferences,
Tony Agiwa accosted me and said, A. exonerating himself from
"Honourable Senator, what about allegations of embezzlement
this fund we hear about?" I told B. ignoring the allegation of
him there is no secret about the embezzlement
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C. taking part in a political
campaign 4. I have my assignments
D. demonstrating that he is a ______.
senator
E. trying to implicate Abu, a A. in my hand
fellow politician B. on my hands
C. on my hand
2. Constituent in the passage D. in my hands
means ______.
5. We have been warned to mind
A. a section of his constituency how we talk to her because she is
B. his entire constituency easily
C. his campaigner
D. a person having voting right A. heated up
where he is living B. set up
E. a supporter C. hot up
D. het up
3. Accosted in the passage means
______. 5. During the harmattan, we often
shut the doors and windows in
A. grossly insulted order to keep the cold ______.
B. greeted
C. fought with A. out
D. forced B. off
E. went and spoke to C. down
D. away
In each of questions 4-6
choose the word or phrase In questions 7 and 8, fill each
which best fills the gap gap with the most appropriate
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option from the list following A. slippery
the gap B. eloquent
C. flippant
7. We all ______ sigh of relief D. loquacious
when. We heard he had won at
the polls. In the following question,
select the option that best
A. heeved explains the information
B. hived conveyed in the sentence.
C. heaved
D. heved 10. Tom ought not to have told
me.
8. Having failed this examination
on two occasions, I decided A. Tom did not tell me but he
_____ advice to help me improve should
on my performance. B. Perhaps Torn was wrong to
have told me
A. to seek of C. Tom told me but it was wrong
B. to seek for of him
C. to seek D. It was necessary for Tom not
D. to ask of to tell me
In question 9, choose the USE OF ENGLISH 2013/2014

option nearest in meaning to ANSWERS (DIRECT ENTRY)
the word in italics
1. A 2. D 3. E 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. C
9. People strongly feel that Henry 9. B 10. C
won at the election because he is
silver-tongued.
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UNN 2013/2014 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS (D.E)
1. Increasing peristalsis of C. blood plasma in the form of

intestines, increasing starvation, carbonic acid
and slowing heart rate are D. red blood cells
examples of
4. Lamp brush chromosome
A. automatic nervous system occurs in
responses
B. higher brain function A. salivary gland
C. parasympathetic nervous B. lymph glands
system response C. cancer cells
D. sympathetic nervous system D. oocytes
responses
5. A mosquito which produces
2. Which of the following tubes eggs with float, and whose larvae
conveys sperm from the seminal lie horizontal to the water surface,
vesicle to the urethra? also rests at an angle on a vertical
surface. This mosquito is
A. ejaculatory duct
B. epididymis A. Aedes
C. oviduct B. anopheles
D. vas deferens C. culex
D. tiger mosquito
3. Most carbon dioxide is carried
in the 6. Which of the following parts is
involved in both the respiratory
A. blood as CO2 gas and digestive systems?
B. blood bound to haemoglobin
A. larynx
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B. nasal cavity 10. Quill feather in bird is used
C. pharynx
D. trachea A. to generate heat to keep the
bird warm
7. Most of the digestion of food B. to provide some power for
and absorption of nutrients occur flight
in the C. to prevent ectoparasites from
attacking the bird
A. ascending colon D. as insulator to maintain body
B. oesophagus heat
C. small intestine
D. stomach UNN BIOLOGY 2013/2014
(DE) ANSWERS
8. Which of the organs listed
below has an endocrine function? 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. B
A. kidney
B. liver
C. lung
D. pancreas
9. The hypothalamus, thalamus,

and pituitary gland are all parts of
the
A. brainstem
B. cerebellum
C. exocrine system
D. limbic system
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UNN 2013/2014 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS (D.E)
1. Which of the following can be A. Na2SO4

classified can be classified as a B. Na2CO3
‘fine’ chemical? C. CuSO4
D. K2CO3
A. H2SO4
B. AgBr 5. The burning of phosphorus in
C. NaOH excess oxygen is represented by
D. CH3CH2OH the equation P4+5O2→P4O10
What is the volume of oxygen at
2. The soap lather is a ____. STP required for the complete
oxidation of 18.6g of phosphorus?
A. gas dispersed in a liquid [P=31, O=16, Molar Volume of a
B. liquid dispersed in a gas gas at STP=22.4 dm at STP=22.4
C. solid dispersed in a liquid dm3]
D. liquid dispersed in liquid
A. 5.6 dm3
3. Given that the pH of solution of B. 11.2 dm3
KOH is 12, what is the C. 16.8 dm3
concentration of the OH-ions? D. 20.2 dm3
A. 0.01 mol/dm3 6. All the following are redox

B. 1 x 10-12 mol/dm3 reactions EXCEPT___.
C. 1 x 10-14 mol/dm3
D. 1 x 10-7 mol/dm3 A. Zn + ZnSO4→ZnSO4 + H2
B. Ca(HCO3)2→CaCO3 + H2O +
4. Which of the following salts will CO2
produce an aqueous solution with C. 2H2 + O2→ 2H2O
a pH less than 7?
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D. 2HNO2 + 2HI → 2H2O +2NO A. contains stronger ‘Van der
+I2 Waals’ forces
B. has a higher molecular mass
7. In which of following pairs of C. has a considerable ionic
metals are the two members character
extracted by electrolysis? D. form hydrogen bonds with the
solvent
A. copper and zinc
B. lead and calcium 10. The performance of a fuel is
C. magnesium and zinc the same as that of a mixture of
D. magnesium and calcium 60g of 2,2,4-trimethylpentance
and 40g of heptane. What is the
8. Consider the gases: CO2, SO2, octane number of the fuel?
H2S, NO2 and O2. The increasing
order of rates of diffusion of equal A. 100
volumes of the gases through a B. 60
porous plug under the same C. 20
conditions is _____. [H=1; C=12; D. 40
N=14; O=16, S=32]
A. H2S, CO, NO2, SO2 and O2

B. O2, SO2, H2S, CO2 and NO2
C. SO2, NO2, H2S, O2, and CO2
D. CO2, O2, H2S, NO2 and SO2
9. C6H14 and C6H12O6 are both

covalent. C6H12O6 is soluble in
water while C6H14 is insoluble.
This is because C6H12O6
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COMPREHENSION to it. Apart from contributing to

the government-established
Instruction: Read the Education Trust Fund (EIF), we
following passage and answer also pursue other private
the questions that follow initiatives to drive our interest in
the Nigerian youth.
It is a common axiom that the
youths are the leaders of Such private industries included
tomorrow. Because this statement the Guinness Leeds Scholarship
has almost become a cliché, it is Scheme and the Chevening
often taken for granted. But the Scholarship operated in
reality is that as a society, we partnership with the British
need to invest in, encourage and Council. Targeted at young
support the nation's youths, in Nigerians of university age and
order to realise a better future for post-graduate students
the country. respectively, the two scholarship
schemes were of immense benefit
As a company, Guinness Nigeria to the education-thirsty citizens of
believes that the best investment this country.
in youth development is in the
area of education. This belief has 1. Axiom means
informed the numerous initiatives
we implemented in the past or are A. a statement that everyone
still implementing as far as youth believes is true
development is concerned. We B. a statement that has become
have therefore taken great common
interest in the educational sector C. a statement that is often taken
and made significant contributions for granted
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D. none of the above C. scholarships
D. all of the above
2. Cliché means
In the question 5, select the
A. a statement which shows the option that best explains the
reality of the society information conveyed in the
B. a statement which has become sentence.
overused to the point of losing its
effect 5. Do you mind my smoking
C. a statement which is often here? No, I don't mind
taken for granted other
companies A. You can smoke here
D. a reason why axioms are taken B. No, you can smoke outside
for granted C. No, you cannot smoke here
D. You can smoke anywhere
3. The role of Guinness Nigeria in
youth development is 6. From the options below, choose
the correct syllabic division of the
A. providing scholarships word Photographic.
B. supporting the government
C. building private universities in A. Pho-to-graph-ic
Nigeria B. Pho-tog-ra-phic
D. encouraging the society to C. Pho-to-gra-phic
invest in the youth D. Photo-graph-ic
4. Nigerian youths are thirsty for In question 7, choose the

option nearest in meaning to
A. education the word in italics.
B. alcoholic drink
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7. Ngozi was of a permanent job. have been instructed to
_____their lessons.
A. regular
B. temporary A. round over
C. long-lasting B. round up
D. popular C. round off
D. round in
In each of the following
questions choose the word or USE OF ENGLISH 2014/2015
phrase which best fills the gap ANSWERS [SESSION 1]
8. He ______ the generator 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. C

immediately the light was 8. B 9. A 10. C
restored.

A. off
B. switched off
C. put out
D. put off
for FREE.
9. Emeka _____his father.
A. took after study group
B. took on
C. took to
D. took up
10. Now that the examination is

fast approaching, the teachers
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In questions 1 and 2, choose A. beat up

the option opposite in B. beat down
meaning to the word in italics C. beat on
D. beat off
1. The class prefect was one of
the main actors of the 4. The judge the decision of the
occasion______. lower court.
A. critics A. held up
B. spectators B. abolished
C. guests C. upheld
D. performers D. reversed
2. The governor declined to give 5. Professor Nweke _____ since

audience to the journalist. 1984.
A. ignored A. has been teaching

B. accepted B. has taught
C. forgot C. was teaching
D. rejected D. had been taught
In the following sentences, In questions 6 and 7, choose

choose the word that best the option nearest in meaning
completes the meaning. to the word in italics.
3. After the strike the traders .... 6. Our aunt has expressed deep
the prices of their goods appreciation for Onyinye's
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invaluable assistance during the In the following question,
party. select the option that best
explains the information
A. immeasurable conveyed in the sentence.
B. praiseworthy
C. selfless 9. "It is irrational for one to count
D. worthless one's chickens before the eggs
hatched."
7. Many world leaders have
continued to condemn the South A. The eggs are not to be broken
African Prime Minister for his B. Not everything works out as
truculent posture. outlined
C. One should not regard one's
A. impetuous eggs as chickens
B. impertinent D. It is senseless to hatch one's
C. aggressive eggs prematurely
D. impervious
In the following question, the
8. It is usually hard to change the word in capital letters has an
course of action when one crosses emphatic stress. Choose the
the Rubicon. The underlined option that best fits the
expression, as used in this expression in the sentence.
sentence, means to
10. He wrote it BOLDLY.
A. pass through a place called
Rubicon A. Did she write it boldly?
B. cross a river called Rubicon B. Did he draw it boldly?
C. cross a bridge called Rubicon C. How did he write it?
D. be irrevocably committed D. Will he write it boldly?
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2014/2015 [SESSION 2]
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C
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1. Which of these is a sense 4. When a red blood cell is placed

organ? in water, the process of water
movement is____
A. spleen
B. mouth A. osmosis
C. eye B. diffusion
D. heart C. imbibition
D. active transport
2. What is the function of the vas
deferens in the male reproductive 5. The enzyme contained in bile
organ? is_____
A. transports sperm only A. trypsin

B. transports urine and sperm B. lipase
C. transports urine only C. ptyalin
D. none of the above D. lactase
3. Food materials manufactured in 6. Which of these factors in the

plants are transported through blood is responsible for blood
the_____ clotting?
A. xylem A. fibrinogen
B. phloem B. heparin
C. cambium C. plasma
D. cortex D. red blood cells
7. Fat soluble vitamins are stored

in_____
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A. liver A. sucrose into glucose and
B. spleen fructose
C. pancreas B. carbohydrates into simple
D. skin sugars
C. protein into peptones
8. The unit of the nervous system D. fats into glycerol and fatty
is_____ acids
A. neuron UNN BIOLOGY 2014/2015

B. axon (SESSION 1)
C. dendrite
D. myelin sheet 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. - 6. A 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. C
9. Moulting involves the_____
A. shedding of exoskeleton in
insects in order to replace with
better ones
B. shedding of exoskeleton in
insects in order to grow new ones
C. shedding of exoskeleton in
insects in response to seasonal
changes
D. none of the above
10. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme

which breaks
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1. The process that involves the B. plasma

production of ethanol, CO2 and C. serum
H2O is called.... D. platelets
A. fermentation 5. Protein in plasma ………

B. respiration
C. transpiration A. causes clotting of blood
D. photosynthesis B. causes increase in osmotic
potential
2. Genes are located at the .... C. gives the blood its red colour
D. regulates the acid-base
A. chromosome balance of the blood
B. Nucleus
C. mitochondria 6. A substance produced by the
D. ribosome action of hydrochloric acid on
gastric juice in the stomach
3. Teleost fish breathes with its is_____
…..
A. trypsin
A. fins B. rennin
B. gills C. pepsin
C. scales D. lipase
D. lateral line
7. The gaps between two neurons
4. …….. consists mainly of water through which impulses cross by
in the blood? means of chemical reaction are
called_____
A. lymph
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A. axons D. active transport
B. ganglia
C. synapses UNN BIOLOGY 2014/2015
D. dendrites ANSWERS (SESSION 2)
8. Spider belongs to the same 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. C

class with_____ 8. B 9. C 10. A
A. mosquito
B. tick
C. chiddae
D. cockroach
9. The process by which a plant

grows towards the direction of
water is_____
A. geotropism
B. phototropism
C. hydrotropism
D. chemotropism
10. When a red blood cell is

placed in water, the process of
water movement is___
A. osmosis
B. diffusion
C. imbibition
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1. Which of the following is most 4. The particle and wave nature of

strongly deflected by a magnetic matter are demonstrated in the
field? equation
A. gamma rays A. λ=ℎ /

B. alpha particles B. λ= /
C. beta particles C. λ=ℎ/
D. X-ray D. λ=2d sin0
2. The principle of operation of an 5. A 12-V battery has an internal

induction coil is based on resistance of 0.5 ohms. If a cable
of 1.0 ohms resistance is
A. Ohm's law connected across the two
B. Ampere's law terminals of the battery, the
C. Faraday's law power dissipated is
D. Coulomb's law
A. 64W
3. A ray of light is incident on a B. 96W
plane surface at Al angle of 40°. C. 9.6W
What is the angle of reflection? D.192W
A. 40° 6. The force oil a current carrying

B. 80° conductor. in a magnetic field is
C. 200° greatest when the
D. 50°
A. conductor makes an angle 60°
with the field
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B. force is independent of the 9. Hydrogen molecules escape
angle between the field and the from the topmost layer of the
conductor earth's atmosphere because
C. conductor is parallel with the
field A. hydrogen has negligible mass
D. conductor is at right angles and has speed above escape
with the field velocity
B. the gravitational pull of the
7. The kind of nuclear reaction- earth is negligible in the
initiated bombardment of neutron atmosphere
is C. the intermolecular forces in the
atmosphere negligible
A. nuclear infusion D. escape velocity is negligible
B. nuclear fission compared speed of hydrogen
C. nuclear fusion molecules
D. radioactivity
10. if the refractive index of a
8. Two balls of masses 40 g and medium is 2/√3, what is the
60g respectively, are attached critical angle?
firmly to the ends of a light m
rule. The centre of gravity of the A. 90°
system is B. 45°
C. 60°
A. at the mid-point of the metre D. 30°
rule
B. 40 cm from the lighter mass
C. 40 cm from the heavier mass
D. 60 cm from the heavier mass
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2014/2015 (SESSION 1)
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. C

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study group
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1. The half-life of a radioactive A. 64W

element is 9 days. Calculate the B. 96W
fraction that remains after C. 9.6W
36days. D.192W
A. 1/16 4. The force constant of the load-

B. 1/32 extension graph of a spring is
C. 1/8 given by the
D. 1/64
A. slope of the linear portion of
2. The purpose of a dielectric the graph
material in a parallel plate B. length of the linear portion of
capacitor is to the graph
C. area under the linear portion of
A. increase its capacitance the graph
B. decrease its capacitance D. area under the entire graph
C. insulate the plates from each
other 5. Which of the following
D. increase the magnetic field properties is exclusive to
between them electromagnetic waves?
3. A 12V battery has an internal A. reflection

resistance of 0.5 ohms. If a cable B. refraction
of 1.0 ohms resistance is C. polarization
connected across the two D. diffraction
terminals of the battery; the
power dissipated is
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6. Which of the following is FALSE What is the change in the wire's
about gases in kinetic theory of resistance? [take temperature
gases? coefficient of resistivity of copper,
α= 6.8 x 10-3]
A. gases have large molecules
B. the molecules of a gas are all A. 1.2 mΩ
identical B. 11.8 mΩ
C. the molecules of a gas collide C. 2.3 mΩ
with one another and with the D. 4.6 mΩ
walls of the container
D. as temperature increases, the 9. Which of the following
number of collisions made by the expressions give the relationship
gas molecules increase between the acceleration due to
gravity at the earth's surface g
7. For a long-sighted person, light and the universal constant of
rays from a point on a very gravitation G?
distant object is focused
A. g= /2
A. in front of the retina b. g= /
2
B. behind the-retina C. g= /
C. on the retina, D. g= / 2
D. behind the retina by a
diverging lens 10. The number of protons in an
element increased by one after a
8. A copper wire has a resistance radioactive decay. The element
of 25 mΩ at 20'C When the wire must have decayed by emitting
is carrying current, heat produce
by the current causes it's A. a gamma ray
temperature to increase by 27°C. B. a beta particle
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C. an alpha particle
D. a neutron
ANSWERS TO PHYSICS
2014/2015 (SESSION 2)
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C
8. A 9. D 10. B
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1. A mixture of sand, ammonium A. 0.1.0.1

chloride and sodium chloride is B. 0.1, 0.2
best separated by to C. 0.1. 0.05
D. 0.05, 0.1
A. sublimation followed by
addition of water and filtration 4. Haze is an example of
B. sublimation followed by
addition of water and evaporation A. colloid
C. addition of water followed by B. suspension
filtration and sublimation C. emulsion
D. addition of water followed by D. aerosol
crystallization and sublimation
5. The volume of 0.20 mol dm-3
2. Which of the following H2SO4 that will exactly neutralize
elements is common to bronze 25 cm3 of 0.05 mol dm-3 KOH
and soft solder? solution is
A. tin A. 3.1 cm3

B. lead B. 10.4 cm3
C. copper C. 15.6 cm3
D. zinc D. 26.2 cm3
3. A solution of calcium bromide 6. If the relative rate of diffusion

contains 20g/dm3. What is the of a gas is 0.25 and that of Cl 2
molar concentration of calcium under the same condition is 0.20;
bromide relative to bromide ions? calculate the relative molecular
[Ca =40, Br= 80] mass of the gas.
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A. 22.7 B. electron affinity
B. 45.4 C. ionization potential
C. 68.1 D. atomic radius
D. 90.8
10. Rusting of iron is a
7. The oxidation states of Chlorine
in. HOCl 3, HClO3 , HClO4 A. Redox reaction
respectively are B. Decomposition reaction
C. Catalytic reaction
A. -1, +5 and +7 D. Reversible reaction
B. -1, -5 and +7
C. +1, +3 and +4 ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
D. +1, +5 and +7 2014/2015 (SESSION 1)
8. What is the sign of ∆H and ∆S 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. D

in the following reaction? 8. D 9. D 10. A
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ∆H ∆S
A. + 0
B. - +
C. + -
D. - 0
9. In the periodic table, what is

the property that decreases along
the period and increases down the
group?
A. atomic number
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1. Hydration of ions in solution is 4. If a reaction is exothermic and

associated with there is a great disorder, it means
A. absorption of heat A. the reaction is in a state of

B. reduction of heat equilibrium
C. conduction of heat B. there will be a large decrease
D. liberation of heat in free energy
C. there will be a large increase in
2. A current was passed for 10 free energy
mins 20secs and 0.1 mole of Cu D. the reaction is static
was deposited. How many grams
of silver will be deposited by the 5. The gasification of coke is used
same quantity of electricity? for the manufacture of
(Ag=108)
A. natural gas
A. 10.8 g B. producer gas
B. 21.6 g C. synthetic gas
C. 5.4 g D. industrial gas
D. 108 g
6. Which of the following is
3. What is the pH of 0.001mol arranged in order of increasing
dm-3 of H2SO4 atomic radius?
A. 3 A. Cl, P, Al, Mg, Na, Si

B. 2.7 B. Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, Cl
C. 2 C. Cl, P, Si, Al, Mg, Na
D. 4 D. Na, Al, Si, Mg, P, Cl
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7. Calculate the molecular formula 10. Which of the following
of a hydrocarbon with molar mass solutions containing only hydroxyl
26 and 92.3% of Carbon. ions will liberate, hydrogen gas
when reacted with magnesium
A. C2H2 metal?
B. C3H3
C. C2H6 A. 1 .0 x 10-12 mol dm-3
D. C2H4 B. 1.0 x 10-6 mol dm-3
C. 1.0 x 10-4 mol dm-3
8. Which of these can be used in D. 1.0 x 10-2 mol dm-3
removing oil stains?
ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
A. Benzene. 2014/2015 (SESSION 2)
B. Chlorine water
C. Washing soda/soda ash 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A
D. potassium trioxonitrate V 8. A 9. D 10. A
9. The position of equilibrium in a

reversible reaction is affected by
A. surface area of the reactants

exposed
B. presence of catalyst
C. changes in size of reaction
flask
D. changes in concentration of the
reaction
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Computer Based test (CBT) D. condemned
In Questions 1- 3 choose the In each of questions 4 to 5, fill

option NEAREST IN MEANING each gap with the most
to the word in italics. appropriate option from the
list provided.
1. Ugo has often been described
as belligerent. 4. I am sure that my mother will
not find out. She is so _____, that
A. attractive she will accept anything I tell her.
B. combative
C. innocent A. credible
D. patient B. credulous
C. creditable
2. Mohammed does his work with D. incredible
so much ardour E. incredulous
A. enthusiasm 5. My father told me to take the

B. discouragement money from_____ it.
C. knowledge
D. indifference A. whoever offers
B. whomever offers
3. The policy has been espoused C. ever who offers
by the ruling party D. whomsoever offer
A. rejected Reference Text:

B. outlined
C. supported
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Read the passage below "Oh, but they do", said Alan.
carefully and answer the 'They jump out of the river to look
question that follows. for flies and I catch them with my
hands. 'At that moment he 'found
One day, Alan, a friend of mine, his trout in the grass and picked it
who likes country life, was fishing up and showed it to the
in a river, when he caught a trout. picnickers. He put it in his basket
He tried to pull the fish in but it and bent down, as if he was
slipped off the hook, flew over his hunting for another one. The
head and landed in a field behind picnickers, no longer laughing,
him. spent the rest of the day
Alan put down his rod, went searching the field.
through the gate and started
searching for his trout Some 6. The picnickers were
people, obviously from the city,
were having a picnic in the field. A. farmers
One of the men shouted 'What on B. from the nearby village
earth are you doing?' Thinking C. tourists
that it was a stupid question D. people from the city
because they could see how he E. anglers like him
was dressed, Alan replied
'Fishing'. In each of questions 7 to 8,
select the option that best
'Don't be silly, the fish are down explains the information
in the river', answered the man. conveyed in the sentence.
'Fish don't live in fields!'
He turned to his friends, laughing, 7. The convict said he was tired of
thinking that he' had made a good leading a dog's life. To lead a
joke. dog's life means to live
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A. carelessly 10. Oche entered the principal's
B. in disgrace office in a rather abrasive
C. in solitude manner.
D. in misery
E. in poverty A. gentle
B. lackadaisical
8. The President stood his ground C. rude
because the Committee members D. indifferent
would not be persuaded to arrive
at a compromise on the issue Reference Text:
being debated.
Read the passage below
A. yielded his position carefully and answer the
B. shifted his position question that follows.
C. maintained his position
D. defended his position In 1973 a Japanese Seri culturist
E. resisted his position arrived in Malawi with a batch of
40,000 silkworm eggs. They Were
In questions 9 and 10 select taken to the Bvumbwe
the word OPPOSITE IN Agricultural Research Station in
MEANING to that underlined. Thyolo District. In this station,
work is being done to determine
9. The plebs can be found in favourable silkworm rearing
every society of the world. conditions and areas where
mulberry trees, whose leaves the
A. masses worms feed on, could grow well.
B. elite
C. middle class According to researchers, the
D. politicians silkworms which eventually
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develop into cocoons from which She picked up the gauzy mass
raw silk is ' produced do well in and found that one of the threads
areas with warm climatic could he unwound-almost without
conditions. Silk is one of the end from the cocoon. His Linu-
strongest of fibres. In fact, for shih had discovered silk. She was
thousands of years, silk fabrics delighted with the discovery and
have been regarded as the most even wove a ceremonial robe for
beautiful and durable materials the Emperor out of the cocoon
woven by man. thread. After that, the officials in
the Emperor's court wore brightly
Many people call silk the 'cloth of dyed silk robes on important
kings and queens'. The weaving occasions:
of silk originated in China. An old
Chinese book, believed to be People in other countries regarded
written by Confucius, tells us that the new fibres as something rare
the wife of Emperor Huang-ti was and beautiful. A few traders went
the first person to make fabrics of to China to learn about making
silk. Around 2640 B.C., Emperor cloth from silk, but the Chinese
Huang-ti asked his wife Hsi kept their silk worms a closely
Lingshih to study the worms that guarded secret.
were destroying. the mulberry
trees in his garden. The Empress 11. It is implied in this passage
took some of the cocoons into the that silk was discovered
palace to see what they were
made of. She dropped one of the A. after years of hard work and
cocoons into a bowl of boiling research by the Empress.
water and was amazed to see a B. by accident.
cobweb-like tangle separate itself C. in the search for a more
from the cocoon. durable fibre for making cloth.
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D. after some experiments carried In the following question,
out by the Japanese sericulturist. choose the appropriate stress
E. by design. pattern from the options, the
syllables are written in capital
Question 12 is based on Jerry letters.
Agada's The Successors
14. information
12. What did Terkura Asten do
with' the remaining money chief A. inforMAtion
Ofege gave to him? He____ B. INformation
C. inFORmation
A. bought a beautiful house. D. informaTlON
B. bought two cars for his father.
C. married another wife. In question 15, the word in
D. invested in his business. capital letters has an emphatic
stress. Choose the option that
In question 13, choose the best fits the expression in the
option that has the same sentence.
represented by the letter(s) 15. The traditional chief
underlined. NARRATED the stop to the
children.
13. Vision
A. The children heard the story
A. mansion from the traditional chief
B. enclosure B. Who narrated the story to the
C. nation children?
D. capture C. The children could not listen to
the story by the traditional chief.
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D. Did the chief hide the story
from the children?
UNN USE OF ENGLISH

2015/2016 ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. B
14. A 15. D

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study group
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Computer Based Test (CBT) D. permits radicle growth

E. allows oxygen to diffuse into
1. The part of the mammalian the seed
brain responsible for maintaining
balance is____ 4. If an organic compound has its
hydrogen:oxygen ratio as 2:1, it
A. medulla oblongata is likely to be____
B. cerebellum
C. optic lobe A. a protein
D. cerebrum B. a carbohydrate
E. olfactory lobe C. a fat
D. a fatty acid and glycerol
2. Milk can be pasteurized E. an amino acid
by_____
5. The movement of a plant in
A. addition of common salt response to external stimulus of
B. boiling for one hour no particular direction is____
C. heating to 75°C for 20 minutes
D. the addition of vinegar A. taxism
E. heating to 100°C for 12 hours B. tropism
C. haptotropic movement
3. Water is required for seed D. nastic movement
germination to take place because E. phototropism
it____
6. 'Jointed skeleton' is absent in
A. activates the enzymes the
B. softens the testa
C. liberates energy for growth A. cockroach
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B. spider 9. Nitrogen is released to the
C. millipede atmosphere by_____
D. snail
E. dragon fly A. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
B. nitrifying bacteria
7. In a Biuret test, some protein C. denitrifying bacteria
was mixed with sodium hydroxide D. saprophytic bacteria
solution, which of the following
chemicals should be added to the 10. The respiratory organ of land
mixture for positive result? snail is_____
A. Mercurous nitrate A. radula

B. Copper sulphate B. mantle
C. Mercuric nitrate C. tentacle
D. Sodium Carbonate D. foot
E. Ammonium hydroxide
11. The organelle responsible for
8. Which of the following heredity is labelled_____
statements gives the BEST
description of bark? A. I
B. II
A. Tissues outside the vascular C. III
cambium D. IV
B. Cork-like tissues found only in
stems 12. Which is the correct order in
C. Brown tissues never found in an evolutionary sequence for the
primary growth following plant groups?
D. Cork-like tissues of old trees
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A. bacteria ⟶ ferns ⟶ algae ⟶ A. protection of the eye ball
mosses ⟶ seed plants. B. transmission of light
B. bacteria ⟶ ferns ⟶ mosses ⟶ C. supply of nutrients to tissues of
algae ⟶ seed plants. the eye
C. bacteria ⟶ algae ⟶ mosses ⟶ D. converging light
ferns ⟶seed plants.
D. bacteria ⟶ mosses ⟶ algae ⟶ UNN BIOLOGY 2015/2016
ferns ⟶ seed plants. ANSWERS [SESSION 1]
13. The habitat of the cysticercus 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B

of Taenia solium is____ 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B
14. C 15. C
A. alimentary canal of cattle
B. muscle of pig
C. alimentary canal of pig
D. muscle of cattle
14. The exchange of genes

between homologous
chromosomes is called_____
A. test cross
B. back cross
C. crossing-over
D. mutation
15. The main function of the

choroid is____
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 4. Carbon monoxide poison

tissues by _____
1. The spores of ferns are
dispersed by____ A. constricting the blood vessels
B. killing the cells
A. wind C. combining with haemoglobin
B water D. rupturing the blood vessels
C. insect
D. explosive mechanism 5. The structures that prevent
food particles from escaping
2. Which of the following is through the fish gills are called
formed immediately after the first gill_____
product of photosynthesis?
A. arches
A. Lipid B. filaments
B. Starch C. rakers
C. Oxygen D. lamellae
D. Sugar
6. An old man is likely to be long-
3. A dried fruit formed from two sighted because age affects the
or more carpels containing several ____
seed is_____
A. optic nerves
A. follicle B. retina
B. legume C. ciliary muscles
C. capsule D. cornea
D. schizocarp E. aqueous humour
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7. Normally any character shown on the growth of plants, the
by an organism is due to the substrate should be a medium
effects of_____ of_____
A. chromosomes A. washed sand

B. genes and environment B. saw dust
C. hormones and chromosomes C. cow dung
D. hormones and genes D. clay soil
E. mutations
11. An onion is a bulb because
8. Which of the following lacks it_____
chaetae, tentacle and antennae?
A. has a tuberous stem
A. snail B. has a reduced stem and thick
B. crab fleshy leaves
C. millipede C. has adventitious roots
D. earthworm D. bears many buds at the nodes
9. Which of the following is a 12. What do bacteria in root

feature of the population pyramid nodules derive from host plant?
of a developing country?
A. Protection and minerals
A. Low death rate B. Water and minerals
B. Short lifespan C. Carbohydrates and water
C. Long lifespan D. protection and carbohydrates
D. Low birth rate
13. Fruits which develop without
10. In an experiment to fertilization of the ovule are ____
investigate the effect of nitrogen
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A. false UNN BIOLOGY 2015/2016
B. multiple ANSWERS (SESSION 2)
C. aggregate
D. parthenocarpic 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. D 13.
14. A severe deficiency thyroxin D 14. C 15. B
results in _____
A. diabetes Mellitus
B. sexual underdevelopment
C. cretinism
D. gigantism
15. A red-coloured flower when

crossed with a white-coloured one
produced pink flowers. This is an
example of_____
A. complete dominance
B. blending inheritance
C. interaction of genes
D. black crossing
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UNN 2015/2016 PHYSICS QUESTIONS (SESSION 1)
Computer Based Test (CBT) 3. The speed of sound in air at

sea-level is 340 ms-1, while that
1. From the kinetic theory of of light is 300000 km-1. How far
gases, temperature is a (to the nearest meter) from the
centre of a thunderstorm is an
A. form of energy and is observer who hears a thunder 2s
proportional to the total kinetic after a lightening flash?
energy of the molecules.
B. form of energy and is A. 170 m
proportional to the average B. 340 m
kinetic energy of the molecules. C. 600 m
C. physical property and is D. 680 m
proportional to the total kinetic
energy of the molecules. 4. A cell of internal resistance 2
D. physical property and is ohms supplies current to a -6-
proportional to the average ohm resistor. The efficiency of the
kinetic energy of the molecules. cell is_____
2. A 20-toothed gear wheel drives A. 12.0%

a 60-toothed one. If the angular B. 25.0%
speed of the smaller wheel is 120 C. 33.3%
rev s-1 the angular speed of the D. 75.0%.
larger wheel is_____
5. The length of a side of metallic
A. 3 rev s-1 cube at 20˚C is 5.0 cm. Given
B. 40 rev s-1 that the linear expansivity of the
C. 360 rev s-1 metal is 4.0 x 10-5k-1. Find the
D. 2400 rev-1 volume of the cube at 120˚C.
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A. 126.50 cm3 8. If the distance between two
B. 126.25 cm3 stationary charged particles is
C. 126.00 cm3 doubled, the magnitude of the
D. 125.00 cm3 electrostatic force between them
will be_____
6. As a result of air at the top of a
barometer, the height of the A. Doubled
mercury column is 73.5 cm when B. Halved
it should be 75.0 cm; the volume C. A quarter of its former value
of the space above the mercury is D. Unchanged
8.0 cm3. Calculate the correct E. Four times the original value
barometric height when the
barometer reads 74.0 cm and the 9. Which of the following methods
volume of the space above the CANNOT be used to produce a
mercury is 6.0 cm3. steel magnet? The_____
A. 72.0 cm A. passing of an electric current

B. 74.5 cm through a solenoid
C. 75.1 cm B. repeated stroking of the
D. 76.0 cm specimen with a magnet
C. repeated stroking of the
7. A wave has a frequency of 2 Hz specimen in opposite directions
and a wavelength of 30 cm. The with two magnets
velocity of the wave is______ D. heating of the specimen.
E. hammering of the specimen in
A. 60.0 ms-1 the earth's magnetic fields
B. 6.0 ms-1
C. 1.5 ms-1
D. 0.6 ms-1
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10. Of the following derived units, A. 4%
the one that is not a unit of power B. 5%
is_____ C. 40%
D.50%
A. joule/second E.80
B. ampere volt
C. ampere2 ohm 13. Two mirror M1 and M2 are
D. ohm2/volt inclined at right angles as shown
E. volts2/ohm above. Calculate the angle of
reflection of the ray of light at
11. Which of the following may be mirror M2.
used to determine the relative
humidity in a physics laboratory? A. 30°
B. 45°
I. Manometer C. 60°
II. Wet and dry bulb hygrometer D. 90°
III. Hair Hygrometer
IV. Hydrometer 14. When an atom Loses or gains
a charge, it becomes_____
A. 1 only
B. II and III only A. an electron
C. II only B. an ion
D. III only C. a neutron
E. II, III and IV only D. a proton
12. A machine has a velocity ratio 15. A tap supplies water at 25°C
of 5. It requires a 50kg weight to while another supplies water at
overcome a 200kg weight. The 75˚C. If a man wishes to bathe
efficiency is______ with water at 40°C, the ratio of
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the mass of cold water to the
mass of hot water required is____
A. 1:3
B. 15:8
C. 7:3
D. 3:1
ANSWERS TO PHYSICS
2015/2016 QUESTIONS
[SESSION 1]
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. E 13. C
14. B 15. C
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COMPUTER BASED TEST C. bulb is small and thick-walled

D. liquid is of high density and the
1. An object is placed 10cm, in bore is large
front of a concave mirror of focal E. bulb is thin-walled and the
length 15cm. What is the positive liquid is a good conductor of heat
and nature of the image formed?
4.
A. 30cm and virtual In the figure above, the value of R
B. 6cm and real is _____
C. 6cm and virtual
D. 30cm and real A. 3Ω
B. 4 Ω
2 When the tension of a C. 5 Ω
sonometer wire is doubled, the D. 6 Ω
ratio of the new frequency to the
initial frequency is_____ 5. I. The frictional force is
independent of the area of the
A. 1√2 surfaces in contact.
B. 12 II. The frictional force depends on
C. √2 the nature of the surfaces in
D. 2 contact.
III. The frictional force depends
3. A short response time is on the speed of the sliding.
obtained in a liquid-in-glass IV. The frictional force is directly
thermometer when the___ proportional to the normal
reaction.
A. stem is long and thin
B. bulb is large and thick-walled
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Which combination of the above is 8. Which of the following
true of sliding friction? instruments has a pure tone?
A. I, II and IV A. Guitar
B. I, II and III B. Vibrating string
C. I, III and IV C. Tuning fork
D. II, III and IV D. Siren
6. The electrochemical equivalent 9. If a radioactive substance with

of a metal is 0.126 x 10-6kg/C. a half-life of 3 minutes remains
The mass of the metal that a 400g after 6 minutes, what is the
current of 5A will deposit from a original mass of the substance?
suitable bath in 1 hour is _____
A. 800g
A. 0.0378 x 10-3kg B. 2400g
B. 0.227 x 10-3kg C. 600g
C. 0.378 x 10-3kg D. 1600g
D. 2.268 x 10-3kg
10. An object placed 36cm from a
7. Which of the following is in a converging lens of focal length
neutral equilibrium. 20cm forms a real image which is
40cm high. What is the height of
A. A heavy weight suspended on a the object?
string.
B. A cone resting on its slant A. 30cm
edge. B. 22cm
C. A heavy-based table lamp. C. 32cm
D. The beam of a balance in use. D. 45cm
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11. Which of the following 13. A milliammeter with full scale
statements about defects of vision deflection of 10mA has an internal
is/are CORRECT? resistance of 5 ohms. It would be
converted to an ammeter with a
I. For a long-sighted person, close full-scale deflection of 1A by
objects appear blurred. connecting a resistance of _____
II For a short-sighted person,
distant objects appear blurred. A. 99/5 ohm in series with it
III. Short sight is corrected by B. 99/5 ohm in parallel with it
using a pair of converging lenses. C. 5/99 ohm in parallel with it
D. 5/99 ohm in series with it
A. I and II only
B. II only 14. What precaution should a
C. I only manufacturer take to ensure that
D. II and III only energy loss in a transformer is
minimized?
12. The total length of a spring
when a mass of 20g is hung from A. The winding of the transformer
its end is 14cm, while its total should be made of high resistance
length is 16cm when a mass of wires.
30g is hung from the same end. B. The core should be made of
Calculate the unstretched length thin sheets of metal.
of the spring assuming Hooke's C. No magnetic material should
law is obeyed. be used to make the core.
D. The flux linking the primary
A. 9.33 cm with the secondary coils should be
B. 12.00cm minimum
C 10.00cm
D. 10.66cm
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15. If an object is placed in front Facebook Study Group
of two mirrors inclined at 90˚,
how many images will be formed? If you need an explanation to
A. Five download more past questions
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PHYSICS 2015/2016
ANSWERS [SESSION 2]
1. A 2. A 3. E 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. C
14. B 15. C
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 4. CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g)

Calculate the standard heat
1. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2SO3(g) ∆H= - change of the reaction above if
395.7Kjmol -1 the standard enthalpies of
The reaction above, the formation of CO2(g), H2O(g) and
concentration of SO3(g) can be CO(g) in KJmol -1 are -394, -242
increased by and -110 respectively.
A. decreasing the pressure A. +262 KJ mol -1

B. decreasing the temperature B. -262 KJ mol -1
C. increasing the temperature C. +42 KJ mol -1
D. the addition of catalyst D. -42 KJ mol -1
2. Which of the following 5. CH3CH2CL + KCN → CH3CH2 CN

compounds is a normal salt? + KCl
In the reaction above. the cyanide
A. Na2CO3 is
B. NaHSO4
C. NaHCO3 A. nucleophilic
D. NaHS B. electrophilic
C. hydrophilic
3. Which of the following ions can D. hydrophobic
be used as an oxidizing agent?
6. The bleaching action of chlorine
A. F- gas is effective due to the
B. Fe3+ presence of
C. Au3+
D. Ca2+ A. oxygen
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B. hydrogen chloride B. hygroscopy
C. water C. hydrolysis
D. air D. efflorescence
7. Which of the following pairs of 10. Vulcanization involves the

substances will wet further with removal of
oxygen to form a higher oxide?
A. a double bond
A. SO2 and NO B. the single bond
B. CO2 and H2O C. a polymer
C. CO and CO2 D. a monomer
D. NO and H2O
11. In an equilibrium reaction,
8. The salt formed between citric which of the following conditions
acid and sodium hydroxide in indicates that maximum yield of
solution will be product will be obtained?
A. acidic A. Equilibrium constant is very

B. neutral large
C. basic B. ∆H - T∆S=0
D. amphoteric C. ∆H > T∆S
D. Equilibrium constant is less
9. On exposure to the than zero
atmosphere, a hydrated salt loses
its water of crystallization to 12. 2C2H2(g) +5O2(g) → 4CO2(g) +
become anhydrous. This 2H2O(g)
phenomenon is referred to as In the reaction above, the mass
or carbon(IV) oxide produced by
A. deliquescent burning 78g of ethyne is
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A. 264g 15. The colour of the fountain
C. 352g water is
B. 39g
D. 156g A. orange
B. blue
13. ( )2+ + 4 3( ) ⇌ C. red
[ ( 3)4]( )2+ D. yellow
In the reaction above, what is the
effect of precipitating ( )2+ as ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
CuS(s) 2015/2016 (SESSION 1)
A. NH3(g) concentration will 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A

decrease 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B
B. More NH3(g) will be generated 14. A 15. C
C The equilibrium will shift to the
right
D. There will be no effect
Use the diagram below to answer

questions 14 and 15
14. Which of the following gases

can be used to demonstrate the
experiment?
A. hydrogen chloride
B. hydrogen sulphide
C. nitrogen(II) oxide
D. dinitrogen(l) oxide
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 4. The acid used in electrolysis of

water is
1. The basicity of CH3COOH is
A. HNO3
A. 1 B. CH3COOH
B. 2 C. H2SO4
C. 3 D. HCl
D. 4
5.
2. Ethanol reacts with In the diagram above, which of
concentrated tetraoxosulphate the curves represents the
(VI) acid at a temperature above evolution of oxygen with time in
170°C to form the equation
2KClO3(s)⇢ 2KCl (s) +3O2(g)?
A. ethanone
B. ethanal A. X
C. ethyne B. Y
D. ethene C. Z
D. R
3. The type of bonding in iodine
molecule is 6. In the laboratory preparation of
oxygen, dried oxygen is usually it
A. dative is collected over
B. covalent
C. coordinate A. mercury
D. electrovalent B. calcium chloride
C. tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid
D. hydrochloric acid
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7. The elements that belong to between X and bromine in the
the third period, of the periodic bromides?
table are
A. Metallic bonding
A. Li, Be, Al and P B. Ionic bonding
B. Na, P, O and CI C. Covalent bonding
C. B, C, N and O D. Dative bonding
D. Na, Mg, S and Ar
11. Calculate the mass of 1.12
8. Synthetic gas is a mixture of dm3 of chlorine gas.
A. CH4 and H2O A. 3.55g

B. CH4 and H2 B. 35.5g
C. CO2 and H2 C. 4.5g
D. CO and H2 D. 1.78g
9. Which of the following is a 12. The sulphide which is

neutralization reaction? The insoluble in dilute hydrochloric
addition of acid is
A. nitric acid to hydrochloric acid A. ZnS

B. nitric acid to distilled water b. Na2S
C. nitric acid to sodium hydroxide C. FeS
D. sodium hydroxide to distilled D. CuS
water
13. What is the pH of a 0.001 mol
10. A metal X forms two bromides dm3 solution of sodium
with formulae XBr2 and Xbr3. hydroxide?
What type of bonding exists,
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A.14 UNN CHEMISTRY 2015/2016
B.13 ANSWERS (SESSION 2)
C.12
D. 11 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. D 13.
14. The type of isomerism shown D 14. D 15. D
by cis- and trans-isomers is
A. optical isomerism
B. positional isomerism
C. functional isomerism
D. geometrical isomerism

statements is true about 2-
methyipropane and butane?
A. They have the same boiling

points
B. They have different number of
carbon atoms
C. They have the same chemical
properties
D. They are members of the same
homologous series
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QUESTIONS (CBT) B. a sparkle of hope

C. a raise of hope
In the questions 1 to 8, D. a glimmer of hope
choose the expression or word
which best completes each 4. This is the very man about
sentence. ______ our teacher spoke during
the session.
1. Many African leaders cling
______ to power. A. whose
B. whom
A. economically C. who
B. judiciously D. which
C. tenaciously
D. furiously 5. The problems of-Nigeria's
worsening economy seem to have
2. Most newspapers help the ______ an immediate solution.
______ public.
A. rejected
A. reading B. defiled
B. reader C. defied
C. reader's D. defined
D. readable
6. He is very tired. He really
3. After the initial confusion, the _____ is staying up late.
Manager's suggestion brought
_____ to the depressed investors. A. getting used to
B. got used to
A. a glitter of hope C. used to
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D. not used to the principal concluded that his
performance left much to be
7. The body is sensitive to desired.
changes in velocity which, if too
sudden, ______. A. was extremely desirable
B. was very brilliant
A. it may lose consciousness C. was very unsatisfactory
B. consciousness may be lost D. was very satisfactory
C. one may become unconscious
D. may cause loss of 10. The take home pay of many
consciousness workers is such that they can
hardly make both ends meet.
8. The situation has deteriorated
sharply and relatives between the A. finish their schedule of work
two countries may soon be B. live an honest life
_____. C. keep two jobs at a time
D. live within their income
A. removed
B. broken In questions 11 and 12, select
C. eliminated the option that expresses the
D. withdrawn same idea as the one in
quotes
In each of questions 9 to 10,
select the option that best 11. "To put something aside” is to
expresses the meaning of the
phrase or word underlined A. keep in safety
B. keep something for some
9. After a careful review of special purpose
Adamu’s last examination result,
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C. put it in a side pocket for A. delicate
future use B. auspicious
D. put it by one's side C. important
D. outstanding
12 "An open secret" means
15. Which of the following options
A. an open matter has stress on the first syllable?
B. a fact that is very secret
C. a secret known to everybody A. Madam
D. a confidential matter B. Command
C. Invite
In each of questions 13 and D. Prepare
14, choose the option nearest
in meaning to the words in ANSWERS TO 2017/2018 UNN
italics. USE OF ENGLISH
13. Most people are vulnerable to 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 6. D 7. D 8. B

communicable disease. 9. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15.
A
A. exposed
B. liable
C. open
D. immutable
14. The recent meeting of the two

rebel leaders was a propitious
moment for stable government in
the country.
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UNN 2017/2018 MATHEMATICS QUESTIONS
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) A. 32 km

B. 50 km
1. Calculate the perimeter of the C. 55 km
segment of a circle of radius 7cm D. 62 km
if the chord subtends angle 90° at
the centre. 4. The average age of the three
children, in a family is 9 years. If
A. 7√2 cm the average age of their parents
B. 1 l cm is 39 years, the average age of
C. (11+7√2) cm the whole family is
D. (11−7√2 cm
A. 20 years
2. The ratio of the sides of two B. 21 years
similar rectangular blocks is 5:3. C. 24 years
If the volume of smaller block is D. 27 years
324 cm3, that of the other block is
5. How many different three-digit
A. 1500 cm3 number can be formed using the
B. 900 cm3 integers 1 to 6 if no integer
C. 864 cm3 occurs twice in a number?
D. 540 cm3
A. 20
3. From an observation point B. 60
close the edge the sea, a ship is C. 120
14 km away on a bearing of 130°. D. 240
A second ship is 48 km away on a
bearing of 220°. This distance 6. The rate of ice formation in the
separating the ships is freezer compartment of a
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refrigerator is (2 - 0.3t) g per III. the areas of the triangles are
min; where t is the time in in the same ratio as the lengths of
minutes. If there was initially 10 g the corresponding sides
of ice in the ice-maker, the mass IV. the triangles are congruent
of ice present after 10 minutes is Which of the above statements
are CORRECT?
A. 5 g
B. 10 g A. I and II only
C. 15 g B. Ill and IV only
D. 25 g C. I, II and III only
D. I, III and IV only
7. A die is thrown and a coin is
tossed. Find the probability that 9. A binary operation * is defined
the die shows an even number over the set of real numbers such
and the coin shows a head. that m * n = m + n + 2 and m ⨀
n = m−n + 1. Which of the
A. 1/4 following equations is not true?
B. 1/6
C. 1/2 A. a*(b*c)=(a*b*c
D. 1 B. a*(b*c)=(a*c) *b
C. a⨀(b⨀c)=(a⨀b) ⨀ c
8. If two triangles are similar, D. a*(b⨀c)=(a*b) ⨀ c
then
10. If 2cos2θ = -cosθ and
I. the corresponding angles are 0<θ<180°, then θ is
equal
II. the corresponding sides are A. 90° or 120°
proportional B. 60° or 90°
C. 60° or 120°
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D. 30° or 150° 14. What are the integral values
of x which satisfy the inequality -1
11. The coordinates of the < 3 - 2x ≤ 5?
vertices P and Q of a square PQRS
are P = (1, 3) and Q = (5, 1). The A. -2, 1, 0, -1
coordinates of R could be B. -1, 0, 1,2
C. -1, 0, 1
A. (3. 7) D. 0, 1, 2
B. (3, 0)
C. (6, 3) 15. If 6log 2 − 3 log 3 =
D. (7, 5) 3 log5 0.2,
12. When a polynomial f(x) is A. 3/8

divided by 2x - 3, the quotient is B. ¾
x2−x + 2 and the remainder is -1. C. 4/3
Find f(x). D. 8/3
A. 2 3
−5 2
+7 −5 ANSWERS TO MATHEMATICS
B. 2 3
−5 2
+7 −7 2017/2018
C. 2 3
+5 2
−3 +7
D. 2 3
−5 2
−7 +5 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. A
13. Divide 24346 by 426
A. 236
B. 356
C. 526
D. 556
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COMPUTER BASED TEST 3. The range of wavelengths of

the visible spectrum is 400nm to
1. The force on a current carrying 700nm. The wavelength of
conductor in a magnetic field is gamma rays is
greatest when the
A. shorter than 700nm but longer
A. conductor makes an angle of than 400nm
60 with the field B. longer than 700nm
B. Force is independent of the C. shorter than 400nm
angle between the field and the D. 550nm
conductor
C. conductor is parallel with the 4. If the relative density of a
field metal is 19, what will be the mass
D. conductor is at right angles of 20cm3 of the metal when
with the field immersed in water?
2. A moving Coil galvanometer of A. 400g

300 c resistance gives full scale B. 39g
deflection for 1.0mA. The C. 380g
resistance, R, of the shunt that is D. 360g
required to convert the
galvanometer into a 3.0A 5. Vapour is said to be saturated
ammeter is when
A. 899.70 Ω A. more molecules return to die

B. 10.00 Ω liquid thin the amount that left it
C. 0.10 Ω B. a dynamic equilibrium exists
D. 0.01 Ω between the molecules of the
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liquid and the vapour molecules 8. Which of the following
at s given temperature statements about friction is NOT
C. the vapour pressure is equal-to correct?
the atmospheric pressure
D. all the molecules are moving A. The force of kinetic friction is
with the same speed in all less than the force of static
directions at a given temperature friction.
B. The force of kinetic friction
6. When a transformer has more between two surfaces is
secondary windings than primary independent of the areas in
windings; it contact provided the normal
reaction is unchanged.
A. has a smaller secondary C. The angle of friction is the
current. angle between the normal
B. has a greater power output. reaction and the force friction.
C. is a stepdown transformer. D. The force of rolling friction
D. increases the total energy between two surfaces is less than
output. the force of sliding friction.
7. When light is incident on an 9. Electrical power is transmitted

object which is magenta in colour, at a high voltage rather than low
which of the following colours voltage because the amount of
would be absorbed? energy loss is 'due to _____.
A. Red and blue A. heat dissipation

B. Green only B. production of Eddy current
C. ited and green C. excessive current discharge
D. Red only D. excessive voltage discharge
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10. A ship traveling towards a cliff 12. The linear expansivity of brass
receives the echo of its whistle is 2 x 10-5C-1. If the volume of a
after 3.5 seconds. A short while piece of brass is 15.00cm3 at 0℃,
later, it receives the echo after what is the volume at 100°C?
2.5 seconds. If the speed of
sound in air under the prevailing A. 16.03 cm3
conditions is 250 ms-1, how much B. 1 6.00 cm3
closer is the ship to the cliff? C. 15.09 cm3
D. 15.03 cm3
A. 10m
B. 350m 13. In a resonance tube
C. 175m experiment, a tube of fixed length
D. 125m is closed at one end and several
turning forks of increasing
11. A current-carrying conductor frequency used to obtain
experiences a force When placed resonance at the open end. If the
in a magnetic field because the turning fork with the lowest
frequency which gave resonance
A. conductor is magnetised had a frequency 1and the next
B. magnetic field of the current turning fork to give resonance
interacts with external magnetic had a frequency 2 find the ratio
field 2: 1
C. force is due to the motor
principle A. ½
D. electric field of the current B. 3
interacts with external magnetic C. 9
field D. 8
14. I. Its velocity is constant.
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II. No work is done on the body. ANSWERS TO PHYSICS
III. It has constant acceleration 2017/2018 (SESSION 1)
directed away from the centre.
IV. The centripetal force is 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B
directed towards the centre. 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B
14. D 15. B
Which combination above is true
of a body moving with constant
speed in a circular track?
A. I and III If you need an explanation to
B. I and IV any these answers or you want to
C. II and III download more past questions
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work to raise a load of 500N study group
through a vertical distance of
1.5m. Calculate the efficiency of
the machine.
A. 80%
B. 75%
C. SO%
D. 33%
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 3. A galvanometer of resistance

20 is to be provided with a shunt
1. A 24V potential difference is such that 1/10 of the whole
applied across a parallel current in a circuit pass through
combination of four 6-ohm the galvanometer. The resistance
resistors. The current in each of the shunt is
resistor is
A. 2.00
A. 1A B. 2.22
B. 4A C. 18.00
C. 16 A D.18.22
D. 18A
E. 36A 4. An inclined plane which makes
an angle of 30˚ with horizontal
2. In which of the following has a velocity ratio of
arrangements is the wavelength
in an increasing order? A. 2
B. 1
A. Gamma rays, infrared rays, x- C. 0.866
rays, radio waves. D. 0.50
B. Gamma rays, x-rays, infrared
rays, radio waves. 5. A 20kg mass is to be pulled up
C. Radio waves, x-rays, gamma in a slope inclined at 30° to the
rays, infrared rays. horizontal. if the efficiency of the
D. Infrared rays, radio waves, x- plane is 75%, the force required
rays, gamma rays. to pull, the load, up the plane
is.... (g=10m/s2).
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A. 13.3N I. Electrical potential
B. 73.5 N II. Torque
C. 133.3 N III. Momentum
D. 533.2N IV Kinetic energy
6. If a room is saturated with A. II and III only

water vapour, the temperature of B. II and II only
the room must be C. III and IV only
D. I and IV only
A. at 0˚C.
B. above the dew point 9. A block of ice floats on water
C. at 100℃ inside a container. If the block of
D. below or at the dew point ice gets completely melted, the
level of water in the container will
7. The refractive index of a liquid
is 105. If the velocity of light in A. increase
vacuum is 3.0 x 108ms-1, the B. remain the same
velocity of light in the liquid is C. decrease
____. D. first decrease and then
increase
A. 1.5 x 108 ms-1
B. 2.0 x 108 ms-1 10. Thermal equilibrium between
C. 3.0 x 108 ms-1 two objects exists when
D. 4. 5 x 108 ms-1
E. 9.0 x 108 ms-1 A. the temperatures of both
objects are equal
8. Which of the following B. the quantity of heat in both
quantities are scalars? objects is the same
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C. the heat capacities of both 13. When white light is dispersed
objects are the same by a spectrometer, the
D. one object loses heat component having the shortest
continuously to the other wavelength is
11. In the figure above, the three A. orange

forces F1, F2, F3 acting at O are B. green
in equilibrium. If the magnitude C. violet
F1 is 10.0N and the magnitude of D. red
F2 is 5.0N, find the magnitude of
F3. 14. An Object is placed 5.6 x 10 -4
m in front of a converging lens of
A. 26.4N focal length 1.0 x 10-3m. The
B. 15.0N image formed is
C. 13.2N
D. 10.0N A. real, erect and magnified
B. virtual, erect and magnified
12. 22,000J of heat is required to C. real, inverted and magnified
raise the temperature of 1.5kg of D. virtual, erect and diminished
paraffin from 20℃ to 30℃.
Calculate the specific heat 15. A bar magnet is most
capacity of paraffin. effectively demagnetized by
A. 1466 J Kg-1℃-1 A. placing it in a N 5 position and

B. 2933 J Kg-1℃-1 hitting it with a hammer
C. 4400 J Kg-1℃-1 B. subjecting it to an electric
D. 58661 J Kg-1℃-1 current from a battery
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C. bringing its north pole in
contact with the north pole of a
very strong magnet
D. heating the magnet
UNN PHYSICS 2017/2018

ANSWERS (SESSION 2)
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C
14. B 15. D
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Computer Based Test (CBT) 4. Some metals are extracted

from their ores after some
1. Stainless steel is used for preliminary treatments by
making electrolysis (L), some by thermal
reaction (T) and some by a
A. Tools combination of both processes
B. Magnets (TL). Which set-up in the
C. Coins and medals following for the extraction of
D. Moving parts of clock iron, copper and aluminium is
correct?
2. The product formed at the
cathode during the electrolysis of A. iron (L), copper (L), aluminum
sodium chloride solution with (T)
carbon electrodes is B. Iron (T), copper (L) aluminium
(T)
A. sodium C. Iron (TL), copper
B. chlorine (TL)aluminium (TL)
C. hydrogen D. Iron (L), copper (T). aluminium
D. oxygen (T)
E. Iron (T), copper (L), aluminium
3. The alkanol obtained from the (TL)
production of soap is
5. Which of the following will
A. ethanol liberate hydrogen from steam or
B. glycerol dilute acid?
C. propanol
D. glycol A. Iron
B. Mercury
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C. Copper 9. The acid that is used to remove
D. Lead rust is
6. The colour of methyl orange in A. boric

alkaline medium is B. trioxonitrate (V)
C. hydrochloric
A. orange D. tetraoxosulpate (VI)
B. red
C. yellow 10. A compound commonly used
D. pink for the sterilization and
preservation of specimens and
7. A compound contains 40.0% food is
carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and
53.3% oxygen. If the molar mass A. ethanol
of the compound is 180, find the B. benzene
molecular formula. C. ether
D. ammonia
A. C6H6O3
B. C6H12O6 11. The relative atomic mass of a
C. C3H6O3 naturally occurring lithium
D. CH2O consisting of 90% Li and 10% Li
is
8. Which of these represents
redox reaction? A.6.9
B. 7.1
A. AgNO3 + NaCl ⇢ AgCl + NaNO2 C. 6.2
B. H2S +Pb(NO3)2 ⇢ PbS + 2HNO3 D. 6.8
C. CaCO3 ⇢ CaO + CO2
D. Zn +2HCl ⇢ ZnCl 2 + H2
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12. Which of the allotropes of A. amphoteric
carbon is a constituent of a lead B. acidic
pencil? C. hygroscopic
D. efflorescent
A. Graphite
B. Diamond ANSWERS TO 2017/2018
C. Lampblack CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
D. Soot
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. E 5. A 6. C 7. B
13. Coffee stains can best be 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. A 13.
removed by C 14. C 15. C
A. turpentine
B. kerosene
C. a solution of borax in water
D. ammonia solution
14. Iron can be prevented from

corrosion by coating the surface
with
A. gold
B. silver
C. zinc
D. copper
15. Substances used as drying

agents are usually
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 4. A suitable solvent for iodine

and naphthalene is
1. Which of the following is used
to hasten the ripening of fruits? A. benzene
B. ethanol
A. Ethanol C. water
B. Ethene D. carbon(IV) sulphide
C. Ethyne
D. Ethane 5. What is the IUPAC name of the
CH3CH3
2. The products of the combustion CH3CH = C
of candle wax are CH2CH2Cl
A. hydrogen and water A. 1-chloro-3-ethylperit-3-ene

B. oxygen and water B. 5-chloro-3-ethylpent-2,3-ene
C. carbon(IV) oxide and water C. 5-chloro-3-ethylpent-2-ene
D. carbon(II)oxide and water D. 1-ethyl-l-chlorbethylpropene
3. In the electrolytic extraction of 6. Which of the following

aluminium the function of the molecules is not linear in shape?
molten cryolite to
A. CO2
A. precipitate aluminium B. O2
hydroxide C. NH3
B. lower the melting point of D. HCl
aluminium oxide.
C. act as raw material. 7. Which of the following
D. act as a solvent reactions do alkenes undergo?
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A. Addition reaction 10. What type of bond exist
B. Elimination reaction between an element with atomic
C. Condensation reaction number 12 and Y with atomic
D. Substitution reaction number 17?
8. Which of the following A. Electrovalent

arrangements is in o. decreasing B. Covalent
electro positivity? C. Metallic
D. Dative
A. Fluorine, Boron, Beryllium,
Nitrogen, Lithium 11. Which of the following is an
B. Lithium, Beryllium, Boron, example of a mixture
Nitrogen, Fluorine
C. Fluorine, Nitrogen, Boron, A. Common salt
Beryllium, Lithium B. Washing soda
D. Lithium. Nitrogen, Boron, C. Sand
Fluorine, Beryllium D. Blood
9. How much heat will be 12. Which of following is correct

liberated if 10g of hydrogen burns of the change in oxidation number
in excess oxygen according to the of phosphorus from 4P to 2p2O5?
following thermochemical
equation? A. 0 to +5
H2(g) +1/2O2(g) ⇢ H(2)(l) ∆H=-286kJ B. 0 to +2
C. 4 to +5
A. -1430kJ D. 4 to -2
B. -2860 kJ
C. -572 kJ 13. Two 50cm3 cylinders I and II
D. -286kJ contain hydrogen and oxygen
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respectively at the same D. calcium chloride or sodium
temperature and pressure. If chloride salts
there are 3.0 moles of oxygen
then the mass of hydrogen is ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY
2017/2018 (SESSION 2)
A. 3g
B. 6g 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A
C. 9g 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. B
D. 12g 14. C 15. B
14. A good method of cleaning up

freshly-spilled oil which has not
spread over a large surface of
water is by
A. spraying with hot water

B. dispersal with compressed air
C. burning off the oil layer
D. disinfection with chlorine
15. Hardness of water is mainly

due to the presence of
A. calcium hydroxide or
magnesium hydroxide
B. calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) or
calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI)
C. sodium hydroxide or
magnesium hydroxide
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COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) C. anxiety

D. objectives
Instructions:
There are 17 questions in this 3. Modesty is one of our teacher’s
section. You are expected to most salient characteristics.
answer 15 questions only.
A. provoking
In each of questions 1 to 5, B. attractive
choose the option nearest in C. prominent
meaning to the word(s) in D. useful
italics.
4. We all praised the student’s
1. Mr Sam is a dominant partner leaders for their intrepid stand
in our industry. during the crisis.
A. An important A. fearless
B. An influential B. cheerful
C. An outstanding C. reasonable
D. A prominent D. impressive
2. In spite of the statement 5. The chairman’s reaction was a

credited to some government storm in a tea cup.
officials, we still have our
misgivings about their real A. suitable for the occasion
intentions. B. less serious than it appeared to
be
A. fears C. more serious than necessary
B. distrust D. greatly diminished in scope
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In the questions 6 to 12, D. was hearing
choose the word or expression
which best completes each 9. The policemen who were to
sentence. keep watch connived ____the
robber’s escape.
6. He behaves as if he ____a
governor. A. with
B. at
A. is C. to
B. was D. for
C. were
D. are 10. We used to serve tea in this
canteen but____the cost of milk
7. The chairman did not take has become very exorbitant.
kindly to the ___remarks about
his policy. A. recently
B. nowadays
A. abusive C. presently
B. dishonourable D. lately
C. derisive
D. derogatory In each of questions 11 to 13,
choose the word that has the
8. Although I am watching same vowel sound as the one
television, I____ what you are represented by the letter(s)
saying. underlined.
A. am hearing 11. Tyranny

B. can hear
C. have heard A. high
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B. dye B. localize
C. myth C. tetanus
D. myopia D. ludicrous
12. Success In the questions 16 and 17,

choose the word or expression
A. suffer which best completes each
B. rubbish sentence.
C. punish
D. suggest 16. Effiong can’t kill a snake,
___?
13. legal
A. can’t she
A. many B. could she
B. margin C. isn’t it
C. mineral D. can she
D. rally
17. The hunter, with his dog
In each of questions 14 and ____entering the bush.
15, choose the word that has a
different stress pattern from A. are
the others. B. was
C. is
14. A. generous D. were
B. legalize
C. factious
D. hazardous
15. A. misapply
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ANSWERS TO UNN 2018/2019
USE OF ENGLISH
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. B 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. C
14. C 15. A 16. D 17. C

for FREE.

study group
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Instruction: There are 17 3. A p-m junction diode is used

questions in this section. You as____.
are expected to answer 15
questions only. A. a rectifier in a d.c circuit
B. an amplifier in an a.c circuit
1. If a man is standing between C. a rectifier in an a.c circuit
two parallel plane mirrors with D. an amplifier in a d.c circuit
their reflecting surfaces facing
each other, how many images of 4. The sharpness of the
the man will be formed? boundaries of the shadow of an
object is determined by the ____.
A. 8.
B. 2 A. rays of light passing through
C. 4 the object
D. infinite B. intensity of light striking the
object
2. In the Hare’s apparatus, water C. opacity of the object
rises to a height of 26.5cm in one D. nature of the object
limb. If a liquid rises to a height
of 20.4 cm in the other limb, what 5. A body of mass 4kg is acted on
is relative density of the liquid? by a constant force of 12N for 3
seconds. The kinetic energy
A. 0.8 gained by the body at the end of
B. 1.1 the time is___.
C. 1.2
D. 1.3 A. 162J
B. 144J
C. 72J
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D. 81J 8. If a tube of small radius
opened at both ends is placed in a
6. Two inductors of inductances liquid, the liquid will____.
4H and 8H are arranged in series
and a current of 10 A is passed A. fall below the liquid level if the
through them. What is the energy liquid does not wet the glass
stored in them? B. rise above the liquid level if the
liquid does not wet the glass
A. 500J C. remain at the same level
B. 50 J irrespective of whether the liquid
C. 133J wets the glass or not
D. 250J D. fall below the liquid level if the
liquid wets the glass
7. Which of the following will be
applied when a metal Y is used to 9. A stone and a feather are
electroplate another metal X in dropped from the same height
electrolysis? above earth surface. Ignoring
resistance, which of the following
A. Y is the anode and very high is correct?
current is used
B. X is the anode and Y is the A. The feather will be blown away
cathode by the wind while the stone will
C. Y is the cathode and X is the drop steadily
anode B. The stone and feather will both
D. X is the anode and very high reach the ground at the same
current is used time
C. The feather will reach the
ground first
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D. The stone will reach the D. the specific heat of water is
ground first higher than that of iron
E. the specific heat of iron is
10. An air bubbles rises from the infinite
bottom to the top of a water dam
which is 40 m deep. The volume 12. Of two identical tuning forks
of the bubble just below the with natural frequency 256Hz,
surface is 2.5cm3. Find its volume one is loaded so that 4 beats per
at the bottom of the dam, if seconds are heard when they are
atmospheric pressure is sounded together. What is the
equivalent to 10 m of water. frequency of the loaded tuning
fork?
A. 2.0 cm3
B. 1.6 cm3 A. 260Hz
C. 0.625 cm3 B. 252 Hz
D. 0.5 cm3 C. 248 Hz
D. 246 Hz
11. When equal weights of iron
and water are subjected to an 13. Radio waves have a velocity
equal supply of heat, if is found of 3 x 108m/s. A radio station
that the piece of iron becomes sends out a broadcast on a
much hotter than water after a frequency of 800KHz. The
shorter time because___. wavelength of the broadcast is
____.
A. the specific heat of iron is
higher than that of water A. 240.0 m
B. iron is in solid form B. 267.0m
C. water is in liquid form C. 375.0 m
D. 37.5 m
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E. 26.7 m 16. A conductor of length 2m
carries a current of 0.8 A while
14. A narrow beam of white light kept in magnetic field of magnetic
ca be split up into different flux density 0.5 T. The maximum
colours by a glass prism. The force acting on it is __.
correct explanation is that___.
A. 8.0 N
A. white light is an B. 3.2 N
electromagnetic wave C. 0.8 N
B. the prism has all the colours of D. 0.2 N
the white light
C. white light has undergone total 17. A heavy object is suspended
internal reflection in the prism from a string and lowered into
D. different colours of white light water so that is completely
travel with different speeds in submerged. The object appears
glass lighter because___.
15. Two forces whose resultant is A. the density of water is less

100N, are at right angles to each than that of the object
other. If one of them makes an B. the pressure is low just below
angle of 30° with the resultant, the water surface
determine its magnitude. C. if experiences an up thrust
D. the tension in the string
A. 8.66N neutralizes part of the weight
B. 50.0N
C. 57.7N
D. 86.6N
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ANSWERS TO 2018/2019
PHYSICS QUESTIONS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. A 13.
C 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. C
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Instructions: There are 17 B. the electrolysis of fused

questions in this section. You aluminium oxide in cryolite
are expected to answer 15 C. treating cryolite with sodium
questions only. hydroxide solution under pressure
D. heating sodium aluminium
1. Which of the following ions is silicate to a high temperature
isoelectronic with neon? [3Li, 9F,
10Ne, 17Cl, 19K] 4. The atomic number of Caesium
is 55 and its atomic mass is 133.
A. Cl- The nucleus of Caesium atom
B. F- therefore contains___.
C. K+
D. Li+ A. 78 protons and 55 electrons
B. 55 protons and 78 neutrons
2. Which of the following gases is C. 55 neutrons and 78 electrons
employed as an anaesthesia? D. 78 neutrons and 55 neutrons
A. NH3 5. The solubility in moles per dm3

B. NO of 20g of CuSO4 dissolved in 100g
C. N2O of water at 180°C is ___.
D. NO2
A. 0.13
3. Aluminium is extracted B. 0.25
commercially from its ore by___. C. 1.25
D. 2.00
A. heating aluminium oxide with
coke in a furnace [Cu=63.5, S=32, O=16]
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6. Sodium hydroxide should be 8. How many unpaired electrons
stored in properly closed are in the p-orbitals of a fluorine
containers because it___. atom?
A. readily absorbs water vapour A. 1

from the air B. 2
B. is easily oxidized by C. 3
atmospheric oxygen D. 0
C. turns golden yellow when
exposed to light 9. A metal M displaces zinc from
D. melts at low temperature ZnCl 2 solution. This shows that
___.
7. 2H2S(g)+SO2(g) → 3S(g) +
2H2O(l). A. electrons flow from zinc to M
The above reaction is___. B. M is more electropositive than
zinc
A. a redox reaction in which H2S C. M is more electronegative than
is the oxidant and SO2 is the zinc
reductant D. zinc is more electropositive
B. a redox reaction in which SO 2 than M
is the oxidant and H2S is the
reductant 10. Which of the following
C. not a redox reaction because relationships between the
there is no oxidant in the reaction pressure P, the volume V and the
equation temperature T, represents an
D. not a redox reaction because ideal gas behaviour?
there is no reductant in the
reaction equation A. P∝VT
B. P∝
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C. PV∝1 13. The Avogadro’s number of
D. PT∝V 24g of magnesium is the same as
that of___.
11. Increasing the pressure of a
gas, ___. A. 1g of hydrogen molecules
B. 16g of oxygen molecules
A. lowers the average kinetic C. 32g of oxygen molecules
energy of the molecules D. 35.5 g of chlorine molecules
B. decreases the density of the
gas 14. Which of the following is
C. decreases the temperature of arranged in order of increasing
the gas electronegativity?
D. increases the density of the
gas A. chlorine, aluminium,
D. increases the volume of the magnesium, phosphorus, sodium
gas B. sodium, magnesium,
aluminium,
12. A quantity of electricity phosphorus, chlorine
liberates 3.6g of silver from its C. chlorine, phosphorus,
salt. What mass of aluminium will aluminium, magnesium, sodium
be liberated from its salt by the D. sodium, chlorine, phosphorus,
same quantity of electricity? magnesium, aluminium
A. 2.7g 15. Fluorine does not occur in the

B. 1.2 g free state in nature because___.
C. 0.9 g
D. 0.3 g A. it is inert
B. of its high reactivity
C. it is a poisonous gas
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D. it belongs to the halogen
family
16. Which of the following gases

has characteristic pungent smell,
turns red litmus paper blue and
forms dense white fumes with
hydrogen chloride gas>
A. N2
B. N2O
C. Cl 2
D. NH3
17. One of the most commonly

determined chemical parameters
of water quality is___.
A. temperature
B. suspended solids
C. biochemical oxygen demand
D. turbidity
ANSWERS TO 2018/2019
CHEMISTRY
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. D 13.
C 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. C
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UNN 2007/2008 AGRICULTURE QUESTIONS
1. The role of science and A. expansion

technology in the development of B. education
agriculture includes the following C. development
except D. modernization
E. diversification
A. provision of insecticide and
drugs 4. Although clayey soils in
B. provision of goad road net- nutrient, they are not pod for
works most agricultural rural crop
C. introduction of artificial because they
insemination
D. setting up produce marketing A. do not release their nutrients
of plants and animals B. are-too compact and poorly
E. introduction of new varieties of aerated
plants and animals C. loose their nutrients too readily
after rains
2. An accessory sex gland in a D. contain too much iron,
bull is aluminium and boron
E. are too porous
A. prostate gland
B. pituitary gland 5. Rosette disease of groundnut is
C. thyroid gland transmitted by
D. pancreatic gland
E. bulloid gland A. an eelworm
B. grasshopper
3. The replacement of traditional C. a white fly
fanning methods with modern D. an aphid
method is a step in agricultural E. butterfly
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6. The sequence of events in the D. vegetable crops
reproductive process of diary E. stored produce
animal is
9. The practice of progeny
A. lactation, parturition, gestation selection involves selecting
and copulation breeding stock on the basis of the
B. parturition, copulation.
lactation and gestation A. performance of offspring
C. gestation, lactation, parturition B. parental- characteristics
and copulation C. sire-dam relationships
D. copulation, gestation, D. individual 'merits of each
parturition and lactation animal
E. copulation, parturition, E. characteristics of adult and
gestation and lactation young animal
7. The types of rocks formed from 10. The commonest method of

molten magma is known as land tenure in Nigeria is
A. sedimentary A. lease
B. igneous B. inheritance
C. metamorphic C. outright purchase
D. schist D. allocation
E. sandstone
11. The most important limitation
8. Birds are important pest of of agricultural mechanization is
A. tree crops A. small holdings

B. legumes B. lack of technical know how
C. cereal C. poor marketing
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D. inadequate storage facilities A. levelling measurements of
E. pest attack farms
B. chain measurements of farm
12. Thrips cause serious lands
mechanical damage of crops by C. measuring diversions or
their obstructions in a farm land
D. measuring farm with irregular
A. feeding activities on flowers. boundaries
leaves and fruits E. measuring turning during
B. laying eggs on plants surveying
C. sucking of the sac of crops
D. burrowing activities 15. The disbanded produce
E. activities of vectors of bacterial marketing boards in Nigeria dealt
diseases with the following commodities
except
13. The expression of a gene in
the phenotype irrespective' A. oil palm
whether the cell is homozygous or B. rubber
heterozygous is known as C. cocoa
D. groundnut
A. recessive E. yam
B. partial dominance
C. test-cross ANSWERS TO AGRICULTURE
D. segregation 2007/2008
E. dominance
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. B
14. What are give-and-take Tunes 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. E
often used for in farm surveying? 14. D 15. E
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1. Soil texture is described as the E. Porous pipes
A. Distribution of different sizes of 4. In which layer of the soil profile

soil panicles does most biological activity
B. Arrangement of soil particles in occur?
a soil sample
C. Rate at which water moves A. Parent material
through the soil B. D-horizon
D. Degree to which air spaces C. C-horizon
aerate the soil D. A-horizon
E. Distribution of-soil particles in
a sample 5. Which of the following does not
occur as a result of poor drained
2. Slate is derived from soil?
A. Schist A. Mottling near the top

B. Sandston B. Decrease in rooting depth
C. Shale C. Clean re in colour the subsoil
D. Gneiss D. Decrease. in organic matter
E. Quartzite content
E. Increase in oxygen level of the
3. Soil-can be drained by the use soil
of the following except
6. The common surveying
A. Sprinklers equipment for farmland include
B. Channels the following except
C. Gutters
D. Ditches A. Ranging pole
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B. Prismatic compass A. Digestion of cellulose
C. Measuring tape B. Conversion of plant proteins
D. Gunter's chain into microbial proteins
E. Spade C. Production of Vitamin B
D. Production of gas in the rumen
7. In the establishment of E. Eruption of the ruminal gas
pastures, it is best to
10. The part of the ruminant
A. Plant only grasses stomach from which digestive
B. Plant only legumes juices are secreted is the
C. Plant a mixture of grasses and
legumes A. Rumen
D. Let the natural grasses grow B. Reticulum
E. Allow weeds to mix with the C. Omasum
forage crops D. Paunch
E. Abomasum
8. The distance between two
successive yam mounds should be 11. The best method(s) of
about regulating fish capture is/are
A. 0.10 m A. Gill-netting and electro-fishing

B. 1. 00m B. Quota and mesh-size control
C. 10.00 m C. Beach seine -method
D. 100.00 m D. Active netting
E. 1000.00m E. Passive netting
9. Which of the following is not 12. Exposing farmers to scientific

the function of the ruminal micro- knowledge is the responsibility of
organism the
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A. Research Institutes A. Teaching farmers the
B. Farm settlers management of exotic breeds of
C. Agro-service centres animals and crops
D. Extension personnel B. Educating farmers on the use
E. Agricultural development of improved inputs and
project techniques in agriculture
C. Training school leavers t9
13. The following are factors of become professional farmers
Agricultural production except D. Encouraging graduates to take
agriculture as a profession
A. Farmstead E. Understudying the researchers
B. Land and recording their findings
C. Labour
D. Capital ANSWERS TO AGRICULTURE
E. Management 2010/2011
14. Which of the following is a 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. E 7. C

day-to-day record of work on a 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. D 13.
farm? A 14. B 15. B
A. Crop yield book

B. Labour diary
C. Farm inventory
D. Produce account
E. None of the above

activities is-correct about
agricultural extension agent?
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1. The problems associated with A. Rosette

land tenure through inheritance B. Wilt
include the following except C. Soft rot
D. Damping off
A. Small land holdings for family
members 4. Which of the following
B. Hatred among family members implements will be used for the
arising from land sharing next farm operation after clearing
C. Right of individuals to free use a new farmland?
and control of inherited land
D. Individuals being restricted to A. Harrow
their plots B. Ridger
E. Difficulty to sell part of the C. Cultivator
inherited land D. Planter
E. Plough
2. Which of the following factors
influencing agricultural production 5. Which of the following types of
is a biotic factor? soil contains particles of diameter
between 0.02mm and 2.00 mm?
A. Parasite
B. Soil pH A. Sand
C. Topography B. Silt
D. Soil texture C. Gravel
E. Temperature D. Clay
E. Stone
3. An example of fungal disease
of stored grain is 6. Which of the following plants
is-not classified as forage grass?
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A. Giant star A. Vegetables
B. Guinea grass B. Cereals
C. Elephant grass C. Forage
D. Gamba grass D. Legumes
E. Stylo E. Shrubs
7. The most effective way of 10. Which of the following feeding

controlling or preventing viral stuffs should increase in the diet
diseases in plants is by of laying birds?
A. Planting resistant varieties A. Palm kernel meal

B. Spraying crops regularly B. Bone meal
C. Burning affected crops C. Groundnut cake
D. Practicing crop rotation D. Vitamin supplement
E. Treating seeds with chemicals E. Wheat offal
8. Ginning is the process of 11. Which of the following ages

are gilts normal mated?
A. Extracting cotton seed oil
B. Separating fibres from the bark A. 8-12 months
of kernel B. 14-15 months
C. Grinding cotton seeds C. 15-20 months
D. Separating cotton fibre from its D. 21-24 months
seed E. Over 25 months
E. Converting cotton lint into yarn
12. The symptoms of vitamin
9. Crops grown primarily for deficiency disease in livestock
feeding animals are known as include the following except
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A. Scurvy B. Concentrates
B. Loss of appetite C. Roughages
C. Poor blood clotting D. Additives
D. Improved fertility E. Basal feeds
E. Rickets
ANSWERS TO AGRICULTURE
13. Which of the following is not a 2011/2012
factor of improvement in breeding
cattle? 1. C 2. A 3. E 4. E 5. A 6. E 7. A
8. D 9. C 10. E 11. A 12. D 13. A
A. Fertility 14. C 15. B
B. Butter-fat percentage
C. Weaning weight
D. Feed efficiency
E. Back-fat thickness
14. The act of giving birth in any these answers or you want to
rabbits is known as download more past questions

for FREE.
A. Kidding
B. Farrowing Click to ENTER our Facebook
C. Kindling study group
D. Calving
E. Lambing
15. Low fibre and high energy

feeds are classified as
A. Supplements
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1. A characteristic feature of D. oxidation

subsistence agriculture is E. hydration
A. supply of labour by farm 4. Which of the following will not

families contribute to soil formation in
B. whole-sale of farm harvest Nigeria?
C. purchasing of seeds for
planting A. carbonation
D. disease control B. oxidation
E. group farming C. temperature
D. hydrolysis
2. The factors affecting formation E. glaciation
soil include the H following except
5. Which of the following parts of
A. organisms tractor need not be regularly
B. time checked before use?
C. topography
D. catena A. engine oil and water level
E. climate B. power take-off shaft
C. tyres and tyre pressure
3. The equation: KAlSi 3O8 + H2O D. brake and gear
HAlSi 3O8 + K+ + OH- represents E. operators and adjustment
the process of chemical
weathering called 6. Fertilizers that usually contain
one nutrient which can be used
A. hydrolysis directly by plants are commonly
B. solution called
C. carbonation
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A. organic fertilizers B. perennial crops
B. mixed fertilizers C. fibre crops
C. inorganic fertilizers D. vegetable crops
D. compound fertilizers E. ornamental crops
E. straight fertilizers
10. Rice bran is usually obtained
7. Which of the following is not a from the paddy after
biotic factor affecting agricultural
production? A. winnowing and boiling
B. threshing and winnowing
A. predator C. parboiling and threshing
B. soil D. harvesting and milling
C. parasite E. milling and polishing
D. pest
E. disease 11. The type of crops planted and
livestock raised in any given area
8. Which of the following factors depends primarily on the
has greatest influence on crop
production? A. type of climate
B. physical factors
A. light C. biotic factors
B. vegetation D. socio-economic factors
C. water E. edaphic factors
D. air movement
E. pressure 12. Which of the following is a
primary product of the forest
9. Jute, cotton and sisal are trees?
A. oil crops A. paper
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B. particle board B. heifer
C. timber C. castrate
D. cardboard D. weather
E. pulp E. steer
13. Which of the following is not a ANSWERS TO AGRICULTURE

pasture legume? 2012/2013
A. Pueraria 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. E 5. E 6. E 7. B
B. Calopogonium 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B
C. Centrosema 14. D 15. E
D. Andropogon
E. Stylosanthes
14. An effective way of preventing

anaemia in piglets raised under
intensive system is to provide
them with
A. milk supplement
B. salt lick
C. protein supplement
D. drugs containing iron
E. roughages
15. The castrated male cattle is

known as
A. bull
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1. Which of the following will E. Boron

retain the greatest amount of
water? 4. The type of soils formed is
affected by the following factors
A. Clay except
B. Loam
C. Sandy soil A. Farming systems
D. Sand B. Climate
E. Silt C. Vegetation
D. Topography
2. Which of the following is not E. Parental material
the role of agricultural
production? 5. Which of the following is not a
limitation to mechanization?
A. Provision of loans and credits
B. Building of storage facilities A. Technical know-how
C. Establishment of efficient B. Capital
marketing outlets C. Small holdings
D. Provision of subsidies D. Lack of spare parts
E. Provision of labour E. Labour
3. Which of the following nutrient 6. A soil with particles of less than

elements is a macro-nutrient? 0.002 mm in diameter is referred
to as
A. Phosphorus
B. Zinc A. Clay
C. Iron B. Silt
D. Manganese C. Sand
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D. Gravel D. Seed
E. Humus E. Pulp
7. Which of the following occurs 10. The primary product of ginger

as a result poorly drained soil? is the
A. Mottling near the top A. Rhizome

B. Decrease in rooting depth B. Fruit
C. Change in colour of the sub- C. Seed
soil D. Flower
D. Decrease in organic content E. Leaf
E. Increase in oxygen level of the
soil 11. Which of the following crops is
tolerant to both poor and rich
8. Which of the following diseases friable soils?
of crops causes stunting in maize?
A. Onion
A. Blast B. Cocoa
B. Rosette C. Tomato
C. Blight D. Cassava
D. Streak E. Rice
E. Smut
12. A nutritional deficiency
9. The mesocarp of an oil palm disease of livestock is
fruit is the
A. Rinderpest
A. Nut B. Contagious aberration
B. Kernel C. Oesteomalacia
C. Shell D. Coccidiosis
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E. Tuberculosis C. 114
D. 165
13. All the following are the E. 180
components of balanced diet
except ANSWERS TO AGRICULTURE
2013/2014 QUESTIONS
A. Carbohydrate
B. Minerals and vitamins 1. A 2. E 3. A 4. A 5. E 6. A 7. E
C. Protein 8. E 9. E 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. E
D. Fats and oil 14. A 15. C
E. Sucrose
14. The amount of livestock feed

needed to prevent either an
increase or a decrease in livestock
weight of an animal is referred to
as
A. Maintenance ration
B. Balanced ration
C. Weaner's ration
D. Production-ration
E. Breeders' ration
15. The gestation period in days

of sow is
A. 30
B. 42
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UNN 2014/2015 AGRICULTURE QUESTIONS (D.E)
1. The hormone that influences B. Cataract

the movement of the pelvic C. Curled-toe paralysis
ligaments during parturition in the D. Scurvy
farm animals is known as
4. Which of the following is NOT
A. relaxin correct about Stylosanthes
B. prolactin gracilis? It
C. progesterone
D. oestrogen A. is an animal legume
B. is propagated by seed
2. The term supplying in crop C. is drought resistant
production means D. produces nodules
A. pruning excess branches of 5. The tree species widely used in

crops afforestation programme is
B. spacing out crops during
planting A. neem
C. replacing ungerminated seeds B. teak
on seedbeds C. oil palm
D. adding enough fertilizer to the D. ebony
crops
6. Which of the following groups
3. When birds are fed with a of crops require nursery for their
ration deficient in riboflavin, successful cultivation?
which of the following symptoms
will they show? A. rice, maize, pepper and okro
B. cassava, guinea corn, tomato
A. Night blindness and cowpea
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C. tomato, orange, soya bean and B. hygroscopic water
rice C. gravitational water
D. cocoa, orange, tomato and oil D. superfluous water
palm
10. The most important factor
7. Prevention of animals’ diseases which determines the demand for
involves the following practices cowpea by consumers is
EXCEPT
A. income of consumers
A. rearing disease-resistant stock B. price of cowpea
B. carrying out rotational grazing C. supply of cowpea
C. identifying the sources of D. taste of consumers
diseases
D. feeding balanced ration ANSWERS AGRICULTURE
2014/2015 (DIRECT ENTRY)
operations takes place in a 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C
ginnery? 8. C 9. A 10. B
A. Production of cotton seed oil

B. Detoxification of cotton seed
C. separation of cotton seeds
from lint
D. Production of cotton seed cake
9. Soil water that is available for

root absorption field capacity is
A. capillary water
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COMPREHENSION what happened, but also who did

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15. Young men should not get

UNN ENGLISH 2005/2006

COMPREHENSION market, a woman would walk all

8. Mr. Adamu is a dominant 11. So far, no... [A. effected B.

1. The difference between the cell D. stigma

A. plant cell wall contains silica A. two-chambered heart

9. To study the structure of 12. A pollen grain produces two

14. When a plant bearing ripe

15. One of these is not

1. Which of the following at a fixed temperature for a given

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1. Which of the following is a D. 25%

7. In electrolysis, the chemical A. The two equilibrium constants

8. In the electrolysis of brine, it is 10. When chlorine water is

A. sodium and chlorine readily A. Cl 2

12. When sodium hydroxide

13. What is the IUPAC name of ANSWERS TO CHEMISTRY

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The approach to the university is Firstly, to advise you that the

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A. there is not much consideration A. regard for space

6. Some smugglers have created A. on

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3. Centipedes are A. they possess neural canal

A. nucleus 12. Crenation occur in the red

A. openings in the cuticles study group

15. The outer membrane covering

UNN BIOLOGY 2006/2007

Indicate the correct option in A. its density is equal to the

ANSWERS TO UNN PHYSICS

1. A mixture of iron and sulphur D. 20 cm3

3. Calculate the minimum volume 6. How much NaOH is required to

14. The IUPAC name for is If you need an explanation to

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Olumba is the man for the job. 2. Olumba looked upwards

5. Why was Olumba chosen'? A. deferred

9. The Military Governor upheld 12. There's _____ventilation in

10. Chidi is naturally taciturn. 13. Whenever he puts the light

ANSWERS FOR UNN USE OF

1. Increasing complexity due to C6H12O6 → 2C2H6O + 2CO2 +ATP

9. A circulatory system that does 12. Genetic counselling is

14. The enzyme invertase will

A. mannose and galactose

15. A flower that has both stamen

1. The extension of a spring when its other end to keep it in

12. The primary aim in high A. 0.4eV

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