Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region V – Bicol
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE OF CAMARINES NORTE
JOSE PANGANIBAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Jose Panganiban, Camarines Norte

4TH QUARTER SUMMATIVE TEST

GRADE 8 - SCIENCE
Directions: Read and analyze the following questions below. Choose the best answer and shade
the letter of your choice on your answer sheet.

1. Which mechanical process in the mouth makes food easier to swallow and increase the surface
area available for enzyme action?
A. Biting B. Chewing C. Slicing D. Tearing
2. The digestion of food starts in the ______________.
A. Mouth B. Liver C. Small intestine D. Large intestine
3. Bile which emulsifies fat is stored and concentrated at
A. liver B. pancreas C. gall bladder D. small intestine
4. The movement of digested products, vitamins and water across the intestinal wall and into the
blood vessels is called____________.
A. Ingestion B. Absorption C. Digestion D. Secretion
5. What organ is primarily responsible for water absorption?
A. pancreas B. esophagus C. large intestine D. stomach
6. Our throat divides into two separate tubes: the windpipe and the gullet. What prevents food
from entering the windpipe?
A. tongue B. trachea C. epiglottis D. pharynx
7. Digestion takes place in a long tube-like canal called the alimentary canal, or the digestive tract.
Food travels through these organs in the following order:
A. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and rectum
B. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, and rectum
C. Mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine and rectum
D. Mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, and rectum
8. Why is egestion process important?
A. It reduces the nutrients in the body
B. It increases the nutrients in the body
C. It removes digested material in the body
D. It removes solid undigested waste material in the body.
9. How does digested food finally reach the bloodstream?
A. It is absorbed into the blood through the walls of the lungs
B. It passes from the small intestine into the large intestine, then into the blood
C. It is absorbed in the blood through the blood vessels located in small intestine
D. It is absorbed into the blood through the walls of the stomach and small intestine
10. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of processes in digestive system?
I. Digestion II. Egestion III. Ingestion IV. Absorption
A. I-II-III-IV B. III-II-I-IV C. III-I-IV-II D. I-II-IV-II
11. In somatic cell cycle, DNA replication takes place during ________.
A. G1 phase B. G2 phase C. S phase D. prophase of mitosis
12. Where does meiosis take place?
A. Brain cells B. Skin cells C. Reproductive cells D. Roots and Stem
13. What are the products of mitosis?
A. 2 diploid daughter cells C. 2 haploid daughter cells
B. 4 diploid daughter cells D. 4 haploid daughter cells
14. Gap 1, Synthesis, and Gap 2 Phases are collectively known as_____________.
A. M phase B. Interphase C. Cytokinesis D. Cell Cycle
15. What significant event happens during prophase I of meiosis?
A. Formation of cleavage furrow
B. Homologous chromosomes align at the center
C. Pairing of homologous chromosome and crossing over
D. Homologous chromosomes separate and move towards the opposite ends of the cell
16. Which of the following describes anaphase stage?
A. Nucleolus is still visible.
B. Nuclear envelope and nucleolus reappear
C. Sister chromatids are aligning at the center.
D. Each pair of centrioles moves to the opposite poles.
17. If a parent has 6 chromosomes at the start of interphase, how many chromosomes will each
daughter cell eventually have at the end of mitosis?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12
18. Which figure below of a plant cell shows early prophase stage of mitosis?

A. B. C. D.

19. Humans contain 23 pairs of chromosomes in their body cells. In sex cells undergoing meiosis I,
we expect that the 2 daughter cells would contain _____ chromosomes, and after meiosis II ______
chromosomes.
A. 23, 23 B. 12, 12 C. 23, 12 D. 46, 46
20. How does the number of chromosomes in a sex cell compare to the number in the original cell
before meiosis?
A. The same number of chromosomes with the original cell.
B. It doubles the number of chromosomes of the original cell.
C. It has more than the chromosomes number of the original cell.
D. Sex cell has half the number of chromosomes with the original cell.
For Q21, refer to the table below
Difference Mitosis Meiosis
No. of daughter cells 2 ?
Chromosomes number 2N ?
21. What information can be provided in the table?
A. 2 – N or haploid B. 4 – N or haploid C. 2 – 2N or haploid D. 4 – 2N or diploid
22. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of stages in meiosis?

I III III IV V VI VII VIII

A. III, V, I, VII, II, IV, VIII, VI B. III, I, V, VII, II, IV, VIII, VI
C. III, I, V, II, VII, VIII, IV, VI D. VI, VIII, IV, II, VII, V, I, III
23. When does pairing of the homologous chromosomes to form tetrad/synapsis occur in meiosis?
A. Diplotene B. Pachytene C. Zygotene D. Leptotene
24. Why is meiosis significant?
A. It produces identical cells
B. It occurs only in vegetative cells
C. There is doubling of DNA contents in the cell
D. It restores the original number of chromosomes after fertilization
25. It refers to the expression of the genetic makeup of an organism.
A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Dominant D. Recessive
26. An organism with two identical alleles for a trait is ____________.
 A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous C. Dominant D. Recessive
27. The chart use to determine possible contribution of genes among offspring given the genotypes
of the parents.
A. Gene chart B. Phenotypic Chart C. Punnett Square D. Heredity Chart
28. The factors that controls the appearance of traits.
A. Genes B. Alleles C. Inheritance D. Heredity
29. When the trait masked with other trait, it is said to be____________.
A. Recessive B. dominant C. homozygous D. heterozygous
30. Which of the following refers to the transfer of traits from the parent to the offspring?
A. genetics B. heredity C. variation D. evolution
31. The offspring of crosses between pure parents showing contrasting traits is ______.
A. F2 generation B. Hybrid C. Dominant D. Homozygous
32. A corn plant has a genotype of TtYy, how many possible combinations of genes be present in
its gametes?
A.4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
33. This law of Mendel states that alleles separate during gamete formation:
A. Law of multiple alleles B. Law of dominance
C. Law of independent assortment D. Law of segregation
34. Making a cross between heterozygous round tomatoes. It will produce a _____________.
A. ¼ homozygous round; ¼ heterozygous wrinkled.
B. ¼ homozygous round; ½ heterozygous round and ¼ homozygous wrinkled.
C. ½ homozygous round; ¼ heterozygous round and ¼ homozygous wrinkled.
D. ¼ homozygous round; ¼ heterozygous round and ½ homozygous wrinkled.
35. Crossing of hybrid organism result in offspring having 75% dominant trait and 25% recessive
trait. It explains that __.
A. Recessive trait does not disappear but it was only hidden
B. Dominant trait is always expressed
C .Recessive trait disappear
D. Both A and B
36. What is the resulting phenotype if a purpled flower (PP) pea plant is crossed in a white flower
pea plant (pp)?
A. All white B. All purple C. 3 purple, 1 white D. 2 purple, 2 white
37. From crossed Tt x tt, what is the possibility to have short pea plant if the dominant is tall?
A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
38. In human, brown eyes (B) is dominant over blue eyes (b). A man (Bb) and a woman (Bb) have
four children. Among these children, which genotypes represent brown eyes?
A. BB, Bb B. BB, bb C. Bb only D. Bb, bb
39. In guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant to brown hair (b) and short hair (H) is dominant to
long hair (h). A black, long-haired guinea pig is crossed with a brown, short-haired guinea pig.
What percentage of the offspring will be black with long hair?
A. 75% B. 25% C. 50% D. 12.5%

40. Below is a Punnett square showing a cross between two parents. Use this information to
respond to the question.
P generation: BB x bb
Complete dominance: B = black rat b = white rat
 If we were to cross the offspring in the Punnett square above (known as the F1 generation) what
will be the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2 generation?
A. Phenotypic ratio 3:1; genotypic ratio 1:2:1 B. Phenotypic ratio 1:2:1, genotypic ration 3:1
C. Phenotypic ratio 3:1, genotypic ration 3:1 D. Phenotypic ratio 1:2:1, genotypic ration 1:2:1
41. Which of the following pertains to species that is at risk of extinction?
A. Critically endangered B. endemic C. Endangered D. extinct
42. Among the following choices, which refers to species that no longer exist?
A. Critically endangered B. endemic C. Endangered D. extinct
43. It pertains to species that is extremely endangered
A. Critically endangered B. endemic C. Endangered D. extinct
44. There were several types of pollution, which is described by this situation? One community in
the town of Bulusan suffered from poor harvest of corn due to infertility of soil. Which affects the
given situation?
A. Air pollution B. soil pollution C. Noise pollution D. water pollution
45. What is Biodiversity?
A. It refers to abiotic factors in the environment.
B. It describes the varieties of life on earth
C. It refers to the rich population of one species.
D. It describes the environmental problems
46. This picture is a great example of ____________ biodiversity.
A. high B. low
C. moderate D. no
47. The distribution of species on the Earth is not even. The area around the equator is where the
most diverse plant species exist. This makes for the greatest biological diversity in ____________.
A. Tropical rainforest B. Tundra C. Deserts D. Grassland
48. Which of the following is NOT a cause of species decline resulting to low biodiversity?
A. Habitat destruction B. Overharvesting of resources
C. Population increase D. Increasing variations among species
49. All of the following statements are advantages of high biodiversity compared to low
biodiversity EXCEPT:
A. Less possibility of species extinction
B. Competition among organisms is greater
C. More shelter and water available to organism
D. Balance of producers, consumers and decomposers
50. A small marine area has phytoplankton as its only producer. Should the marine biologist be
concerned about this ecosystem?
A. No the fish do not need the phytoplankton. Since there are so many fish, there is high
biodiversity.
B. Yes, this ecosystem has low biodiversity. Without a producer the herbivores will die
out leaving no food.
C. Yes, this system has high biodiversity; however the fish can adapt and get food from
another source.
D. Yes, the fish will overate to get all of the phytoplankton that is left, then they will die.

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