2 Braet (croft ferent errr) fel wer, 2020 fore pe wee — TPH NS-3B-BOBA_FE-G-OOAM- lB ‘Number of Pages in Booklet : 24 ‘Question Paper Booklet No. Woon fiver a wei ats 150 oe No.of Questions in Booklet 180 438) Paper Code : 01 7400897 Sub: Mechanical Engg. Waa : 3.00 Bue « safer aia : 75 paper d Maximum Marks : 75 Time : 3.00 Hours wear gee we sat ae dee ater/aifereis do wt whet we where we ght et a fh sat wear grew at weve gies dar sifer tat om wre He sift | Fed wf fern aa véere stews 3 qo mews wea et 1 ter ghfter wea A ete eae A eet On opening the paper seal/polythene bag of the Question Paper Booklet the candidate should ensure that Question Paper Booklet No, of the Question Paper Booklet and Answer Sheet must be same. If there is any difference, candidate must obtain another Question Paper Booklet from Invigilator. Candidate himself shall be responsible for ensuring this. “wines aa hen 1 wih eat ae AP | INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES ) ‘Answer al questions. ‘wrong answer. 5. Each question has four altemative responses marked serially 183 1, 2, 3 4. You have to darken only one cirele or bubble indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL POINTPEN. 6. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the ‘Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue ball point pen only 7. 1/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be iucted for exch wrong answer. A wrong answer means an incorrect answer or more than one answers for any question. Leaving all the relevant circles or bubbles of any ‘question blank will not be considered as wrong answer. 8. Mobile Phone or any other electronic gadget in the examination hall is strictly prohibited. A candidate found with any of such objectionable material with him/her wil be strictly dealt as per rues 9. Please corretly fill your Roll Number in O.M.R. Sheet. ‘SMarks can be deducted for filling wrong of incomplete Roll Number ‘Warning : Ifa candidate is found copying or if any unauthorized ‘atefal is found in hisher possession, FLLR, would be lodged against hiner inthe Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted. Department may also debar him/her permanently ‘rom all future examination 1 2. wet ei ar ots wet 2, All questions carry equal marks. s.r wea a eae er Ae ee | 3, Only one answer is tobe given for ech question. 6. we aes 8 ho ea wf en ae | | Hft0% than one answers are marked it woud be weated as . es wer i ee dere are fed 1a Pr A: 1, 2, 3, 4 afer far er stone tah ae Pater wet at baer ew niet srr eer wh amo oe et ter vange te 8 ner we 6. MMR secon va te fer eee ca 1 ore om ‘ede ger aterd at apr ome A Sec. Frere wr sare eae oh trie Bt & rer a 7. ser meee ree ake 61/3 SOT MET | ee 8 ated arg see sree feather ow @ aw ame a Beet sh er a een at mane a are oie sree sae seh a ao | 8. stare ster wegen ix ax athe eet a mata phe cafes & 1 af fret anaet ore teh if atid aot 9. ey ston ae Aare sthcone. Sw we rau a 986 1 rere sre ph ater Aare weet § afte per tia eet matt, emer: aire he rere sept apt eagT or & ar za oT a ett sreficpe arent ot ot &, at se anal & fro ya Do not open this Test Booklet until you ar 1c JAUMEHigh speed steel (18-4-1) contains - Q) 1% Chromium (2) 18% Nickel (3) 18% Tungsten (4) 4% Vanadium Which of the following renders corrosion resistance in the stainless steel ? (1) Carbon (2) Manganese (3) Nickel (4) Chromium Cast iron possessing which one of the following metallographic structures is best suited for damping capacity in engineering applications ? (1) Excess cementite (2) Carbon in temper form G) Silicon carbide in flake structure (4). Spheroidal form of graphite Which of the following, is produced. from blast furnace ? (1) Cast iron (2) Wrought iron 3) Mild Steel (4) Pig iron |5, A. bar, having 1000 mm? cross- | sectional area, is subjected to axial | Joads as shown in the figure. What is | the value of stress in QR section 7 ee a aE a | Bae ed ns (1), 30 MPa Compressive (2) 30 MPa Tensile fe wi) ats Compressive | @) SOMPa Tensile 6... The Poisson ratio of a material which | | thas Young’s modulus of 120 GPa and | ghear modulus of 50 GPa, is \ qd) 0.1 (2) 02 | (3) 03 | @ 04 7, ‘The deformation of a bar under its own weight as compared to that when subjected to a direct axial load equal to its own weight will be (1) half (2) double (3) one fourth (4) the same 8, Materials which show direction dependent properties are called (1) Anisotropic (2) Isotropic (3) Viscoelastic (4) Homogeneous 2 0110. 1. o1 A steel rod, with all its surfaces free to deform, has young’s modulus ‘E’, Poisson’s ratio ‘v’, coefficient of thermal expansion ‘a’. If the rod is heated with ‘AT’ temperature rise, what is the pressure developed ? (1) -@ATE /(1-2v) (2) GATE -2v) 3) EaAT/3(1 -2¥) @) 0 uniformally For a cantilever, loaded as shown in figure, maximum shear force and maximum bending moments are — 1kN 1KN 2kNim, im, im 2m im (1) 4KN, 14 KN-m sagging (2) 4KN, 14 KN-m hogging (3) 6KN, 18 KN-m sagging (4) KN, 18 KN-m hogging ‘Thermal Strain, developed in a rod of length ‘1’ and temperature rise ‘AT’, is given by - (Where a. = Coefficient of Thermal Expansion; E = Young’s modulus) (1) aT (2) Bust? (@) EaAT ) Zero 12, 13, 14, In case of a beam of circular cross- section subjected to _ transverse loading, the maximum shear stress developed in the beam is greater than the average shear stress by (1) 10% (2) 25% @) 50% (4) 33% A twisting moment ‘T’ and Bending moment ‘M? ere acting on a circular shaft. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum bending stress ? (1) 2M/T (2) 27M (3) TM (4) 12M The most economical cross section for a component subjected to bending is (1) I section (2) square 3) circular (4) channel section15. 16, 17. If a beam is subjected to a constant bending moment along its length then the shear force will a) be maximum at the centre and zero at the ends (2) zero at the centre and maximum at the ends @) be zero at all sections along the beam 4) has a constant value everywhere along its length Ata Principal plane (1) Shear stress is zero (2) all stresses are zero (3) Normal stress is zero (4) Shear stress is maximum A circular shaft subjected to twisting moment results in maximum shear stress of 90 MPa. Then the maximum compressive stress in the material is (1) 130 MPa (2) 100 MPa (3) 80MPa (4) 90 MPa [18 A solid circular shaft, under pure 19. 20. torsion, develops maximum shear stress of 10 MPa on the surface. If the shaft diameter is halved, what will be the maximum shear stress developed corresponding to the same torque ? (1) 05 MPa (2) 40MPa (3) 20 MPa (4) 80 MPa ‘While transmitting the same power by a shaft, if its speed is reduced by half, what should be its new diameter if the maximum shear stress induced in the shaft remains same ? (1) (2) of the original diameter (2) (1/2) of the original diameter (3) twice of the original diameter (4) (2)! of the original diameter ‘A simply supported laterally loaded beam was found to deflect more than a specified Which of the following measures value. will reduce deflections ? a @) Increase the span of the beam Increase the area moment of inertia Magnitude of the load to be increased @B) (4) Select a different material having lesser modulus of elasticity21. 22, 23. on The equivalent length of a column having both ends fixed, is given by () IA2 (2) 2 (3) 20 ai Vertical columns of same material, height and weight have the same end conditions, Which cross-section will carry the maximum load ? (1) Solid circular section (2) Thin hollow circular section (3) I- section (4) Solid square section ‘A compression spring is made of music wire of 20 mm diameter having a shear strength and shear modulus of 600 MPa and 50 GPa respectively. The mean coil diameter is 20 mm, free Jength is 40 mm and number of active coils is 10, If the mean coil diameter is, reduced to 10 mm, the stiffness of the spring is approximately (1) Decreased by 2 times (2) Increased by 2 times (3) Decreased by 8 times (4) Increased by 8 times 24, 25. The number of independent clastic constants required to express the stress-strain relationship for a linearly elastic isotropic material is (1) one Q) two (3) three (4) four Which of the following is the inversion of double slides crank chain ? (1) Beam Engine (2) Elliptical Trammel (3). Watt’s indicator mechanism (4) Quick return mechanism The value of Rankine’s constant for mild steel is 1 () 9000 1 ) 7500 as ©) T6oo 4) 7562. 28, 29. A Hooke’s joint connects two (1) Parallel shafts (2) Non-parallel shafts (3) Non-paralle! & intersecting shafts (4) Non-parallel shafts non-intersecting The Davis steering gear fulfills the condition of correct gearing at (1) two positions (2) three positions (3) all positions (4) one position Which of the following statement is incorrect 2 (1) Grashof’s rule states that for a four bar sum of the planar crank-rocker mechanism, the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of the remaining two link lengths (2) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time (3) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device (4) Grueblet’s criterion assumes mobility ofa planar mechanism to be one. | 30. | a1. 32. Large military field guns which come to initial position after firing in shortest possible time are (1) Critically damped (2) Under damped (3) Over damped (4) Undamped At pitch point in a cam the pressure angle is (1) Maximum (2) Minimum (3) Zero (4) 90° In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on the tight and slack sides of band is given by (where p = Coefficient of friction between the blocks and the drum, @ = Semi-angle of each block subtending at the centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks) (1) T/T) = pO xn Q) TYT,= (He) @) TyT,= (1 -ptan)/ (1+ tan oy)" (4) Ty/T)=[(1 +p tan 6) / (1 -p tan 6)" on33. 34. 35. 36. on When the speed of the engine | 37. fluctuates continuously above and | below the mean speed then the governor is said to be : () Hunting (2) Stable (3) Unstable (4) Isochronous 38. A. governor which can not be isochronous (1) Watt (2) Porter | (3) Hartnell @) Hartung, Commonly used tooth profile in gears 3% used for power transmission is (1) acycloid (2) an involute | (3) anellipse (4) aparabola | ‘The size of cam depends on ® (1) Base circle i (2) Prime circle (3) Pitch circle (4) Pitch curve If the annular wheel of an epicyclic ~ gear train has 200 teeth and the planet wheel has 40 teeth, the number of teeth on the sun wheel is (1) 160 @) 120 @) 80 (4) 40 ‘The gears employed for connecting two non-intersecting and non parallel ie. non-coplanar shafts are (1) Bevel gears (2) Spiral gears (3) Mitre gears (4) Helical gears In which machine a flyweel is generally employed ? (1) Lathe (2) Electric motor (3) Punching machine (4) Gear box ‘A reverted gear train is one in which the output shaft and input shaft (J) are at right angles to each other (2) rotate in opposite directions (3) are codxial (4) are at an acute angle to each other41. A 2 ke, block is resting on a rough | 45. Which one of the following can surface with 0.1 coefficient of friction. | completely balance several masses A force of IN is applied to the block i revolving in different planes on a shaft 2 as shown in figure. The friction force is- (1) Two equal masses in any two (1) zero i planes Q) IN | (2) Two masses in any two planes G) L96N | (3) A single mass in one of the planes (4) 120N | of the revolving masses (4) A single mass in any one plane 42. Which of the bearings given below should not be subjected to a thrust load ? (1) Deep groove ball bearing 46. Which of the following in-line engines (2) Angular contact ball bearing working on four-stroke cycle is (3) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing | (1) 6 Cylinder engine | completely balanced inherently ? (4). Single row tapered roller bearing (2) 3.Cylinder engine (8) 4 Cylinder engine 43, Which of the following is not a friction clutch 2 @ 2Cylinder engine (1) Dise clutch 2) Cone clutch | 47. The maximum value of secondary (3) Jaw clutch unbalanced force as compared to the (4) Centrifugal clutch maximum — value of primary, j unbalanced force in reciprocating 44. In free vibrations, acceleration vector { engines is - leads the displacement vector by (1) Untimes (x : () xe | (2) ntimes Q) 16 j (3) 2n times (4) 2n/3 | (4) n? times48, In vibration isolation system, if af, = (2 49. Si. on then transmissibility will be q) >t Q) = @) <1 (4) zero In a vibrating system the spring has stiffness 32 N/m and the mass 2 kg. The system is having a damper whose coefficient of viscous damping is 8 N-S/m. The system i (1) Over damped system (2) Under damped system (3) Critical damped system (4) Undamped system Allowable stress in ductile materials is given by (1) Ultimate strength / factor of safety (2) Fracture strength / factor of safety (3) Yield strength / factor of safety (4) Elastic limit / factor of safety The gyroscopic effects due to rotating parts of an aircraft on a curved course depend on (1) Flight altitude (2) Flight velocity (3) Radius of the curve (4) Both (2) & (3) 52. 53. 54. A tension member of diameter d is designed with F..S. of 3. If the load and diameter are doubled F.0.S. will be (1) Reduced to half (2) Unchanged (3) Tripled (4) Doubled ‘A rod having cross-sectional area 100 x 10 m? is subjected to a tensile load. Based on the Tresca failure criterion, if the uniaxial yield stress of the material is 200 MPa, the failure load is : (1) 10KN (2) 20kN (3) 100kN (4) 200 kN For steels, the S-N considered to become flat at (1) 107 cycles (2) 10° cycles @) 103 cycles (4) Infinite cycles curves is When mild steel is subjected to tensile loading, the fracture will be of (1) Star Shape (2) Flattype (@) Cup-and cone shape (4) Granular shape56. 57. The ratio of Shear stresses of solid shaft (diameter ‘d’) to hollow shaft (internal diameter 3 > external diameter ‘d’) When subjected to same twisting moment 81 30 80 @ 26 og 27 4) 36 Which statement(s) is/are true ? L.A parabolic curve joining S, on the ordinate to S,, on the abscissa is called the Gerber line II. A straight line joining S, on the ordinate to S,, on the abscissa is called the soderberg line III. A straight line joining $, on the ordinate to S,, on the abscissa is called the Goodman line IV. A straight line joining S,, on the ordinate to S,, on the abscissa is called the limit on first cycle of stress. (1) Only Lis correct (2) 1, Wand Il are correct (3) 1, [land IV are correct (4) Alll four are correct. 58. 59. 60. A cold rolled steel shaft is designed on the basis of maximum shear stress theory. The Principal stresses induced at its critical section are 500 MPa and 50 MPa respectively. If the yield stress for the shaft material is 400 MPa, the factor of safety of the design is a) 3 Q4 G) 6 (4) 2 A flange coupling is used (1) for intersecting shafts (2) for collinear shafts (3) for small shaft rotating at slow speeds (4) for parallel shafts Maximum shear stress developed on the surface of a solid circular shaft under pure torsion is 320 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled, then what is the maximum shear stress developed corresponding to the same torque ? (1) 60 MPa (2) 120 MPa (@) 40MPa (4) 20MPa on61. 62. 63. on ‘A spring with 25 active coils cannot be accommodated within a given space Hence 5 coils of the spring are cut. What is the stiffness of the new spring? (1) Same as the original spring (2) 0.5 times the original spring (3) 0.8 times the original spring (4) 1.25 times the original spring ‘The longest leaf in Semi-elliptic leaf spring is known as (1) chief leaf (2) master leaf (3) major leaf (4) higher leat A closed coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load. The stress which is not produced in the wire of the spring is (1) Torsional shear stress (2). Compressive stress (3) Direct shear stress (4) Bending stress 64. | 66. 67. Fey ‘A multi disc clutch has ‘n,’ discs on the driving shaft and ‘n,’ dises on the driven shaft. The number of contact surfaces will be Q) m+n, (2) ny tny,+ 1 @) @ ny tn;-1 ny-n +1 In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and drum diameter is kept between (1) 0.1 to 0.25 (2) 0.25 to 0.50 ) 0.50 to 0.75 (4) 0.75 to 1.0 The heat generated in brake depends upon, Where P = intensity of normal pressure (N/mm?) ‘V = rubbing speed (nvmin) @ PV 2) PV @) Pv? (4) “Pv? In case of single plate new clutches and brakes, the friction radius is equal to , where D and d are outer and inner diameters of friction lining respectively. ® fO+068. Match -I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists ; List-I List-II | A. Ball Bearing 1. Carrying | both radial and thrust | loads B. Tapered 2. Self i roller Bearing aligning property C. Spherical 3.—Light Loads roller Bearing D. Needle roller 4. Heavy | Bearing loads with oscillatory motion Codes : A ¢ D | mi 2 3 4 (2) 3 1 2 4 3) 2 4 1 z (4) 4 3 2 1 | Bearing characteristic number is given by (1) ZNP | @® o ® | « | 2 70. 1. 2. A pair of Spur gears consists of a 20 teeth pinion meshing with a 120 teeth gear. The module is 4 mm, what will be the center distance ? (1) 560mm @) 140mm @) 700mm (4) 280 mm In metric system, the size of the gear tooth is specified by, (2) circular pitch (2) diametral pitch (3) module (4) pitch circle diameter If the load on a ball bearing is, halved, its life (1) Remains unchanged (2) Increases two times (3) Increases four times (A) Increases eight times on7. 74. 5. on The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress is for a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure. () 2:1 (2) 3:2 @ tt @) 1:2 [A thick cylinder with internal diameter and outside diameter 2d is subjected to internal pressure p. Then the maximum hoop stress developed in the cylinder is Gp @) @/3)p G3) (53)P (4) 2p of ‘D’ diameter, is subjected to an internal pressure of ‘P’. If the permissible A. thin cylinder internal tensile stress is 0, the cylinder wall thickness should be 20, @) pp PD 5, PD do, GB) PD 20, @) 13 16. 71. 78. 19. Organic binder used in moulding sand is (1) Dextrin (2) Bentonite (3) Kaolonite (4) Ball clay Permeability of green moulding sand indicates its (J) Green strength (2) Dry strength (3) Gas evolution capability (4) Moisture content The casting process that does not require a core to produce a hollow casting is (1) shell moulding (2) permanent mould casting (3) hot-chamber die casting (4) te centrifugal casting Draft allowance permits (1) easy withdrawal of cores (2) easy withdrawal of casting (3) easy ventilation of gases (4) easy withdrawal of pattern80. 81. 82. 83. Non-consumable electrode is employed in (1) Normal are welding (2) Submersed are welding 3) MIG Welding (4) TIG Welding In resistance seam welding, the electrode is in the form of a (1) cylinder (2) flat plate (3) coil of wire @) circular dise Drop forging is used to make parts in (1) open-impression dies that involves only upsetting operation (2) closed-impression dies that involves only upsetting operation (3) closed-impression dies. that involves only drawing out operation ) open-impression dies that involves only drawing out ‘operation The commonly used flux in brazing process is (1) Nacr (2) Lead @) Shag (4) Borax 14 84. 86. In the rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by a 2) @) @) reducing the roll diameter increasing the roll diameter providing back-up rolls increasing the friction between the rolls and the metal Discontinuous Chips are produced during machining of (1) mild steel (2) cast iron (3) high carbon steel (4) silicon steel The cutting speed for maximum profit rate should be chosen as (1) Below the speed for minimum cost (2) In between the speeds for minimum cost and maximum production rate (3) Equal to the speed for minimum cost (4) Higher than the speed for maximum production rate A disadvantage of cold working of metals is (1) maximum deformation that can be given is limited (2) dimensional accuracy obtained is less GB) 4 surface finish obtained is poor None of these on88. 89. 90. o1 The jig bush most commonly used in jigs is (1) Liner bush (2) Headless drill bush (3) Headed drill bush (4) Shaped drill bush ‘A diamond pin is used in conjunction with a round locator for radial location in a jig because (1) Diamond is harder material and hence has long life 2 two round locators are used 8) Diamond pin is less expensive to make (4) None of these Ina single point tuming operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a Taylor exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then the tool life will become (1) half (2) two times (3) eight times (4) sixteen times | 15 91. 92. i . | 93. Reduces jamming possibility if | 94. | Material used for lathe bed is (1) Cast iron (2) Cast steel (3) Mild steel (4) Wrought iron Which of the interference fit ? (1) Push fit (2) Running fit @) Sliding fit (4) Shrink fit following is an ‘A shaft having limits of size as 40.050 20 = 0.035 +0.000 as 20 + 0.025 and a hole with limits of size will have (1) Interference fit (2) Clearance fit (3) Transition fit (4) Cannot be determined To lock the lathe carriage and the lead serew for thread cutting operation, the mechanism used is (1) Half nut (2) Tail stock (3) Fly cutter (4) Full nut95. 97. In @ CNC milling operation, the tool | has to machine the circular are from point (20, 20) to (10, 10) at sequence number 5 of the CNC part program. If | the center of the arc is at (20, 10) and the machine has incremental mode of defining position coordinates, the correct tool path command is (1) N05 G90 Gol X-10 Y-10 R10 99, (2) N05 G91 G03 X-10 ¥-10 R10 @) N0sG90G03 x-20y-20R10 | (4) N05 G91 G02 X-20 Y-20 RIO While specifying the axes of CNC machine tool (as per the ISO standards), the spindle axis is considered as | (1) X-axis (2) Y-axis a00: @Q) Z-axis | @) A-axis Most popular NC programming language is | won. (1) AUTOMAP | @) APT (3) ADAPT j (@) COBOL 16 The following process is suitable for machining brittle materials such as glass: (1) Electric Discharge Machining (EDM) (2) Electrochemical Machining (ECM) (3) Ultrasonic Machining (USM) (4) Chemical Machining (CHM) Limitation of the electro chemical machining (ECM) process is (1) Use of corrosive media as electrolytes makes it difficult to handle (2) Poor surface finish (3) Poor accuracy of the work piece dimensions because of the large tool wear (4) There will be thermal damage to the work piece Maximum number of membership in a - Private limited company can be (1) 02 (2) 50 @) 25 @) 100 Tool material used Discharge machining is (1) Tungsten Carbide (2) Diamond (3) Brass or Copper (4) Stainless Steel in Electrical 01102. 103. 104. 105. on Which type of organization structure is used in textile industry ? (1) ine organization (2) staff organization (3) function organization (4), line and staff organization The following is also known as Military organization, (1) Line organization (2) Functional organization (3) Line and staff organization (4) None of above The symbol used for storage in work study is o> Qs @) a av What is the minimum ‘number of members required to form a public limited company ? () 10 @ 2 @) 5 a7 | 106. Which one of the:following is not a 7 107. 108. 109. technique under. Pre-determined Motion Time System,(PMTS),? (1), Work factor (2) Synthetic data (3) Stop Watch Time Study (4) Method Time Measurement ‘A SIMO chart should be used with (1) Process chart (2) Flow diagram (3) Man-Machine operation chart (4) ‘Therbligs What material handling equipment is. used if high volume of material is to be thoved from’ one ‘fixed ‘location to another ? (1) Trucks (2) Fork lift 3) Conveyors (4) Cranes In a stop-watch time ‘study, the observed time was 0.16 minute; the performance rating factor was 125 on the 100 normal (percentage” scale). ” What is the standard time in iisiutes if 10% allowances are permitted ? (1) 0.180 (2) 0.200 (3) 0.220 (4) 0.240110. wi. 112. When should process modifications be considered during product life cycle ? (1) Introduction @) Growth (3) Maturity (4) Decline Scheduling 1. is a general time table of manufacturing II. is the time phase of loading IIL. is loading all the work in process on machines according to their capacity Which of these statements are correct ? (2) 1, Hand Ii @) Land iT (3) Wand tit (4) Land TI A conveyor is preferred to fork lift and trucks when (1) Materials have to be moved on an infrequent basis Loads are mixed in size and weight Q) (3) There is horizontal material flow pattern (4) Route does not vary and continuous movements are required 18 113. 114. 115. The layout of aircraft manufacturing factory should be (1). Process layout (2) Group layout (3) Fixed location layout (4) Product layout Which one of the following is correct ? Production planning and control functions are extremely complex in : (1) Job-production shop producing small number of pieces only once (2) Job-production shop producing small number of pieces intermittently (3) Batch production shop producing a batch only once (4) Batch production shop producing a batch at irregular intervals The characteristic life-cycle of a product consists of four periods. The rate of consumption increases rapidly at the beginning of the (1) Incubation period (2) Growth period (3). Maturity period (4) Decline period on116, 117. 118, on A variable which has no physical meaning, but is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the linear programming referred to as : problem is (1) Basic variable (2) Non-basic variable (3) Artificial variable (4) Basis ‘The supply at three sources is 80, 30 and 40 units respectively while the demand at the four destinations is 30, 20, 25 and $5 units. In solving this transportation problem (1) @ dummy source of capacity 20 units is needed with unit transportation cost one. (2) a dummy destination of capacity 20 units is needed with unit transportation cost zero. (3) a dummy source of capacity 20 units is needed with unit transportation cost zero. (4) a dummy destination of capacity 20 units is needed with unit transportation cost one. In Simplex method if in pivot columa all the entries are negative or zero when choosing leaving variable then (1) Solution is Degenerate (2) Solution is infeasible (3) Alternative optima (4) Unbounded 19 121. In Northwest corner 119. What is the game value of the following payoff matrix ? KX Y Z P|} -s | 10 | 20 -10 | -10 20 | 20 | | 120. One of the assumptions in the game theory is : (1) All players act rationally and intelligently (2) Winner alone acts rationally (3) Loser acts intelligently (4) Both the players believe in luck method the allocations are made (1) Starting from the left hand side top comer (2) Starting from the right hand side top comer (3) Starting from the lowest cost cell (4) Starting requirement and satisfying first from the —_ lowest122. 123, 124, In typing work, the quality parameter is the number of errors committed per page. Which of the following control chart is appropriate for this case ? (1) Xehart (2) Pchart (3) Cchart (4) S chart | Consider a process by which coils are manufactured. Samples of size 5 are randomly selected from the process, and the resistance values (in ohms) of the coils are measured. The data | values are given in the form of sum of sample mean x bar as S2I for 25 samples. For sample of size 5 factors ‘Ay = 0.577. Then: trial control. limits for the x bar charts are (1) UCL =20.24 and LCL = 15.12 () UCL = 18:34 and LCL = 14.67 (3) UCE'= 23,848 and LCL = 18.832 (4) UCL ='20.34 and LCL = 18.832 Which of the following is not a control | chart for variables ? (1) ¥ chart (2) Rehart (3) S+hart to (4) Chart 20 125, The demand for a commodity is: 100 126. 127. units per day. Every’time an order is placed, a fixed cost of % 400 is incurred. Holding cost is € 0.08 per unit per day. If the lead time’ is 13 days, then the economic lot size and the reorder point are in units (1) 800 and 130 (2) 840 and 100 (3) 890 and 300 (4) 1000 and 300 Which forecasting method gives decreasing weightages to the demands for all the past periods ? (1) Weighted moving average. (2) Moving average (3) Exponential Smoothening method (4) Simple average method In E.0.Q model, if holding cost is halved and ordering cost is doubled, the optimal order quantity will (1) remain same (2) be doubled (3) be halved (4) be one fourth o1128. Which one of the following is not a 129, 130. 131. on decision taken during the aggregate production planning stage ? | (1) Scheduling of machines (2) Amount of labour to be committed (3) Rate at which production should happen (Inventory to be carried forward Materials requirements planning is | driven by aw @ G) @) master production schedule total quality measurement overall production planning overall inventory planning Fixed cost of an equipment is ® 6,000, if variable cost of an item it produces is © 2 per item and sells it for & 7 per item, what is the break-even point ? (1) 1200 items (2) 3000 items (3) 7000 items (4) 6500 items The output of an aggregate plan is (1) Bill of material | (2) Demand forecast (3) Overtime (4) Total cost 2 132, 133. 135, . Dummy activities are used ‘What is the total float of an activity for which Earliest Start time ES = 5 Earliest Finish time EF = 15 Latest Start time LS = 35 Latest Finish time LF = 45 a) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40 Gantt chart is useful in (1) Scheduting (2) Forecasting (3) Routing (4) Both (2) & (3) in a network to (1) faci (2) satisfy precedence requirements ite computation of slacks (3) determine project completion time (4) avoid use of resources If the fixed cost of the assets for a given period tripled, then how much will the break-even quantity becomes. (1) Half the original value @) Same as the original value (3) Thrice the original value () Twice the original value136. 137. 138. The co-ordination number of FCC crystal is a 8 @ 16 @) 10 @) 12 Match List-1 (Material) with List-II (Structure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I List-IL A. Charcoal 1, FCC B. Graphite 2. HCP C.. Chromium 3. Amorphous D. Copper 4. BCC Codes : A BC D a2 3 1 4 @3 2 1 4 g3 2 4 1 @2 3 4.1 How many space lattices does Bravais Lattice consist of ay 3 @7 @) 14 (4) 15 2 139, 140. 141. 142. Screw dislocation in a material is a defect. () Line (2) Point (3) Plane (4) Volumetric Which one of the following is correct for vector in dislocation ? (1) Perpendicular to the dislocation line (2) Inclined to the dislocation line Burger's serew (3) Parallel to the dislocation line (4) Opposite to the dislocation line Work hardening in ductile material increases its (1) Duetility (2) Plasticity (3) Electrical Conductivity (4) Strength If @ 2 6) are the Miller indices of a plane, the intercepts made by the plane on the three erystallographic axes are (1) @b,2) (2) Qa, 3b, ¢) (3) (@2b, 3c) (4) a,b, 30) on143. 144, 145, 146. on What type of fracture occurs when crack propagation is along grain boundaries ? (1) Intergranular fracture (2) Transgranular fracture (3) Cup and cone fracture (4) Granular helicoidal Which portion of the creep curve provides the information on steady state creep rate ? (1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) All the above In normalising operation of a steel casting, the cooling is done in (1) Oil bath (2) Water (3) air (4) furnace Which of the following is given by S-N curve for carbon steels ? (1) Ultimate Strength (2) Yield Strength (3) Toughness (4) Fatigue limit | 147. If T,, is absolute melting temperature, | 23 148. 149. ! 150. then the recrystallization temperature for pure metals in terms of T,, is normally (1) 0.7-0.8 7, 2) 08-09 T,, @) 06-0.7T,, (4) 03-0.4T,, Case hardening of low and medium carbon steel is done by (1) Spheroidising (2) Cyaniding (3) Normalising (4) Tempering Which of the followings iron is the purest one ? (1) Pig iron (2) Mild Steel G) Wrought iron (4) Cast iron Which of the following case hardening processes, result in a change in the composition in a steel component ? 1. Carburizing 2. Cyaniding 3. Nitriding 4, Flame hardening 2,3 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 only 1,2 and 3 only 1,2, 3 and 401 WHat fe BIT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 24