Mod 6 Combined Pacop

MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH
A 1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

A) Outbreak B) Zoonotic C) Endemic D) Sporadic
D 2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

A) Escherichia coli B) Bordetella pertussi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Helicobacter pylori
A 3. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of:
A) Dengue fever B) Tuberculosis C) Malnutrition D) Malaria
A 4. The first drug available for HIV:

A) ZDU B) RMP C) TMP D) CMC
B 5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate

antigen:
A) Hay fever B) Anaphylaxis C) Asthma D) Desensitization
D 6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

A) Cilium B) Trichome C) Flagellum D) Pilus
B 7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

A) It can discolor the meat
B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
C) It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
D) It is not readily available
B 8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:

A) Lysol B) Chlorine C) Ozone D) Reverse osmosis
B 9. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms:

A) Mite B) Fomite C) Arthropod D) Vector
C 10. Administration of a toxoid confers:

A) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Naturally acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
A 11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease
within a susceptible population during a specific period:
A) Morbidity rate B) Prevalence rate C) Mortality rate D) All of the above
D 12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

A) Population size C) Concentration of the disinfectant
B) Duration of exposure D) All of the above
A 13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
A) Koplik spot B) Peyer’s pathches C) Rose spots D) Rashes
C 14. Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to
methane:
A) Microaerophilic B) Metanochromic C) Methanogenic D) Cyanobactreria
B 15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

A) Attenuated microorganism C) Toxoids
B) Immunoglobulin preparations D) Cyanobacteria
A 16. Nosocomial infections are:

A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
B) Infections of the nasal area
C) Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
D) Infections among animals
C 17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Toxicity
B 18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

A) Industrial wastes B) Fecal coliforms C) Red tide D) Oil spills
D 19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
A) Straight B) Slim C) Blunt D) Curved
A 20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:

A) Potable B) Edible C) Bacteria-free D) Odor-free
B 21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
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A) Fermentation B) Putrefaction C) Dentrification D) Transpeptidation
D 22. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

A) Bacilli B) Cocci C) Spiral D) Vibrios
A 23. This statement is true about viral infection:

A) Viral infections are self-limiting
B) Viral infections confer lifetime immunity
C) Viral infections are treated by antibiotics
D) All statements are correct
D 24. The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the
host is known as:
A) Tetanospasmin B) Aflatoxin C) Enterotoxin D) Endotoxin
A 25. The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known
as:
A) Invasiveness B) Pathogenicity C) Toxigenicity D) Virulence
D 26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Symbiosis D) All of the above
B 27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:

A) Recyclable B) Biodegradable C) Earth-friendly D) Reversible
B 28. Dengue virus vector:

A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Aedes aegypti C) Anopheles mosquito D) None of the above
D 29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

A) Tinea capitis B) Tines corporis
C) Trichophyton rubrum D) Malasseria furfur
D 30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners:

A) Chlamydia pneumoniae B) Salmonella typhi
C) Pneumocystis carinii D) Legionella pneumophila
D 31. The following are communicable diseases, except:

A) Measles B) Pneumonia C) Hepatitis D) Tetanus
A 32. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

A) Mumps B) Leptospirosis C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis
A 33. Hansen’s disease is caused by:

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Myoplasma leprae D) None of the above
B 34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
A) Makes use of an autoclave C) Makes use of steam under pressure
B) Causes oxidation of cell components D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores
D 35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:

A) Endospore B) Exospore C) Transposon D) Capsule
D 36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
A) F plasmids B) R plasmids C) Transposons D) Both B and C
B 37. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:
A) Protozoa B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Myoplasmas
C 38. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:

A) Sulfonamide B) Penicillin C) Salvarsan D) None of the above
C 39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

A) Enriched media B) Selective media C) Anaerobic media D) Differential media
B 40. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the
spores is known as:
A) Antiseptic B) Disinfectant C) Sanitizer D) Germicide
A 41. An example of ionizing radiation:

A) X-ray B) UV C) Sunlight D) All of the above
D 42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

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A) Ribosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondria
A 43. The organism with atypical cell walls:

A) Mycoplasmas B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Viruses
A 44. Koch’s postulates include the following, except:

A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
B) The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
C) The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
D) The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again in the laboratory
B 45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:

A) Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic” C) Pasteur flask
B) Fractional sterilization D) Fermentation
C 46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

A) Dimorphism B) Polymorphism C) Pleomorphism D) Fleximorphism
A 47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:

A) Olive oil B) Culture media C) Water D) Glassware
C 48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

A) Virus B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Clostridium botulinum
C 49. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:
A) Log phase B) Lag phase C) Stationary phase D) Death phase
C 50. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:

A) Polymorphism B) Mutagenicity C) Germination D) Sporulation
B 51. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:

A) 70s B) 80s C) 90s D) 100s
D 52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

A) Thermophiles B) Psychrophiles C) Acidophiles D) Mesophiles
B 53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:

A) Sporulation B) Transverse binary fission C) Germination D) None of the above
A 54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:

A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Transformation D) Both A and C
A 55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:

A) Virion B) Capsid C) Capsule D) Spore
A 56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

A) Dinoflagellate B) Diatom C) Euglenoid D) None of the above
A 57. A theory that states that life originates from non-life:

A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation C) Germ Theory
B) Koch’s Postulates D) None of the above
A 58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

A) T-helper lymphocytes B) B-lymphocytes C) Phagocytes D) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
C 59. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and
hospitals:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla
B 60. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health
among various sectors:
A) Health Sector Reform Agenda D) Health Passport Initiative
B) National Health Objectives E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla
A 61. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health
related matters:
A) DOH B) WHO C) QUERT D) Sentrong Sigla E) None of the above
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D 62. Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under
this program:
A) Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy D) WHO
B) Nutrition Program E) None of the above
C) National Drug Policy Program
D 63. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health:
A) Philhealth B) DOH Hospitals C) UNICEF D) WHO E) None of the above
D 64. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:
A) Internal Management D) Health Regulation Development
B) Health Regulation E) None of the above
C) External Affairs
B 65. An employee liability law that provides financial supports for workers unemployed because of work
related injuries:
A) OSH Act D) Coal Mine Health and Safety Act
B) Workers Compensation Law E) None of the above
C) Civilian Rehabilitation
E 66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:

A) Mesothelioma C) Physical hazards E) None of the above
B) Chemical hazards ` D) Ergonomic hazards
C 67. A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:
A) Biological C) Physical E) None of the above
B) Chemical D) Ergonomic
B 68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:

A) Sulfur dioxide B) CO C) CO2 D) Lead E) None of the above
E 69 The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except:

A) Allows the movement of fetus D) Allows the fetus to float
B) Protects against mechanical injury E) None of the above
C) Provides stable temperature
A 70. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic
microorganism:
A) Canning B) Pasteurization C) Irradiation D) Drying E) None of the above
C 71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants:

A) Vit. A B) Vit. D C) Vit. E D) Vit. K E) None of the above
C 72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholic hepatitis C) Fatty liver D) All E) None
E 73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:

A) Smaller size B) Deformities of limb C) Heart defects D) Poor coordination E) None
B 74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:

A) Initial stage B) Middle stage C) Third stage D) final stage E) None
E 75. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hair or fog:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C
D 76. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the
accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in
the number of organisms:
A) Acidification D) Eutrophication
B) Alkalinification E) None
C) Nitrification
B 77. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None
A 78. This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception:
A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None
A 79. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None
A 80. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None
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B 81. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and
excretion of nutrients:
A) Primary malnutrition D) Overnutrition
B) Secondary malnutrition E) None
C) Undernutrition
A 82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:

A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C
C 83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C
C 84. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

A) Steven Johnson’s Syndrome D) A and B
B) Down Syndrome E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
B 85. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least
accurate?
A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
D 86. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting
phagocytosis.
B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the
Pneumococcus.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.
C 87. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site
of infection is the lungs.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.
A 88. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and
one that ha the toxic activity.
D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in
certain vaccines.
D 89. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
C 90. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause
disease but leaves its antigenicity intact.
B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and
produce significant side effects in children.
D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is
recommended primarily for older people.
D 91. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least
likely to do this?
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Poliovirus C) Rotavirus D) Mumps virus
C 92. Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these
allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate?
A) Penicillin is a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody
response.
B) Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them.
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C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The
carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.
D) Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory
mediators.
Choices for numbers 93 – 97:

A) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B 93. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases
like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.
A 94. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils.
D 95. Norma flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis.
B 96. A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis.
C 97. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children.

A) Meningococcus D) Clostridium tetani
B) Gonococcus E) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Bacillus antracis
B 98. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea.
A 99. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule
referred to as glycocalyx.
D 100. Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons
that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm.
E 101. Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis
and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.
C 102. Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s
disease.

A) Clostridium perfringens D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium tetani E) Clostridium dificile
C) Clostridium botulinum
B 103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile.”
A 104. The causative agent of gas gangrene.
D 105. In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and
may infect the respiratory system.
E 106. Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin
that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.
C 107. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.

A) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae
B) Salmonella typhi E) Camphylobacter jejuni
C) Shigella dysenteriae
D 108. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.
E 109. A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in
Skirrow’s agar.
C 110. Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
A 111. Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travelers diarrhea” are the most common
diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli.
B 112. Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram
negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
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A) Mycobacterium leprae D) Treponema pallidum
B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis E) Leptospira interrogans
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D 113. Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.
E 114. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.
C 115. Spirochete, which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early
stage and Pen G for late stages.
A 116. An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.
B 117. An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable
of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.

A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 D) Cytomegalovirus
B) Varicella-Zoster virus E) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2
D 118. Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.
E 119. The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East
African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.
C 120. The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can then be treated with Acyclovir.
A 121. The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.
B 122. The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.
D 123. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal
cells?
A) Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
B) Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains
peptidoglycan.
C) Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have.
D) Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.
C 124. The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:

A) They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins.
B) They are more heat stable than exotoxins.
C) They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
D) They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.
B 125. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:

A) Activated macrophages secreting proteases
B) IgG and IgM antibodies
C) Helper-T cells
D) Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
D 126. The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:

A) Transduction of a chromosomal gene
B) Transposition of a mobile genetic element
C) Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
D) Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor
B 127. The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
A) The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat.
C) Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found.
D) Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found.
C 128. Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against
bacteria?
A) Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
B) Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
C) Facilitation of phagocytosis
D) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
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D 129. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A) Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B) Inactivates elongation factor-2
C) Blocks release of acetylcholine
D) Causes the release of necrosis factor
D 130. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the
following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
A) Capsule B) Flagella C) Cell wall D) Ribosomes

A) Diphtheria toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
B) Tetanus toxin E) Cholera toxin
C) Botulinum toxin
C 131. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
A 132. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2
D 133. Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines
E 134. Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein
B 135. Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms
B 136. An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are
called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora , what is the most likely source of
the bacteria?
A) Colon B) Nose C) Throat D) Vagina
A 137. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:

A) Clostridium perfringens B) Streptococcus fecalis C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae
C 138. A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of
Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism?
A) Skin B) Colon C) Oropharynx D) Urethra
C 139. The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis
B) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
C 140. Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
A) Clostridium perfringens C) Bacillus cereus
B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli D) Salmonella typhi
C 141. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?

A) Plague B) Lyme disease C) Brucellosis D) Epidemic typhus
B 142. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A) Salmonella typhi B) Rickettsia typhi C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Coxiella burnetii
D 143. The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:

A) Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP.
B) Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype.
D) Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.
D 144. A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of
swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of his urinary
tract infection?
A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli
B 145. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following
organisms?
A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus agalactiae
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C 146. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent
patient?
A) Nocardia asteroides B) Serratia marcescens
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D) Legionella pneumophila
A 147. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
A) Passive immunity B) Passive-active immunity
C) Active immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity
D 148. The following statements concerning Interferon are correct, except:

A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.
B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA.
C) Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species.
D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
C 149. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct,
except:
A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell.
B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell.
C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.
A 150. The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except:

A) Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
B) Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.
C) Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
D) Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases.
B 151. The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:

A) Varicell-zoster virus B) Papillomavirus C) Influenza virus D) HIV virus
B 152. The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A) Hepatitis A virus B) Smallpox virus C) Mumps virus D) Rotavirus
A 153. The following viruses possess double-stranded DNA as its genome, except:
A) Coxsackie virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Rotavirus D) Adenovirus
B 154. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?

A) It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
B) It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
C) It causes tumor in experimental animals.
D) It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
B 155. The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) They each have a single antigenic type.
D) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
D 156. The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
C) Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses.
D) They each have a single antigenic type.
C 157. The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
A) They are non-enveloped RNA viruses.
B) They each have multiple antigenic types.
C) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
D) They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.
A) DNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus
B) DNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
C) RNA enveloped virus
A 158. Herpes simplex virus
C 159. Human Tcell leukemia virus
B 160. Human papillomavirus
D 161. Rotavirus
B 162. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
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A) Cytomegalovirus B) Hepatitis A virus C) Hepatitis B virus D) Herpes simples virus
D 163. Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to
poliovirus?
A) Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
B) Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
C) Parenteral administration of live vaccine
D) Oral administration of live vaccine
C 164. The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
A) Myocarditis/Pericarditis B) Hepatitis C) Mononucleosis D) Meningitis
A 165. The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.
B) If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given.
C) When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given.
D) The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic
encephalomyelitis.
C 166. The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:

A) The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract.
B) Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
C) Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.

A) Hepatitis C virus D) Dengue virus
B) Cytomegalovirus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) Human papilloma virus
C 167. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.
E 168. Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.
B 169. It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.
A 170. Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus ahould not be used for transfusion.
D 171. It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.
D 172. Bacteria lack all of the following organelles, except:

A) Mitochondria B) Nucleus C) Mitotic apparatus D) DNA E) Nuclear membrane
D 173. The following are true about prokaryotes, except:

A) They are relatively small.
B) Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
C) They lack autonomous organelles.
D) Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
A 174. Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:

A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Helminths
B 175. Phylogenetic classifications are based on:

A) Shared morphologic attributes B) Evolutionary relationships
C) Shape D) Unusual growth characteristics
E 176. The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is:

A) 20 layers thick D) 80 layers thick
B) 40 layers thick E) 1 layer thick
C) 10 layers thick
C 177. Porins are:

A) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins B) Periplasmic proteins
C) Outer membrane proteins D) Inclusion bodies
B 178. Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except:
A) Lipoproteins B) Lipotechoic acid C) Lipopolysacchatide D) Phospholipid
C 179. This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial
cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the
DNA.
A) Nucleoid B) Plasmids C) Mesosomes D) Transposons
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A 180. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:

A) Flagella B) Pili C) Cilia D) Pseudopods
B 181. An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:

A) Nucleic cids B) Glycogen C) Steroids D) Spindle fibers
C 182. The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:

A) Polymerized d-glutamic acid B) Flagellin C) Dipicolinic acid D) Techoic acid
B 183. This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the
necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
A) Flagella B) Fimbriae C) Capsule D) Endospores
B 184. This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and
even catheters:
A) Capsule B) Slime layer C) Pili D) Flagella
D 185. The following are true for endospores, except:

A) Highly resistant to disinfectants
B) Can survive for many years, especially in soil
C) Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
o
D) Killed by heating at 100 C
A 186. A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence
of oxygen is best described as:
A) Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
B) Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli
C) Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus
D) Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
A 187. Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
A) Heterotrophs B) Autotrophs C) Chemoautotrophs D) Photoautotrophs
C 188. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity
occurs but cells do not divide is the:
A) Stationary phase B) Log phase C) Lag phase D) Death phase
C 189. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
A) Thermal death time B) Growth rate constant C) Generation time D) Thermal death point
C 190. Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium?

A) Salmonella thypinurium C) Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D 191. Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:

A) Activated transport B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Carrier-mediated transport D) Any of the above
B 192. Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
A) Heterofermenters B) Homofermenters
C) Glyoxalate shunt fermenters D) Oxidative fermenters
B 193. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:

A) Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids C) Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans
B) Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids D) Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin
C 194. Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids?

A) Found only in gram-negative bacteria
B) Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
C) May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
D) Two of the above
B 195. Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?

A) It requires the F factor
B) It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
C) It is mediated by a bacterial virus
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
C 196. It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota:
A) Disease B) Infection C) Symbiosis D) Parasitism
C 197. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:

A) Disease B) Infestation C) Infection D) Syndromes
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A 198. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
A) Acute B) Subacute C) Chronic D) Latent
B 199. This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
A) Decline phase B) Prodormal stage C) Illness stage D) Convalescence stage
C 200. The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is
described as:
A) Endemic B) Epidemic C) Pandemic D) Acute
B 201. It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host:
A) Virulence B) Pathogenicity C) Attenuation D) In vitro growth rates
A 202. The two major components of virulence include:

A) Invasiveness and toxigenicity C) Adherence factors and antiphagocytic mechanisms
B) Intracellular and extracellular survival D) Capsules and spreading factors
B 203. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the
release of acetycholine, is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D 204. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of
eukaryotic cells is produced by:
A) Bacillus anthracis C) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A 205. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic
AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is:
A) Escherichia coli C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Staphylococcus aureus
D 206. The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:

A) They are also known as lipopolysaccharides.
B) They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
C) They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins.
D) Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.
C 207. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
A) Teeth B) Urethra C) Bronchi D) Skin
D 208. The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
A) Skin B) Colon C) Vagina D) Mouth
B 209. Vancomycin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep. orientalis C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. orchidaceous
C 210. Polymixin is produced from:

A) Bacillus subtilis B) Bacillus cereus C) Bacillus polymyxa D) Bacillus anthracis
D 211. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Lincomycin D) Cephalosporins
C 212. Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins,
although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a
deficiency of:
A) Plasmid that codes for penicillinase C) Cellular growth rates
B) Autolytic enzymes D) Certain cytochromes
B 213. Nystatin is produced naturally from:

A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep.noursei C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. natalensis
D 214. This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB:
A) Penicillin B) Bacitracin C) Vancomycin D) Cycloserine
B 215. Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic:
A) Gentamicin B) Chloramphenicol C) Bacitracin D) Polymixin
B 216. It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:

A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis
D 217. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice:

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A) Chlorine B) Merthiolate C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Iodine
A 218. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It
kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
A) Ethylene oxide B) Formaldehyde C) Acids and alkalis D) Hydrogen peroxide
B 219. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions:

A) Autoclave B) Filtration C) Radiation D) Pasteurization
D 220. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose
patients have Gonorrhea:
A) Merthiolate B) Mercurochrome C) Silver sulfadiazine D) Silver nitrate
D 221. The following are milk-borne pathogens, except:

A) Mycobaterium bovis B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Clostridium
D 222. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution?

A) Autoclaving B) Dry heat (oven) C) Ethylene oxide D) Filtration
C 223. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:

A) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
B) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
D) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B 224. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:

A) L-glutamic acid B) D-glutamic acid C) Polysaccharide D) Nucleic acid
D 225. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:

A) It is a large, gram-positive rod
B) It is a spore-former.
C) It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins.
D) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
A 226. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:

A) It is a spore-former. C) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
B) It is a short, gram-positive rod D) It is actively motile.
A 227. The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci:

A) M protein B) Group A carbohydrate C) Hyaluronic acid capsule D) Protein A
C 228. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A) Gram staining B) Catalase test C) Coagulase test D) Hemolysis test
D 229. An example of a streptococcal disease sequela:

A) Scarlet fever B) Pharyngitis C) Puerperal sepsis D) Rheumatic fever
C 230. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis:
A) 2 B) 7 C) 12 D) 19
C 231. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Viridans streptococci
B) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C 232. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A) Polysaccharide capsule C) Genus-specific protein
B) Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin D) Production of IgA protease
D 233. Neisseria are all:

A) Gram positive B) Anaerobes C) Coagulase positive D) Oxidase positive
D 234. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:
A) Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
B) Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C) The presence of pili
D) Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
C 235. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans:
A) Blood-sucking arthropods D) Contact with contaminated urine
B) Contact with contaminated feces E) Handling of infected tissues
C) Animal bites and scratches
B 236. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?

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A) Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible.

B) The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
C) Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen.
D) All of the above
E 237. Tularemia may occur in:

A) Ulderoglandular form B) Oculoglandular form C) Pulmonary form D) All of the above
D 238. The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic,
nosocomial pathogen:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli
A 239. A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated
from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
A) Klebsiella B) Pseudomonas C) Proteus D) Serratia
A 240. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism
is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
A) Proteus B) Escherichia C) Serratia D) Klebsiella
C 241. Leprosy may manifest itself as:

A) Lepromatous leprosy B) Tuberculoid leprosy C) A and B D) B and C
D 242. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:

A) Cutaneous lesions C) Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
B) Mucous membrane lesions D) Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
D 243. The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:

A) Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
B) Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
C) The VDRL test
D) Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
B 244. The smallest known free-living microorganism is:

A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae
B 245. The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:

A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts
D 246. A class in which only parasitic forms occur:

A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa
D 247. In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above
E 248. Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C
B 249. Blastocyctis hominis is a:

A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria
C 250. The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies:
A) Entamoeba coli C) Entamoeba histolytica E) Dientamoeba fragilis
B) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii
C 251. Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells:
A 252. Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation:
C 253. Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei:

C 254. The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped:

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D 255. Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts):
A 256. In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A) The period just before a paroxysm
B) At the beginning of a paroxysm
C) During the late paroxysmal stage
D) The period just following a paroxysm
B 257. Definitive host of human malarial parasites:

A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C
A 258. The sexual cycle is the:

A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C
A 259. Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with:
A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae
C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
C 260. As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which
includes:
A 261. The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells:

B 262. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:

A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs
C 263. Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:

A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film
C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test
B 264. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:

A) Bite of the vector insect
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
C) In the body of the parasitic nematode
D) Ingestion of infected food
A 265. The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance:

A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia
C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas
C 266. An axostyle is present in this organism:

B 267. Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”:

A 268. This organism has lemon-shaped cysts:

A 269. This causes visceral leishmaniasis:

A) Leishmania donovani C) Leishmania braziliensis
B) Leishmania tropica D) Trypanosoma cruzi
C 270. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection:

A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle
B 271. A viviparous organism:

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm
B 272. Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal?
A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura
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B 273. “Old world” hookworm:

A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis
C 274. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis:

A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis
C 275. The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis
C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis
B 276. The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
A 277. The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape:
A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
C 278. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat
E 279. Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin:

A) Enterobius vermicularis D) A and B
B) Strongyloides stercoralis E) B and C
C) Hookworm
E 280. Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism:
A) Hookworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) Whipworm E) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Pinworm
B 281. Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with
A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm
C 282. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:

A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium
C 283. The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum
E 284. The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments:
A) Taenia solium C) Dipyllobotrium latum E) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata D) Dipylidium caninum
C 285. The eggs of this worm are operculated:

A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum
B 286. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism:
A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
A 287. This causes Egyptian hematuria:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica
B 288. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine:

A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum
B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica
D 289. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish:

C 290. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke:

B 291. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia
B 292. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
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A) Myasthenia gravis C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia

B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis
B 293. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
A) Antibody thyroglobuin C) Antibody to mitochondria
B) Antibody to DNA D) Antibody to smooth muscle
C 294. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.
B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with
antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.
C 295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
A) Capsule
B) Mucopeptide layer
C) M and/or T proteins
D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci
D 296. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:

A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
D 297. Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following
viruses?
A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus
A 298. Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong
to genus:
A) Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum
B 299. A hapten is a substance that:

A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response
when coupled to a larger molecule
C) Induces tolerance when given alone
D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes
B 300. Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form.
D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.
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Drug Quality Control Page 1 of 15
A 1. Most of the official drugs containing calcium and zinc are assayed by:
A) EDTA method B) Gravimetry C) Nonaqueous titrimetry D) Acidimetry
D 2. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined:

A) Ultimate B) Specific C) Extraction D) Proximate
A 3. Limulus ameobocyte lysate (LAL) assay method is applicable in the determination of:
A) Pyrogens B) Chemical impurities C) Microorganisms D) All of the above
A 4. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is:
A) Acidimetry B) Compleximetry C) Alkalimetry D) Redox
C 5. The following compounds are assayed by acidimetrically, except:

A) Sodium hydroxide B) Caffeine C) Citric acid D) Zinc oxide
A 6. Which of the following substances is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis?

A) Aspirin B) Sodium hydroxide C) Hydrochloric acid D) Zinc oxide
C 7. A common sampling plan that uses master tables to interpret the results:
A) 100% inspection B) Square root system C) Military standard D) A and C
B 8. Materials to be sampled include the following, except:

A) Final products B) Records C) Intermediate products D) Raw materials
A 9. The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make interferences to the
entire population is called:
A) Sampling B) Inspection C) Statistic D) None of the above
C 10. A tool for detecting variations in a process:

A) Pie chart B) Bar chart C) Quality control chart D) T-chart
D 11. The Quality Control Department is important to:

A) Ensure uniform production of high quality product
B) Safeguard public health
C) Ensure that minimum standards of the product comply with the BFAD requirements
D) All of the above
C 12. The functions of Quality Control include the following, except:

A) Analytical control B) Inspection control C) Auditing D) A and B
A 13. The QC manager is in charge of the following sections, except:

A) Specification and assay development C) Research and development studies
B) Analytical testing laboratory D) Biological testing
A 14. The First-In First-Out Policy must always be observed to:

A) Assures that the oldest stock is used first
B) Prevents contamination and mix-ups of materials
C) Contains the information regarding the activity of the active ingredient
D) All of the above
C 15. The Kjeldahl method of analysis is used to determine:

A) Fats B) Sugars C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen in organic compounds
C 16. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:

A) Carbon B) Oil C) Inorganic matter D) Volatile component
D 17. The iodine value of oils is a quantitative measure of:

A) Phenol content B) Saturated fatty acids C) Unsaponifiable matter D) Unsaturated fatty acids
B 18. Analysis wherein the constituents of a sample are separated and then the product is weighed:
A) Volumetric B) Gravimetric C) Special method D) Gasometric
C 19. The number of mg of KOH needed to neutralize the free acids and saponify the esters in 1g of oil or fat:
A) Acid value B) Ester value C) Saponification value D) Iodine value
B 20. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of NaOH pellets are needed to make 500mL of 1.5N
solution?
A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60
B 21. If 1mL of HCl is equivalent to 1.5mL of 0.5N NaOH, the volume of the alkali that would be consumed by 30mL of
acid is:
A) 4.5mL B) 45mL C) 20mL D) 30mL
A 22. The most effective chemical substance in removing stains of potassium permanganate:
A) Oxalic acid B) Sodium thiosulfate C) Chalk D) Vinegar
C 23. The ester value determination of substances is applicable to the following, except:
A) Fats B) Volatile oils C) Alcohols D) Fatty oils
C 24. The following are indicators used for acid-base titrations, except:
A) Methyl orange B) Phenolphthalein C) Ferric alum D) Methyl red
A 25. An accurately measured sample of hydrogen peroxide 2g was dissolved in a mixture of 20mL water and 20mL diluted
sulfuric acid and was titrated with 0.1N potassium permanganate consuming 30mL to reach the endpoint. Compute for
the percentage of hydrogen peroxide (MW=34):
A) 2.55% B) 5.1% C) 2.5% D) 5.5%
B 26. Residual method titration with EDTA is applicable to what metal ion:
A) Calcium B) Aluminum C) Zinc D) Magnesium
C 27. Chemical reactions that involves a change in the valence number of reacting substances:
A) Neutralization B) Complexation C) Oxidation-reduction D) Precipitation
C 28. A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard solution of sodium
thiosulfate:
A) Volumetric titration B) Back titration C) Iodometry D) Iodimetry
B 29. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for:

A) Alcohols B) Acids C) Bases D) Salts
A 30. Malic acid present in cherry juice may be determined by:

A) Indirect permanganate oxidation method C) Alkalimetry
B) Direct permanganate oxidation method D) Acidimetry
A 31. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:

A) Oxidizing agents B) Reducing agents C) Acids D) Bases
A 32. The unsaponified matter present in animal fat is:

A) Cholesterol B) Phytosterol C) Lard D) Wax
A 33. The bisulfite method is used in the assay of volatile oils to determine:
A) Aldehyde content B) Acid content C) Ester content D) Sulfur content
A 34. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of:

A) Cellulose B) Cholesterol C) Phytosterol D) None of the above
A 35. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the Cassia flask reached 2.7mL
obtained from a sample of 10mL after treatment with KOH solution. The percentage of oil is:
A) 73% B) 69% C) 7.3% D) 27%
D 36. This determines the shelf life of a product:

A) Sampling inspection program C) Validation program
B) All of the answers D) Stability testing program
B 37. Amount of dissolved drug can be determined by:

A) Analytical balance B) Dissolution tester C) Brookefield viscometer D) DOP spray
A 38. Trace minerals in a multivitamin preparation can be assayed faster by:

A) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer C) Gas Liquid Chromatography
B) UV-Vis Spectrophotometer D) High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
B 39. Potency of a 100mg tablet at the expiry date:

A) 95mg B) 90mg C) 105mg D) 110mg
A 40. Inspection stations are placed in the following areas, except:

A) Analytical laboratory B) Manufacturing area C) Warehouse D) Packaging area
A 41. In the microbial assay of antibiotics, the microorganism used for Penicillin G is:
A) Staphylococcus aureus C) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Bacillus subtilis
C 42. The expiration date is:

A) The direct application and interpretation of the knowledge gained from the stability testing.
B) Used to limit the period during which a preparation may be expected to have its labeled potency, provided it has
been stored as directed.
C) A and B are correct
D) A and B are incorrect
A 43. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the formulation until its chemical or
biological activity is not less than ___ of labeled potency:
A) 90% B) 95% C) 93% D) 99%
D 44. Which is not considered as a primary packaging component?

A) Bottles B) Vials C) Caps D) Packer boxes
A 45. Drug substances that are withheld from distribution until batch certification from BFAD has been received:
A) Antibiotics B) Antineoplastics C) Vitamins D) All of the above
D 46. Factors that can be manipulated to accelerate instability:

A) Temperature B) Moisture C) Light D) All of the above
D 47. Cross-examination and mix up can happen in the following situations, except:
A) Improperly dispensed components
B) Wrong labels
C) Improper partitioning of production area
D) Components are kept in tightly-sealed containers
A 48. Content uniformity is to be performed for all tablets whose active ingredients are:
A) 50mg or less B) 100mg or less C) 50mg or more D) None of the above
D 49. Which of the following is not a QC function?

A) In-process analysis B) Inspection of container C) Labeling and packaging materials D) Inventory control
C 50. Total quality means:

A) Production is responsible for quality C) Quality is everybody’s business
B) Quality combines strict adherence to standard D) All of the above
C 51. The presence of a cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered as a/an:

A) Internal defect B) Critical defect C) Ocular defect D) Variable defect
C 52. Materials to be sampled include the following, except:

A) Intermediate products B) Raw materials C) Records D) Final products
C 53. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug or pharmaceutical product is
performing:
A) Special method B) Identification test C) Pharmaceutical assaying D) Pharmacopoeial test
D 54. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in volumetric analysis:
A) mEq weight B) Molarity C) Titer D) A and C
A 55. The instrument used in measuring the optical activity of a sample:

A) Polarimeter B) Refractometer C) Spectrometer D) Flame photometer
D 56. In Azeotropic method for water analysis, the solvent that can be used is/are:
A) Water B) Toluene C) Xylene D) B and C
C 57. Adsorption indicators are used in:

A) Compleximetry B) Acidimetry C) Volumetric precipitation D) Alkalimetry
D 58. The moisture content of a drug may be:

A) Water of hydration B) Water in the absorbed form C) Water of emulsion D) A and B
C 59. The indicator used in permanganate titration:

A) Methyl orange B) Phenolphthalein C) Permanganate solution D) Methyl red
B 60. The indicator for EDTA direct titration of calcium carbonate:

A) Thymol blue B) Hydroxynaphthol blue C) Methyl red D) Methylene blue
B 61. Volatile oils are complex compounds composed of the following, except:
A) Phenols B) Fatty acids C) Hydrocarbons D) Aldehydes
D 62. The specific method for water content determination official in the USP/NF, except:
A) Karl Fischer method B) Azeotropic method C) Gravimetric method D) Dew point process
C 63. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:
A) Rabbits B) Dogs C) White mice D) Guinea pigs
B 64. In IR spectrometry, the finger print region is:
A) Near IR B) Medium IR C) Far IR D) A and B
A 65. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by:
A) No. of electrons gained B) No. of electrons lost C) Valence D) Replaceable hydrogen
C 66. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the adsorbent:
A) Column B) Gas C) Paper D) TLC
C 67. A parenteral is declared to be pyrogenic if the total rise in temperature of the rabbits is:
A) Less than 3.3oC in the 8 rabbits C) More than 3.3oC in the 8 rabbits
o
B) More than 3.4 C in the 8 rabbits D) B and C
D 68. Microbiological assay of antibiotics may be performed by using the following, except:
A) Test tube dilution B) Cylinder plate C) Paper disc D) Staining method
B 69. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of another metal is:
A) Redox B) Masking C) Linking D) Complexing
C 70. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same:
A) Normality B) Volume C) No. of equivalents D) Weight
A 71. All of the following are optical devices or instruments, except:

A) pH meter B) Spectrophotometer C) Colorimeter D) Flame photometer
C 72. The method of assay for sulfonamides is:

A) Acid-base titration B) Gravimetric C) Diazotization with nitrite D) Redox titration
A 73. Which of the following is a reducing agent?

A) Ascorbic acid B) KMNO4 C) Iodine D) Hydrochloric acid
C 74. In using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following data were obtained:
absorbance of the standard solution = 0.39; absorbance of the sample solution = 0.42; concentration of the standard =
15mcg. The concentration of the sample is:
A) 16.15mcg B) 17.5mcg C) 15.75mcg D) 16.0mcg
A 76. Radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs under Fluorometry is in:
A) UV region B) Visible region C) IR region D) A and B
B 77. The method of assay for Vitamin B12 and calcium pantothenate is by:
A) Iodimetry B) Microbial-turbidimetric method C) Fluorometry D) Redox titration
B 78. The pH of a solution is usually measured by using:

A) Platinum electrode B) Glass electrode C) Mercury electrode D) Calomel electrode
C 79. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) is used for:

A) Radioisotopes B) Irradiation C) Identification of chemicals D) A and B
D 80. In the assay of acetic acid (MW = 60.05), each mL of 1N NaOH is equivalent to:
A) 0.60000g of acetic acid C) 0.60050g of acetic acid
B) 0.00605g of acetic acid D) 0.06005g of acetic acid
C 81. Chemical analysis, which determines the amount or percentage content of a certain component in a sample:
A) Qualitative B) Proximate C) Quantitative D) Gravimetric
B 82. One of the fundamental laws in spectrophotometry is:

A) Law of Mass Action B) Beer’s Law C) Boyle’s Law D) Newton’s law
C 83. The most effective way to clean glass apparatus:

A) Soaking in detergent C) Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid
B) Rinsing with nitric acid D) Acetic acid
B 84. Potentiometry finds application in:

A) Biologic assay B) pH determination C) Qualitative analysis D) A and B
A 85. If a 0.2250g of sodium bicarbonate (96.5% NaHCO3) is titrated with 0.1165N sulfuric acid. What volume of the acid
is required to reach the end point? At.Wt. of Na = 23; H = 1.0; C = 12; O = 16
A) 22.19mL B) 21.98mL C) 21.20mL D) 21.22mL
A 86. A sample of 0.1350g of arsenic trioxide (As2O3) was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4mL of 0.1055N iodine solution.
The percentage purity of the sample is:
A) 90.44 B) 89.10 C) 90.54 D) 90.23
C 87. In column chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of narrow bands in a column is:
A) Chromatogram B) Eluant C) Development D) A and C
B 88. In spectrophotometry procedure for assay, aside from the sample or unknown, this is also required:
A) Raw material of the sample B) Reference C) Dosage form D) A and C
C 89. The following conditions cause a reaction to go to completion, except:

A) Formation of a gas C) Formation of soluble products
B) Formation of a precipitate D) Formation of slightly ionized substances
D 90. Beer’s plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:

A) Absorbance of the sample C) Absorbance of the blank
B) Wavelength to be used D) Concentration of the sample
B 91. A plot of absorbance against concentration of a standard drawn in straight line is:
A) Charle’s B) Beer’s C) Lambert’s D) B and C
A 92. The study of the optical activity of a substance is:

A) Polarimetry B) Refractometry C) Spectrophotometry D) Potentiometry
C 93. The unit of wavelength in spectrometry, except:

A) Nanometer B) Micron C) Millimeter D) Micrometer
C 94. Ways to prepare the sample for Infrared determination, except:

A) Use of Mull technique C) Use of alcohol as solvent
B) Use of potassium bromide pellet D) Use of liquid petrolatum as solvent
D 95. Chromatography can be used to separate compounds that are:

A) Colored B) Colorless C) Precipitate D) A and B
C 96. A water content determination method that uses Xylene tube is:
A) Gravimetry B) Karl Fischer titrimetry C) Azeotropic method D) Dew point method
A 97. Calculate the normality of sulfuric acid solution using 22.5mL. The volume of standardized NaOH used in the
standardization was 20.70mL, and its normality was 1.1055:
A) 1.0171 B) 1.1071 C) 1.0175 D) 1.0711
B 98. Calculate the calcium carbonate content of a sample of chalk weighing 0.2545g and consuming 16.67mL of 0.1150M
of EDTA solution in titration. At.Wt of Ca = 40.08; C = 12; O = 16. The percentage of CaCO 3 is:
A) 75.52 B) 75.50 C) 37.76 D) 37.78
D 99. In the Statistical Quality Control, the chart used to measure the variations in the products inspected in the production:
A) Variable chart B) P-chart C) Attribute chart D) B and C
C 100. Substances that have the power of rotating the plane polarized light are said to be:
A) Light sensitive B) Active constituents C) Optically active D) Dextrorotatory
D 101. The indicator used in the assay of a weak acid reacting with a strong base is:
A) Methyl red TS B) Methyl orange TS C) Eriochrome black D) Phenolphthalein TS
D 102. The substance being analyzed is the:

A) Titrant B) Indicator C) Salt D) Analyte
D 103. In infrared spectrometry, water is not used as solvent for the sample because the water will:
A) Absorb IR radiation C) Not dissolve the sample
B) Dissolve the sodium chloride cell holder D) A and B
C 104. The law related to spectrometry wherein the power of transmitted light decreases exponentially as the thickness of
the solution increases arithmetically is:
A) Charle’s B) Beer’s C) Lambert’s D) Henry’s
B 105. The end point in iodimetry using starch TS as indicator is:

A) Blue color B) Disappearance of blue color C) Greenish blue color D) A or C
D 106. The type of titration in ultimate assay of alkaloids is:

A) Direct B) Residual C) Back D) B and C
A 107. What would be the aldehyde content of peppermint oil if the sample used was 15mL and the insoluble portion as
read in the graduated neck of the Cassia flask was 2.2mL. The percentage of aldehyde content is:
A) 85.33 B) 83.33 C) 84.30 D) 14.67
A 108. A sample of Magnesia Magma weighing 12.35g was dissolved in 50mL of 1.0340N sulfuric acid and titrated until
end point is reached consuming 24.6mL of 1.1255N sodium hydroxide solution. The percentage of MgO content is:
At.Wt. of Mg = 24.3: O = 16
A) 3.92 B) 4.0 C) 3.85 D) 3.91
C 109. The alcohol content of a volatile oil can be determined by:

A) Bisulfite method B) Complexation process C) Acetylization process D) A and C
C 110. The index of refraction of a volatile oil can be determined by:

A) Spectrophotometer B) Pycnometer C) Refractometer D) Polarimeter
A 111. Turbidimetric and nephelometric methods of assay are applied to:

A) Suspensions B) Solutions C) Colored samples D) A and B
C 112. The adsorbent in the thin layer chromatography may be as follows, except:
A) Alumina B) Silica gel C) Calcium oxide D) Silica gel G
D 113. Way to separate the constituents in gravimetric analysis:

A) Neutralization process B) Physical means C) Chemical means D) B and C
C 114. Way to obtain the gram equivalent of a substance (GEW) is:

A) Based on the replaceable H+ ion C) A or B
B) Based on the valence of the cation D) Based on atomic weight
B 115. Expression of concentration in volumetric solutions, except:

A) Normality B) Titer C) Molarity D) Molality
A 116. The assay procedures in volumetric precipitation were introduced by the following scientists, except:
A) Arrhenius B) Mohr C) Fajan D) Volhard
C 117. The following are characteristics of a product with quality, except:

A) Safe B) Acceptable C) Cheap price D) Effective therapeutically
A 118. The terms used when equivalent amounts of each reactant have reacted are the following, except:
A) End point B) Equivalence point C) Stoichiometric pont D) Theoretical point
A 119. Constant weight in analytical procedures of drying means that consecutive weighing after heating and cooling do not
differ by:
A) More than 0.25mg B) More than 0.50mg C) More than 0.255mg D) Not more than 0.75mg
D 120. The concentration of an unknown sample in spectrophotometric procedures can be calculated by:
A) Use of Beer’s plot C) Use of mathematical formula using a reference standard data
B) Use of chemical factor D) A or C
D 121. In thin layer chromatography, finding the spot of the colorless compound in the chromatogram can be done by:
A) Use of sulfuric acid spray to obtain a brown color C) Use of carbon tetrachloride spray
B) Use of ultraviolet radiation D) A or B
C 122. In paper chromatography, the data needed to compute for Rf value:

A) Distance traveled by the solute C) A and B
B) Distance traveled by the solvent D) Distance traveled by the blank
C 123. The mobile phase in the gas chromatography is consists of:

A) Alcohol-ethyl acetate mixture C) Inert gas
B) Alcohol-chloroform mixture D) A and B
C 124. In gas chromatography, the result in the chromatogram is in terms of:

A) Retention on the column C) A and B
B) Retention of time/volume D) Volume of sample injected in the column
D 125. The components of a blank used in the assay of a substance are, except:
A) Solvent B) Reagent C) Indicator D) Analyte
A 126. The purpose of using a combination of indicators is:

A) To attain a sharp end point C) To attain a complete reaction
B) To facilitate reaction D) A and B
A 127. The purity and strength of chemicals and drugs official in the USP/NF is usually expressed in terms of:
A) Percentage B) g/mL C) mg/mL D) g/L
C 128. The gram equivalent of Magnesium oxide (MW = 40.30) is:

A) 0.0403 B) 0.0215 C) 21.15 D) 0.4030
C 129. A sample of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) weighing 1.5650g was assayed iodometrically using 26.6mL of
0.1120N sodium thiosulfate. Each mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate is equivalent to 49.03mg of K 2Cr2O7. The
percentage purity of the sample is:
A) 93.50 B) 95.33 C) 93.33 D) 93.40
A 130. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:

A) Refelected B) Absorbed C) Transmitted D) Adsorbed by the particles of a suspension
D 131. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance has a wavelength range of:
A) 200 – 380 nm B) 380 – 780 nm C) 780 – 3000 nm D) 3 – 15 m
D 132. Flame spectroscopy procedures may be divided into:

A) Flame emission B) Atomic absorption C) Nuclear magnetic resonance D) A and B
D 133. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium ions quantitatively:
A) Colorimeter B) Refractometer C) Spectrophotometer D) Flame photometer
C 134. The following are optical methods of analysis, except:

A) Colorimetry B) Nephelometry C) Chromatography D) Spectrophotometry
A 135. The calcium and sodium content of the blood can be determined by:
A) Flame spectrometry B) Nephelometry C) Colorimetry D) Turbidimetry
D 136. Thiamine is assayed by:

A) Refractometry B) Potentiometry C) Colorimetry D) Fluorimetry
C 137. The term given to the functional group of an organic molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR region is:
A) Moiety B) Carbonyl C) Chromophore D) Nitrile
A 138. Content uniformity test is conducted in:

A) 10 tablets B) 15 tablets C) 20 tablets D) 30 tablets
D 139. It is the number of complete cycles that pass a given point per second:
A) Wavelength B) Spectrum C) Radiant energy D) Frequency
D 140. The operating speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:

A) 150 rpm B) 100 rpm C) 200 rpm D) 50 rpm
D 141. Beer’s plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:

A) Absorbance of the sample C) Blank
B) Wavelength to be used D) Concentration of the sample
A 142. The pharmaceutical excipient, which affects the disintegration of a tablet is:
A) Disintegrant B) Lubricant C) Filler D) Colorant
D 143. Antibiotics are assayed by:

A) UV-Vis Spectrometry B) IR C) NMR D) Turbidimetry E) Fluorimetry
D 144. USP limit for tablet content uniformity:

A) 90 – 110% B) 90 – 100% C) 95 – 105% D) 85 – 115%
C 145. The heart of HPLC and GC:

A) Pumps B) Injection valve C) Column D) Detectors E) Integrator
A 146. Gas chromatography is used in the separation of:

A) Volatile liquids B) Amino acid C) Carbohydrates D) Lipids E) Carboxylic acid
D 147. In TLC, the separation takes place on a planar surface by:

A) Dufferential migration B) Electrostatic force C) Relative solubility D) Capillary action E) Any of the above
B 148. The separation of the components of an organic dye mixture is accomplished by using:
A) PC B) TLC C) HPLC D) GC E) Any of the above
B 149. This is the primary cause of product instability and involves the addition of oxygen or the removal of hydrogen:
A) Incompatibility B) Oxidation-Reducation C) Hydrolysis D) Racemization E) Decarboxylation
A 150. This is the method of analysis based on the measurement of current resulting from the electrolysis of an electroactive
species at a given electrode potential under controlled condition:
A) Potentiometry B) Polarimetry C) Polarography D) Refractometry E) pH measurement
D 151. The most preferred medium in dissolution testing is:

A) Alcohol B) Acetone C) Ether D) Water E) Benzene
C 152. The following are the basic principles behind chromatographic separation, except:
A) Partition B) Adsorption C) Absorption D) Ion-exchange
B 153. The stationary phase used in gas chromatography is:

A) Gas B) Liquid C) Substrate D) Cellulose E) Chromatogram
C 154. The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is:
A) GC B) LLC C) HPLC D) SLC E) TLC
A 155. In gas chromatography, the result of the assay is expressed in:

A) Retention on the column B) Rf value C) Volume of gas used D) Adsorbent E) A and C
A 156. In column chromatography, the resulting patterns with several bands is called:
A) Chromatogram B) Eluate C) Spectrum D) Band E) A and C
C 157. Color of phenolphthalein in vinegar:

A) Pink B) Yellow C) Colorless D) Orange]
D 158. The primary standard used in the standardization of potassium permanganate is:
A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Sulfuric acid C) Potassium dichromate D) Sodium oxalate
D 159. An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called:
A) Test solution B) Standard solution C) Buffer D) Indicator
D 160. To find the gram equivalent weight of Phosphoric acid, divide its molecular weight by:
A) 1 B) 0 C) 2 D) 3
B 161. A combining molecule containing one or more groups that donate electrons will form ____ with a metal.
A) Complex B) Chelate C) Sequestering agent D) Masking agent
A 162. A chelate must always contain a/an:

A) Multivalent metal B) Ethylenediamine group C) Amine group D) Triple bond
D 163. The assay of Menadione Sodium Sulfate (Vit. K) uses this method of analysis:
A) Gravimetric method B) Acid base titration C) Precipitation method D) Redox titration
B 164. In the standardization of HCl using pure anhydrous sodium carbonate as primary standard and methyl orange as
indicator, 1.0mL HCl was found to be equivalent to 0.05g of sodium carbonate (MW = 106). The normality of
HCl is:
A) 1.0 N B) 0.94 N C) 0.4716 N D) None of the above
A 165. An accurately measured sample of hydrogen peroxide 2.00g was dissolved in a mixture of 20mL water and 20mL
and 20mL diluted sulfuric acid and was then titrated with 0.100N potassium permanganate consuming 30.0mL to
reach the end point. Compute for the percentage of peroxide (MW = 34)
A) 2.55% B) 5.1% C) 2.5% D) None of the above
A 166. USP requires not less than 2.5g and not more than 3.5g of hydrogen peroxide /100 parts. Does the sample conforms
with the standard requirement?
A) Yes B) No C) Maybe D) Cannot be determined
A 167. One twentieth molar solution of sulfuric acid is:

A) 0.05 M B) 0.1 M C) 0.005 M D) 0.5 M
C 168. Precipitation method using potassium chromate test solution as indicator and silver nitrate standard solution:
A) Volhard B) Fajan C) Mohr D) None of the above
B 169. The titrant most commonly used for direct compleximetry titration is:
A) Zinc sulfate B) EDTA C) AgNO3 D) HclO4
A 170. The titer value of 1.0mL of 0.1N ceric sulfate for arsenic trioxide (MW = 197.94)
A) 9.496 mg B) 197.84 mg C) 9.892 mg D) 14.838 mg
A 171. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with EDTA in the presence of Al is:
A) Triethanolamine B) Thioglycol C) Potassium cyanide D) Ammonium fluoride
B 172. In the assay of ZnO (MW = 81.38), each mL of 1N of H2SO4 is equivalent to ____ of ZnO.
A) 81.38 mg B) 40.69 mg C) 27.13 mg D) 20.34 mg
D 173. The substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard’s method is:
A) Nitric acid B) Sodium chloride C) Triethanolamine D) Nitrobenzene
D 174. Assay of Sodium Nitrite is an example of:
A) Neutralization B) Precipitation C) Complexation D) Redox method
C 175. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration, drying and weighing the residue is classified as:
A) Direct precipitimetry B) Volhard’s method C) Gravimetry D) Residual precipitimetry
B 176. Ceric sulfate is a/an:

A) Precipitating agent B) Oxidizing agent C) Reducing agent D) Complexing agent
D 177. The valence number of Mn in KMNO4 is:

A) +2 B) +1 C) +5 D) +7
D 178. The apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution clinging to the tip of the buret is:
A) Bobcock bottle B) Cassia flask C) Acetylization flask D) Wash bottle
B 179. An sample of sodium sulfate weighing 1.800g yielded 0.900g of barium sulfate (MW = 233.25). Calculate the
percentage of sulfur ( AW = 32.06) in the sample.
A) 12.18% B) 6.870% C) 27.48% D) 30.44%
C 180. How many grams of drug are required to make 500 mL of 25.0% solution?
A) 30.0 g B) 50.0 g C) 125 g D) 130 g
C 181. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry, except:
A) Use of adsorption indicators C) Formation of turbidity
B) Cessation of precipitation D) Appearance of turbidity
B 182. The reagent that loses the electron/s in a redox reaction is the:
A) Substance that decreases in oxidation number C) Reducing agent
B) Oxidizing agent D) Substance reduced
D 183. A substance that has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
A) Technical grage B) CP grade C) Any of the answers D) Primary standard
C 184. The type of assay employed in determining the % ZnO in a sample of Zinc White Powder using EDTA as titrant is:
A) Volhard’s method B) Direct precipitimetry C) Direct compleximetry D) Residual Compleximetry
A 185. The experimental way of determining when equivalent amounts of reactants have reacted together is:
A) Titration B) Stoichiometric point C) Standardization D) Equivalence point
A 186. Calculate the calcium carbonate content of a sample of chalk weighing 0.2545g and consuming 16.7 mL of 0.1150 M
EDTA. At. Wt. Of Ca = 40.08
A) 75.52% B) 75.50% C) 37.76% D) 37.78%
A 187. Twenty tablets of ascorbic acid weighed 4.2500g and a powdered sample of 0.3075g was titrated consuming 21.5mL
of 0.1085N Iodine solution. Each mL of 0.1N Iodine is equivalent to 8.80mg of ascorbic acid. What is the amount of
ascorbic acid per dose of two tablets?
A) 283.72 mg B) 141.86 mg C) 283.22 mg D) A and C
A 188. The official USP gravimetric methods are:

1. Assay involving direct ignition
2. Assay involving sublimation
3. Assay involving extraction
4. Assay involving precipitation followed by ignition
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 4 D) 1, 2 and 3
B 189. Hexane is the best solvent for extracting:

A) Resins B) Fats C) Volatile oils D) Acids
D 190. Alkaloidal test solutions include:

A) Valser’s TS B) Warner’s TS C) Mayer’s TS D) Any of the above
A 191. How many mL of water is expected from a 20 g Digitalis sample containing 1.5% moisture?
A) 0.3 mL B) 30 mL C) 3 mL D) None of the above
For numbers 20 – 23:

The following data were obtained after the moisture and total ash content determination of acacia powder:
Wt. of empty crucible 52.452 g
Wt. of crucible & sample 61.648 g
Wt. of crucible & sample after drying to constant wt. 60.502 g
Wt. of crucible and residue left after incineration 53.006g
A 192. Moisture content in grams:
A) 1.146 B) 1.144 C) 1.164 D) 1.166
B 193. Percent moisture:
A) 12.64% B) 12.46% C) 12.45% D) 12.54%
C 194. Total ash content in grams:

A) 0.545 B) 0.555 C) 0.554 D) 0.445
B 195. Percent total ash:

A) 6.20% B) 6.02% C) 6.22% D) 6.92%
A 196. Find the acid value of a sample weighing 1.230 g that consumes 30.0 mL pf 0.110 N NaOH to bring about the end
point using KOH in the titration:
A) 150.54 mg/g B) 157.72 mg/g C) 109.18 mg/g D) 124.41 mg/g
B 197. During an in-process control testing, the following data were obtained from loss on drying test:
Wt. of sample before drying 1.146 g
Wt. of tare & sample after drying 25.653 g
Wt. of tare 24.632 g
What is the weight of moisture lost?
A) 1.021 g B) 0.125 g C) 1.125 g D) 0.021 g
A 198. Calculate the water content of an antibiotic powder using 350mg sample. The water equivalence factor (F) of the
Karl Fischer reagent is 4.6 and the volume of the reagent used was 9.2 mL. The % of water content is:
A) 12.09% B) 1.21% C) 12.11% D) A and B
B 199. Determination of iodine value of oils depends on:

A) Substitution with iodine for the hydrogen in the fatty acid
B) Addition of iodine at the double bond of the fatty acid
C) Oxidation of the fatty acid by iodide
D) All of the above
A 200. The soluble constituents of crude drug in a certain solvent:

A) Extractive B) Ash C) Crude fiber D) Phytosterol
D 201. In-process specification requires that the percent loss on drying should not exceed 0.65% of the sample weight. Based
on the given data below, what is the total amount of moisture?
Tare wt. 26.839 g
Gross wt. 36.506 g
Gross wt. after drying 36.495 g
A) 0.237 g B) 0.060 g C) 9.607 g D) 0.011 g
D 202. A reaction is led to completion by:

A) Formation of ash C) Production of slightly ionized molecules
B) Formation of insoluble acid D) All of the above
D 203. Karl Fischer electrometric titration is a method used to assay for its:
A) Oxygen content B) Nitrogen content C) Carbonate content D) Water content
C 204. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
A) Anhydrous sodium carbonate C) Sodium tartrate
B) Potassium bipthalate D) Sodium oxalate
B 205. Assay of atropine in Belladonna is an example of:

A) Proximate assay B) Ultimate assay C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B
C 206. Oils with iodine value above 120 are classified as:
A) Non-drying B) Semi-drying C) Drying D) None of the above
B 207. If a sample is beeswax is found to have an acid number of 15.5 and a saponification value of 71.2, the ester value of
the sample is:
A) 86.7 B) 55.7 C) 90 D) None of the above
B 208. The temperature for ignition described as dull red heat is:
A) 500 – 1000 oC B) 550 – 700 oC C) 500 – 750 oC D) 300 – 450 oC
B 209. The assay of the aldehyde content of volatile oils may be done by:
A) Extraction B) Bisulfite method C) Bobcock method D) Gravimetric method
D 210. Quantitative determinations of alkaloids may be done by:

A) Volumetric B) Gravimetric C) Spectrophotometric D) Any of the above
D 211. Calculate percentage of Atropine in Belladonna powder using 10.7 g sample and adding 20 mL of 0.0225N H2SO4
and back titrated with 12.5 mL of 0.0295N NaOH. Each mL of 0.02N H2SO4 is equivalent to 5.788g of Belladona
alkaloids in terms of Atropine.
A) 5.60% B) 0.56% C) 0.59% D) 0.22%
A 212. Calculate the normality of sulfuric acid solution using 22.15 mL of it. The volume of NaOh used in the
standardization was 20.75 mL and its normality was 1.1055.
A) 1.0356 B) 1.3056 C) 1.0035 D) 1.0030
A 213. Compute for the iodine value of corn oil 0.2048g dissolved in 10 mL chloroform and 25 mL iodobromide TS was
added, mixed and allowed to stand for one hour. Thirty mL of KI TS and 100 mL distilled water were added and
titrated with 10 mL of 0.1065 N sodium thiosulfate. The volume of sodium thiosulfate consumed in the blank was
25.7. I is equal to 126.9.
A) 103.61 B) 103.16 C) 101.36 D) 103.66
B 214. This is the acceptable tablet hardness range of chewable tablets:

A) 4 – 10 kg B) 2 – 3 kg C) 5 – 8 kg D) 2 – 8 kg
A 215. How many samples should be tested if a batch consists of 120 bottles of paracetamol suspension when the square
root method is used?
A) 12 B) 11 C) 10 D) 9
C 216. In normal phase chromatography:

A) Stationary phase and mobile phase are both polar
B) Stationary phase is nonpolar, mobile phase is polar
C) Stationary phase is polar, mobile phase is nonpolar
D) Stationary phase and mobile phase are both nonpolar
A 217. Fats are:

A) Esters of glycerin and fatty acid
B) Polypeptides
C) Compounds of glycerol, fatty acid. Phosphoric acid and choline
D) Steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups
E) Esters of fatty acids with high molecular weight alcohol
D 218. Acid insoluble ash is the part of the total ash, which is insoluble in:
A) Dilute nitric acid B) Acetic acid C) Dilute sulfuric acid D) Dilute hydrochloric acid
B 219. What would be the accepted weight range of tablets weighing 130mg?
A) 123.5 – 136.5 mg B) 120.25 - 139.75 mg C) 117 – 123 mg D) 120.9 – 139.1 mg
C 220. Disintegration test is done at this temperature:

A) 36.5 – 37.5 oC B) 36 – 37 oC C) 35 – 39 oC D) 37 oC
A 221. Efficiency of HEPA filters is assessed using:

A) DOP test B) Water attack test C) Carr’s index D) Bubble point test
A 222. A concentration expression referring to the number of equivalents of solute per liter of solution is:
A) Normality B) Molarity C) Molality D) Formality
A 223. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is:

A) Primary standard B) Dilute solution C) Secondary standard D) B ans C
B 224. Water attack test is used in this type of glass container:

A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type III
A 225. A person who determines the presence of pyrogens and microorganisms of a pharmaceutical product is performing:
A) Special method B) Identification test C) Pharmaceutical assaying D) Pharmacopoeial test
A 226. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined is:
A) Standardization B) Neutralization C) Redox S) Acidimetry
B 227. The apparatus used to keep samples free from moisture is:
A) Oven B) Dessicator C) Furnace D) A and C
D 228. Materials being controlled by Quality Control, except:

A) Active ingredient B) Excipients C) Finished products D) Packages
A 229. To assure stability of the product until expiry date, the label should indicate:
A) Proper storage B) Proper dosage C) Proper color D) Proper drug administration
B 230. Neutralization reactions in titrimetric methods of analysis may be:
A) Precipitimetry B) Alkalimetry C) Compleximetry D) A and C
C 231. The type of ligand where EDTA belongs;

A) Unidentate B) Bidentate C) Hexadentate D) Tridentate
C 232. To remove stains of iodine, the most effective chemical substance is:
A) Calamansi juice B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Sodium thiosulfate D) Sodium hypochlorite
B 233. A type of titration where the first titrant is added in excees with the sample and the second titrant reacts with the
added excess is:
A) Back B) Direct C) Residual D) A and C
D 234. Light scattering method of analysis include/s:

A) Flourometry B) Turbidimetry C) Nephelometry D) B and C
C 235. Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is:
A) AgNO3 B) BaCl2 C) NH4SCN D) NH4Cl
B 237. In gravimetric analysis, when the process used in extraction to obtain the original constituent, this method belongs to:
A) Chemical B) Physical C) Precipitation D) Any of the above
C 238. To find the milliequivalent factor of a reducing agent, divide its molecular weight by:
A) No. of electrons gained B) Valence C) No. of electrons lost D) Replaceable hydrogen
A 239. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter because it consists of:

A) Prism B) Lamp house C) Cell compartment D) Optical scale
A 240. Compute for the angle of repose of the sample powder using fixed funnel method if the height and diameter obtained
was 5 cm and 13 cm respectively.
A) 37.57o B) 36.57o C) 35.75o D) 36o
D 241. Volatile oils are complex compounds composed of:

A) Phenols B) Inorganic salts C) Hydrocarbons D) A and C
D 242. The name of originator who introduced the adsorption dyes as an indicator in volumetric precipitation method:
A) Volhard B) Charles C) Mohr D) Fajan
B 243. The acid necessary for permanganate titrations is:

A) Acetic acid B) Sulfuric acid C) Hydrochloric acid D) Nitric acid
A 244. Using a sampling plan by military standard 105 D, the sample size required is obtained from:
A) Master table B) Ratio and proportion C) Samples needed D) A and B
A 245. To control finished products in the warehouse of a company, the distribution practice is:
A) First-in first-out B) Samples needed C) Ratio and proportion D) A and B
D 246. The number of retention samples collected by the Quality Control Inspector from the packaging line is:
A) Two times the number required for testing C) Not less than two labeled containers
B) Three labeled containers D) Any of A and C
D 247. A type of quality control chart based on the number of defectives found is:
A) Go or no-go B) Variable C) Attribute D) A and C
D 248. Sources of quality variations are as follows, except:

A) Technician B) Inadequate procedure C) Equipment D) General manager
C 249. Acetylation method of analysis in volatile oils is done to determine:

A) Phenol B) Aldehyde C) Alcohol D) Ketone
D 250. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a reference standard, they are:
A) Isometric substances B) Similar solutions C) Similar preparations D) B and C
A 251. The material used to make the cell holder for infrared analysis are, except:
A) Sodium bromide B) Potassium bromide C) Sodium chloride D) Potassium chloride
B 252. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder weighing 4.20g as sample. The water equivalence factor (F) of the
Karl Fischer reagent was found to be 5.1 and the volume consumed was 11.50. The % of water is:
A) 1.39 B) 1.40 C) 1.41 D) 13.96
B 253. The Karl Fischer reagent used for moisture content determination consists of the following except:
A) Pyridine B) Acetone C) Sulfur dioxide D) Iodine
A 254. This is the sum of all tests performed to determine the conformance of the product to specifications:
A) Quality control B) Quality Assurance C) CGMP D) A and B
A 255. Complex inorganic compounds that are used to determine the end point in titration:
A) Indicators B) Standard solutions C) Precipitating agents D) None of the above
B 256. The name of the originator who introduced the use of 0.1N silver nitrate as the titrant and potassium chromate TS as
the indicator in volumetric precipitation of chlorides is:
A) Volhard B) Mohr C) Fajan D) Beer
A 257. In the assay of ascorbic acid by iodimetry, it acts as:

A) Reducing agent B) Oxidizing agent C) Buffer D) Neutral agent
C 258. This is the weight of the substance chemically equivalent to 1 mL of the standard solution:
A) Titrand B) Equivalence point C) Titer D) End point
A 259. When a strong acid is titrated against a weak base, the indicator is:
A) Methyl red B) Phenolphthalein C) Methyl orange D) Crystal violet
C 260. Residual titration method under EDTA titrations is applied to metal ion:
A) Zinc B) Calcium C) Bismuth D) A and C
B 261. The gram equivalent weight of potassium permanganate (MW = 158.03) is:
A) 29.60 B) 31.60 C) 158.03 D) 79.01
D 262. Assay method that determines the presence of pyrogens in injectables:

A) Rabbit test B) Limulus amoebocyte lysate test C) White mice test D) A and B
A 263. The measurement of a weak base in nonaqueous medium of a given sample by titration with standard perchloric acid:
A) Acidimetry B) Alkalimetry C) Compleximetry D) Redoc titration
C 264. This is used for quantitative preparation of a standard solution:

A) Pipet B) Graduated cylinder C) Volumetric flask D) Buret
B 265. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

A) Ascorbic acid B) KMNO4 C) Sodium thiosulfate D) Sodium nitrite
A 266. The concentration of official diluted alcohol is:

A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% D) 70%
A 267. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:

A) +1 B) +2 C) +4 D) +3
A 268. Safety and toxicity tests are conducted for:

A) Plastic tubings B) Solutions in vial C) Tablets D0 Oral liquids
B 269. The type of ash where sulfuric acid is used to whiten the ash is:
A) Acid-insoluble ash B) Sulfated ash C) Loss on ignition D) Residue on ignition
A 270. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of 0.1055N Iodine solution. The percentage
purity of the sample is: At.wt. of As = 74.92; O = 16
A) 90.44 B) 90.23 C) 89.00 D) 90.54
A 271. The residue after incineration of a drug was 0.1185 g from a sample of 7.0 g. The percentage of ash is:
A) 1.56 B) 2.56 C) 2.0 D) 1.55
C 272. Calculate the amount of caffeine extracted from coffee beans using 1.0215g of the sample. The volume of 0.0252N
H2SO4 added to the extract was 25.4 mL, the excess titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.02115N NaOH. Each mL of 0.02 N
H2SO4 is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of caffeine (C9H10O2). The percentage of caffeine is:
A) 3.40 B) 3.50 C) 3.42 D) 3.60
A 273. If a 0.4600g of potassium iodide (KI) yielded a 0.715g of silver iodide precipitate by gravimetric assay, what would be
the percentage purity of KI? At.wt.: Ag = 107.87; K = 39.1; I = 126/9
A) 110.90 B) 110.89 C) 45.08 D) 109.90
B 274. Compute for the Rf value of a substance if the substance traveled by the solvent is 12.5 cm and the distance traveled
by the sample is 7.5 cm:
A) 0.70 B) 0.60 C) 1.67 D) 1.66
C 275. Compute for the percentage loss on ignition of magnesium sulfate hydrated using 3.20 g sample yielding a residue of
2.15g. The loss is:
A) 33.81% B) 32.98% C) 32.81 D) 32.75%
A 276. If a 0.3800 g sample of sodium sulfate yielded 0.55 g of barium sulfate precipitate by gravimetric assay, what would
be the percentage purity of sodium sulfate? At.wt.: Ba = 173.3; S = 32.06; Na = 23; O = 16
A) 88.11 B) 99.94 C) 99.15 D) 88.51
D 277. Analysis of substances that fluoresce falls under:

A) Fluorometry B) Requires UV light C) Absorbance reading is obtained D) A and B
A 278. An instrument in spectrometry using the filter as radiant energy device:

A) Filter photometer B) Infrared spectrometer C) UV – Vis spectrometer D) Flame photometer
D 279. Region in an electromagnetic spectrum:

A) Visible B) Infrared C) Ultraviolet D) All of the above
A 280. Cause of quality variation due to men:

A) Fatigue due to overwork B) Requires high salary C) Resourceful at work D) B and C
A 281. Acetylene and aldehyde group present in a compound that absorbs radiant energy are called:
A) Chromophore B) Inactive C) Inert D) B and C
B 282. The reading that must be obtained in a spectrophotometer:

A) Concentration error B) Absorbance C) Retention D) Angular rotation
C 283. The acid used in sulfated ash determination of a crude drug is:
A) Diluted HCl B) Nitric acid C) Sulfuric acid D) Any of the above
A 284. Silica from the soil that is left after treatment of the ash with diluted HCl is the:
A) Acid-insoluble ash B) Sulfated ash C) Residue on ignition D) Loss on ignition
B 285. The end point in the water content determination using Karl Fischer reagent is determined by:
A) Use of chemical indicator C) Use of spectrometer
B) Use of potentiometer or volumeter D) A or B
A 286. In microbial assay, the instrumental method used to prepare the inoculum is:
A) Turbidimetry B) Nephelometry C) Chromatography D) A and B
D 287. A polarimeter is used whether a substance is:

A) Dextrorotatory B) Levorotatory C) Optically active D) All of the above
A 288. A similar preparation in spectrometry refers to:

A) Reference standard and sample identically made C) Sample greater than reference standard
B) Reference standard greater than sample D) All of the above
A 289. Stoichiometric point in titration means that:

A) Equivalent amounts of the titrant and analyte have reacted.
B) Normality or molarity of the reactants are the same.
C) End point in titration has been reached
D) A and C
D 290. In-process control tablets include the following, except:

A) Weight B) Hardness and thickness C) Disintegration D0 Bioavailability
A 291. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all products whose active ingredient is:
A) 50 mg or less B) 130 – 134 mg C) 130 mg or less D) 324 mg or more
C 292. A date limiting the time during which a preparation may be expected to have retained its labeled potency:
A) Shelf life B) Audit time C) Expiry date D) Any of the above
A 293. To identify the place where materials have to be stored in a material warehouse, a _____ is pasted on the container
of the material.
A) Sticker B) Label C) Ribbon D) None of the above
C 294. Caps, bottles, labels and shipping containers are considered as:
A) Active components B) Drug products C) Packaging materials D) None of the above
A 295. A ____ is a specific amount produced according to a single manufacturing order during a single period of production.
A) Batch B) Lot C) Component D) None of the above
B 296. One batch can be broken into several:

A) Ingredients B) Lots C) Components D) None of the above
A 297. The recommended maximum limit for overage of vitamins is:

A) 30% B) 10% C) 90% D) None of the above
B 298. ______ is the comparing of attributes and dimensions of a product against a standard to find out if the product is
within the prescribed limit.
A) Sampling B) Inspection C) Analysis D) Action
A 299. A ______ is a definite working rule regarding N, n and c.

A) Sampling plan B) QC analysis C) Risk D) Chart
C 300. Accelerated stability testing is, except:

A) Performed at higher temperatures to intensify degradation through time
B) Done to determine the shelf life of the product in a short period of time
C) Enough proof of shelf life and need not be further validated
D) The initial method used to determine a product’s shelf life
Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
PUBLICH HEALTH, IMMUNOLOGY;
1. The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among
fungi?
A. Teichoic acid
B. Diaminopimelic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Chitin
2. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with
A. Mesosome
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
3. This is a specific staining method for spirochetes
A. Giemsa’s stain
B. Ziehl-neilsen stain
C. Acid-fast stain
D. Gram’s stain
4. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes
A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane
B. Contain more than one chromosome
C. Lack 80’s ribosome
D. Have peptidoglycan
5. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine
A. Capsules
B. Endospores
C. Fimbriae
D. Flagella
6. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to
A. The lack of CYP C oxidase
B. Presence of CYP C oxidase
C. Inability to form the superoxide radical
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
7. Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as
I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria
II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure
III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
8. A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of bacterium include
A. Capsule
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Flagella
D. Lecithinase
9. The source of H antigen
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pilus
D. Plasmid
10. The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that
another bacterium is called
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
Microbiology, Public Health and Immunology

11. Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called “jumping genes”

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
12. A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to
another
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
13. Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
14. Microbial mutations are due to which of the following cause(s)
I. Inversion
II. Additions (insertions)
III. Substitutions (transversions)
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
15. Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting of
I. Cell membrane
II. Peptidoglycan mesh
III. Exosporium
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
16. Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are true
I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids
II. Don’t control genes regulating enzymes capable of destroying antimicrobial drugs
III. Can’t be transferred by conjugation due to their size and shape
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
17. The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4 antibody and complement are
A. Cytotoxic t cells
B. Macrophages
C. Helper T cells
D. B cells
18. Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following cell-surface marker
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD3
D. CD2
19. The major function of interferon-gamma is to
A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites
C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells
D. Promote B and T cell growth
20. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following action(s)
I. Antigen presentation
II. Tumor destruction
III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
21. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following
I. Antibody production
II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction
III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural-Killer cells
I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells
II. Lyse virus-infected cells
III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
23. A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a penicillin injection and he almost immediately had
respiratory distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by
A. T cells
B. IgE
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgG and Complement
24. AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of
A. Platelets
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. B cells
25. An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm
in diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper interpretation for the observation? The patient,
A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli
B. Has active TB
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli
26. The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and non-self is learned in the
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
27. Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin
I. Streptococcus pyogenes
II. Streptococcus viridans
III. Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
28. Which statement is true for passive immunization
I. Provides long lasting protection
II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
III. Provides immediate protection
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is

A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
30. Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic
streptocci?
A. Completely lyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC
C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
D. Leave a greenish discoloration
31. The following contribute(s) to the development of a compromised state of the host defense
I. Radiation therapy
II. Exposure to toxoid
III. Malnutrition
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IIII only
E. I, II and III only
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
I. Toxoides are used as immunogen
II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses
III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins
IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and III only
33. Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning neutrophils
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense mechanism
C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and macrophages
D. They cannot present antigens
34. Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue
sections, in cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include
A. Agglutination
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Precipitation
35. This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction between an antigen and an antibody
I. Covalent bonds
II. Van der waals
III. H-bonds
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
36. A man with blood group phenotype AB
A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O
B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O
37. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridans

38. Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by

I. Lymphoid radiation
II. Cyclosporine
III. Steroids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
39. The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is accompanied by changes in the
I. Cell surface markers
II. Cell size
III. Surface immunoglobulin class
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
40. Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with their microbial organelles or components known to
enhance their virulence or invasiveness?
I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes
II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae
III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
41. Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the
I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan
II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide
III. Capsular polysaccharide
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
42. A vaccine produced from an extracellular toxic bacterial product that is made nontoxic, but maintains
antigenicity, is known as
A. Live attenuated organism
B. Antitoxin
C. Toxoid
D. Killed organism
43. Which statement(s) describes a monocyte
I. They can become macrophages
II. They only populate the lymph nodes
III. They are actively phagocytic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
44. Which of the following statements best describes an antigen
I. Is always an immunogen
II. Has one or more epitopes
III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently immunogenic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

45. A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred
to as
A. Hapten
B. Epitope
C. Complete antigen
D. Cofactor
46. Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because
I. The capsule is removed by opsonin
II. Opsonin digests wall component
III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
47. The first line of defense against viruses is
A. Interferon
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens
C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
D. All of the above
48. Type I hypersensitivity
A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators
D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils
49. Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Meningitis
D. Pneumonia
50. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is
A. 2-5 hours
B. 6-10 hours
C. 12-20 hours
D. 48-72 hours
51. Memory cells
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Basophils
52. First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation by pyogenic cocci
A. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
53. Antigen presenter
A. Dendritic macrophages
B. NK cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
54. Helminth infections will cause an increase in
A. NK cells
B. Dendritic macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
55. Vaccine for Rubeola
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microoganisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
57. Vaccine for Tetanus
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia and Goodpasteur’s syndrome
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
59. Asthma
E. NOTA
60. Contact dermatitis
E. NOTA
61. Tetanus, botulism and diphteria
E. NOTA
62. A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod
that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to
antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This organism is likely
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumonia
C. S. marcescens
D. P. aeruginosa
63. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is
A. Pen G
B. Amikacin
C. Kanamycin
D. Ethambutol
64. Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with
A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
C. Cefortaxime
D. Tetracycline
65. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT
A. LGV
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
D. Psittacosis
66. Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
D. Clostridium perfringens

67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

I. Catalase-positive
II. Coagulase-positive
III. Facultative
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
68. An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a
throat culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal colonies. Of the following, which best suits
the patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalothin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin
69. All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except
A. Naficillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Methicillin
70. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis
A. Streptomycin
B. Iododeoxyuridine
C. Rifampin
D. Nalidixic acid
71. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair
A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin
72. Streptomycin is known for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
73. Dapsone is given for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
74. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin
75. Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine racemase
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Cycloserine
D. Methicillin
76. A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut, was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever,
stiff neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion known as erythema chronicum migrans was
found on her leg with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is
A. Metronidazole
B. Pen V
C. Flucytosine
D. Chloramphenicol

77. A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed
pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-
lymphocutes. The patient must be managed with
A. 3’-azidothymidine
B. Chloroquine
C. Acyclovir
D. Enviroxime
78. Which of the following is an example of an aerobic organisms?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
79. The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is
A. Heat-labile enterotoxin
B. Heat-stable enterotoxin
C. Verotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin
80. The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Condyloma acuminate (warts)
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
81. Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of
A. Dark-field examination
B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
82. Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Tick bites
C. Mosquito bites
D. Aerosols
83. The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the
A. Endotoxin
B. V and W antigens
C. Erythrogenic toxins
D. Lecithinase
84. Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that
A. Are sensitive to penicillin
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
C. Cannot divide by binary fission
D. Do not produce “fried egg” colonies
85. The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is
A. Leptospira
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Vibrio
86. The body louse is the bector for
A. Leptospirosis
B. Pinta
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
D. Meningitis
87. Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to
A. Brill’s disease
B. Ornithosis
C. Undulant fever
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
88. In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes
testing their inability to
A. Ferment glucose
B. Ferment lactose
C. Reduce nitrates
D. Produce oxidase
89. Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Botulism
C. Cholera
D. Tetanus
90. Causative agent of undulant fever
A. Brucella
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Chlamydia
91. A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral
epithelium in the male
A. Gonococcus
B. Meningococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
92. All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector
transmitted?
A. Trichinella
B. Leishmania
C. Clonorchis
D. Diphyllobothrium
93. A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
94. A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
95. Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi
A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
D. Black Fly (Simulium)
96. The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is
A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. Schizont rupture
D. Gametocytes
97. Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax has been demonstrated in populations who are
A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive
B. G6PD deficient
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
D. All of the above
98. Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include
A. Entamoeba histolytca
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia
99. Generally infects human eating raw beef
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Necator americanus
100. This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the human lungs
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Taenia solium

101. A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor
sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the patient would most likely contain the
larvae of which organism?
A. Wuchereria bancorft
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japponicum
102. The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the
following viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever?
A. Marburg virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. Parvovirus
103. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
A. Infect infants more frequently than adults
B. Cause common colds
C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line
D. Agglutinate human red blood cells
104. Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing which of the following disease?
A. Rabies
B. Variola
C. Vaccine
D. Measles
105. Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with lassa
fever, influenza A and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavirin
C. Acyclovir
D. Gancyclovir
106. ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly infects the
A. Respiratory tract
B. Central Nervous System
C. Blood and lymphatic system
D. Intestinal tract
107. A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik’s spots. The
causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Piconavirus
D. Herpesvirus
108. Human rotavirus is best described by which of the following statements
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
B. It I an example of viral STD
C. It is associated with conjunctivitis
D. All of the above
109. Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families
A. Pox virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Paramyxovirus
110. German measles virus is a member of which viral family
A. Herpes
B. Pox virus
C. Togavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
111. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-
IgG and HAV-IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id
A. Hepa B surface antigen
B. Hepa C surface antigen
C. Hepa D surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen

112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

A. Measles
B. Chancre
C. Warts
D. Herpes
113. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only amiong
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Togavirus
D. Retrovirus
114. Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by
A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
115. A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined containing yellow granules. The sample was
tested negative to acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has
A. Nocardiosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Staphylococcal infection
116. The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis
A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. sonnei
C. S. boydii
D. S. flexneri
117. Quelling test is used to test for the presence of
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphlococcoss aureus
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
118. A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin, which of the following organism is responsible for
this?
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. Bacillus cereus
119. Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis
are caused by
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph spidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Staph hemolyticus
120. Botulism is brought by
A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
D. Activation of cyclic AMP
121. A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and
symptoms; fever, hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and
diarrhea. The patient above most likely has
A. Sacalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Scarletina
D. Chickenpox
122. A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated with gastric ulcers
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Helicobacter fenneliae

123. this is the most common form of botulism

A. Infant botulism
B. Foodborne botulism
C. Wound botulism
D. Endemic botulism
124. Which of the following may be used as preventive method in the prevention of botulinum spore germination
in food?
A. Maintaining food in basic pH
B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C)
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
125. An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates
II. Susceptibility to penicillins
III. Foul-smelling discharge
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, II and III
126. A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he
shared his food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the most likely cause?
I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin
II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase
III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, and III
127. Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by
I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap. Aureus
II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus
III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
128. In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried
by
I. Prophage
II. Free DNA
III. Transposons
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
129. Which of the following statements will differentiate Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae
I. Ability to grow in artificial media
II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections
III. Susceptibility to penicillins
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
130. Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by
A. Rickettsia rickettsia
B. R. prowazekii
C. R. typi
D. R. tsutsugamushi
131. a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his
livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely condition of the farmer.
A. Psittacosis
B. Q-fever
C. Anthrax
D. Ornithosis
132. An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the following Rickettsial infection is most likely the
cause of the illness?
A. rickettsial pox
B. Q-fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
133. A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis
A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumonia
C. M. fermentans
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
134. The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other bacteria is their lack of
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. A cell wall
III. ATP synthesis
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
135. Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will inhibit ATP synthesis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. R. rickettsia
D. N. gonorrhoeae
136. Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis from chlamydia psittaci?
I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides
II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen
III. C. trachomatis can be stained
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
137. This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis
I. Lymphogranuloma venereum
II. Perinatal conjunctivitis
III. Otitis-media in young children
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
138. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch disease
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia ricketssii
D. Bartonella henselae
139. Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less serious than pork tapeworm infection?
I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection
II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection
III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller
A. I only
B. II inly
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
140. Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small intestine and releases larves that penetrate the
intestinal wall?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
141. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexuals.
A. Giardiasis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Trypanosomiasis
142. A patient’s stool examination was found to have a small structures resembling rice grains( proglottids) which
of the following organisms is the most likely present in the patient’s stool?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
143. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
144. Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi affects the skin foaming ‘ chagoma’. Chronic stage of disease will form
lesions on which organs.
I. Heart and digestive tract
II. Spleen and pancreas
III. Liver and spleen
A. I
B. II
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
145. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
146. A fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency.
A. Microsporidium
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Pneumocystis
D. Blastomyces
147. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. Vit A
B. Vit B9
C. Vit B1
D. VitB12
148. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongloides
D. Ascaris
149. Relationship of animals living together in which one species lives in or on the body of another.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
150. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical
environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
151. A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
152. A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial relationship which usually ending up in a harmful
relationship for one organism.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
153. Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding viruses
I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate
II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses
III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
154. This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria
155. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
156. This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
157. This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses
I. papova
II Adeno
III. Parvo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
157. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses
I. Herpes
II.Hepadna
III.Pox
A. I only E. I, II and III
B. .... II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
159. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the
nucleus
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picorvirus
D. Paramyxovirus
160. Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism. Which of the following is the only double-
stranded RNA virus
A. Rhinovirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
161. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there
are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses?
I. Picornavirus
II. Reovirus
III. Retrovirus
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
162. This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result
to an epidemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
163. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new
antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system . This may result to a pandemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
164.Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and animals
A. Influenza A
B. Influenza B
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza D
165. this condition that results when children with influenza or varicella are given Aspirin
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Salicylism
C. Reye syndrome
D. Asthma
166. Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective preventing which step in the viral
replication process?
A. Penetration
B. Uncoating
C. Assembly
D. Release
167. this is/are examples of viruses classified under PAramyxoviridae family
I. influenza virus
II. Respiratory syncitial Virus
III.Measles virus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
168. A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncyitial virus
169. Koplik’s spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the
A. Upper Extremities
B. Lower Extremities
C. Mouth
D. Scalp
170. This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy
I. may result to birth defects
II. is associated with spontaneous abortions
III. may also result to premature labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
171. Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral route?
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
172. Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA virus
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
III.Hepa C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
173. Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by
A. Pox viridae
B. Varicella
C. Zoster
D. CMV
174. Virus which is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
A. EMV
B. CMV
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. HSV-1
175. The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Giardia lamblia
176. Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine
B. Giardia lmablia
C. Trichuris trichuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis
177. This organism is one of the important cause of severe darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as
patients with AIDS
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercolis
179. The most common and deadliest plasmodia
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children

A. Adenovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Polymavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
181. Which of the following belong/s to the group of the ARBOvirus?
I. Bunyaviridae
II. Falviviridae
Coronaviridae
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
182. The presence of this in the serum patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
A. HBsAg
B. Anti HBsAg
C. Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
183. The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepa B virus
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
184.The presence of this in the serum of the patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis
B infection
A. Anti HBsAg
B. IgM-Anti HBcAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
185. This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with help of
Hepatitis B virus
A. HEV
B. HAV
C. HCV
D. HDV
186. This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1
I. Causes gingivostomatitis
II. Causes herpetic keratitis
III. An STD
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
187. This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta
I. Rubeola
II. Cytomegalovirus
III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and
188. This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever virus are classified
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Caliciviridae
189. Which of the following viral organicm is characteristically associated with Peyer’s patchesof the intestines
A. Poliovirus
B. Rubella
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
190. This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine
I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses
II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus
III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
191. This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s
I. Rhinovirus
II. Coronavirus
III. Flavivirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
192. Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
A. Poliovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
193. This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus
I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies
II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin(passive immunization)
III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
194. This is also known as the “break bone fever”
A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever
195. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for
locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility
A. Sarcodina
B. Mastigophora
C. Ciliaphora
D. Sporozoa
196. Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote
I. Cryptosporidium
II. Plasmodium
III. Toxoplasma
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
197. This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as
patients with AIDS
I. Giardia
II. Isospora
III. Crystosporidium
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
198. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans
A. Cysts
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Cytostome
199. This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in man
I. Entamoeba
II. Naegleria
III. Acanthamoeba
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
200. A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from “clear”
mountain streams.
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
201. This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from Cryptosporidiosis
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
202. This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection\
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
203. This is the causative agent of the so called”Leningrad’s curse”
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
204. A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
205. This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
206. This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B
207. this is the malarial species that causes the called ”Quartan malaria”
A. P.ovale C. P.malariae
B. P.vivax D. P.falciparum
208. This is/are true statements regarding malaria
I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito
II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man
III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
209. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes
A. P.ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.malariae
D. P.falciparum
210. The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
211. This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites
I. P. vivax
II. P.falciparum
III. P.ovale
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
212. This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the mosquito as it bites on human
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
213. Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
214. This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falxiparum
I. Quinine
II. Fansidar
III. Mefloquine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
215. This is the drug coined used as the “radical cure” of malaria
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline
216. This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
217. This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla Leishmaniasis
A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A. L.braziliensis
B. L.donovani
C. L.tropica
D. L.cruzi
219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin
220. This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease
A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
B. T.brucei gambiense
C. T.cruzi
D. L.donovani
221. this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
222. There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two
drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping
disease?
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
223. This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Enterobius vermacularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
224. This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs
I. Ascaris lumbricoides
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
225. This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
226. This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis
A. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Invermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
227. This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
228. Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides sterecularis infection
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
229.This is the drug of choice for flukes

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
230. The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine
phosphokinase
D. Trichuris trichura
231. A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result
of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not
manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils.
232. This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Scotch tape swab method
D. Brine flotation technique
233. This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector.
I. Onchocerca volvulus
II. Wuchereria bancrofti
III. Brugia malayi
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
234. This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called “bagsit”
( Hypseleotris bipartite )
C. Capillaria philippinensis
235. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
236. This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis
237. This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates
I. Fasciola hepatica
II. Clonorchis sinensis
III. Paragonimus westermani
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
238. This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
239. Which of the following tepeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host?
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
240. This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection
D. Schistosoma japonicum
241. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke
242. this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma
I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection
II. They multiply in humans
III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
243. There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the
following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
B. Schistosoma Israeli
C. Schistosoma mansoni
244. Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide
245. this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
246. This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Onchocerca volvulus
247. This is the organism causing “Hydratid disease”
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
248. This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm
I. Praziquantel
II. Mebendazole
III. Diethylcarbamazine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
249. This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes
I. Wuchereria bancrofti
II. Brugia malayi
III. Loa loa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
250. Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism
which produces an endotoxin
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sp
D. Nocardia
251. This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double
A. Lag time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Priming time
252. This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are
adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present
inn concentrations that permit growth to resume.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
253. This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation
of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just
balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly
increases although the variable count stays constant.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
254. This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA
I. Ionizing radiation
II. Alkylating agents
III. UV light
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
255. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
256. This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents
I. Alteration of the target site
II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent
III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
257. This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis
I. Penicillins
II. Cyclosporine
III. Teicoplanin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
258. This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics
I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT
II. Given only for gram-positive organism
III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
259. This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species
I. Streptomycin
II. Gentamicin
III. Azithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
260. Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s
I. Staphylococcus
II. Mycoplasma
III. Chlamydia
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
261. This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a
nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl
transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella
typi
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
262. This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
263. This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor
EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the
development of rapid resistance to the drug.
A. Erythromycin C. sulfonamides
B. Fusidic acid D. lincomycin
264. sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate
A. Aminoacyl C. PABA
B. ATP D. Peptidyl tRNA
265. This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic
acid prevent/s its synthesis to THFS.
I. Trimethoprim
II. Pyrimethamine
III. Methotrexate
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
266. These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes
A. Macrolides
B. Rifampicin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Clindamycin
267. these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
268. This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
269. This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and
Haemophilus meningitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin
270. This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria
A. Rifabutin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Nitrofrantoin
271. This is/are true statements about Colistin
I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane
II. It is systemically given for systemic infections
III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
272. Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide
its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
A. Ethylene
B. Formaldehyde
C. Ammonia
D. Acetic acid
273. This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pyrazinamide
274. This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important
toxic side effects such as optic neuritis
A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine
B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
275. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M.leprae
A. Thalidomide
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Clofazime
D. Rifampicin
276. This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic
A. Ketoconazole
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
277. This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol
synthesis
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin
278. This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and
Cryptococcus )
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
279. An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin
280. This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.
A. Haloprogin
B. Tolnaftate
C. Naftifine
D. Whitfield’s ointment
281. This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
282. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial protein synthesis
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons
283. This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis
I. Idoxuridine
II. Acyclovir
III. Zidovudine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
284. Vaccines are prepared from which of the following
I. Immunoglobulins
II. Killed organism
III. ‘Subcellular fractions
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
285. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant DNA technology
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B
D. Measles vaccine
286. This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
A. Polio
B. Rabies
C. Hepa B
D. Measles
287. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions
288. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions2
289. These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
290. These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon
monoxide as carbon source.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
291. These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
292. These are organisms that possess no flagella
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
293. These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
294. There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic
stains
I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion
II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells
III. They are used in negative staining
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
295. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei
A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbofuchsin
C. Nigrosin
296. This is also known as the Welch method

A. Gram stain
B. Acid-fast stain
C. Spore stain
D. Capsule stain
297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

A. Malachite green
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
D. Methylene blue
298. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must arise from pre-existing life
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
299. Developed the method of producing immunity by using antitoxin against diphtheria
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich
300. A German physician given credit for developing pure-culture techniques
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich

Quality Control and Quality Assurance Questions [PINK PACOP]
1. Other name of Ferric ammonium sulfate

a. Ferric alum
b. Fe NH4 (SO4)2
c. Fe (NH4)2(SO4)2
d. A and B
e. A and C
2. The following is/are example/s of metal-ion indicators.

I. Murexide III. Pyrocathecol violet
II. Calmagite IV. Ferric alum
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in:
a. % w/w
b. % w/v
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
4. Standard solution in precipitation method od analysis
a. Disodium edetate
b. Silver nitrate
c. Sodium Methoxide
d. Perchloric acid
5. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element
a. Masking agent
b. Demasking agent
c. Both a and b
6. Argentometric titration is titration with ______ ion.
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Silver
d. Potassium
7. Fajans titration uses ____ indicator.
a. Acid-base
b. Adsorption
c. Metal-ion
8. Reasons why residual titration are performed.
a. Reaction proceeds slowly
b. Poor solubility of the sample
c. Sample does not give sharp end point
d. All of the choices
Page 1 of 40
9. Solutions containing all the reagents and solvents used in the analysis, but no
deliberately added analyte.
a. Blank solution
b. Solution with sample
c. Standard solution
d. Test solution
10. Describes how close a measured value is to the true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Range
d. Standard deviation
11. Primary standard in the standardization of perchloric acid
a. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Benzoic acid
d. Sodium carbonate
12. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxide.
a. Benzoic acid
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
13. The term dried to constant weight means that two consecutive weighing do not differ by
more than:
a. 0.0002 g
b. 0.2 mg
c. 0.5 mg/g
e. C only
14. Other name of systematic error
a. Determinate
b. Indeterminate
c. Random
d. Both b and c
15. Ferric ammonium sulfate is used as indicator in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
16. The end point of using number ferric ammonium sulfate is:
a. White precipitate
b. Red-brown color
c. Pink color
d. Blue color
17. Limit moisture in nonaqueous titrimetric analysis is less than:
Page 2 of 40
a. 0.5 %
b. 0.05 %
c. 0.2 %
d. 0.02 %
18. Complete reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH -
a. Na2C4H4O6
b. H2O
c. Both a and c
19. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom.
a. Monodentate
b. Bidentate
c. Tridentate
d. Tetradentate
20. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of sodium thiosulfate in optimum
range for the stability of the solution?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Chloroform
c. Thymol
d. Sodium carbonate
21. Standard solution in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis-acidimetry
a. perchloric acid
b. hydrogen bromide
c. both a and b
d. none of the choices
22. Standards solutions are also known as:
a. test solutions
b. volumetric solutions
c. saturated solution
23. If starch is used as an indicator, the end point is/are:
a. appearance of intense blue color
b. disappearance of intense blue color
c. both of the choices
24. Types of chemical reaction used in the volumetric analysis
a. redox
b. neutralization
c. diazotization
d. all of the choices
e. a and b only
25. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
a. Solubilizing agent
b. Change in pH of the solution
Page 3 of 40
c. As preservative
26. Other name of ferrous phenanthroline.
a. eosin Y
b. crystal violet
c. ferroin
d. ferric alum
27. Color of the complex resulting from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline:
a. blue
b. red
c. pink
d. violet
28. Primary standard in the standardization of ceric sulfate solution
a. potassium hydrogen phthalate
b. calciuim carbonate
c. sodium bicarbonate
d. arsenic trioxide
29. In the standardization of iodine solution, why is there a need to boil the solution of
arsenic trioxide?
a. it increases the solubility
b. it makes the solution stable
c. both a and c
30. Indicator in iodometric method of analysis.
a. KMnO4
b. Methyl red TS
c. Methyl orange TS
d. Starch TS
31. A molecule which provides groups of attachment to metal ions.
a. Ligand
b. Chelate
c. Both a and b
32. HCl + Calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
a. Carbonic acid
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Both a and c
33. The reaction between HCl and calcium carbonate can be seen in the standardization of:
a. Silver nitrate
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Edetate disodium
d. Sulfuric acid
34. A substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction.
Page 4 of 40
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Both a and c
35. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the metal ion with a ligand is called _____.
a. Formation constant
b. Solubility product constant
c. Solubility constant
36. NaCl ______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
37. Organic solvents _______ the stability of EDTA complex.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
38. Indicator in Redox Titration using KMnO4
a. Starch TS
b. KMnO4
c. Methyl red TS
d. Methyl orange
39. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely
used method for determining nitrogen in substance.
a. Non-aqueous titrimetry
b. Precipitation
c. Redox itration
d. Kjeldahl method
40. Most suitable indicator to use in titration of organic acids
a. Methyl red TS
b. Methyl orange TS
c. Phenolphthalein
41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte is weakly acidic
II. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is acid halide.
III. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte contains heterocyclic nitrogen
compound.
IV. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is barbiturate.
a. I only c. I, II, and III only
b. I and II only d. I, II, and IV
42. Indicator/s used in nonaqueous titrimetry
Page 5 of 40
I. Nile blue
II. Crystal violet
III. Malachite green
IV. Phenolphthalein
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
43. Standard solutions in nonaqueous alkalimetry.
I. Lithium methoxide
II. Perchloric acid
III. Hydrogen bromide
IV. Sodium hydroxide
b. I and II only d. I, II, III and IV
44. The use of chloroform in sodium thiosulfate solution.
a. To stabilize the solution
b. To increase its solubility
c. To prevent bacterial growth
d. To maintain pH of the solution
I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of organic solvent.
II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of electrolytes.
III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above 25 °C
IV. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature of 25°C.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III and IV
46. When a weak base is to be titrated with weak acid, the indicator used is:
a. Phenolphthalein
b. Methyl orange
c. Methyl red
d. No indicator is suggested
47. The formula to compute the equivalent weight of a reducing agent.
a. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons gain
b. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons loss
c. Both a and b
48. The used of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine solution ______.
a. Increase the solubility
b. as buffer
c. As preservative
d. To prevent bacterial growth
49. Method/s determining the total nitrogen in a sample
Page 6 of 40
a. Macromethod
b. Semimicro method
c. Both a and c
50. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is:
a. Desiccator
b. Separatory funnel
c. Furnace
d. Incubator
51. The following is/are true about EDTA:

I. EDTA forms strong 1:1 complexes with most metal ions.
II. It prevents metal-catalyzed oxidation of food.
III. It is a pentadentate molecule
IV. It contains 3 oxygen and 2 hydrogen atoms that are capable of entering
complexation reaction with metal ion.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV
52. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardized sodium
hydroxide. What is the molarity if 33.26 mL reacts with 0.3337 g sulfamic acid. MW=97
a. 0.304
b. 0.1004
c. 0.1005
d. 0.403
53. A 0.2185 g sample of NaCl was assayed using Volhard method using 50 mL of 0.998N
silver nitrate and 11.9 mL of 0.1350N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the NaCl in the
sample. MW NaCl = 58.45
a. 42.6
b. 62.4
c. 90.5
d. 6.24
54. A 4.59 mL sample of HCl, specific gravity 1.3, required 50.5 mL of 0.9544N NaOH in a
titration. Calculate the % w/w HCl.
a. 29%
b. 1%
c. 92%
d. 69%
55. What is the titer value for 0.05 M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW= 142.9
a. 3.57 mg
b. 7.15 mg
c. 73.5 mg
d. 53.7 mg
Page 7 of 40
56. A 10 mL sample of sulfuric acid solution required 16.85 mL of NaOH solution in a

titration. Each mL of the NaOH solution was equivalent to 0.2477 g of potassium
hydrogen phthalate. Calculate the sulfuric acid content in %w/v. MW=98
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
57. Limestone consists mainly of the mineral calcite, CaCO3. The carbonate content of
0.5413 g of powdered limestone was measured by suspending the powder in water,
adding 10 mL of 1.392 M HCl and heating to dissolve the solid and expel CO2. The
excess acid required 39.96 mL of 0.1004 M NaOH for complete titration to a
phenolphthalein end point. Find the weight % of the calcite in the limestone. MW=100
a. 29%
b. 39%
c. 92%
d. 96%
58. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyzed 256µL of a solution containing 37.9 mg
protein/mL. The liberated ammonia was collected in 5 mL of 0.0336 M HCl, and the
remaining acid required 6.34 mL of 0.010 M NaOH for complete titration. What is the
weight % of nitrogen in the protein? MW= 14
a. 3.86
b. 15.1
c. 51.5
d. 5.65
59. How many grams of Cupric (II) Sulfate pentahydrate should be dissolves in a volume of
500 ml to make 8 X 10-3 M solution?
MW= 249.54
a. 0.998
b. 9.98
c. 99.8
d. 109.1
60. The molarity of concentrated HCl purchased in the laboratory is approximately 12.1 M.
How many mL of this reagent should be diluted to 2 L to make 0.1 M?
a. 1.65
b. 6.53
c. 16.53
d. 165.3
61. A solution with a final volume of 500 mL was prepared by dissolving 25 mL of methanol
(density= 0.7914 g/mL) in chloroform. Calculate the molarity of methanol in the solution.
MW= 32.
a. 0.12
b. 1.24
c. 12.4
d. 124
Page 8 of 40
62. The above solution (question no.61) has a density of 1.454 g/mL. Find the molality of
methanol.
a. 0.87
b. 0.77
c. 8.7
d. 7.7
63. What is the use of HgI2 in the preparation of starch TS?
a. To increase the solubility of starch
b. To impart color
c. As a preservative
d. To stabilize the pH
64. Process of measuring the actual quantity mass, volume, force, etc. that correspond to an
indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument.
a. Weighing
b. Calibration
c. Both a and c
65. Also known as Eosin Y.
a. Dichlorofluorescein
b. Tetrabromophenolpthalein
c. Tetrabromofluorescein
d. Xylenol orange
66. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
a. Amylopectin
b. Amylose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose
67. When a reducing analyte is titrated directly with iodine, the method used is called
a. Iodometry
b. Iodimetry
c. Cerimetry
d. Permanganometry
68. The 0.1 N iodine solution is standardized using
a. Potassium permanganate
b. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
c. Arsenic trioxide
d. Sodium carbonate
69. Iodimetry is an indirect analysis of:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Acid
d. Base
70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to USP 27?
I. In azeotropic method of water of analysis toluene is used as solvent.
Page 9 of 40
II. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene and xylene are used as solvents.
III. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene, xylene, and water are used as
solvents.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. None of the statement is correct
71. What weight of arsenic trioxide (93.73%) would be used as a sample so that 26.6 mL of
0.1120 N iodine would be needed to titrate it? MW = 197.46
a. 0.14896 g
b. 0.4896 g
c. 0.1111 g
d. 0.9145 g
72. The type of alkaliodal assay where the total alkaloid is determined.
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Extraction
I. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the azeotropic
toluene distillation method.
II. Method II of water content determination in USP 27 is the titrimetric
method.
III. Method III of water content determination in USP 27 is the gravimetric
method.
IV. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the Karl Fischer
method.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
74. Residue on ignition is also called:
a. Loss on ignition
b. Loss on drying
c. Acid-soluble ash
d. Sulfated ash
75. Primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Anhydrous sodium carbonated
b. Sodium tartrate
c. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d. Sodium oxalate
76. Method 1 for determining alcohol-soluble extractives is also known as:
a. Hot extraction method
b. Cold extraction method
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c. Hot compressed method

d. Cold compressed method
77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
I. Iodine value is a quantitative measure of the amount of unsaturated fatty acid in
fats.
II. Method I of determining iodine value is also known as Hanus method.
III. Wij’s method is also a method of determining iodine value.
IV. Hubl’s method is official method of determining iodine value.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
d. All of the statements are correct
78. Koettsdorfer number is also known as:
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
79. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 g/mole) is:
a. 67
b. 0.067
c. 0.114
d. 0.026
80. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in
a. Permanganometry
b. Ceric sulfate titration
c. iodometry
d. Iodimetry
81. A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous
titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the %
purity of the sample. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of
C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4
a. 97.2
b. 72.9
c. 27.9
d. 9.72
82. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5 N of the solution.
MW = 126
a. 36.5 g
b. 63.5 g
c. 31.5 g
d. 23.5 g
83. If 10g of olive oil required 20 mL of 0.0211 N NaOH in the titration of the free fatty acids.
What is the acid number of the oil?
a. 2.9
Page 11 of 40
b. 2.4
c. 11.50
d. 115
84. Does the acid value of the above conform with the official requirement? (In 10g of olive
oil, the specification is <5mL of 0.1N NaOH.)
a. Yes
b. No
c. Uncertain
d. None of the above
85. In phenol contain determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the
cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with
KOH solution. The % phenol is:
a. 73
b. 69
c. 7.3
d. 77
86. A 4.0570 g sample of chlorinated lime was mixed with enough water to make 1000mL. A
100 mL of the mixture was treated with potassium iodide and acetic acid, then titrated
with 22.4 mL of sodium thiosulfate solution. A 20 mL sample of sodium thiosulfate was
found to be equivalent to 0.2996 g of pure iodine. Calculate the available chlorine in the
sample.
MW Iodine = 126.9 ; MW Cl = 35.45
a. 27.35%
b. 27.45%
c. 29.02%
d. 23.1%
87. Military standard table is also known as:
a. Government sampling plan
b. MIL-STD-105D
c. ABC-STD 105D
88. The % hexane extractive obtained from 27.5820 g of crude drug yielding a residue of
0.9155g of extractive is:
a. 3.32%
b. 33.2%
c. 4.30%
d. 4.6%
89. Calculate the menthyl acetate content in % if 9.5 g sample of peppermint oil was
refluxed with 25 mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 22.5 ml of 0.4900N HCl for the
residual titration. The blank was run using the same volume of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and
required 26.0mL of 0.4900N HCl to bring about the end point. Each mL of 0.5N alcoholic
KOH consumed in the saponification is equivalent to 99.15 mg menthyl acetate.
a. 4.82%
b. 3.58%
Page 12 of 40
c. 4.80%
d. 8.4%
90. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215g of the crude drug;
the volume of 0.0245N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was
back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225N sodium hydroxide solution. Each ml of 0.02N
sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloid.
a. 2.67%
b. 6.72%
c. 7.62%
d. 6.5%
91. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighing 0.21g if 26mL and 12
mL of 0.1100 N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration
respectively.
a. 90
b. 93
c. 108
d. 200
92. Identify the sample of the above question with USP requirement of:
a. Persic oil 90-108
b. Corn oil 102-128
c. Olive oil 79-88
93. Find the acid value of oleic acid sample weighing 2g which require 45mL 0f 0.1102
NaOH to bring about the end point.
a. 196
b. 200
c. 345
d. 139
94. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification
value of 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample?
a. 8.5
b. 86.5
c. 186.5
d. 56.5
95. A 50 mL aliquot of solution containing .450g of magnesium sulfate in 0.5L required 37.6
mL of EDTA solution for titration. How many mg of calcium carbonate will react with 1
mL of this EDTA solution? MW magnesium sulfate = 120.37; MW CaCO3 = 100
a. 0.9943 mg
b. 9.99 mg
c. 99.94 mg
d. 9943 mg
96. The following is/are true about auxillary complexing agent.
I. Eriochrome black is an example of an auxillary complexing agent
II. Auxillary complexing agents are also ligands
Page 13 of 40
III. Auxillary complexIng agents binds the metal strong enough to prevent the
hydroxide from precipitating, but weakly enough to give up the metal ion when
EDTA is added.
IV. It is used to permit many metals to be titrated in alkaline solution with EDTA.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. III, and IV
e. I, II, III and IV
97. The following is/ are true about EDTA titration.
I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration.
II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called EDTA indicator.
III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA indicator
IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration.
a. I only
b. II and III
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II and IV
98. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. A redox indicator is a compound that changes color when it goes from oxidized to
reduced state
II. Starch is a redox indicator
III. Ferroin is a redox indicator
IV. The hydrolysis is product of starch is glucose which is a reducing agent
a. I only
b. I and II
c. III, I, II, and III
d. I, III, and IV
e. I, II, III, and IV
99. Which of the following statement/ is/are correct?
I. KMnO4 can be standardized using arsenic trioxide
II. KMnO4 serves as indicator in acidic solution.
III. Hydrogen peroxide can be analyzed using KMnO4.
IV. KMnO4 in acidic solution is reduced to colorless Mn+2
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. II and IV
100. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent
II. Potassium dichromate is used chiefly for the determination Fe+2 and indirectly
sample that will oxidized Fe+2 to Fe+3.
Page 14 of 40
III. Potassium dichromate to chronous ion, gains 6 electrons

a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II, and III
101. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry.
II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce iodine which us
then titrated with sodium thiosulfate.
III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV
102. Koppeschaar’s solution is also known as:
a. 0.1 N Iodine solution
b. 0.1 N Bromine solution
c. 0.1 M sodium nitrite solution
d. 0.1 N sodium thiosulfate solution
103. Assay of sulfa drugs can be determined by this reaction with sodium nitrite.
a. Neutralization
b. Complexation
c. Precipitation
d. Diazotization
104. 0.1 N Bromine is employed as:
a. Oxidizing agent
b. Reducing agent
c. Masking agent
d. Demasking agent
105. A precisely manufactured glass tube with graduations enabling to measure the
volume of liquid delivered through the stopcock at the bottom.
a. Separatory funnel
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Buret
d. Pipet
106. Dichlorophenol-indophenol solution is standardized using:
a. Sulfanilamide USP
b. ascorbic acid USP
c. Sulfathiazole USP
d. Resorcinol USP
107. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using:
a. Sodium bicarbonate
Page 15 of 40
b. Potassium phthalate
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Tromethamine
108. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as:
a. Hub’s method
b. Wij’s method
c. Hanus method
109. Residual titration method is also known as:
a. Direct titration
b. Indirect titration
c. Back titration
d. Redox titration
110. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + -
25°C. This temperature is represented by:
a. Very dull heat
b. Dull red heat
c. White red heat
d. Bright red heat
111. The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer
by determining its refractive index is:
a. Rose oil
b. Water
c. Methanol
d. Peanut oil
112. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:
a. Method I c
b. Method II
c. Method I a
d. Method III
113. Perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid and perchloric acid in dioxane are volumetric
solution used in what type of analysis?
a. Direct acidimetry
b. Direct alkalimetry
c. Non-aqueous acidimetry
d. Non-aqueous alkalimetry
114. The primary standard used in the standardization of the above VS is:
a. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Potassium biphthalate
d. Benzoic acid
115. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Phenol is assayed using residual iodometry using excess bromine
solution.
Page 16 of 40
II. 0.1 N Bromine solution contains potassium bromide and potassium

bromate.
III. Bromine vapor is liberated from KBr and KBrO3 in basic environment.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
116. A 1.5g of liquefied phenol was dissolve in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30
mL sample of the solution was treated with 30 mL of 0.1 N Bromine solution and
HCl. The mixture was treated with KI and titrated with 8.7 mL of 0.1N sodium
thiosulfate. It was also found that 21 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate was required
in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20 mL of the bromine solution was
treated with KI and HCl. Compute for the % phenol in the sample. MW Phenol =
94.
a. 59.4
b. 69.4
c. 79.4
d. 89.4
117. Hydrolysis products of ASA
a. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide
b. Acetic acid + salicylic acid
c. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide
d. Sodium salicylate + water
118. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Compleximetry
d. Redox Titration
119. A characteristic of a substance which is suitable for non-aqueous titrimetry is:
a. Weakly reactive
b. Weakly basic
c. Very soluble in water
d. a and b
e. b and c
120. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is :
a. Oxalic acid
b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Vinegar
d. Bromine solution
121. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is:
a. +2
b. +1
c. +5
d. +7
Page 17 of 40
122. Which of the following chemicals is not included in preparing the Karl Fischer
reagent?
a. Pyridine
b. Acetone
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. Iodine
123. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determined.
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Titration
d. Complexation
124. Titer is an expression of concentration of solution is determined.
a. g of solute/ 100 mL
b. g or mg/mL
c. g of solute / L
d. b and c
125. Methyl orange in base medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Green
126. Assay of zinc oxide is what type of analysis?
a. Alkalimetric residual
b. Acidimetric direct
c. Acidimetric residual
d. Alkalimetric direct
127. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali.
a. Methyl orange
b. Methyl red
c. Phenol red
d. Phenolphthalein
128. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored:
a. Yellow
b. Pink
c. Colorless
d. Blue
129. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of defect?
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Performance
130. Performs and evaluate microbiological assay, sterility, pyrogen, and
bacteriological test, safety or acute toxicity test.
a. Material inspection section
Page 18 of 40
b. Analytical laboratory
c. Biological testing
d. Specification and analytical laboratory
131. This analysis is done by dissolving the substance under examination in an
accurately measured quantity of standard solution known to be in excess and
back titrating the excess solution with another standard solution.
a. Gravimetric analysis
b. Acidimetric analysis
c. Direct alkalimetric analysis
d. Residual titration
132. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of
1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is:
a. Acid value
b. Ester value
c. Hydroxyl value
d. Saponification value
133. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is:
a. Refractometer
b. Polarimeter
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
134. Analysis in which separation of the constituents from the sample is done and
then weighing the product is:
a. Volumetric analysis
b. Instrumental method of analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Special method of analysis
135. The end point of iodometry using starch TS as indicator is:
a. Intense blue color
b. Disappearance of blue color
c. Greenish-blue color
d. Disappearance of green-blue color
I. Ester value is the number of mg of KOH required to saponify the ester in 1 g of
fat or oil.
II. Ester value = saponification value + Acid value
III. Ester value determination is applicable to fats, volatile oils, and alcohols.
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the statements are incorrect
137. Which of the following area is not a responsibility of quality control manager?
a. Specification and analytical development
b. Biological testing lab
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c. Analytical lab
d. Market research
138. Hexane is the best solvent extracting:
a. Resins
b. Fats
c. Volatile oil
d. Acid
139. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number?
a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Ester value
d. Iodine value
140. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Phytosterol
c. Lard
d. Wax
141. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of:
a. Cellulose
b. Cholesterol
c. Phytosterol
142. The unsaponifiable matter present in vegetable oils and fats is:
a. Cholesterol
b. Cellulose
c. phytosterol
d. lard
143. If a 0.47 g sample of potassium iodide yielded 0.7564 g of silver iodide
precipitate by gravimetric assay, compute for the % purity of the potassium
iodide. MW KI = 165.90; MW AgI = 234.76
a. 83.7%
b. 93.7%
c. 103.7%
d. 113.7%
144. Which of the following volumetric solutions is used in diazotization analysis of
sulfa drugs?
a. 0.1 M sodium nitrite
b. 0.05 edetate disodium
c. 0.01 M sodium nitrite
d. 0.1 N Iodine solution
145. Phenol is assayed using this method of analysis.
a. Residual alkalimetry
b. Volumetric precipitation
c. Residual iodometry using excess bromine
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d. Iodimetry
146. Calculate the molarity of sodium nitrite volumetric solution, if 31.6 mL of this
solution reacts with 0.5004 g of sulfanilamide (C6H8N2O2S) to reach an end point.
MW of sulfanilamide = 172.2
a. 0.09196
b. 0.91960
c. 0.21090
d. 0.01209
147. A 0.5110 g sample of sulfathiozole was assayed using 18.8 mL of 0.1005 M
sodium nitrite solution in a titration. Each mL of 0.1 M sodium nitrite is equivalent
to 25.53 mg of C9H9N3O2S2. Calculate the % C9H9N3O2S2 in the sample.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 94%
d. 93%
148. Which of the following standard solutions is not used in redox titration?
a. Sodium thiosulfate solution
b. Iodine solution
c. Bromine solution
d. Sodium hydroxide solution
149. Assay of ASA (raw material) is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct alkalimetry
b. Residual alkalimetry
c. Direct acidimetry
d. Residual acidimetry
150. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of what method of analysis?
a. Direct titration – Redox
b. Indirect titration – Redox
c. Residual titration – Redox
d. Iodimetry
151. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug
or pharmaceutical product is performing:
a. Special method
b. Identification test
c. Pharmacopeial testing
d. Pharmaceutical assaying
152. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same
a. Normality
b. Volume
c. Number of mEq
d. Weight
153. Most of the official drugs containing Calcium and Magnesium are determine by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Complexometry
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c. Bioassay
d. Non-aqueous matter
154. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:
a. Direct
b. Residual
c. Indirect
d. All of the above
155. The iodine value of an oil is a quantitative measure of:
a. Phenol coefficient
b. Saturated fatty acid
c. Unsaturated fatty acid
d. Unsaponifiable matter
156. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of
0.1055 N iodine solution (atomic weight: As=74.92, O=16) The percentage purity
of the sample is:
a. 90.44
b. 90.23
c. 89.0
d. 90.54
157. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder using 3.50 g sample. The
water equivalence factor, F, of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume
consumed was 9.2 mL. The % water content was:
a. 1.20
b. 1.21
c. 12.10
d. 1.10
158. Twenty tablets of Ascorbic acid weighed 4.250 g and a powdered sample of
0.3075 g used up 21.5 mL of 0.1085 N iodine solution. What was the amount of
Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1 N iodine is equivalent to 8.80
mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic Acid). The amount is:
a. 283.7 mg
b. 141.86 mg
c. 0.2836 g
d. A and C
159. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is:
a. Methyl red
b. Carbol fucshin
c. Crystal violet
d. Saffranin
160. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is:
a. Cell wall
b. Fimbriae
c. Spore
d. Cytoplasmic membrane
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161. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with the standard acid
is:
a. Acidimetry
b. Alkalimetry
c. Complexometry
d. Redox
162. Analysis where separation of the constituent from the sample is done that
weighing the products is:
a. Volumetric
b. Gravimetric
c. Special
d. Gasometric method
163. Adsorption indicators are used in:
a. Complexometric reaction
b. Acidimetry
c. Volumetric precipitation
d. Alkalimetry
164. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:
a. g of solute per 100 mL
b. g or mg of solute per mL
c. g per liter
d. A and C
165. Iodimetry is what type of titration?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Residual
d. A and C
166. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determines is:
a. Ultimate
b. Specific
c. Proximate
d. Precision
167. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
a. Polarimeter
b. Refractometer
c. Spectrometer
d. Flame photometer
168. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is:
a. Thymol blue
b. Hydroxynapthol blue
c. Methyl red
d. Methylene blue
169. In neutralization methods in aqueous medium, a product is:
a. Oil
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b. Salt
c. Precipitate
d. A and B
170. The moisture content of a drug maybe:
a. Water of hydration
b. Water in the adsorbed form
c. Water of crystallization
d. All of the above
171. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is:
a. +1
b. +2
c. +4
d. +3
172. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it consists of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Cell compartment
d. B and C
173. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:
a. Prism
b. Lamp house
c. Oil
d. Volatile oil
174. To keep samples moisture-free the apparatus used is:
a. Desiccator
b. Furnace
c. Incubator
d. Oven
175. Microbial assay of an antibiotics maybe performed using the following except:
a. Test tube inoculation
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Paper disk method
d. Titration process
176. Result of the experiment that are close to one another is considered to be:
a. Accurate
b. Cylinder plate method
c. Approximate
d. A and C
177. Flame Spectroscopy procedures maybe divided into:
a. Flame emission
b. Atomic adsorption
c. Nuclear magnetic resonance
d. A and B
178. Safety and Toxicity test are conducted using:
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a. Rabbits
b. Dogs
c. White mice
d. Guinea pig
179. A parenteral is declared pyrogenic if the temperature rise in rabbits is:
a. Less than 1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
b. 0.6°C in in the 1 of the 9 readings
c. >1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits
180. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following except:
a. Fats
b. Volatile oil
c. Alcohols
d. Fatty oils
181. In Gas chromatography, the results of the assay is expressed in:
a. Retention on the column
b. Rf value
c. Volume of the gas used
d. Adsorbent
182. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined by:
a. Neutralization
b. Standardization
c. Hydration
d. Titration
183. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a
wavelength range of:
a. 3-5 µm
b. 380-780 µm
c. 200-380 µm
d. 15-300 µm
184. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is:
a. Sodium carbonate anhydrous
b. Potassium biphthalate
c. sodium tartrate dihydrate
d. sodium bicarbonate
185. the molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is:
a. 98
b. 49
c. 0.098
d. 0.049
186. The type of ash where sulfuric acid used to whiten the ash is:
a. acid insoluble ash
b. sulfated ash
c. loss on ignition
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d. ROI
187. The oil from peppermint can be determined by using:
a. Cassia flask
b. Bobcock bottle
c. Pycometer
d. Titration
188. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of sodium hydroxide
pellets are needed to make 500 mL of 1.5 N solution?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
189. Using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following
data were obtained: absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55. A of the
sample was 0.58. Concentration of the standard used was 16.5 mcg. The
concentration of the sample was:
a. 15.5 mcg
b. 17.55 mcg
c. 17.40 mcg
d. 15.9 mcg
190. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by the
particles of a suspension.
a. Reflected
b. Absorbed
c. Transmitted
d. Absorbed
191. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the
adsorbent is:
a. Column
b. Paper
c. TLC
d. Gas
192. All of the following are optical devices except:
a. pH meter
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Colorimeter
d. Filter photometer
193. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. KMnO4
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Sodium nitrite
194. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by:
a. Iodimetry
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b. Micro-bio/ turbidimetric
c. Fluorometry
d. Iodometry
195. The assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil may be by:
a. Gravimetric
b. Bisulfite
c. Hydroxylamine
d. B and C
196. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is:
a. Law of mass action
b. Beer’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Newton’s law
197. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation of:
a. Volatile component in a liquid mixture
b. Amino acids
c. Blood components
d. A and B
198. In column Chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of
narrow bands in a column is called:
a. Chromatogram
b. Eluent
c. Development
d. A and B
199. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a
reference standard, they are called:
a. Isomeric substance
b. Similar solutions
c. Similar preparations
d. B and C
200. Beer’s plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:
a. Absorbance of the sample
b. Wavelength to be used
c. Blank
d. Concentration of the drug substance
201. A one percent (1%) solid in liquid solution is officially (USP) understood as:
a. 1g in 100 mL
b. 100 mg in 1 mL
c. 10g in 1000 mL
d. 10 g in 1 L
202. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “well close container” it is
understood that;
a. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
b. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
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c. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors

d. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas
203. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “tight container” it is
understood that;
204. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a “hermetic container” it is
understood that;
205. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of compedial dosage forms
is
a. Deionized water
b. Distilled water
c. Purified water
d. Water for injection
206. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions is
a. Sterile purified water
b. Purified water
c. Water for injection
d. Sterile water for injection
207. Metallic impurities detected in the USP Heavy Metal test are
a. Lead and mercury
b. Copper and tin
c. Both a and b
208. Treated soda lime glass is classified as
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
209. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through
a. Dealkilation
b. Oxidation
c. Hydrolysis
210. The water attack test determines the chemical resistance to water of what type of
glass?
a. Type I
b. Type II
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c. Type III
d. NP
211. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. NP
212. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light resistant if
it
allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted?
a. 10% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
b. 15% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
c. 20% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
d. 25% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm
213. The suitability of plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
214. The classification plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug
products is
determined through what type of test?
a. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro
b. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo
c. Both a and b
215. Plastic materials which comply with the requirements of Biological Reactivity
Test, In Vitro are essentially?
a. Non cytotoxic
b. Non carcinogenic
c. Both a and b
216. The conductivity of water is expressed in what unit?
a. µS/cm
b. µS/cm2
c. µmho2/cm
217. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is
a. Between 6.0 and 7.0
b. Between 5.0 and 7.0
c. Between 7.0 and 8.0
Page 29 of 40
218. In the manufacture of sterile parenteral solutions all added raw materials must be
sterile.
a. Necessary
b. Not necessary
c. Always
219. A large volume intravenous solution has a minimum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
220. A small volume of intravenous solution has a maximum volume of
a. 1000mL
b. 200mL
c. 500mL
221. A sterile parenteral solution is also non pyrogenic
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
222. If the bacterial endotoxin limit of a dosage form is 0.25EU/mL it means all
components of the preparations shoul contribute
a. ≤ 0.25EU/mL
b. ≥0.25EU/mL
c. <0.25EU/mL
223. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the
preparation
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Sometime
d. Not at all
224. Sterility Testing of Pharmacopeial articles test for the presence of
a. Gram (+) and gram (-) organism
b. Aerobic and anaerobic organism
c. Both a and b
225. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at
a. 23 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
b. 25 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
c. 20 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH
Page 30 of 40
226. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room

temperature
conditions is carried out at
a. 30 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
b. 35 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
c. 40 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH
227. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
228. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
229. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is
carried
out at
a. 5 ± 3°C
b. 8 ± 3°C
c. 4 ± 3°C
230. Stability indicating test procedures include
a. Antimicrobial effectiveness test
b. Dissolution test
c. All of the above
231. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
232. The reference microorganism for testing the retention efficiency of a sterilizing
filter is
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Pseudomonas diminuta
c. E. coli
d.
None of the above
233. Autoclaving or Steam Sterilization should be validated to ensure that the
likelihood of survival of the most resistant microorganism is no greater than
a. 10 -5
b. 10 -6
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c. 10 6
d. 10 5
234. What is the time (in minutes) required to reduce the microbial population by 90%
or 1 log cycle (i.e., to a surviving fraction of 1/10), at a specific temperature.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
235. What is the time (in minutes) required to provide the lethality equivalent to that
provided at 121° for a stated time. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290
to 450 nm.
a. Sterilization time
b. D value
c. F0
236. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what
percent of the weight of the tablets being tested.
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 1%
237. A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form
a. Soft gelatin capsule
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Liquid fill capsule
238. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form
a. Plain coated tablet
b. Hard gelatin capsule
c. Chewable tablet
d. All of the above
239. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active
ingredient.
a. Disintegration
b. Dissolution
c. Content uniformity
240. A belonging to climatic zone IV is officially described as
a. Temperate
b. Hot, humid
c. Hot, dry
241. The Philippines belong to what climatic zone
a. I
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b. II
c. III
242. Which of the following is not an official hard gelatin capsule size for human
consumption
a. 000
b. 00 mL
c. 0000
243. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to
a. ASTM
b. ATCC
c. NIST
244. Pharmaceutical articles like raw materials must not harbor these organism
except.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Salmonella
245. The units of osmolar concentration are usually expressed as
a. mOsM
b. mOsm
c. mOSm
d. none of the above
246. Clean room classification are specified in Federal standard
a. 211E
b. 210E
c. 209E
247. Air particle counts in clean rooms is base on what particle size
a. 0.5 µm
b. 0.2 µm
c. 1 µm
248. The level in microbiological environmental monitoring is that level of
microorganism that shows a potential drift from normal operating procedure.
a. Alert level
b. Action level
c. Both a and b
249. In validation procedures the closeness of test results obtained by that method to
the true value is called
a. Precision
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b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
250. In validation procedures, what is the degree of agreement among individual test
results when the method is applied repeatedly to multiple sampling of a
homogeneous sample.
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
251. Which is not a method of neutralizing the antimicrobial properties of a product
a. Neutralization by chemical inhibition
b. Neutralization by dilution
c. Neutralization by sterilization
252. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilization
a. Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Bacillus coagulans
253. Which is the following is not a terminal sterilization procedure
a. Steam sterilization
b. Sterilization by filtration
c. Dry heat sterilization
254. In validation procedures the ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the
presence of components that may be expected to be present is called
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Specificity
255. In analytical methods, the measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small
but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its
reliability during normal usage is called.
a. Linearity
b. Robustness
c. Ruggedness
256. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical shocks
of manufacture, packaging and shipping EXCEPT
a. Hardness
b. Resistance to weight loss
c. Resistance to friability
d. Disintegration
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257. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must

a. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid
b. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid
c. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus the time
specified
d. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time specified
258. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the accepted range?
a. 0.4465-0.4935 cm
b. 0.4348-0.5050 cm
c. 0.4230-0.5170 cm
d. 0.3525-0.5875 cm
259. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the acceptable tablet weight
range?
a. 0.1170-0.1430 g
b. 0.1203-0.1398 g
c. 0.0300-0.2300 g
d. 0.0550- 0.2050 g
260. Which of the following is NOT used in Method II of USP test for bulk density?
a. 250 mL graduated cylinder
b. No.18 screen
c. Volumeter
d. Baffle box
261. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet:
a. Bioavailability
b. Hardness and thickness
c. Weight variation
d. Disintegration
262. Pyrogen test is performed in:
a. Pigeons
b. Mice
c. Rabbits
d. Guinea pigs
263. Which is the following statements is NOT true about closure:
a. Should fit the thread of the containers
b. Should produce no leaks
c. Should be made of plastic materials
d. Should be reasonably tight and look elegant
264. Friability testing is done using a Roche friability that must be set to ensure:
a. 10 falls of tablets
b. Either A or B
c. 100 falls of tablets
d. 100 rpm
265. Evaluation of Aspirin Granules (IPQC)
Weight of the sample = 50 grams
Page 35 of 40
Height of cone formed (fixed funnel) = 5 cm

Diameter of cone formed = 13 cm
The repose angle is
a. 25°
b. 38°
c. 30°
d. 50°
266. The temperature wherein the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained is:
a. 36°F and 46°F
b. 46°F and 59°F
c. -13°F and 14°F
d. -23°F and 34°F
267. Water attack test as an official test for glass is done on:
a. Type I glass
b. Type II glass
c. A and B
d. Type III glass
268. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:
a. 10 tablets
b. 20 tablets
c. 15 tablets
d. 5 tablets
269. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet
products:
a. Disintegration
b. Purity
c. Bioavailability
d. Potency
270. In SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is
called:
a. Attribute chart
b. Beer’s plot
c. Bar chart
d. Variable chart
271. Common component of cap liners, stoppers, and parts of dropper assemblies:
a. Metal
b. plastic
c. Glass
d. Rubber
272. This class of drugs require batch certification from the Bureau of Food and Drugs
a. Anti-convulsants
b. Antibiotics
c. analgesic
d. Vitamins
Page 36 of 40
273. While waiting for its release by the quality control, materials are held in:
a. Packing area
b. Quarantine area
c. Analytical laboratory
d. Biological laboratory
274. One of the following is a secondary packaging component:
a. Caps
b. Corrugated cartons
c. vials
d. Bottles
275. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each
production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay
of the individual compedial monograph.
a. Content uniformity
b. Weight variation
c. Disintegration test
d. Dissolution test
276. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:
a. Oxygen
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
277. The bioassay for Parathyroid Injection is based on measuring the increase in
serum calcium in
a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Sheep
d. Rat
278. Biological reactivity test(s) in vitro except
a. Agar diffusion test
b. Direct contact test
c. Implantation test
d. Elution test
279. Animal employed for the biological assay of oxytocin injection
a. Pigeon
b. Rabbit
c. Chicken
d. Rat
280. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in
a. Capsules
b. Emulsions
c. Ointments
d. Tablets
281. The test for content uniformity is required for
Page 37 of 40
a. Film-coated tablets
b. Solutions for inhalation
c. suspensions
d. Liquid-filled soft capsules
282. Powdered glass test is done on the following except
a. Borosilicate glass
b. Soda lime glass
c. Treated soda lime glass
d. General purpose soda lime glass
283. In what type of dosage form is the determination of zeta potential needed?
a. Suspensions
b. Solutions
c. emulsions
d. Aerosols
284. Determine the shelf-life of a product
a. Sampling inspection program
b. Validation program
c. Stability testing program
d. All
285. The QC manager is not in charged of this section
a. Analytical laboratory
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Specs and analytical program
d. Research and development section
286. The dye used in the leaker test
a. Methylene blue
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Thymol blue
287. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the
product useless.
a. Major defect
b. Critical defect
c. Minor defect
d. Ocular defect
288. A firm’s removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation
a. Drug recall
b. Market withdrawal
c. Stock recovery
289. Which question is used to predict the shelf life of a drug product?
a. Michaelis-Menten equation
b. Arrhenius theory
c. Hixson-Crowell equation
Page 38 of 40
d. Stokes equation
290. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a
function of the :
a. Documentation section
b. Biological testing laboratory
c. Material inspection method
d. Analytical laboratory
291. Pyrogen test in vitro:
a. Colorimeter
b. Cylinder-plate method
c. Fluorophotometer
d. LAL method
292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date:
a. 95 mg
b. 90 mg
c. 105 mg
d. 110 mg
293. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operations:
a. Wrong labels
b. Misaligned labels
c. Inverted labels
d. smeared labels
294. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP):
a. Concerned with record keeping
b. Step by step method on how to go about a job
c. Done to facilitate recall
d. All of these are correct
295. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this test:
a. Physical and organoleptic examination
b. Leaker test
c. Potency assay
d. Microbiological test
296. It is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the
main body
a. Lamination
b. Capping
c. Mottling
d. Picking
297. The round bottom flask used for the dissolution rate in the evaluation of tablets
should be submerge in constant temperature water bath maintained at what
temperature.
a. 37°C
b. 25°C
c. 40°C
Page 39 of 40
d. 30°C
298. The type of container which is impervious to air or any other gas under the
ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipping, storage and distribution.
a. Tight-container
b. Well-closed container
c. Single-unit container
d. Hermetic container
299. The word GITS as a drug delivery system means
a. Gastro-intestinal tract system
b. Gastric infection treatment support
c. Gastro-intestinal therapeutic system
d. General internal therapeutic system
300. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is:
a. 725 ± 25°C
b. 800 ± 25°C
c. 825 ± 25°C
d. 750 ± 25°C
Page 40 of 40

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MICROBIOLOGY & PUBLIC HEALTH

A 1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:

D 2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

A 4. The first drug available for HIV:

B 5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate

D 6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:

B 7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:

B 8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:

B 9. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms:

C 10. Administration of a toxoid confers:

D 12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:

B 15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:

A 16. Nosocomial infections are:

C 17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:

B 18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:

A 20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:

A) Fermentation B) Putrefaction C) Dentrification D) Transpeptidation

D 22. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:

A 23. This statement is true about viral infection:

B 27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:

B 28. Dengue virus vector:

D 29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:

D 30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners:

D 31. The following are communicable diseases, except:

A 32. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:

A 33. Hansen’s disease is caused by:

D 35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:

C 38. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:

C 39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:

A 41. An example of ionizing radiation:

D 42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

A) Ribosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondria

A 43. The organism with atypical cell walls:

A 44. Koch’s postulates include the following, except:

B 45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:

C 46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:

A 47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:

C 48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:

C 50. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:

B 51. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:

D 52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

B 53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:

A 54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:

A 55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:

A 56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:

A 57. A theory that states that life originates from non-life:

A 58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:

E 66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:

B 68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:

E 69 The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except:

C 71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants:

C 72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:

E 73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:

B 74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:

A 82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:

C 83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:

C 84. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:

Choices for numbers 93 – 97:

B 96. A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis.