RESTRICTED RADIO

TELEPHONY CERTIFICATE (RTC)

RESTRICTED RADIO TELEPHONY

CERTIFICATE (RTC)

Cap: Ebram Zekry

INTRODUCTION
Before a candidate can obtain a Private Pilot's Licence (PPL) he must pass a CAA
written examination and a skills test in Radio procedures.

The emphasis for the Restricted "Radio Telephony Certificate (RTC) is on a good
general knowledge of the rules and procedures governing visual flying. The candidate
must know how to use the radio installation in small aircraft; he must be able to fly in
different airspaces and give accurate position reports. He must know about Flight
Plans and how to complete and file them. He must know the altimeter setting
procedures, how Search and Rescue (SAR) works, and must be able to identify and
interpret aerodrome traffic signals. He must also have a good working knowledge of
the Aeronautical Information System as published by the CAA.
ABBREVIATIONS
A/c Aircraft

ACAS Airborne Collision Avoidance System

ACC Area Control Centre
ADA Advisory Area

ADF Automatic Direction Finding

ADR Advisory Route

AFIS Aerodrome Flight Information Service

AGL Above Ground Level

AIC Aeronautical Information Circular

AIP Aeronautical Information Publication

AIS Aeronautical Information Service

ALT Altitude

AMSL Above Mean Sea Level

APP Approach Control
ATA Aerodrome Traffic Zone Class G

ATC Air Traffic Control

ATIS Automatic Terminal Information Service

ATS Air Traffic Services

ATSU Air Traffic Services Unit

ATZ Aerodrome Traffic Zone Class C (controlled) or G (uncontrolled)

AWY Airway

CAA Civil Aviation Authority, also see SACAA

CAR Civil Aviation Regulations

CATS Civil Aviation Technical Standards

CAVOK Ceiling and visibility okay
COM Communications

CTA Control Area

CTR Control Zone
DME Distance Measuring Equipment
ELT Emergency Locator Transmitter

ETA Estimated Time of Arrival

FAD Danger Area South Africa

FAP Prohibited Area South Africa

FAR Restricted Area South Africa

FIR Flight lnformation Region

FIS Flight lnformation Service

FL Flight Level
GFA General Flying Area

GMT Greenwich Mean Time (outdated, see UTC)

GND Ground
GNSS Global Navigation Satellite System

GPS Global Positioning System (based on American satellites)

HF High Frequency

hPa Hectopascal (previously millibar)

IATA lnternational Air Transport Association

ICAO lnternational Civil Aviation Organisation

IFR lnstrument Flight Rules

ILS lnstrument Landing System

IMC lnstrument Meteorological Conditions

INCERFA Uncertainty Phase

INFO lnformation
ISA lnternational Standard Athmosphere

Kts Knots
LF Low frequency

LVP Low Visibility Procedures

MET Meteorological or meteorology
METAR Meteorological Aerodrome Report
MSL Mean Sea Level
NDB Non-Directional Beacon

PIB Pre-flight lnformation Bulletin

PPL Private Pilot's Licence

QDM Magnetic heading (zero wind)

QDR Magnetic bearing

QTE True bearing from a station

QFE Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

QNE Standard altimeter setting (USA)

QNH Altimeter subscale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

RMK Remark
RT Radio Telephony
RTC Radio Telephony Certificate

RVR Runway Visual Range

RVSM Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

RWY Runway
SACAA South African Civil Aviation Authority, also just CAA

SAR Search and Rescue

SRA Special Rules Area

TA Transition Altitude
TAS True Airspeed

TCAS Traffic Collision Avoidance System

TIBA Traffic Information Broadcast Aircraft
TL Transition Level

TMA Terminal Control Area

TWY Taxiway

VFR Visual Flight Rules

VHF Very High Frequency
VMC Visual Meteorological Conditions
 CHAPTER 1

AIRSPACES

The Republic of South Africa and adjacent oceans are divided into two Continental and one
Oceanic Flight information Regions (FlRs).

The country identifier for South Africa is set by the international Civil Aviation Organisation
(lCAO) to be 'FA', therefore the names of the FlRs and FlCs are prefixed with FA.

 Flight Information Regions (FIRs)

In South Africa, there are three FIRs:

 FACA (Cape Town)

 FAJA (Johannesburg)
 FAJO (Johannesburg Oceanic)

 Flight Information Regions (FIRs)

In South Africa, there are three FIRs:

 FACA (Cape Town)

 FAJA (Johannesburg)
 FAJO (Johannesburg Oceanic)

Airspace Classification and service – South Africa:

Classes A and C are controlled airspace

 Pilots may not enter this airspace without permission from a controller.

Classes F and G are uncontrolled airspace.

 Pilots are responsible for their own traffic separation

- Class A - Above FL 200 to FL 460 Only IFR flights are permitted in Class A.

All flight are separated from each other. (Controlled)

- Class C - Below FL200. Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
IFR flights are separated from all other traffic, VFR is separated from IFR, and VFR
receives traffic info about other VFR. (Controlled)

- Class D - Below FL200. Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, with aerodrome
separation between IFR flights. Information service is provided to IFR and VFR relating
to other IFR/VFR traffic. (Controlled)
 - Class F- Advisory IFR&VFR - IFR flights receive traffic advisory service, and all traffic
receives traffic information. (Uncontrolled)

- Class G- Information IFR&VFR - all traffic receives traffic information. (Uncontrolled)

 Controlled Airspace
Requirements for flight in controlled airspace:
- A flight plan must be filed.
- Aircraft must be radio equipped and capable of maintaining 2-way radio contact with the
ATSU at all times.

- Permission to enter controlled airspace must be requested, and entry may not take place
until clearance has been received from the controller.

Controlled airspace can take several forms:

1. ATZ [Aerodrome Traffic Zone] — Class C
2. CTR [Control zone] - Class C (SA)
3. TMA [Terminal Control Area] — Class C (SA)
4. CTA [Control Area] — Class C (SA)

Typical airspace division

 Uncontrolled Airspace
1. ADR. Advisory Route
2. Danger Area (FAD)
3. Restricted Area (FAR)
4. Prohibited Area (FAP)
5. ATZ class G –Aerodrome traffic zone
6. Special Rules Area
  Air traffic services

The objectives of Air Traffic Services are:

 To prevent collisions between aircraft

 To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
 To provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight

 QUESTIONS

1- What does “FA” IN Designator stand for?

a. South America
b. South Africa
c. Egypt

2- South Africa is divided into various regions in which Air Traffic Service is
provided. These regions are termed?

a. IFRs
b. UTAs
c. FIRs
d. UIRs

3- What is the abbreviation for a Control Area?

a. CNA
b. CTA
c. CTR

4- Control Area?

a. Airspace of defined dimension which extend upward from a specified altitude

or flight level to an upper limit, usually a flight level.
b. Airspace of defined dimension which extend upward from the surface to an
upper limit, usually as altitude.
c. An airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the
protection of aerodrome traffic.

5- Where is the most likely place a CTA (Control Area) would be established?
a. above one or more UTAs
b. adjacent to all ATAs
 c. above one or more TMAs
d. below one or more TMAs

6- Terminal manoeuvring area?

a. An uncontrolled airspace surrounding a major airport with a high volume of

traffic.
b. A control airspace surrounding a major airport with a high volume of traffic.
c. A control airspace surrounding a major airport with a low volume of traffic.

7- Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace which extend from
a specified limit to a specified upper limit and is normally established at the
confluence of ATIS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes?

a. TMA
b. ATA
c. MTA

8- Which of the following best describes an airspace where the ATC may make
use of radar to provide position?

a. TMA
b. ATA
c. ATZ
d. Class G

9- When may you begin your descent for an airfield while within a TMA?
a. After passing the 'top of descent' point on your flight plan
b. Once the destination aerodrome is in sight
c. After clearance has been requested and obtained
d. After you have told ATC your intentions

10- What is “CTR”?

a. Control area
b. Control zone
c. Advisory route
11- Where CTR’s are established?
a. Around a TMA
b. Inside a TMA
c. Above a TMA

12- What is "Controlled airspace extending from the surface of the earth
upwards to a specified upper limit"?

a. Control Area (CTA)

b. Terminal Manoeuvring Area
c. Control Zone (CTR)
d. Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)

13- What is “ATZ”?

a. Aerodrome traffic zone

b. Control zone
c. Terminal manoeuvring area

14- Where control zones are normally established?

a. Around general flying areas
b. Around aerodromes
c. Next to airways
d. Above TMAs

15- Aerodrome traffic zone?

a. An airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the

protection of aerodrome traffic.
b. A control airspace surrounding a major airport with a high volume of traffic.
a. Airspace of defined dimension which extend upward from a specified altitude
or flight level to an upper limit, usually a flight level.

16- Which of the following airspaces require clearance prior to entering? CTR,
CTA, TMA, FAD, FAR
a. FAD,CTR,CTA
b. FAR,FAD,TMA
c. CTR,CTA,TMA
17- Aerodrome control shall be responsible for issuing information and
instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve:
a. An advisory service to VFR, IFR and SVFR flights
b. An advisory service only for IFR flights
c. A SVFR service by day and by night
d. A safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic

18- Which of the follow does not refer to controlled airspace?

a. ATA
b. TMA
c. CTR
d. ATZ

19- Which airspace only allows IFR flights?

a. Class G
b. Class C
c. Class F
d. Class A

20- Which of these is a controlled area go for A?

a. The airspaces above 20 000ft

b. Airspace below 10000ft
c. Airspace below 1000 ft.

21- Which of the following would be classified as class C airspace?

a. All controlled airspace above FL 2OOft

b. All uncontrolled airspace below FL 2OOft
c. All controlled airspace below FL 2OOft

22- What is the highest level available for a VFR flight?

a. FL210
b. FL200
c. FL190
d. FL195
e. FL205
23- Which airspace has the following separation rules?

a. Class F
b. Class C
c. Class G

24- What class of airspace are TMA's classified as?

a. Class C
b. Class F
c. Class G
d. Class E
e. Class A
f. Class B
g. Class D

25- Which type of airspace do the following rules apply to?

1. IFR and VFR flights are permitted
2. All flights are subject to air traffic control service
3. IFR flights are separated from both IFR and VFR flights
4. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect to other VFR flights
a. Class C
b. Class B
c. Class E
d. Class F
e. Class D
f. Class A

26- What type of airspace has the following description?: "Air traffic airspace
where both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control and all flights are separated from each other except for VFR to
VFR flights, where ATC provide traffic information."
a. Class D airspace
b. Class A airspace
c. Class C airspace
d. Class B airspace
27- What class of airspace has the following definition “an air traffic control
service is provided to all aircraft, IFR flights are separated from each other and
received traffic information on VFR flights. VFR flights received traffic
information on all other traffic”?

a. Class D
b. Class F
c. Class G.

28- Which airspace has the following separation rules?

“All traffic receives traffic information if requested”

a. Class F
b. Class C
c. Class G

29- In which of the following airspace will the ATC only provide information
service?

a. Class G and F
b. Class D
c. Class C and A.

30- Which of the following would be classified as Class F airspace?

a. Advisory routes
b. All controlled airspace below FL200
c. All controlled airspace FL200 and above
d. All information airspace

31- A requirement to fly through Class F airspace (e.g. an advisory route) is?

a. the airspace may only be used by night and the aircraft must be equipped
accordingly
b. the aircraft must be equipped with a radio capable of maintaining two way
communication
c. the aircraft must have a SELCAL unit installed
d. the aircraft may only navigate with the use of an approved GPS
32- South Africa doesn’t have?

a. Class B, A and E airspace.

b. Class C, D and F airspace.
c. Class B, D and E airspace. As the CAA exam

33- The definitions of “classes of airspace” within the republic can be found
in?

a. The AIP and SACARs

b. The AIP and NOTAMS
c. The AIP and AVIATION WEATHER

34- What would a general flying area be declared as?

a. FAP
b. FAA
c. FAR
d. FAD

35- What does FAD 127 stand for?

a. Dangerous area
b. prohibited area
c. Restricted area

36- What does FAD129 7500ALT represent?

a. Altitude
b. cloud base
c. flight level

37- What must you do when entering a general flying area?

a. Listen out for broadcasts, then when clear, broadcast your intentions
b. Listen out for broadcasts from other traffic
c. Request routing instructions from TIBA
d. Ask for permission for your intentions
e. Request routing instructions from the tower
38- Referring to the picture below FAD 129 has an upper limit of?

a. 7500ft AMSL
b. 7500ft AGL
c. FLO75

39- The designator FAR23 found on an aeronautical chart indicates?

a. a prohibited area
b. an airway
c. a restricted area
d. a danger area

40- Permission to enter a restricted area must be obtained from?

a. The police station

b. Any authority
c. The appropriate authority.

41-What type of airspace may only be entered with special permission?

a. Secure Controlled
b. Permitted
c. Restricted
d. Prohibited

42-Referring to the picture below, FAR 86 has an upper limit of?

a. 2135 ft AMSL
b. FL120
c. 12000 ft AMSL
d. 12000 ft AGL
43- Referring to the picture below FAR 82 has an upper limit of?

a. 10500 AGL
b. FL105
c. 10500 ALT

44- What is an FAP?

a. Prohibited area
b. Danger area
c. Danger area

45- FAP is airspace of defined dimensions within witch?

a. Flying is this area is permitted with permission

b. No civilian aircrafts is permitted to fly at any time under any circumstances
c. Flying in this area sometimes is permitted.

46- What type of airspace may never be entered?

a. Secure
b. Prohibited
c. Restricted
d. Controlled
e. Protected

47- May aircraft fly in prohibited area?

a. Yes
b. Yes, with permission
c. No

48- What is “AFIS”?

a. Aerodrome flight control

b. Aerodrome flight information organization
c. Aerodrome flight information service.
49- What is the function of an AFIS?

a. To give information
b. To maintain separation of traffic
c. To distribute weather information
d. To issue clearances

50- What is the function of an AFIS?

a. To give information and advice, they can issue clearance, decisions are made
by the pilot in command.
b. To give information and advice, they cannot issue clearance, decisions are
made by the pilot in command.
c. Its control airspace and they can issue clearance.

51- What does a Flight Information Service located at an Aerodrome (AFIS)

provide?
a. Information useful for all aircraft within 50 nm of the station.
b. Instructions to aircraft flying in the ATZ.
c. Control of all aircraft in the ATZ and information useful for all other aircraft
outside the ATZ.
d. Information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights in the ATZ.

52- What is the name of the airspace that AFIS operates in?

a. CTR
b. TMA
c. ATA

53- What type of information does AFIS provide?

a. Control
b. Ground
c. Advisory
d. Rada

54- Advisory services can give?

a. Information on other traffic

b. Radar separation
c. Weather forecasts
55- The route designator R987D found on an aeronautical chart indicates an?

a. TMA
b. CTA
c. Advisory route

56- When flying outside of Special Rules and below 1500 feet in uncontrolled
airspace, what frequency must be used to give position reports?

a. 120.4 MHz 121.5 MHz

b. 128.4 MHz
c. 124.2 MHz
d. 124.8 MHz

57- The abbreviation "PIB" stands for?

a. Prioritised Information Bulletin

b. Planned Information Bulletin
c. Pre-flight Information Bulletin
d. Pilot's Information Bulletin

58- What does AIP SUP stand for?

a. Aeronautical information publication

b. Aeronautical information circular
c. Aeronautical information publication supplement.

59- What does the code 'QDR' mean?

a. Compass bearing from a station.
b. Magnetic bearing from a station.
c. Compass bearing to a station.
d. True bearing from a station.
e. Magnetic bearing to a station.

60- What does 'QTE' mean?

a. Compass bearing from a station
b. Magnetic bearing to a station
c. Magnetic bearing from a station
d. True bearing from a station
e. True bearing to a station
 CHAPTER 2

FLIGHT RULES AND SEMI-CIRCULAR RULE

 QUESTIONS
61- What are the two types of flight rules?
a. VFR and VMC
b. VFR and IFR
c. IFR and IMC

62- The abbreviation "VFR" stands for?

a. Visual Following Rules
b. Visible Flight Rules
c. Variable Flight Rules
d. Visual Flight Rules

63- Which one of the following is correct?

a. You can use VFR in both VMC and IMC
b. You can use IMC in both VFR and IFR
c. You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC
d. You can use VMC in VFR

64- Select the correct statement?

a. A VFR pilot, flying on a true.
b. A VFR pilot, flying on a magnetic.
c. A VFR pilot, flying on a compass.
65- The semi-circular rule shall apply when flying at?
a. 1500ft AGL or above.
b. 1500ft AGL or below.
c. 500ft AGL

66- In which of the following instances does the semi-circular rule not apply?
a. Traffic flying VFR at a height of more than 1500 FT AGL.
b. Traffic flying VFR at a height of less than 1500 FT AGL.
c. Traffic flying IFR at a height of more than 1500 FT AGL.

67-Below FL 195 according to semi-circle rules IFR and VFR magnetic track is
250 have the minimum vertical?
a. 1500
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 2000

68- Select the correct statement?

a. FL075 is always equivalent to 7500 FT AGL
b. FL075 indicates the altitude of an aircraft in flight
c. A VFR pilot, flying on a magnetic track of 090° may elect to fly at FL075 to
conform to the semi-circular rule
d. An altitude of 7500 FT is indicated on an altimeter in flight when using the
standard altimeter setting of 1013.25 hPa.

69- AT which of the following flights levels could an aircraft flying VFR on a
magnetic track 270 fly according to semi-circular rule?
a. FL 095
b. FL 100
c. FL 080
d. FL 085

70- Which of the following is a VFR flight level?

a. FL205 FT
b. FL075
c. 5500
d. FL070
71- The semi-circular rule is based on an aircraft flying a?
a. Magnetic heading
b. Magnetic track
c. True track
d. True heading

72- What is the celling defined as?

a. Height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
20000, covering more than 4 octs.
b. Height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud above
20000, covering more than 4 octs.
c. Height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
2000, covering less than 4 octs.

73- The minimum visibility required for a VFR flight between 1000ft AGL and
FL100 by day?
a. 1500M
b. 5000M
c. 3000M
d. 1000M

74- What is the minimum ceiling for the VFR in a CTR?

a. 2000 FT
b. 500 FT
c. 1500 FT

75- What is the minimum visibility required for special VFR in an aeroplane?
a. 1500 M
b. 5000 M
c. 3000M

76- Special VFR can only be requested?

a. During day
b. During night
c. During day and night.

77- What is the minimum ceiling for SVFR in an aeroplane?

a. 1000 feet AGL
b. 1200 feet AGL
c. 1500 feet AGL
d. 600 feet AGL
78- Special VFR is only allowed with a/an?
a. TMA
b. ATZ
c. ATA
d. CTR

79- How much visibility do you require for VFR in a CTR / ATZ / ATA?
a. 25 km
b. 5 km
c. 10 km
d. 1 km

80- When flying 1500 ft. or higher, how you will indicate your intended height
on a flight plan?
a. Altitude
b. Flight level
c. Height.

81- What will a runway that has extensive patches of standing water that are
visible be described as?
a. Wet
b. Water patches
c. Flooded
d. Contaminated

82- What will a runway that has significant patches of visible water be
described as?
a. Contaminated
b. Water patches
c. Flooded
d. Wet

83- What does it mean if a runway reported to be “damp”?

a. The surface shows a change of colour due to dry surface.
b. The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.
c. The runway has extensive patches of water that are visible.
 CHAPTER 3

ALTIMETER SETTING PROCEDURES

The altimeter is a barometer which is calibrated to indicate altitude in feet rather than
atmospheric pressure in hectopascal (hPa). A drop of 1 hPa atmospheric pressure
corresponds to about 30 feet.

 Transition Altitude, layer and level

  Transition Altitude

 Transition level

 Transition layer

Refer to the airspace between the transition altitude and transition level.
 QUESTIONS
84- 1 hPa is roughly equivalent to?
a. 2 feet
b. 30 feet
c. 100 feet

85- The ISA standard atmospheric pressure is?

a. 1013.25 hpa.
b. 1003.25 hpa
c. 1000 hpa

86- Where is flight level zero?

a. Mean sea level
b. 1013.2 hPa pressure level
c. Ground level

87- What will the altimeter show when QNE is set?

a. Altitude
b. Height
c. Pressure Altitude
d. Elevation

88- An aircraft with the standard altimeter setting set in the subscale window,
will have its vertical position indicated as?
a. Height AGL
b. Altitude
c. Height AMSL
d. Flight level

89- Select the correct definition which refers to the standard setting of 1013.25
hPa?
a. The altimeter subscale setting in inches to obtain flight level
b. The altimeter subscale setting in hectopascals to obtain altitude
c. The altimeter subscale setting in hectopascals to obtain flight levels
d. The altimeter subscale setting in metres to obtain altitude
90- What does setting QFE indicated?
a. Height above airfield elevation
b. Altitude above mean sea level
c. Height above mean sea level.

91- while on the ground at an unmanned aerodrome, another aircraft request

the QNH, How could you find this out and give it to the aircraft?
a. Set your altimeter to the airfield elevation and read QNH on the subscale.
b. Set your altimeter to the airfield elevation and read QNE on the subscale.
c. Set your altimeter to the airfield elevation and read QFE on the subscale.

92- An aircraft with QNH setting set in the altimeter, will have its vertical
position indicated as?
a. Altitude above mean sea level
b. Height above airfield elevation
c. Altitude above airfield elevation

93- The vertical position of an aircraft, flying at 6000 ft above MSL with the
QNH set in the subscale window of the altimeter, is referred to as:
a. Elevation
b. Altitude
c. Flight level
d. Height above ground level

94- A student forgets to change from QNH to QNE. What will be broadcast to
the SSR?
a. Flight level
b. Height above ground
c. Altitude
 The transponder gets the altimeter reading from an encoding altimeter mounted behind the panel
and always transmits the flight level of the aircraft regardless of what is dialled into the normal
altimeter.

95- On what altimeter setting will you fly when at or below the transition
altitude?
a. QNE
b. QNH
c. QFE
96- On what altimeter setting will you fly at on or above the transition level?
a. QDR
b. QNE
c. QNH
d. QFE

97- The transition level at an aerodrome is always?

a. 1000 ft above the surface
b. Higher than the transition altitude
c. 2000 ft above the surface
d. Lower than the transition altitude

98- How high is the transition level above the transition altitude?
a. At least 1000 ft.
b. Less than 1000 ft.
c. At least 2000 ft.

99- How high is the transition level above the transition altitude?
a. 500 feet exactly
b. 500 feet or more
c. 1000 feet exactly
d. 1000 feet or more

100- When should you change from standard setting to QNH?

a. Climbing through the transition level
b. Descending through the transition level
c. Descending through the transition altitude

101-when should a pilot change the altimeter setting from local QNH to
1013.25?
a. On the climbing passing through the transition level for that area.
b. On the descending passing through the transition altitude for that area.
c. On the climbing passing through the transition altitude for that area.

102-In VMC, flights intending to land at a point beyond 25nm from any
aerodrome with a published transition altitude must observe a height of?
a. 2000 ft. as the transition altitude
b. 1000 ft. as the transition level
c. 3000 ft. as the transition level
103-What is the transition altitude is not published and further than 25NM from
control airspace?
a. 2000ft AGL
b. 3000 AGL
c. 1500 AGL

104-Transition level in VMC IS?

a. 2000ft above aerodrome elevation
b. 3000ft above mean sea level
c. 3000ft above aerodrome elevation.
 CHAPTER 4

FLIGHT PLANS
A Flight Plan is a coded description of the details of a particular flight, which is
provided to Air Traffic Service Units before the flight is commenced. It aids in traffic
planning and provides information in case Search and Rescue becomes necessary.

 The flight plan form

 QUESTIONS

105- Flight plan may be filled in by?

a. Telephone, fax or internet (File 2 fly .co.za)
b. post office
c. families only

106-The flight plan closed in uncontrolled airdrome when?

a. When you notify the ATC after landing
b. automatic after touch down
c. 5 minutes after landing.

107-Closing the flight plan in controlled area?

a. Immediately closed 5min after landing
b. 20 min after landing
c. 2 hours after landing

108- ETA is?

a. Estimated time of arrival
b. Estimated elapsed time
c. Estimated time of departure

109- IS the flight plan is require for a local flight?

a. Yes
b. No

110-How do you get UTC time from South African local time?
a. Subtract 2 hours from local time to obtain UTC
b. Subtract 2 hours from UTC to obtain LMT.

111-covert the following times from local South Africa to UTC, 17:00, 6PM,
4AM, 1PM, 12:30?
a. 15:00, 16:00, 02:00, 11:00, 10:30
b. 15:00, 18:00, 02:00, 11:00, 10:30
c. 15:00, 16:00, 14:00, 11:00, 10:30
112-Which mandatory item must be included in an ATS flight plan which is
filed prior to departure?

a. The route to be followed

b. The type of VHF radio in the equipment listing
c. The aircraft's indicated airspeed
d. The co-pilot's name

113-What does the transponder base its altitude information on?

a. Altitude above sea level
b. Height above ground level
c. What is indicated on the altimeter
d. Pressure altitude

114-How soon must a flight plan be filed when filed in flight?

a. 30 minutes before entering controlled or advisory airspace
b. 10 minutes before entering controlled or advisory airspace
c. 1 hour before entering controlled or advisory airspace

115-Prior to departure, an un-activated ATS flight plan will remain valid?

a. For 30 mins after the estimated time of departure
b. Indefinitely from the time of filing
c. Until the estimated time of departure
d. For 60 mins after the estimated time of departure

116- How soon must a domestic flight plan be filed when filed before
departure?
a. 30 minutes before departure
b. 60 minutes before departure
c. 10 minutes before departure
d. 45 minutes before departure
117-For which of the following must an ATS flight plan be filed?
a. All international flights
b. All local flights
c. All IFR and VFR flights
d. All training flights

118-How long before start must a flight plan be filed?

a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 10 minutes
119-IF the aircraft is flying from an uncontrolled airfield into a controlled with
no other controlled airspace being flown through, must a flight plan be filled
for the flight?
a. No
b. Yes
But if search and rescue is required a flight plan will be field.

120-A flight plan is compulsory when?

a. Search and rescue is required
b. Search and rescue is not require
c. Flight time more than 2 hours

121-When is it mandatory to file an ATS flight plan?

a. For a flight from an uncontrolled to a controlled aerodrome, remaining below
1500 feet AGL en-route
b. When conducting circuit training at a controlled aerodrome equipped with
radar
c. For a flight for which alerting action is required
d. or a solo student flying from a controlled aerodrome to the General flying area
and back

122-Any flight plan should be activated within?

a. 1 hour of departure time
b. 2 hour of departure time
c. 15 minutes of departure time

123-Info the ATC if there are changes in the flight plan during the flight?
a. GS changes by 5%
b. TAS change by 10%
c. TAS changes by 5%

124-Info the ATC if there are changes in the flight plan during the flight?
a. The time changes by 3min or more
b. time changes by 1 min
c. TAS changes by 3 % or less
125-An ATS flight plan needs to be amended in flight when?
a. The aircraft is off track
b. ETA changes by 3 minutes or more
c. TAS changes by 3% or more
d. TAS changes by 2% or less

126-While on a flight plan, upon arriving at a checkpoint you realize that you
are 5 minutes before your ETA, what should you do?
a. Advise ATC
b. Increase power to reach the next check point on time
c. Nothing
d. Reduce power to reach the next check point on time
127-An 'X' in 'Type of flight' on the flight plan form means?
a. Mercy flight
b. General Flight
c. Helicopter flight

128-In flight plan items 8 student pilot flying solo should?

a. S
b. G
c. F

129-The letter “G” entered into item 8 (type of flight) of an ATS flight plan?
a. General navigation
b. Scheduled air transport
c. Mercy flight

130-what do you enter on flight plan form in field 9 for aircraft if the aircraft
you are flying does not have a type indicator?
a. ZZZZ
b. TBN
c. SAR

131- Item 9 of an ATS flight plan requires the wake turbulence category of the
aircraft to be completed. Select the appropriate character for an aircraft
weighing 5701 kg?
a. H
b. M
c. J
d. L

132-Standard equipment “S” as entered in Item 10 of an ATS flight plan

represents which of the following?
a. VHF radio, transponder, ATZ and VOR
b. VHF radio, ILS, ADF and VOR
c. VHF radio, ILS, DME and VOR
d. VHF radio, transponder and VOR

133-Your aircraft is equipped with a VHF radio and mode C transponder but no
VOR, select the correct option of how this be entered into the equipment field
(item 10) of the ATS flight plan?
a. V/C
 b. S/C
c. C/V
134-What must be entered into item 13 (departure aerodrome and time) of an
ICAO flight plan form?
a. Take-off time in UTC
b. Off-block time in local time
c. Off-block time in UTC

135-Item 13 of an ATS flight plan requires the ETD (estimated time of

departure) to be completed. The value entered in this field is based on?
a. Bravo time
b. Local time
c. UTC

136-In flight plan items 15 the cruising airspeed used by?

a. TAS
b. IAS
c. CAS

137- When completing an ATS flight plan, Item 15 requires the cruising speed
to be completed. To indicate this speed in knots, which character must be
inserted?
a. K
b. O
c. N

138-When the number of passengers for your flight is not yet known at the
time of filing an ATS flight plan, which designator should you place in Item 19
(persons on board)?
a. NYK
b. TBA
c. TBN
139-The equipment on board is: VHF, RT/F, VOR, ILS and mode C transponder,
what would you put on the flight plan under equipment?
a. V/C
b. S/C
c. V/S
CHAPTER 5

CODES AND SIGNALS

 Phonetic Alphabet
Pilots must learn the phonetic alphabet below before attempting to use the radio
installation in an aircraft.

 Numerals
The decimal point is pronounced as
day-see-mal.

Examples:
- 550 m - runway length fife fife
zeroh metres
- 2000' - altitude too tousand feet
- 3500m - visibility tree tousand fife
hundred metres
- 15 000' - cloud height wun fife
tousand feet.
- 200 Flight Level too hundred

- 1 18.900 - wun wun ait dayseemal

niner
- 120.050 - wun too zeroh dayseemal zeroh fife.

- 3900 over the radio tree tousand niner hundred

 Questions
140-How should the following numbers be pronounced when transmitted over
the radio: 2001 11346
a. Too zero zero wun, elevent thousand tree hundred and fower six
b. Too thousand and wun, wun wun tree fower six
c. Too double zero wun, wun wun tree fower six
d. Too zero zero wun, wun wun tree fower six

141-How would a frequency of 127.75 be pronounced?

a. WUN TWO SEVEN POINT SEVEN FIFE
b. WUN TWO SEVEN SEVEN FIFE
c. ONE TWO SEVEN DECIMAL SEVEN FIVE
d. WUN TWO SEVEN DAYSEEMAL SEVEN FIFE

142-How should the frequency of 125.8 MHZ be pronounced?

a. Won Too FIFE DAYSEEMAL AIT.

b. Won Tow FIFE DAYSEEMAL AIT.
c. Won Too FIVE POINT AIT.

143-How would a QNH of 989 hpa be used over the radio?

a. NINE AIT NINE

b. NINER AIT NINER.
c. NINER EIGHT NINER

144-How would you pronounce '3900' over the radio?

a. TREE TOUSAND NINER HUNDRED
b. THREE THOUSAND NINE HUNDRED
c. THREE NINER ZERO ZERO
d. THREE NINER HUNDRED

145-In the phonetic alphabet Q and U stand for?

a. Quebec and Uniform.

b. Kilo and Uniform
c. Québec and Unit
 Test procedures
o The following readability scale shall be used:
 1 unreadable
 2 readable now and then
 3 readable, but with difficulty
 4 readable
 5 perfectly readable

146-What is the correct phraseology to use when making a radio transmission

for test purposes?
a. radio check
b. testing 1-2-3
c. confirm transmission received
d. How do you read?

147-What quality would a strength 1 transmission be?

a. Unreadable
b. Perfectly
c. readable
d. Readable with difficulty

148-what does “strength 2” in response to a radio check mean?

a. Readable now and then

b. Readable with difficulty
c. Perfectly readable
d. Unreadable

149-What quality would a strength 3 transmission be?

a. Unreadable
b. Perfectly readable
c. Readable with difficulty

150-What quality would a strength 5 transmission be?

a. Readable with difficulty

b. Perfectly readable
c. Unreadable
 151-Select the correct transmission by a pilot when establishing initial contact
with ATC to request their joining instructions:
a. Tower, ABC on the return,
b. Tower, ABC good day again
c. Tower, ZS-ABC
d. Tower, this is ABC, good day

152-Under what condition may a pilot abbreviate his or her call sign when
speaking to a controller?

a. If the controller has last call sign and there is no ambiguity with another call
sign.
b. If the controller has first call sign and there is ambiguity with another call sign.
c. If the controller has first call sign and there is no ambiguity with another call
sign.

153-What is the call-sign for the 'Area Control Centre' unit or service?
a. Area
b. Centre
c. Control

 Signals to air traffic

The following signals may be used for communication between ground and aircraft
or between aircraft in flight.
 Ground signals
154-A white dumbbell displayed in a signal area at an airfield means?

a. Aircraft may only use the runways and taxiways

b. Aircraft may only use the taxiways
c. Aircraft may only use the runways

155-What does a horizontal white or orange T indicate?

a. The take-off and landing direction, which is along the bar towards the
crossbar
b. Which runway is in use
c. The direction of the wind, which is along the bar towards the crossbar
 156-A white cross at the threshold of a runway means?

a. Runway unsafe to use

b. Runway safe to use
c. Aircraft may only use the runways

 Marshalling signals

At larger airports an arriving aircraft will often be parked by Apron Services through
signals from a marshaller. Pilots must understand and follow these signals. The
most important ones for small aircraft are given below.

157-IF a marshalled has his arms extended, bent at the elbows and is moving
them up and down from chest height to head height it means?

a. Move straight ahead

b. Park at this pay
c. Cut the engine.

158-IF a marshalled has his arms above his ahead in a vertical position it
means?

a. Move straight ahead

b. Turn cut the engine
c. Park in this pay.
  Light signals
In case of radio failure

the following light signals

may be used to direct
aircraft on or around

an airfield, in flight or
on the ground.

159-What does a series of red flashes to an aircraft in the air mean?

a. Continue circling, landing clearance will be given shortly

b. Do not land for the time being
c. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

160-What does series white flashes to an aircraft in the air mean?

a. Land at this aerodrome.

b. Aerodrome unsafe do not land.
c. Return to the starting point of the aerodrome.

 Interception signals

161-If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the right
you, it means?

a. Follow me away from a prohibited area

b. Follow me away from a protected area
c. Follow me to landing terrain.
162-If intercepted by another aircraft that is rocking its wings and to the left
you, it means?

a. Follow me away from a prohibited area

b. Follow me away from a protected area
c. Follow me to a landing terrain
 Categories of messages
The following categories of messages are given in order of priority:
1. Distress messages (prefix MAYDAY)
2. Urgency messages (prefix PAN)
3. Direction finding
4. Flight safety messages
5. Meteorological messages
6. Flight regularity messages, which are communications between operating
agency (Charter Company) about changes in flight schedules, spare parts
required etc.

163-Which of the following answers are the correct with regards to the order of
priority for aeronautical messages?

a. Messages relating to direction finding take precedence over meteorological

messages.
b. Flight safety messages take precedence over urgency messages.
c. Flight regulatory messages take precedence over urgency messages.

164-What is the order of priority for radio telephone messages?

a. Distress, Urgency, Direction finding and Flight safety

b. Distress, Flight safety, Urgency and Direction finding
c. Urgency, Distress, Flight safety and Direction finding
d. Flight safety, Distress, Urgency and Direction finding

165-Select the correct order of priority (most to least) for the categories of
messages below?

1. Flight regularity messages

2. Meteorological messages
3. Flight safety messages

4. Direction finding communication

5. Urgency messages

6. Distress messages
a. 6, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4
 Airspeed restrictions

166-NO aircraft shall under FL100 at a speed?

a. Of more than 250kts

b. Of more than 300kts
Note: if is reciprocating Engine 160kts.
CHAPTER 6

PRACTICAL COMMUNICATIONS

 ATIS Broadcast
 QUESTIONS

167-What is an ATIS?
a. A recorded broadcast message
b. The weather service branch of ATC
c. A warning to pilots in hazardous airspace

168-What is the time given in an ATIS broadcast?

a. Local wrong
b. Alpha Time
c. Bravo Time
d. UTC

169-What abbreviation is given to the automated recording that provides

aerodrome operational information and meteorological information for
departing and arriving traffic?

a. SIGMET
b. VOLMET
c. ATIS
d. AFIS

170-What is an ATIS?
a. An air traffic control unit that operates at busier aerodromes
b. A specialised radio navigation aid
c. The standard name for broadcasts by aircraft in uncontrolled airspace
d. A continuous broadcast of recorded non-control aeronautical information

 Reporting points
In the airfield, the compulsory reporting points are: Downwind and final.
 171-The report point or the mandatory reporting point in the circuit in
controlled aerodrome?

a. Downwind, base and final approach

b. Downwind and base
c. Downwind and final approach
d. Upwind, downwind, base and final approach

 Phraseology
Standard words
Whenever possible the standard words and phrases given below should be used.
This makes communications easier, prevents misunderstandings and keeps talk
over the radio short and precise.

172-What is the difference between 'confirm' and 'affirm'?

a. They have the same meaning
b. Confirm means no and affirm means yes
c. Confirm is asking a yes or no question, affirm means yes
d. Affirm is asking a yes or no question, confirm means yes

173-The word AFFIRM means?

a. I am in agreement with the requesting transmission

b. Permission is granted
c. I am correcting an error in my own transmission

174- What is the meaning of the phrase 'Confirm'?

a. Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
b. Have I correctly received the following...? Or did you correctly receive the
message?
c. Yes

175-The term “CONFIRM” used in radiotelephony is best described as

meaning that?
a. I have traffic in sight
b. I require the transmitting party to repeat part of their last transmission
c. I am in agreement with the transmitting party
d. I wish to verify the last transmission or instruction from the transmitting party
176-What is the standard phraseology used when you fix an error in a
transmission?
a. Never mind
b. Correction
c. Disregard
d. Error

177-The term “CORRECTION” used in radiotelephony is best described as

meaning that:
a. I am correcting an error in my filed ATS flight plan
b. I am correcting an error in my previous transmission
c. I am correcting an error in the transmitting party's last transmission
d. I am correcting an error in my own transmission

178-What does 'expedite' mean?

a. Turn through 360°
b. Return for landing
c. Hurry up
d. Stay where you are

179-What is the meaning of the phrase 'Stand By'?

a. Continue circling
b. Hold over your current position
c. Wait and I will call you
d. Wait at the holding point

180-What is the meaning of the phrase 'Go Ahead'?

a. Proceed with your message
b. Cleared to taxi / take-off
c. Cleared to next waypoint

181-Why should a student pilot prefix their radio calls with the words
'student'?
a. To alert ATC and other aircraft that the aircraft making the call is on an
instruction flight.
b. To alert ATC and other aircraft that the aircraft making the call could perform
manoeuvres not normally required for normal flying for training purposes.
c. To alert ATC and other aircraft that the person making the call is a student
pilot flying solo.
182-What does 'Line up and wait' mean?

a. Start the take-off role but do not lift off

b. Taxi onto the runway and wait for further instructions
c. Take off and wait for further instructions before take off

183-When an aircraft has been cleared to backtrack, it means that the aircraft
is cleared to:
a. Taxi on the active runway in the opposite direction to that used for landing and
taking-off
b. Reverse track and return to the point of departure
c. Fly the ILS back-course beam approach
d. Turn around and return to the starting area at the aerodrome

184-What is the standard phraseology to indicate that your message should be

ignored?
a. Disregard
b. Break
c. Break Break
d. Cancel

185-What does it mean to 'orbit'?

a. Turn through 360°

b. Hurry up
c. Stay where you are

186-What does “HOLD YOUR POSSITION” means?

a. Take another position

b. Stay where you are
c. Stop before reaching a certain point
 187-If you don't hear a radio call properly, what should you say?
a. "Say again"
b. "Break break"
c. "Copy that"
d. "Repeat"
e. "Break"

188-What does it mean if ATC asks you to monitor a frequency?

a. Listen out on the frequency

b. Continue listening on the frequency
c. Change the frequency and report your position.

189-What should you do if you are told to change frequency and monitor
120.4?

a. Turn into 120.4 and report your position

b. Turn into 120.4 and listen out
c. Stay the frequency you are.

190-On aeroplane with the call sign ZS-ABC is at the holding point and wants
to tell the ATC know that he is ready to take off what would the correct radio
call?

a. Zulu Sierra Alpha Bravo Charlie, ready.

b. Ready, Zulu Sierra Alpha Bravo Charlie, Tower.
c. Tower, Zulu Sierra Alpha Bravo Charlie, ready.

191-What should the pilot-in-command do if air traffic control gives an

instruction or clearance that he or she feels is inappropriate?
a. Follow the instruction or clearance, but file a report after landing.
b. Request an amended instruction or clearance
c. Ignore the instruction or clearance
d. Accept that air traffic control are in charge, and follow the instruction or
clearance.

 TIBA (Traffic Information Broadcast by Aircraft)

When an aircraft is not in contact with an ATSU, pilots must broadcast their position
and intentions on specific frequencies to ensure separation and avoid mid-air
collisions. This is called Traffic Information Broadcasts by Aircraft (TIBA).
 192-What does TIBA stand for?

a. Traffic information broadcast by the tower.

b. Traffic information broadcast by aircraft.
c. Traffic information broadcast by radar.

 Standard procedures at uncontrolled airfields

Direction of standard circuit is left.
Direction of non-standard circuit is right.
The height the pilot should overfly an aerodrome “uncontrolled” when executing a
standard overhead join is 2000ft AGL.

Right and left hand circuit

193-What is direction of a standard circuit?

a. Left
b. Right
c. Depends on the airfield surroundings
 194-What is the direction of a non-standard circuit?
a. Right
b. It depends on the airfield surroundings
c. Left

195-At what height should you overfly an aerodrome “uncontrolled” when

executing a standard overhead join?

a. 1500 ft AGL
b. 2000 ft AGL
c. 3000 ft AGL
d. 1000 ft AGL

 Transponder
The transponder codes are:
 7500 = interference, e.g. hijack or other act of violence
 7600 = Communications failure, radio failure
 7700 = Emergency, aircraft emergency
When you are setting a new squawk code, you should first set the transponder
to standby.

IDENT function of the transponder to make the aircraft blip on the radar screen
brighter for a short time.
Radar identified means you are identified on their screen.

196-What does the IDENT function of the transponder do?

a. Make the aircraft blip on the radar screen brighter for a short time.
b. Make the aircraft blip on the radar screen brighter for a long time.
c. Doesn’t do anything.
 197-Radar identified means?

a. You are identified on their screen

b. You are no longer provided with radar control service
c. Dial given code into transponder and switch it on.

198-What is the squawk if the radio fails?

a. 7700
b. 7500
c. 7600

199-When you are setting a new squawk code, you should first?

a. Notify ATC
b. Set the transponder to standby
c. Turn the alternator off

200-What transponder code for interference?

a. 7500
b. 7600
c. 7700

201-What SSR transponder code should be set if an emergency arises and you
are not in communication with an ATSU?

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

 Other information
202-Whilst flying in controlled airspace, all aircraft must:
a. Turn the radio volume down to decrease background noise when other
aircraft communicate with ATC
b. Maintain a continuous radio watch
c. Not transmit unless permission is obtained
d. Exchange readability checks with ATC at 30 minute intervals
203-Do you have to read back wind speed and direction when replying to an
ATC clearance?

a. NO
b. YES
204-In what direction is the wind related to when its direction is given from the
tower?

a. Magnetic
b. Compass
c. True
205-Choose the correct order?

a. Aviate - Navigate - Communicate

b. Communicate - Aviate - Navigate
c. Navigate - Aviate - Communicate
CHAPTER 7

RADIO
 Radio technical

206-What does VHF stand for?

a. Very High Frequency

b. very low frequency
c. Very high volt
207-A VHF radio signals range will?
a. Be unaffected by altitude
b. Increase with altitude
c. Decrease with altitude
208-Factor affecting the range of VHF?

a. Altitude
b. Antennae
c. Thunderstorm
d. Mountain
 209-What is the range of a VHF radio signal?

a. 100 nm
b. 50 nm
c. 200 nm
d. Line of sight

210-Select the correct statement regarding VHF propagation?

a. VHF range is better over the ocean than over land

b. The range of a VHF transmission increases at night
c. VHF range is limited by line of sight
d. The frequency used for a VHF transmission during the night should be half of
the frequency used during the day

211-The VHF RT/F band is:

a. 87.5 to 108.0 MHZ
b. 108
c. 118.137 MHZ.

212-what is the frequency range for a VHF radio?

a. 3 MHZ – 30 MHZ
b. 30 MHZ – 300 GHZ
c. 30 MHZ – 300 MHZ

 The radio failure procedures

213-A common mistake made by pilots when assuming radio failure is that?

a. The incorrect beacon is selected for VHF communication

b. They do not check if the speaker or headset volume is turned up
c. They climb to a higher altitude
d. They believe their cell phones are blocking the frequency

214-In an attempt to correct a suspected radio failure, a pilot should check?

a. The pitot/static system, POH and that the ignition switch is ON

b. For interference from cellular phones and GPS
c. The appropriate frequency charts, POH and that the ignition switch is ON
d. The volume control, selected frequency and aircraft electrical system

215- If you have a radio failure in the general flying area, which of the following
options would you do?
a. Broadcast blind, squawk 7600, return to the field from where you took off,
enter the circuit and land
b. Broadcast blind, squawk 7600, route to the nearest airfield, enter the circuit
and land
c. Leave controlled airspace, broadcast blind, squawk 7600, and land at a
suitable airfield

216-A pilot on a VFR cross country flight to a controlled aerodrome

experiences radio failure outside of controlled airspace, unless otherwise
published in AIP the pilot should?

a. Remain clear of controlled airspace and land at an unmanned aerodrome

b. Remain clear of controlled airspace and land at a manned aerodrome
c. Broadcast blind, squawk 7700, and land at a suitable airfield.

217-If you lose radio communications, how many times must you transmit
'blind' transmissions?
a. Once
b. Twice

218-If an aircraft is already in the circuit and suffers from a radio failure, may it
land?
a. Yes, with permission
b. Yes
c. No
CHAPTER 8

EMERGENCY COMMUNICATIONS

 Distress
Distress is defined as a situation in which an aircraft is in serious or imminent
danger and in need of immediate assistance. A distress situation is, for example,
an engine fire in flight or an engine failure in a single engine aircraft.
Content of the message

1. the word MAYDAY spoken three times

2. the station addressed
3. the identification of the aircraft
4. the nature of the distress
5. the intention of the pilot
6. present position, altitude and heading
7. any other useful information

 Urgency
Urgency is defined as a situation concerning the safety of an aircraft, ship or
other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not
require immediate assistance. An urgency situation might be an engine failure
with a suitable forced landing field in sight and a chance of landing relatively
safely.
Content of the message

1. the word PAN spoken three times

2. the station addressed
3. the identification of the aircraft
4. the nature of the distress
5. the intention of the pilot
6. present position, altitude and heading
7. any other useful information
 QUESTIONS
119-What is a 'distress' condition?

a. A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vessel, vehicle, or person on

board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
b. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and/or
requiring immediate assistance
c. A condition of high stress and possible danger due to being uncertain of your
position or lost.

220-What is the 'distress' signal?

a. PAN-PAN-PAN
b. SOS-SOS-SOS
c. DISTRESS-DISTRESS-DISTRESS
d. MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

221-What actions should you take if you experience an emergency after having
already established radio contract with an air traffic service unit?
a. Make a distress call on the frequency and set the transponder code of 7500
b. Make a distress call on 121.5 MHz and maintain your assigned transponder
code.
c. Make a distress call on the frequency and maintain your assigned
transponder code.
d. Make an urgency call on the frequency and maintain your assigned
transponder code.

222-What is an 'urgency' condition?

a. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and/or

requiring immediate assistance.
b. A condition of high stress and possible danger due to being uncertain of your
position or lost.
c. A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vessel, vehicle, or person on
board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

223-How should an Urgency message be initiated?

a. Mayday x 3
b. Panic x 3
c. Pan x 3
d. SOS x 3
224-While on a cross country flight, you notice that the oil pressure is
dropping and the oil temperature is rising and elect to do a precautionary
landing. What would you precede your radio call with?
a. PAN PAN PAN
b. SOS SOS SOS
c. EMERGENCY EMERGENCY EMERGENCY
d. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY

225-Select the appropriate content of an Urgency message from the list below:
1. The word MAYDAY spoken 3 times
2. The word PAN spoken 3 times
3. The station addressed
4. The identification of the aircraft
5. The nature of the urgency condition
6. The intention of the pilot
7. Present position, altitude and heading
8. Any other useful information
a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8
b. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
c. 2,3,4,6,5,7,8
d. 1,3,4,5,6,7,8

226-In what order should the information in an emergency message be

transmitted?

a. Nature of emergency Intentions Type of aircraft Position

b. Flight level or altitude and heading Nature of emergency any other useful
information.
c. Call-sign Type of aircraft Nature of emergency Intentions Position
CHAPTER 9

SEARCH AND RESCUE

 Flights subjects to search and rescue

SAR / NORMAL can only be specified when the destination is a controlled
airfield.
SAR starts when 5 minutes overdue at reporting points.
SAR / NIL can only be specified if the destination is an uncontrolled airfield.

 Search and rescue phases

 Uncertainty phase (INCERFA)
INCERFA will be declared if uncertainty exists as to the safety of
an aircraft.

 Alert phase (ALERFA)

ALERFA will be declared if apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft.

 Distress phase (DETRESFA)

DETRESFA will be declared when there is reasonable certainty that an
aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or
require immediate assistance.

 Ground / Air emergency signalling code

For every flight of more than 20 nm obtainable from base a set of signal strips
must be carried, these are four strips of white material. In case of a forced
landing, when a search aircraft flies overhead but radio communications are not
possible, the strips can be used to lay out the following signals:
 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Emergency locator transmitter is a battery-
powered box installed in aircraft, it usually
activate automatically in case of high
deceleration (in other words: a crash), but
also can be manually activated by switch in
the cockpit.
The frequencies do emergency locator
transmit on: 121.5MHZ, 243MHZ, and
403MHZ.
 QUESTIONS
227-When can SAR/NIL be indicated in Item 18 (other information) of an ATS
Flight plan:
a. Only for local flights
b. Only when the destination is a controlled aerodrome
c. For any flight
d. Only when the destination is a uncontrolled aerodrome

228-When can SAR/NIL be indicated in item 18?

a. Only when the destination is an uncontrolled airspace

b. Only when the destination is a controlled airspace

229-SAR/Normal:
a. Can be filed for all flights
b. Can only be filed for flights where the aircraft is equipped with an ELT
c. Can only be filed for flights where the destination is controlled

230-Can you get search and rescue without a flight plan?

a. Only if you ask ATC beforehand

b. No
c. Yes

231-When does search and rescue start when 'NORMAL' is specified on the
flight plan?
a. 3 minutes overdue
b. 15 minutes overdue
c. 10 minutes overdue
d. 5 minutes overdue

232-Select the 3 official Search and Rescue phases:

a. Initial, Uncertainty and distress phase
b. Initial, Alert and Distress phase
c. Distress, Missing and Search phase
d. Uncertainty, Alert and Distress phase
233-If you required assistance, what letter would you lay your signal strips to
look like?

a. M
b. H
c. V

234-According to the AIP, when shall a pilot report position?

a. At 5 minute intervals on all flights

b. When flying in uncontrolled airspace
c. At 30nm intervals along any route
d. When flying in controlled, advisory airspace or on a flight for which alerting
action is being provided

235-What does the emergency ground symbol 'X' mean?

a. Affirm
b. Need assistance
c. Proceed in this direction
d. Medical assistance needed.

236-What does the emergency ground symbol 'V' mean?

a. This way
b. Need medical assistance
c. Affirm
d. Need assistance
e. Negative
237-What frequencies do emergency locator beacons transmit on?

a. 121.5 MHz , 243 KHz and 403 MHz

b. 121.5 KHz, 243 KHz and 403 KHz
c. 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz and 403 MHz

238-Alerting service is provided by ATSU to all aircraft requiring?

a. Search and rescue
b. Need to fly
c. FL 100

Instructor pilot: Ebram Zekry