Chemistry Pyq 2024

Thermodynamics (C) JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following :
(1) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
(2) q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
(3) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
(4) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
For a certain reaction at 300 K, K = 10 , then ΔG for the same reaction is _______ ×10
∘ −1
kJ mol
−1
. (Given
R = 8.314JK
−1
mol
−1
)
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand isotherrnally from 30dm to 45dm against a constant opposing
3 3
pressure of 80kPa, then the amount of heat transferred is ______ J.
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
For a certain thermochemical reaction M → N at T = 400 K, ΔH ⊖

= 77.2 kJ mol
−1
, ΔS = 122JK
−1
, log
equilibrium constant (log K) is ______ ×10 . −1
Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Which of the following is not correct?
(1) ΔG is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(2) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction

(3) ΔG is zero for a reversible reaction
(4) ΔG is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
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Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for CCl is 30.5 kJ mol . Heat required for vapourisation of 284 g of
4
−1
CCl4 at constant temperature is _______ kJ.
(Given molar mass in gmol −1

; C = 12, Cl = 35.5 )
Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by
tracing the path A → B → C → A as shown in the diagram. The total work done in the process is _______ J.
Q8 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Two reactions are given below:

3 ∘
2Fe(s) + O2( g)
→ Fe2 O3( s)
, ΔH = −822 kJ/mol
2
1 ∘
C(s) + O2( g)
→ CO(g) , ΔH = −110 kJ/mol
2
Then enthalpy change for following reaction
3C(s) + Fe2 O3( s)

→ 2Fe(s) + 3CO(g)
Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Consider the following reaction at 298 K.

3 −29
O2( g)
⇌ O3( g)
⋅ KP = 2.47 × 10 .
2
Δr G
⊕
for the reaction is _______ kJ. (Given R = 8.314JK −1
mol
−1
)

Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10 L to a volume of 100 L at 300 K under isothermal and reversible
condition then work, w, is −x J. The value of x is _______
(Given R = 8.314 J K −1
mol
−1
)

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (57) Q3 (1200) Q4 (37)
Q5 (2) Q6 (56) Q7 (200) Q8 (492)
Q9 (163) Q10 (28721)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
During free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0.
Q2
∘
ΔG = −RTℓnK
= −8.314 × 300 ln(10)
= 5744.14 J/mole
−1
= 57.44 × 10 kJ/mole
Q3
Using, first law of thermodynamics,

ΔU = Q + W,
ΔU = 0 : Process is isothermal
Q = −W
W = −Pext ΔV : Irreversible
3 −3
= −80 × 10 (45 − 30) × 10
= −1200 J
Q4
∘ ∘ ∘
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS
3
= 77.2 × 10 − 400 × 122 = 28400 J
∘
ΔG = −2.303RT log K
⇒ 28400 = −2.303 × 8.314 × 400 log K

−1
⇒ log K = −3.708 = −37.08 × 10
Q5
(ΔG)P,T = (+) ve for non-spontaneous process
Q6
0
ΔHvap CCl4 = 30.5 kJ/mol
Mass of CCl 4
= 284gm
Molar mass of CCl 4

= 154 g/mol

Solutions MathonGo
Moles of CCl 4 =
284
154
= 1.844 mol
∘
ΔHvap for 1 mole = 30.5 kJ/mol
∘
ΔHvap for 1.844 mol = 30.5 × 1.844
= 56.242 kJ
Q7
rk done is given by area enclosed in the P vs V cyclic graph or V vs P cyclic graph.

Sign of work is positive for clockwise cyclic process for V vs P graph.
1 3
W = × (30 − 10) × (30 − 10) = 200kPa − dm
2
= 200 × 1000 Pa − L = 2 L − bar = 200 J
Q8
2Fe(s) +
3
2
O2( g)
→ Fe2 O3( s)
, ΔH
∘
= −822 kJ/mol ...(1)
C(s) +
1
2
O2( g)
→ CO(g) , ΔH
∘
= −110 kJ/mol ...(2)
3C(s) + Fe2 O3( s)
→ 2Fe(s) + 3CO(g) , ΔH3 =?
(3) = 3 × (2) − (1)
ΔH3 = 3 × ΔH2 − ΔH1
= 3(−110) + 822
= 492 kJ/mole
Q9
3 −29
O2( g)
⇌ O3( g)
⋅ Kp = 2.47 × 10 .
2
⊕
Δr G = −RT ln KP
−3 −29
= −8.314 × 10 × 298 × ln(2.47 × 10 )
−3
= −8.314 × 10 × 298 × (−65.87)
= 163.19 kJ
Q10
It is isothermal reversible expansion, so work done negative

V2
W = −2.303nRT log( )
V1
100
= −2.303 × 5 × 8.314 × 300 log( )
10
= −28720.713 J
≡ −28721 J

Solutions MathonGo

Structure of Atom JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
According to the wave-particle duality of matter by de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot presents
most appropriate relationship between wavelength of electron (λ) and momentum of electron (p) ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:
(1) 1
(2) 4

(3) 2
(4) 3
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Which of the following electronic configuration would be associated with the highest magnetic moment?
(1) [Ar]3 d 7
(2) [Ar]3 d 8
(3) [Ar]3 d 3
(4) [Ar]3 d 6
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Consider the following complex ions

3−
P = [FeF6 ]
2+
Q = [V(H2 O) ]
6
2+
R = [Fe(H2 O) ]
6
The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is :
(1) R < Q < P
(2) R < P < Q

(3) Q < R < P
(4) Q < P < R
Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
The electronic configuration for Neodymium is:
[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
(1) [Xe]4f
4 2
6 s
(2) [Xe]5f 4
7 s
2
(3) [Xe]4f 6
6 s
2
(4) [Xe]4f
1 1 2
5 d 6 s

Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
The number of electrons present in all the completely filled subshells having n = 4 and s = + is 1
(Where n = principal quantum number and s = spin quantum number)
Q7 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is _______
2+ + 2+ 2+
Sr (Z = 38), Cs (Z = 55), La (Z = 57)Pb
2+ 2+
(Z = 82), Yb (Z = 70) and Fe (Z = 26)
Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(1) 5, 0, 0, + 1
(2) 5, 0, 1, + 1
(3) 5, 1, 0, +
1
(4) 5, 1, 1, + 1
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q10 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The orbitals having same energy are called as degenerate orbitals.
Statement-II: In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3 d orbitals are not degenerate orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Q11 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Number of spectral lines obtained in He spectra, when an electron makes transition from fifth excited state to
+
first excited state will be
Q12 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The ionization energy of sodium in kJmol . If electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just
−1
sufficient to ionize sodium atom is ________
Q13 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The four quantum numbers for the electron in the outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
(1) n = 4, l = 2, m = −1, s = +
1
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
1
(3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 1, s = +
1

(4) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
1

Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (1) Q3 (4) Q4 (3)
Q5 (1) Q6 (16) Q7 (3) Q8 (1)
Q9 (3) Q10 (1) Q11 (10) Q12 (494)
Q13 (2)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
h 1
λ = [λ ∝ ]
p p
⇒ λp = h (constant)
So, the plot is a rectangular hyperbola.
Q2
For 3p : n = 3, ℓ = 1
Number of radial node = n − ℓ − 1
= 3 − 1 − 1 = 1
Q3
7 8 3 6
3d 3d 3d 3 d
No.of.
3 2 3 4
unpaired e
Spin only
√15 √8 √15 √24
Magnetic
BM BM BM BM
moment
Q4
3− +3 5
[FeF6 ] : Fe : [Ar]3 d
F : Weak field Ligand

Solutions MathonGo
No. of unpaired electron's = 5
μ = √5(5 + 2)
μ = √35BM
+2
+2 3
[V(H2 O) ] : V : 3 d
6
μ = √3(3 + 2)
μ = √15BM
+2 +2 6
[Fe(H2 O) ] : Fe : 3 d
6
H2 O : Weak field Ligand

μ = √4(4 + 2)
μ = √24BM
Q5
Electronic configuration of Nd(Z = 60) is; [Xe] 4f 4

6 s
2
Q6
n = 4 can have,
4s 4p 4d 4f
Total e 2 6 10 14
1
Total e- with S = + 1 3 5 7
2
So, Ans. 16
Q7

Solutions MathonGo
Noble gas configuration = ns 2

np
6
2+
[Sr ] = [Kr]
+
[Cs ] = [Xe]
2+ 10 14 2 6
[Yb ] = [Kr]4 d 4f 5 s 5p
2+ 1
[La ] = [Xe]5 d
2+ 14 10 2
[ Pb ] = [Xe]4f 5 d 6 s
2+ 6
[Fe ] = [Ar]3 d
Q8
1
Rb = [Kr]5 s
n = 5
l = 0
m = 0
s = +1/2 or − 1/2
Q9
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
Fact based.
Q10
For single electron species the energy depends upon principal quantum number ' n ' only. So, statement II is
false.
Statement I is correct definition of degenerate orbitals.
Q11
5
th
excited state ⇒ n 1
= 6
1
st
excited state ⇒ n 2
= 2
Δn = n1 − n2 = 6 − 2 = 4
Maximum number of spectral lines

Δn(Δn+1) 4(4+1)
= = = 10
2 2

Solutions MathonGo
Q12
1240
E = eV
λ(nm)
1240
= eV
242
= 5.12eV
−19
= 5.12 × 1.6 × 10
−19
= 8.198 × 10 J/ atom
= 494 kJ/mol
Q13
19
2 2 6 2 6
K1 s , 2 s , 2p , 3 s , 3p , 4 s
1
.
Outermost orbital of potassium is 4 s orbital
1
n = 4, 1 = 0, m1 = 0, s = ± .
2

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Consider the following reaction:

3PbCl2 + 2(NH4 ) PO4 → Pb3 (PO4 ) + 6NH4 Cl
3 2
If 72mmol of PbCl is mixed with 50mmol of (NH

2 4)
3
PO4 , then amount of Pb 3 (PO4 )
2
formed is ______
mmol. (nearest integer)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion gives 40 mL of CO 2( g) and 50 mL of water vapour. Total
number of carbon and hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon is _______.
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO after complete combustion is ______ g.

2
(Given Molar mass in g mol-1

C = 12.0
H = 1.0
O = 16.0)
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Volume of 3MNaOH (formula weight 40 g mol ) which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is ______
−1
×10
−1
dm
3
.
Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
1 mole of PbS is oxidised by " X " moles of O to get " Y " moles of O
3 2. X + Y = ______
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The mass of
acetanilide produced if the reaction is 100% completed is ______ ×10 −1
g . (Given molar mass in
gmol
−1
N : 14, O : 16, C : 12, H : 1)

Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m area. The number of silver atoms deposited
2
on plate are _______ ×10 . (At mass Ag = 108,

23
d = 7.9 g cm
−3
)
Q8 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Number of moles of methane required to produce 22 gCO 2( g)

after combustion is x × 10 −2
moles. The value
of x is
Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
A sample of CaCO and MgCO weighed 2.21 g is ignited to constant weight of 1.152 g. The composition of
3 3
mixture is :
(Given molar mass in gmol −1

CaCO3 : 100, MgCO3 : 84)
(1) 1.187 gCaCO 3 + 1.023 gMgCO3
(2) 1.023 gCaCO 3 + 1.023 gMgCO3
(3) 1.187 gCaCO 3 + 1.187 gMgCO3
(4) 1.023 gCaCO 3 + 1.187 gMgCO3
Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The molarity of 1 L orthophosphoric acid (H 3 PO4 ) having 70% purity by weight (specific gravity
1.54 g cm
−3
) is _______ M.
(Molar mass of H 3 PO4 = 98 g mol

−1
)

Answer Key
Q1 (24) Q2 (14) Q3 (8) Q4 (7)
Q5 (8) Q6 (135) Q7 (11) Q8 (50)
Q9 (1) Q10 (11)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Limiting Reagent is PbCl 2 mmol of Pb 3 (PO4 )

2
formed
mmol of PbCl2 reacted
=
3
= 24mmol
Q2
y y
CxHy + (x + ) O2 → xCO2 + H2 O
4 2
10x 5y
10x = 40
x = 4
5y = 50
y = 10
C4 H10
Q3
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2 O
Moles of CO 2
=
22
44
= 0.5
So, required moles of CH 4

= 0.5
Mass = 0.5 × 16 = 8gm
Q4
nNaOH (84/40)
−1
M = ⇒ 3 = ⇒ V = 0.7 L = 7 × 10 L
Vsol (in L) V
Q5
PbS + 4O3 → PbSO4 + 4O2
x = 4, y = 4
Q6

Solutions MathonGo
nAcetan ilide
= nAniline
m 9.3
⇒ =
135 93
⇒ m = 13.5 g
Q7
olume of silver coating = 0.05 × 0.05 × 10000 = 25 cm 3
Mass of silver deposited = 25 × 7.9 g

Moles of silver atoms = 25×7.9
108
Number of silver atoms = 25×7.9
108
× 6.023 × 10
23
= 11.01 × 10
23
Ans. 11
Q8
CH4( g)
+ 2O2( g)
→ CO2( g)
+ 2H2 O(ℓ)
22
nCO2 = = 0.5 moles
44
So moles of CH required = 0.5 moles

4
i.e. 50 × 10 −2
mole
x = 50
Q9
Δ
CaCO3 ( s) −
→ CaO(s) + CO2 ( g)
MgCO ( s) −
→ MgO(s) + CO2 ( g)
3
Let the weight of CaCO be xgm 3

Solutions MathonGo
∴ weight of MgCO 3
= (2.21 − x)gm
Moles of CaCO decomposed = moles of CaO formed

3
100
= moles of CaO formed
∴ weight of CaO formed = x
100
× 56
Moles of MgCO decomposed = moles of MgO formed

3
(2.21−x)
84
= moles of MgO formed
2.21−x
∴ weight of MgO formed = 84
× 40
2.21−x x
⇒ × 40 + × 56 = 1.152
84 100
∴ x = 1.1886 g = weight of CaCO 3
& weight of MgCO 3

= 1.0214 g
Q10
Specific gravity (density) = 1.54 g/cc.
Volume = 1 L = 1000ml
Mass of solution = 1.54 × 1000
= 1540 g
% purity of H 2 SO4 is 70%

So weight of H 3 PO4 = 0.7 × 1540 = 1078 g
Mole of H
1078
3 PO4 = = 11
98
Molarity = 11
1 L
= 11

Solutions JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ' A ', ' B ' and ' C ' with concentration 0.1M,
0.01M&0.001M , respectively. The value of van t' Haft factor (i) for these solutions will be in the order.
(1) i A
< iB < iC
(2) i A
< iC < iB
(3) i A
= iB = iC
(4) i A
> iB > iC
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to 18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at −24 ∘
C is
_______ kg (Molar mass in gmol −1

for ethylene glycol 62, Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol )
−1
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult's law will have :
(1) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
(2) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(3) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(4) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The quantity which changes with temperature is:
(1) Molarity
(2) Mass percentage
(3) Molality
(4) Mole fraction
Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)

A solution of H 2 SO4 is 31.4%H 2 SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.25 g/mL. The molarity of the H 2 SO4
solution is _________ M (nearest integer)
[Given molar mass of H 2 SO4 = 98 g mol

−1
]
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 × 10 5

Pa at 273 K. Osmotic pressure of the same solution at
283 K is _______ ×10 4
Nm
−2
.
Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Molality of 0.8MH 2 SO4 solution (density 1.06 g cm ) is _______ ×10

−3 −3
m .
Q8 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
What happens to freezing point of benzene when small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene?
(1) Increases
(2) Remains unchanged
(3) First decreases and then increases

(4) Decreases
Q9 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The mass of sodium acetate (CH 3 COONa) required to prepare 250 mL of 0.35M aqueous solution is
_______ g. (Molar mass of CH 3 COONa is 82.02 g mol ) −1
Q10 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
If a substance ' A ' dissolves in solution of a mixture of ' B ' and ' C ' with their respective number of moles as
nA , nB and n , mole fraction of C in the solution is:

C
nC
(1) nA ×nB ×nC
nC
(2) nA +nB +nC


nC
(3) nA −nB −nC
(4) nB
nA +nB
Q11 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The solution from the following with highest depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water

(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
Q12 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Identify the mixture that shows positive deviations from Raoult's Law
(1) (CH 3)
2
CO + C6 H5 NH2
(2) CHCl 3 + C6 H6
(3) CHCl 3 + (CH3 ) CO

2
(4) (CH 3)
2
CO + CS2

Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (15) Q3 (4) Q4 (1)
Q5 (4) Q6 (73) Q7 (815) Q8 (4)
Q9 (7) Q10 (2) Q11 (1) Q12 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
1 approach 2 as the solution become very dilute.
Q2
ΔTf = iKf × molality

W
24 = (1) × 1.86 ×
62 × 18.6
W = 14880gm
= 14.880 kg
Q3
Solution with negative deviation has

PT < PA 0XA + PB 0XB
PA < PA 0XA
0
P B < P B XB
If vapour pressure decreases so boiling point increases.
Q4
Molarity = Moles of solute
Volume of solution
Since volume depends on temperature, molarity will change upon change in temperature.
Q5
nsolute
M = × 1000
V
31.4
( )
98
= × 1000
100
( )
1.25
= 4.005 ≈ 4
Q6

Solutions MathonGo
π = CRT
π1 T1
⇒ =
π2 T2
5
π 1 T2 7 × 10 × 283
⇒ π2 = =
T1 273
4 −2
= 72.56 × 10 Nm
Q7
M × 1000
m =
dsol × 1000 − M × Molar mass solute
−3
815 × 10 m
Q8
On addition of naphthalene to benzene there is depression in freezing point of benzene.
Q9
Moles = Molarity × Volume in litres

= 0.35 × 0.25
Mass = moles × molar mass
= 0.35 × 0.25 × 82.02 = 7.18 g
Ans. 7
Q10
nC
Mole fraction of C =
nA +nB +nC
Q11
ΔTf is maximum when i × m is maximum.

180
1) m 1 =
60
= 3, i = 1 + α
Hence
∘
ΔTf = (1 + α) ⋅ kf = 3 × 1.86 = 5.58 C(α < 1)
180 3
2) m 2 =
60
= 3, i = 0.5, ΔTf =
2
′
× kf = 7.68 C
∘
180 1.48
3) m 3 =
122
= 1.48, i = 0.5, ΔTf =
2
× kf
′ ∘
= 3.8 C

Solutions MathonGo
4) m 4 =
180
180
′
= 1, i = 1, ΔTf = 1 ⋅ kf = 1.86 C
∘
As per NCERT, k f
′
(H2 O) = 1.86k ⋅ kgmol
−1
′ −1
kf ( Benzene ) = 5.12k ⋅ kgmol
Q12
(CH3 ) CO + CS2
2
Exibits positive deviations from Raoult's Law

Redox Reactions JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
In acidic medium, K 2 Cr2 O7 shows oxidising action as represented in the half reaction
2− + −
Cr2 O + XH + Ye → 2 A + ZH2 O
7
X, Y, Z and A are respectively are:
(1) 8, 6, 4 and Cr 2 O3
(2) 14, 7, 6 and Cr 3+
(3) 8, 4, 6 and Cr 2 O3
(4) 14, 6, 7 and Cr 3+
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?

(A) Cu +
→ Cu
2+
+ Cu
(B) 3MnO 2−
4
+ 4H
+
→ 2MnO
−
4
+ MnO2 + 2H2 O
(C) 2KMnO 4 → K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(D) 2MnO −
4
+ 3Mn
2+
+ 2H2 O → 5MnO2 + 4H
+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B)
(2) (B), (C), (D)

(3) (A), (B), (C)
(4) (A), (D)
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard for standardisation of sodium hydroxide
solution.
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein can be used as indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?
(1) N 3−
(2) SO 2−
(3) BrO −
(4) MnO −
Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
KMnO4 decomposes on heating at 513 K to form O along with 2
(1) MnO 2& K2 O2
(2) K 2 MnO4 &Mn
(3) Mn&KO 2
(4) K 2 MnO4 &MnO2
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium as shown below :
a Cl 2( g) + bOH
−
(aq) → cClO
−
(aq) + dCl
−
(aq) +e2 O(l)
The values of a, b, c and d in a balanced redox reaction are respectively:
(1) 1, 2, 1 and 1
(2) 2, 2, 1 and 3
(3) 3, 4, 4 and 2
(4) 2, 4, 1 and 3

Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
If 50 mL of 0.5M oxalic acid is required to neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of NaOH in
50 mL of given NaOH solution is _______ g.
Q8 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
− − −
2MnO + bI + cH2 O → xI2 + yMnO2 + zOH
4
If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of z is _______
Q9 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Total number of species from the following which can undergo disproportionation reaction _______.
− +1 +
H2 O2 , ClO , P4 , Cl2 , Ag, Cu , F2 , NO2 , K
3
Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Statement I: S solid undergoes

8
disproportionation reaction under alkaline
conditions to form S 2−
and S 2 O3
2−
Statement II: ClO can undergo

−
disproportionation reaction under acidic condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (1) Q3 (1) Q4 (1)
Q5 (4) Q6 (1) Q7 (4) Q8 (8)
Q9 (6) Q10 (1)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
The balanced reaction is,

2− + − 3+
Cr2 O + 14H + 6e → 2Cr + 7H2 O
7
X = 14
Y = 6
A = 7
Q2
When a particular oxidation state becomes less stable relative to other oxidation state, one lower, one higher, it
is said to undergo disproportionation.
+ 2+
Cu → Cu + Cu
2− + −
3MnO + 4H → 2MnO + MnO2 + 2H2 O
4 4
Q3
Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a primary standard for standardisation of sodium hydroxide
solution as it is economical and its concentration does not changes with time.
Phenophthalin can acts as indicator in acid base titration as it shows colour in pH range 8.3 to 10.1
Q4
In N 3−
ion ' N ' is present in its lowest possible oxidation state, hence it cannot be reduced further because of
which it cannot act as an oxidizing agent.
Q5
Δ
KMnO4 −
→ K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
Q6

Solutions MathonGo
Q7
Equivalent of Oxalic acid = Equivalents of NaOH

50 × 0.5 × 2 = 25 × M × 1
MNaOH = 2M
−3
WNaOH in 50ml = 2 × 50 × 40 × 10 g = 4 g
Q8
Reduction Half Oxidation Half

− − −
( 2MnO4 → 2MnO2 2I → I2 + 2e )
− − − − −
2MnO + 4H2 O + 6e → 2MnO2 + 8OH 6I → 3I2 + 6e
4
Adding oxidation half and reduction half, net reaction is

− − −
2MnO + 6I + 4H2 O → 3I2 + 2MnO2 + 8OH
4
( ⇒z = 8 )
⇒Ans 8
Q9
Intermediate oxidation state of element can undergo disproportionation.

− +1
H2 O2 , ClO , P4 , Cl2 , Cu , NO2
3
Q10
⊖ 2− 2−
S1 : S8 + 12OH → 4 S + 2 S2 O + 6H2 O
3
S2 : ClO
⊖
4
cannot undergo disproportionation reaction as chlorine is present in it's highest oxidation state.

Practical Chemistry JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
The number of white coloured salts among the following is

(A) SrSO 4
(B) Mg (NH 4) PO4
(c) BaCrO 4
(D) Mn(OH) 2
(E) PbSO 4
(F) PbCrO 4
(G) AgBr
(H) PbI 2
(I) CaC 2 O4
(J) [Fe(OH) 2 (CH3 COO)]
Q2 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with Nickel ions in basic medium is
(1) sodium nitroprusside
(2) neutral FeCl 3
(3) meta-dinitrobenzene
(4) dimethyl glyoxime
Q3 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
On passing a gas, ' X ', through Nessler's reagent, a brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ' X ' is
(1) H 2 S
(2) CO 2
(3) NH 3
(4) Cl 2

Q4 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The oxidation number of iron in the compound formed during brown ring test for NO ion is _______
−
Q5 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)

Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt with dil H 2 SO4 , turns a piece of paper dipped in lead acetate
into black, it is a confirmatory test for sulphide ion.
Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper turns black because of formation of lead sulphite. In the light
of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
Q6 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The Lassiagne's extract is boiled with dil HNO before testing for halogens because,
3
(1) AgCN is soluble in HNO 3
(2) Silver halides are soluble in HNO 3
(3) Ag 2
S is soluble in HNO 3
(4) Na 2 S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO 3
Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Number of metal ions characterized by flame test among the following is _______.
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
Sr , Ba , Ca , Cu , Zn , Co , Fe
Q8 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The compound that is white in color is

(1) ammonium sulphide
(2) lead sulphate

(3) lead iodide
(4) ammonium arsinomolybdate
Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO 3, KI and CaF which does not evolve coloured vapours on heating
2
with concentrated H 2 SO4 is _______ gmol , (Molar mass in gmol

−1 −1
: Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39 ,
O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40

Answer Key
Q1 (5) Q2 (4) Q3 (3) Q4 (1)
Q5 (3) Q6 (4) Q7 (4) Q8 (2)
Q9 (78)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
SrSO4 - white
Mg (NH4 ) PO4 − white
BaCrO4 - yellow
Mn(OH)2 − white
PbSO4 − white
PbCrO4 - yellow
AgBr - pale yellow
PbI2 - yellow
CaC2 O4 - white
[Fe(OH)2 (CH3 COO)] − Brown Red
Q2
2+ −
Ni + 2dmg → [Ni(dmg)2 ]
Rosy red/Bright Red precipitate
Q3
Nessler's Reagent Reaction :

2 K2 HgI4 + NH3 + 3KOH → HgO. Hg (NH2 ) I + 7KI + 2H2 O
(Nessler's Reagent) (odine of Millon's base
Brown precipitate
Q4
2+
[Fe(H2 O) (NO)]
5
,
Oxidation no. of Fe = +1
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
Na2 S + H2 SO4 → Na2 SO4 + H2 S
(CH3 COO) Pb + H2 S → PbS + 2CH3 COOH

2
Black lead
sulphide
Q6
If nitrogen or sulphur is also present in the compound, the sodium fusion extract is first boiled with
concentrated nitric acid to decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium during Lassaigne's test
Q7
All the following metal ions will respond to flame test.

2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
Sr , Ba , Ca , Cu
Q8
Lead sulphate-white
Ammonium sulphide-soluble
Lead iodide-Bright yellow

Ammonium arsinomolybdate-yellow
Q9
CaF2 does not evolve any gas with concentrated H 2 SO4 .
NaBr → evolve Br 2
NaNO3 → evolve NO 2
KI → evolve I 2

p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 and 18) JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Among the following oxide of p - block elements, number of oxides having amphoteric nature is
Cl2 O7 , CO, PbO2 , N2 O, NO, Al2 O3 , SiO2 , N2 O5 , SnO 2
Q2 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Element not showing variable oxidation state is :
(1) Bromine
(2) Iodine
(3) Chlorine
(4) Fluorine
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only -2 oxidation state.
Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state increases.

Q4 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements.

A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order NH 3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases in the order NH 3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
C. Among the hydrides, NH is strong reducing agent while BiH is mild reducing agent.
3 3

D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the order NH 3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
Choose the most appropriate from the option given below:
(1) B and C only

(2) C and D only
(3) A and B only

(4) A and D only
Q5 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Give below are two statements:

Statement-I : Noble gases have very high boiling points.
Statement-II: Noble gases are monoatomic gases. They are held together by strong dispersion forces. Because
of this they are liquefied at very low temperature. Hence, they have very high boiling points. In the light of the
above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Q6 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Choose the correct statements from the following
A. All group 16 elements form oxides of general formula EO and EO where E = S, Se, Te and Po. Both the
2 3
types of oxides are acidic in nature.

B. TeO is an oxidising agent while SO is reducing in nature.
2 2
C. The reducing property decreases from H 2 S to H 2 Te down the group.
D. The ozone molecule contains five lone pairs of electrons.

(1) A and D only

(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only

(4) A and B only

Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (4) Q3 (3) Q4 (3)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Acidic oxide: Cl 2 O7 , SiO2 , N2 O5
Neutral oxide: CO, NO, N 2O
Amphoteric oxide: Al 2 O3 , SnO2 , PbO2
Q2
Fluorine does not show variable oxidation state.
Q3
Statement-I: Oxygen can have oxidation state from
-2 to +2 , so statement I is incorrect
Statement- II: On moving down the group stability of +4 oxidation state increases whereas stability of +6
oxidation state decreases down the group, according to inert pair effect.
So both statements are wrong.
Q4
On moving down the group, bond strength of M − H bond decreases, which reduces the thermal stability but
increases reducing nature of hydrides, hence A and B are correct statements.
Q5
Statement I and II are False

Noble gases have low boiling points
Noble gases are held together by weak dispersion forces.
Q6
(A) All group 16 elements form oxides of the EO and EO type where E = S, Se, Te or Po.
2 3
(B) SO is reducing while TeO is an oxidising agent.

2 2
(C) The reducing property increases from H 2 S to H Tedown the group.

2

Solutions MathonGo
(D)
have six lone pairs

p Block Elements (Group 13 and 14) JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
Compound Use
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover
(B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air conditioners
(C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher
(D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable insecticide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B), (II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Statement (I) : SiO and GeO are acidic while SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature.
2 2
Statement (II) : Allotropic forms of carbon are due to property of catenation and pπ − dπ bond formation.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron (2453 K) is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below ;

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q4 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Identify the incorrect pair from the following :
(1) Fluorspar- BF 3
(2) Cryolite- Na 3 AlF6
(3) Fluoroapatite- 3Ca 3 (PO4 )

2
⋅ CaF2
(4) Carnallite- KCl ⋅ MgCl 2

⋅ 6H2 O
Q5 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Consider the oxides of group 14 elements SiO 2, GeO2 , SnO2 , PbO2 , CO and GeO. The amphoteric oxides are
(1) GeO, GeO 2
(2) SiO 2, GeO2
(3) SnO 2, PbO2
(4) SnO 2, CO
Q6 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily hydrolyzed by water due to their covalent nature.
3+
Statement II: AlCl upon hydrolysis in acidified aqueous solution forms octahedral [Al(H
3 2 O)
6
] ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(3) Both statement I and statement II are false

(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (3) Q3 (2) Q4 (1)
Q5 (3) Q6 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
CCl4 used in fire extinguisher. CH 2 Cl2 used as paint remover. Freons used in refrigerator and AC. DDT used
as non Biodegradable insecticide.
Q2
SiO2 and GeO are acidic and SnO, PbO are amphoteric.
2
Carbon does not have d-orbitals so can not form pπ − dπ Bond with itself. Due to properties of catenation and
pπ − pπ bond formation. carbon is able to show allotropic forms.
Q3
Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice so its melting point unusually high in group 13 elements
Q4
Fluorspar is CaF 2
Q5
SnO2 and PbO are amphoteric

2
Q6
In trivalent state most of the compounds being covalent are hydrolysed in water. Trichlorides on hydrolysis in
water form tetrahedral [M(OH) 4]
−
species, the hybridisation state of element M is sp . 3
3+
In case of aluminium, acidified aqueous solution forms octahedral [Al(H 2 O)
6
] ion.

Ionic Equilibrium JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Ka for CH 3 COOH is 1.8 × 10 −5

and K for NH
b 4 OH is 1.8 × 10 . The pH of ammonium acetate solution
−5
will be
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M) in water is W per 100 mL at 25 g

∘
C . Its solubility
product at 25 ∘
C will be approximately.
3
(1) 10 7 W
( )
M
(2) 10 7 W
( )
M
(3) 10 3 W
( )
M
(4) 10 5 W
( )
M
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on K and a
Kb value of acid and the base forming it.

Q5 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The pH at which Mg(OH) 2 [ Ksp = 1 × 10

−11
] begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10M Mg 2+
ions is _______

Q6 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1M benzoic acid (pK a

= 4.20) and 1M sodium benzoate is 4.5.
The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution is _______ mL.

Answer Key
Q1 (7) Q2 (2) Q3 (4) Q4 (1)
Q5 (9) Q6 (100)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
pKw + pKa − pKb
pH =
2
pKa = pKb
pKw
⇒ pH = = 7
2
Q2
W×10
S =
M
W × 1000 W × 10
S = =
M × 100 M
3 2
Ksp = (3 s) (2 s)
5
= 108 s
5
W
5
= 108 × 10 × ( )
M
5
W
7
= 1.08 × 10 ( )
M
Q3
Q4
Aqueous solution of (NH 4)

2
CO3 is Basic pH of salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Ka and Kb value
of acid and the base forming it
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
recipitation when Q sp
= Ksp
2
2+ − −11
[Mg ] [OH ] = 10
− 2 −
−11 −5
0.1 × [OH ] = 10 ⇒ [OH ] = 10
⇒ pOH = 5 ⇒ pH = 9
Q6
1M Benzoic acid + 1M Sodium Benzoate
Milimole (Va ml) (Vs ml)
Va × 1 Vs × 1
pH = 4.5
[salt ]
pH = pka + log
[ acid ]
Vs
4.5 = 4.2 + log( )
Va
Vs
= 2 … (1)
Va
Vs + Va = 300 … (2)
Va = 100ml

Hydrocarbons JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Which of the following compound will most easily be attacked by an electrophile?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Statement (I) : The NH group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group.
2
Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo FriedelCraft's reaction (alkylation and acylation).


Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction among the following is
Q4 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
In the given reactions identify A and B.
Na/ Liquid NH3
CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3 + H2 −−−−−−−−−→" B "
(1) A : 2-Pentyne; B : trans - 2 - butene
(2) A : n-Pentane; B : trans - 2 - butene

(3) A : 2 - Pentyne; B : Cis -2 - butene
(4) A : n-Pentane; B : Cis -2 - butene
Q5 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Total number of isomeric compounds (including stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of 2 -
methylbutane is _______.
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in presence of peroxide forms an addition product (A). The number
of possible stereoisomers for ' A ' is
Q7 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)

Among the following, total number of meta directing functional groups is (Integer based)
− OCH3 , −NO2 , −CN, −CH3 − NHCOCH3 ,
− COR, −OH, −COOH, −Cl
Q8 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is:
(1) Ph − CH 2 − CH2 − CH3
(2)
(3)
(4) Ph − CH 2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The major product (P) in the following reaction is

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
Q10 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is
(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)
Q11 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Identify product A and product B :
(1) A:

(2) A:
(3) A:
(4) A:
Q12 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
Q13 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product (P) is
_______
Q14 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)

In the given reactions identify the reagent A and reagent B
(1) A − CrO 3
B − CrO3
(2) A − CrO 3
B − CrO2 Cl2
(3) A − CrO 2
Cl2
B − CrO2 Cl2
(4) A − CrO 2
Cl2
B − CrO3
Q15 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B gives the product C . Find out A and B.
¯
¯¯¯
(1) A = CH 3
− C ≡ CNa, B = CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − Br
(2) A = CH 3
− CH = CH2 , B = CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − Br
(3) A = CH 3
− CH2 − CH3 , B = CH3 − C ≡ CH
¯
¯¯¯
(4) A = CH 3
− C ≡ C
+
a, B = CH 3
− CH2 − CH3
Q16 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Product A and B formed in the following set of reactions are:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q17 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The product (C) in the below mentioned reaction is:

KOH(dik)
HBr Δ
CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − Br −−−−−→ A−−→ B−−−−→ C

Δ KOH[a]
(1) Propan-1-ol
(2) Propene
(3) Propyne
(4) Propan-2-ol
Q18 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a mixture of CH 3 COONa and C 2 H5 COONa is _______
Q19 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Identify A and B in the following reaction sequence.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q20 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Major product of the following reaction is -
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
Q21 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Number of isomeric products formed by monochlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of sunlight is

_______.

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (1) Q3 (2) Q4 (1)
Q5 (6) Q6 (4) Q7 (4) Q8 (4)
Q9 (4) Q10 (3) Q11 (4) Q12 (1)
Q13 (1) Q14 (2) Q15 (1) Q16 (2)
Q17 (4) Q18 (3) Q19 (1) Q20 (3)
Q21 (6)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Higher the electron density in the benzene ring more easily it will be attacked by an electrophile. Phenol has
the highest electron density amongst all the given compound.
Q2
The NH group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating group as NH has strong +M
2 2
effect.
Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft's reaction (alkylation and acylation) as Aniline will form complex with
AlCl3 which will deactivate the benzene ring.
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6

Solutions MathonGo
Q7
−NO2 , −C ≡ N, −COR, −COOH are meta directing.
Q8
−
B2 H6 /H2 O2 ,OH
PhCH = CH2 −−−−−−−−−−→ PhCH2 CH2 OH
Q9
Q10

Solutions MathonGo
Since −NH group is o/p directing hence arenium ion will not be formed by attack at meta position i.e.
2
< smiles > Nc1cccc(Br)c1 < /smiles >

Hence Answer is (3)
Q11
Hence correct Ans. (4)
Q12
Q13

Solutions MathonGo
Hence total number of oxygen atom present per
molecule
Q14
Q15
Q16
Q17

Solutions MathonGo
Q18
˙
CH3 COONa → CH3
˙
C2 H5 COONa → CH5
˙
2C2 H5 → CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
˙
2CH → CH3 − CH3
3
˙ ˙
CH3 + C2 H5 → CH3 − CH2 − CH3
Q19
Q20
Q21

Solutions MathonGo
∴ Number of isomeric products = 6

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with AgCN form
isocyanide as the main product.

Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly ionic compounds.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Identify A and B in the following sequence of reaction
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Acid D formed in above reaction is :
(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Succinic acid
(3) Oxalic acid
(4) Malonic acid
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
The correct statement regarding nucleophilic substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is ;
(1) Retention occurs in S N

1 reaction and inversion occurs in S N
2 reaction.
(2) Racemisation occurs in S N
l reaction and retention occurs in S N
2 reaction.
(3) Racemisation occurs in both S N

1 and S N
2 reactions.
(4) Racemisation occurs in S N

1 reaction and inversion occurs in S N
2 reaction.
Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Which among the following halide/s will not show S N

1 reaction:
(A) H 2
C = CH − CH2 Cl
(B) CH 3
− CH = CH − Cl
(C)

(D)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (B) only
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Identify B formed in the reaction.

excess NH3 NaOH
Cl − (CH2 ) − Cl −−−−−−−→ A−−−→

4
B + H2 O + NaCl
(1)
(2) H 2 N − (CH2 )
4
− NH2
+ +
(3) Cl H 3 − (CH2 ) − N H3 Cl
4
−
(4)

Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by halogen atom.
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true

(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by reaction with
(1) NaCN
(2) NH 4 CN
(3) KCN
(4) AgCN
Q9 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
Q10 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Statement - I: High concentration of strong nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides which do not
have bulky substituents will follow S N2 mechanism.
Statement - II: A secondary alkyl halide when treated with a large excess of ethanol follows S N1 mechanism.
In the the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the questions given below:

(3) Both statement I and Statement II are false.

(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Q11 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
2-chlorobutane +Cl 2 → C4 H8 Cl2 (isomers)

Total number of optically active isomers shown by C 4 H8 Cl2 , obtained in the above reaction is _______.
Q12 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)

The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A and product B is _______.
Q13 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds is :
(1) B > C > A > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) A > B > C > D

(4) B > A > C > D

Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (2) Q3 (2) Q4 (4)
Q5 (4) Q6 (2) Q7 (3) Q8 (4)
Q9 (2) Q10 (4) Q11 (6) Q12 (10)
Q13 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
AgCN is mainly covalent in nature and nitrogen is available for attack, so alkyl isocyanide is formed as main
product.
Q2
Q3
Q4
SN −
1
Racemisation
- Inversion
2
SN
Q5
+
Since CH 3 − CH =C H is very unstable, CH 3 − CH = CH − Cl cannot give S N

1 reaction.

Solutions MathonGo
Q6
Q7
Assertion (A): Given statement is correct because in phenol hydroxyl group cannot be replaced by halogen
atom.
Reason (R) :
Given reason is false
Hence Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is false
Q8
Covalent character of AgCN.
Q9

Solutions MathonGo
Q10
Statement-I: Rate of S N ∝ [R − X][Nu]
SN 2 reaction is favoured by high concentration of nucleophile (Nu) & less crowding in the substrate molecule.
Statement - II: Solvolysis follows S N1 path.
Both are correct Statements.
Q11
Q12
Total number of hydrogen atom in A and B is 10
Q13
−CH3 shows +M and +I.

−Cl shows +M and −I but inductive effect dominates.
−NO2 shows −M and −I.
Electrophilic substitution α
1
−M and -I
α + M and + I
Hence, order is B > A > C > D.

Solutions MathonGo

General Organic Chemistry JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compounds.
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds.


Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed through:
(A) Homolytic bond cleavage
(B) Heterolytic bond cleavage

(C) Free radical formation
(D) Primary free radical
(E) Secondary free radical

(1) (A) only

(2) (C) only
(3) (B) only

(4) (D) and (E) only
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
In Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen, CuSO acts as :

4
(1) Reducing agent

(2) Catalytic agent

(3) Hydrolysis agent

(4) Oxidising agent
Q4 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Number of optical isomers possible for 2 - chlorobutane _____
Q5 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The set of meta directing functional groups from the following sets is:
(1) −CN, −NH 2, −NHR, −OCH3
(2) −NO 2, −NH2 , −COOH, −COOR
(3) −NO 2, −CHO, −SO3 H, −COR
(4) −CN, −CHO, −NHCOCH 3, −COOR
Q6 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Lassaigne's test is used for detection of :
(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur only

(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous Only
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only
(4) Nitrogen, Sulphur, phosphorous and halogens
Q7 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Which among the following has highest boiling point?
(1) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH3
(2) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CH2 − OH
(3) CH 3 CH2 CH2 CHO
(4) H 5 C2 − O − C2 H5

Q8 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The functional group that shows negative resonance effect is:
(1) −NH 2
(2) −OH
(3) −COOH
(4) −OR
Q9 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Following Kjeldahl's method, 1 g of organic compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10 mL of

2MH2 SO4 . The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is _______ %.
Q10 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Highest enol content will be shown by :
(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)
Q11 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
Q12 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
The ascending order of acidity of −OH group in the following compounds is :

(A) Bu − OH
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

(1) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(2) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)
(3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)
(4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
Q13 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Cyclohexene
is ______ type of an
organic compound.
(1) Benzenoid aromatic

(2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
(3) Acyclic
(4) Alicyclic
Q14 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
IUPAC name of following compound (P) is:
(1) 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane

(2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane

(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
Q15 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Among the given organic compounds, the total number of aromatic compounds is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q16 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The order of relative stability of the contributing structure is

(1) I > II > III
(2) II > I > III

(3) I = II = III
(4) III > II > I
Q17 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is
(1) C 3 H6 O2
(2) C 2 H4 O2
(3) CH 2O
(4) C 2 H2 O2
Q18 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substance is:
(1) Fractional distillation
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure

(3) Distillation
(4) Steam distillation
Q19 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
Q20 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:
(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations

(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is 60 ∘
(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation.

(4) The conformations of ethane are interconvertible to one-another.
Q21 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon atoms from following is ______

CH3 − CH2 − CH (NO2 ) − COOH
CH3 − CH2 − CHBr − CH2 − CH3
CH3 − CH(I) − CH2 − NO2
CH3 − CH2 − CH(OH) − CH2 OH
Q22 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure for the given
compound is
(1) electromeric energy

(2) resonance energy
(3) ionization energy

(4) hyperconjugation energy
Q23 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound with
FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H 2 SO4 indicates the presence of element/s
(1) Br
(2) N
(3) N and S
(4) S
Q24 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The interaction between π bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent atom is responsible for
(1) Hyperconjugation
(2) Inductive effect

(3) Electromeric effect

(4) Resonance effect
Q25 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The ascending acidity order of the following H atoms is
(1) C < D < B < A

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) A < B < D < C
(4) D < C < B < A
Q26 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Q27 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)

According to IUPAC system, the compound
is named as
(1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
(2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
Q28 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Chromatographic technique/s based on the principle of differential adsorption is/are

A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B only
(2) A only
(3) A \& B only
(4) C only
Q29 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Which one of the following will show geometrical isomerism?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
Q30 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q31 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Example of vinylic halide is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q32 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
Q33 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statement one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): CH 2 = CH − CH2 − Cl is an example of allyl halide
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in which the halogen atom is attached to sp hybridised carbon
2
atom.
In the light of the two above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q34 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent moved by
5 cm . The retardation factor of the organic compound is _______ ×10 −1
Q35 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Which among the following purification methods is based on the principle of "Solubility" in two different
solvents?
(1) Column Chromatography

(2) Sublimation
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential Extraction

Q36 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
IUPAC name of following compound is
(1) 2-Aminopentanenitrile
(2) 2-Aminobutanenitrile
(3) 3-Aminobutanenitrile
(4) 3-Aminopropanenitrile
Q37 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The correct stability order of carbocations is

+ + +
(1) (CH 3
) C
3
+
> CH3 − C H2 > (CH3 )
2
C H >C H3
+ + + +
(2) C H 3
> (CH3 )
2
C H > CH3 − C H2 > (CH3 )
3
C
+ + + +
(3) (CH 3)
3
C> (CH3 )
2
C H > CH3 − C H2 >C H3
(4)
Q38 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Number of geometrical isomers possible for the given structure is/are _______
Q39 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
A species having carbon with sextet of electrons and can act as electrophile is called

(1) carbon free radical

(2) carbanion
(3) carbocation
(4) pentavalent carbon
Q40 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
'Adsorption' principle is used for which of the following purification method?
(1) Extraction
(2) Chromatography
(3) Distillation
(4) Sublimation
Q41 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)

Statement I: IUPAC name of HO − CH 2 − (CH2 ) − CH2 − COCH3
3
is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct IUPAC name for above compound.
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q42 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)


LIST I (Technique) LIST II (Application)
Separation of
A. Distillation I. glycerol from
spent-lye
Fractional Aniline - Water

B. II.
distillation mixture
Steam Separation of crude

C. III.
distillation oil fractions
Distillation
Chloroform-
D. under reduced IV.
Aniline
pressure

(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I
(3) A-I. B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-III. C-I, D-IV
Q43 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
Q44 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called essential oils.
These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in vapour
phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is _______
(1) crystallisation
(2) distillation under reduced pressure
(3) distillation
(4) steam distillation

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (3) Q3 (2) Q4 (2)
Q5 (3) Q6 (4) Q7 (2) Q8 (3)
Q9 (56) Q10 (2) Q11 (4) Q12 (4)
Q13 (4) Q14 (2) Q15 (3) Q16 (1)
Q17 (2) Q18 (4) Q19 (4) Q20 (3)
Q21 (5) Q22 (2) Q23 (3) Q24 (4)
Q25 (1) Q26 (4) Q27 (4) Q28 (3)
Q29 (3) Q30 (1) Q31 (1) Q32 (4)
Q33 (1) Q34 (7) Q35 (4) Q36 (3)
Q37 (3) Q38 (4) Q39 (3) Q40 (2)
Q41 (1) Q42 (2) Q43 (3) Q44 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Aniline is also known as amino benzene.
Q2
Heterolytic cleavage of Bond lead to formation of ions.
Q3
Kjeldahl's method is used for estimation of Nitrogen where CuSO acts as a catalyst.
4
Q4
There is one chiral centre present in given compound.
So, Total optical isomers = 2
and
Q5
All are −M, Hence meta directing groups.
Q6

Solutions MathonGo
Lassaigne's test is used for detection of all element N, S, P, X.
Q7
Due to H-bonding boiling point of alcohol is High.
Q8
shows −R effect, while rest 3 groups shows +R effect via lone pair.
Q9
H2 SO4 + 2NH3 → (NH4 ) SO4

2
Millimole of H 2 SO4 → 10 × 2
So Millimole of NH 3 = 20 × 2 = 40
Organic → NH3
Compound 40 Millimole
∴ Mole of N =
40
1000
wt. of N = 40
1000
× 14
% composition of N in organic compound

40 × 14
= × 100
1000 × 1
= 56%
Q10
Q11

Solutions MathonGo
Conjugate base is more stable due to more resonance of negative charge.
Q12
Q13
So;.
is Alicyclic
Q14

Solutions MathonGo
Q15
B,C and D are Aromatic
Q16
I > II > III, since neutral resonating structures are more stable than charged resonating structure. II > III,
since stability of structure with −ve charge on more electronegative atom is higher.
Q17
Q18
Steam distillation is used for those liquids which are insoluble in water, containing non-volatile impurities and
are steam volatile.
Q19

Solutions MathonGo
CH(OH)(CN)2 is
Q20
Eclipsed conformation is the least stable conformation of ethane.
Q21
Chiral carbons are marked by.
Q22
The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure for the given
compound is known as resonance energy.
Q23
+
H
2+ +3
Fe −−−−−−−−→ Fe
Conc. H2 SO4
−
SCN
Fe
+3
−−−→ Fe(SCN)3 ( blood red colour )
Appearance of blood red colour indicates presence of both nitrogen and sulphur.
Q24
It is a type of conjugation responsible for resonance.
Q25

Solutions MathonGo
Stability of conjugate base α acidic strength C < D < B < A
Q26
Ethanol → 15.9
Phenol → 10
M-Nitrophenol → 8.3
P-Nitrophenol → 7.1
Q27
Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
Q28
Memory Based
Q29
Due to unsymmetrical.
Q30
it is aromatic species
Q31

Solutions MathonGo
Vinyl carbon is sp hybridized aliphatic carbon

2
is vinyl halide while
is aryl halide and
are allyl halide
Q32
Q33
CH2 = CH − CH2 − Cl
3
It is allyl carbon and sp hybridized
Q34
Distance travelled by sample/organic compound
etardation factor =
3.5 −1
= = 7 × 10
Distance travelled by solvent 5
Q35

Solutions MathonGo
Different Extraction
Different layers are formed which can be separated in funnel. (Theory based).
Q36
Q37
More no. of hyperconjugable Hydrogens, more stable is the carbocations.
Q38
3 stereocenteres, symmetrical
Total Geometrical isomers → 4. EE, ZZ, EZ (two isomers)
Q39
Six electron species
Q40

Solutions MathonGo
Principle used in chromotography is adsorption.
Q41
7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name
Q42
Fact (NCERT)
Q43
2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
Q44
Steam distillation technique is applied to separate substances which are steam volatile and are immiscible with
water.

Electrochemistry JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
The potential for the given half cell at 298 K is

(−) … … … . . . ×10
−2
V .
+ −
2H (aq)
+ 2e → H2 ( g)
+
[H ] = 1M, PH2 = 2 atm
(Given: 2.303RT/F = 0.06 V, log 2 = 0.3)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for the oxidation of 1 mol of H 2

O to O is _______ ×10
2
5
C .
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Consider the following redox reaction :

− + 2+
MnO + H + H2 C2 O4 ⇌ Mn + H2 O + CO2
4
The standard reduction potentials are given as below (E ∘

red
)
∘
E − 2+ = +1.51 V
MnO /Mn
4
∘
E = −0.49 V
CO2 /H2 C2 O4
If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is given as K eq = 10

x
, then the value of x = _______ (nearest
integer)
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108gmol ) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces
−1
5600 mL of O at S.T.P. will be ______ g.

2
Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?
(1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeling off.
(2) When pH lies above 9 or 10 , rusting of iron does not take place.
(3) Dissolved acidic oxides SO 2, NO2 in water act as catalyst in the process of rusting.

(4) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH = 3 at 25 ∘

C . The potential of the electrode will be -
______ ×10 −2
V .
2.303RT
( = 0.059 V)
F
Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of 0.015 A for 15
minutes is _______ ×10 −4

g .
( Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4amu)
Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
A constant current was passed through a solution of AuCl ion between gold electrodes. After a period of 10.0
−
minutes, the increase in mass of cathode was 1.314 g. The total charge passed through the solution is _______
×10
−2
F .
¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯
(Given atomic mass of Au = 197 )
Q9 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Reduction potential of ions are given below:

− − −
ClO IO BrO
4 4 4
∘ ∘ ∘
E = 1.19 V E = 1.65 V E = 1.74 V
The correct order of their oxidising power is:
(1) ClO −
4
> IO
−
4
> BrO
−
(2) BrO −
4
> IO
−
4
> ClO
−
(3) BrO −
4
> ClO
−
4
> IO
−
(4) IO −
4
> BrO
−
4
> ClO
−

Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The metals that are employed in the battery industries are

A. Fe
B. Mn
C. Ni
D. Cr
E. Cd
(1) B, C and E only

(2) A, B, C, D and E
(3) A, B, C and D only
(4) B, D and E only
Q11 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Identify the factor from the following that does not affect electrolytic conductance of a solution.
(1) The nature of the electrolyte added.

(2) The nature of the electrode used.
(3) Concentration of the electrolyte.

(4) The nature of solvent used.
Q12 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
One Faraday of electricity liberates x × 10 −1

gram atom of copper from copper sulphate, x is _______
Q13 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The values of conductivity of some materials at 298.15 K in Sm −1

are 2.1 × 10 ,
3
−16 −2
1.0 × 10 , 1.2 × 10, 3.91, 1.5 × 10 ,
1 × 10
−7
, 1.0 × 10
3
. The number of conductors among the materials is _______

Answer Key
Q1 (1) Q2 (2) Q3 (339) Q4 (108)
Q5 (1) Q6 (18) Q7 (46) Q8 (2)
Q9 (2) Q10 (1) Q11 (2) Q12 (5)
Q13 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
0.06 PH2
∘
E = E + − log
H /H2 2
2 +
[H ]
0.06 2
E = 0.00 − log
2
2 [1]
−2
E = −0.03 × 0.3 = −0.9 × 10 V
Q2
+ −
2H2 O → O2 + 4H + 4e
W Q
=
E 96500
Q
mole × n-factor =
96500
Q
1 × 2 =
96500
Q = 2 × 96500C
5
= 1.93 × 10 C
Q3
n − 2+
CellRx ; MnO + H2 C2 O4 → Mn + CO2
4
∘ ∘ ∘
Ecell = Eop of anode + ERP of cathode
= 0.49 + 1.51 = 2.00 V
At equilibrium
Ecell = 0,
∘
0.059
Ecell = log K
n
RT RT
(As per NCERT = 0.059 But = 0.0591
F F
can also be taken.)
0.059
2 = log K
10
logK = 338.98
Q4
Eq. of Ag = Eq. of O 2
Let x gm silver displaced,

x×1 5.6
= × 4
108 22.7
(Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 lit) x = 106.57gm

Ans. 107

Solutions MathonGo
OR, as per old STP data, molar volume = 22.4 lit

x×1 5.6
= × 4, x = 108gm.
108 22.4
Ans. 108
Q5
As tin coating is peeled off, then iron is exposed to atmosphere.
Q6
+ −
2H + 2e → H2 ( g)
(aq. )
0.059 PH2
0
Ecell = E − log
cell
2
2 +
[H ]
−2
= 0 − 0.059 × 3 = −0.177 volts. = −17.7 × 10 V.
Q7
+2 −
Zn + 2e ⟶ Zn
W = Z × i × t
65.4
= × 0.015 × 15 × 60
2 × 96500
−4
= 45.75 × 10 gm
Q8
W ch arg e
=
E 1 F
1.314 Q
=
197
1 F
3
−2
Q = 2 × 10 F
Q9
Higher the value of ⊕ve SRP (Std. reduction potential) more is tendency to undergo reduction, so better is
oxidising power of reactant.

Hence, ox. Power:- BrO −
4
> IO4
− −
> ClO4
Q10

Solutions MathonGo
Mn, Ni and Cd metals used in battery industries.
Q11
Conductivity of electrolytic cell is affected by concentration of electrolyte, nature of electrolyte and nature of
solvent.
Q12
2+ −
Cu + 2e → Cu
2 Faraday → 1 molCu
1 Faraday → 0.5 molCu deposit
0.5 mol = 0.5 g atom = 5 × 10 −1
x = 5
Q13
Conductivity (Sm −1
)
3
2.1 × 10 ⎫
⎪
⎪
⎪
⎪
1.2 × 10
⎬ conductors at 298.15 K
3.91 ⎪
⎪
⎪
⎪
⎭
3
1 × 10
1 × 10
−16
Insulator at 298.15 K
−2
1.5 × 10
−7
} Semiconductor at 298.15 K
1 × 10
Therefore number of conductors is 4.

d and f Block Elements JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The transition metal having highest 3 rd

ionisation enthalpy is :
(1) Cr
(2) Mn
(3) V
(4) Fe
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Assertion (A) : In aqueous solutions Cr 2+

is reducing while Mn 3+
is oxidising in nature.
Reason (R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic configuration is observed than incompletely filled
electronic configuration.

Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Which of the following compounds show colour due to d-d transition?
(1) CuSO 4 .5H2 O
(2) K 2 Cr2 O7
(3) K 2 CrO4
(4) KMnO 4
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)


Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f - series of elements are placed separately in the Periodic table to preserve the
principle of classification.
Statement (II) :S-block elements can be found in pure form in nature. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
NaCl reacts with conc. H 2 SO4 and K 2 Cr2 O7 to give reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give
yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are ;
(1) CrO 2 Cl2 , Na2 CrO4
(2) Na 2 CrO4 , CrO2 Cl2
(3) CrO 2 Cl2 , KHSO4
(4) CrO 2 Cl2 , Na2 Cr2 O7
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation of Ce +4

is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
Statement (II) : Ce +4
is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state.


Q7 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Choose the correct option having all the elements with d 10

electronic configuration from the following:
(1) 27
Co,
28
Ni,
26
Fe,
24
Cr
(2) 29
Cu,
30
Zn,
48
Cd,
47
Ag
(3) 46
Pd,
28
Ni,
26
Fe,
24
2
Cr
(4) 28
Ni,
24
Cr,
26
Fe,
29
Cu
Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of the
−
solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10\% H 2 O2 turns organic layer blue indicating formation of
chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium in that is
(1) +6
(2) +5
(3) +10
(4) +3
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
In alkaline medium. MnO oxidises I to −
4
−
(1) IO −
(2) IO −
(3) I 2
(4) IO −
Q10 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following acts as a strong reducing agent? (Atomic number : Ce = 58, Eu = 63,
Gd = 64, Lu = 71)
(1) Lu 3+

(2) Gd 3+
(3) Eu 2+
(4) Ce 4+
Q11 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following statements are correct about Zn, Cd and Hg ?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.

B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +I and + II.
C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.

Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) B, D only
(2) B, C only
(3) A, D only
(4) C, D only
Q12 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:
(1) Nd 3+
and Eu 3+
(2) La 3+
and Ce 4+
(3) Nd 3+
and Ce 4+
(4) Lu 3+
and Eu 3+
Q13 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Species Electronic distribution
+2 8
(A) Cr (I) 3 d
+ 3 1
(B) Mn (II) 3 d 4 s
+2 4
(C) Ni (III) 3 d
+ 5 1
(D) V (IV) 3 d 4 s
(1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV

(2) (A)-III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D)-II
(3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
(4) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III
Q14 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The orange colour of K 2 Cr2 O7 and purple colour of KMnO is due to

4
(1) Charge transfer transition in both.

(2) d → d transition in KMnO and charge transfer transitions in K
4 2 Cr2 O7 .
(3) d → d transition in K 2 Cr2 O7 and charge transfer transitions in KMnO .
4
(4) d → d transition in both.
Q15 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO gives "A" which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution produces B.
2
A and B respectively are:
(1) Mn 2 O7 and MnO −
(2) MnO 4
2−
and MnO −
(3) Mn 2 O3 and MnO 4

2−
(4) MnO 4
2−
and Mn 2 O7
Q16 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)

A and B formed in the following reactions are:

CrO2 Cl2 + 4NaOH → A + 2NaCl + 2H2 O
A + 2HCl + 2H2 O2 → B + 3H2 O
(1) A = Na 2
CrO4 , B = CrO5
(2) A = Na 2
Cr2 O4 , B = CrO4
(3) A = Na 2
Cr2 O7 , B = CrO3
(4) A = Na 2
Cr2 O7 , B = CrO5
Q17 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Identify correct statements from below:
A. The chromate ion is square planar.

B. Dichromates are generally prepared from chromates.
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic.
D. Dark green coloured K 2
MnO4 disproportionates in a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate.
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, D, E only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) B, D, E only
Q18 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)

2+
The 'Spin only' Magnetic moment for [Ni(NH 3
) ]
6
is _______ ×10 −1
BM .
(given = Atomic number of Ni : 28)
Q19 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Choose the correct statements from the following
A. Mn 2
O7 is an oil at room temperature

B. V reacts with acid to give VO

2+
2 O4
2
C. CrO is a basic oxide

D. V 2 O5 does not react with acid
(1) A, B and D only

(2) A and C only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B and C only
Q20 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Number of moles of H ions required by 1 mole of MnO to oxidise oxalate ion to CO is _______.
+ −
4
2
Q21 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
In the reaction of potassium dichromate, potassium chloride and sulfuric acid (conc.), the oxidation state of the
chromium in the product is (+)

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (1) Q4 (3)
Q5 (1) Q6 (2) Q7 (2) Q8 (1)
Q9 (4) Q10 (3) Q11 (1) Q12 (2)
Q13 (2) Q14 (1) Q15 (2) Q16 (1)
Q17 (4) Q18 (28) Q19 (2) Q20 (8)
Q21 (6)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
3rd Ionisation energy : [NCERT Data]

V : 2833KJ/mol
Cr : 2990KJ/mol
Mn : 3260KJ/mol
Fe : 2962KJ/mol
alternative
5 2
Mn : 3 d 4 s
6 2
Fe : 3 d 4 s
5 1
Cr : 3 d 4 s
3 2
V : 3 d 4 s
So Mn has highest 3rd IE among all the given elements due to d configuration. 5
Q2
Cr
2+
is reducing as it configuration changes from d to d due to formation of Cr , which has half filled t
4 3 3+
2 g
level, on other hand, the change Mn 3+

to Mn 2+
result half filled d configuration which has extra stability.
5
Q3
CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O
2+ 9 0
Cu : 3 d 4 s
unpaired electron present so it show colour due to d-d transition.
Q4
s-block elements are highly reactive and found in combined state.
Q5
NaCl+ conc. H 2 SO4 + K2 Cr2 O7
→ CrO2 Cl2 + KHSO4 + NaHSO4 + H2 O
(B)

Solutions MathonGo
Reddish brown
CrO2 Cl2 + NaOH → Na2 CrO4 + NaCl + H2 O
(C)
Yellow colour
Q6
Statement (1) is true, Ce +4

has noble gas electronic configuration.
Statement (2) is also true due to high reduction potential for Ce 4+
/Ce
3+
(+1.74 V) , and stability of
Ce
3+
, Ce
4+
acts as strong oxidizing agent.
Q7
1 5
[Cr] = [Ar]4 s 3 d
2 10
[Cd] = [Kr]5 s 4 d
1 10
[Cu] = [Ar]4 s 3 d
1 10
[Ag] = [Kr]5 s 4 d
2 10
[Zn] = [Ar]4 s 3 d
Q8
Q9
alkaline medium
− − − −
2MnO4 + H2 O + I −−−−−−−−−−→ 2MnO2 + 2OH + IO3
Q10
+2
Eu
7 0 +3 −
[Xe]4f 6 s Eu + 1e
6 0
[Xe]4f 6 s

Solutions MathonGo
Q11
(A) Zn, Cd, Hg exhibit lowest enthalpy of

atomization in respective transition series.
(C) Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are diamagnetic in nature.
Q12
Ce : [Xe]4f
1 1
5 d 6 s ; Ce
2 4+
diamagnetic
La : [Xe]4f
0 1
5 d 6 s ; La
2 3+
diamagnetic
Q13
5 1 2+ 4
24
Cr → [Ar]3 d 4 s ; Cr → [Ar]3 d
5 2 + 5 1
25 Mn → [Ar]3 d 4 s ; Mn → [Ar]3 d 4 s
8 2 2+ 8
28 Ni → [ Ar ]3 d 4 s ; Ni → [ Ar ]3 d
3 2 + 3 1
23
V → [Ar]3 d 4 s ; V → [Ar]3 d 4 s
Q14
+6
K2 Cr2 O7 → Cr → No d - d transition
7+
} Charge transfer
KMnO4 → Mn → No d-d transition
Q15
Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO : 2
− 2−
2MnO2 + 4OH + O2 → 2MnO + 2H2 O
4
Electrolytic oxidation of MnO 4

2−
in alkaline medium.
2− − −
MnO → MnO + e
4 4
Q16
CrO2 Cl2 + 4NaOH → Na2 CrO4 + 2NaCl + 2H2 O

(A)
Na2 CrO4 + 2H2 O2 + 2HCl → CrO5 + 2NaCl + 3H2 O

(B) Missingfrom
balanced eqaution

Solutions MathonGo
Q17
A. CrO 4
2−
is tetrahedral
B. 2Na 2 CrO4 + 2H
+
→ Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2Na
+
+ H2 O
C. As per NCERT, green manganate is paramagnetic with 1 unpaired electron.

D. Statement is correct
E. Statement is correct
Q18
NH3 act as WFL with Ni 2+
2+ 8
Ni = 3 d
No. of unpaired electron = 2

μ = √n(n + 2) = √8 = 2.82BM
−1
= 28.2 × 10 BM
x = 28
Q19
(A) Mn 2 O7 is green oil at room temperature.

(B) V 2 O4 dissolve in acids to give VO 2+
salts.
(C) CrO is basic oxide

(D) V 2 O5 is amphoteric it reacts with acid as well as base.
Q20
− 2− + 2+
2MnO4 + 5C2 O4 + 16H ⟶ 2Mn + 10CO2 + 8H2 O
∴ Number of moles of H ions required by 1 mole of MnO to oxidise oxalate ion to CO is 8

+ −
4 2
Q21

Solutions MathonGo
K2 Cr2 O7 ( s) + 4KCl(s) + 6H2 SO4 (conc.)

→ 2CrO2 Cl2 ( g) + 6KHSO4 + 3H2 O
This reaction is called chromyl chloride test.

Here oxidation state of Cr is +6.

Coordination Compounds JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

2+
Statement (I): A solution of [Ni(H 2 O)
6
] is green in colour.
Statement (II): A solution of [Ni(CN) is colourless.

2−
4]

Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
(1) [Ni(CN)
2−
4]
(2) [Ni(NH 3)
2
Cl2 ]
+
(3) [Fe(NH 3)
4
Cl2 ]
+
(4) [Co(NH 3)
4
Cl2 ]
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)

3+
[Co(NH3 ) ]
6
and [CoF 6]
3−
are respectively known as:
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex

(2) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex
(3) Outer orbital Complex, Inner orbital Complex
(4) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex
Q4 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)

Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a sixmembered covalent chelate when treated with NiCl solution in 2

presence of NH 4 OH .
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In the light of the
above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product of lead
formed is a :
(1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination number six
(2) Neutral complex with coordination number four

(3) Dianionic complex with coordination number six
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number four
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Identify from the following species in which d 2

sp
3
hybridization is shown by central atom:
3+
(1) [Co(NH 3)
6
]
(2) BrF 5
(3) [Pt(Cl) 4]
2−
(4) SF 6
Q7 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Identity the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Photography - AgBr

(2) Polythene preparation - TiCl 4, Al(CH3 )
3

(3) Haber process - Iron
(4) Wacker process −PtCl2
Q8 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The Spin only magnetic moment value of square planar complex [Pt(NH 3)
2
Cl (NH2 CH3 )] Cl is ______
B.M. (Nearest integer)
(Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Co 2 (CO)8 ]
(2) [Mn 2 (CO)10 ]
(3) [Os 3 (CO)12 ]
(4) [Ru 3 (CO)12 ]
Q10 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The correct IUPAC name of K 2 MnO4 is
(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI)

(2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI)
(3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII)
(4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI)
Q11 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry
(1) Octahedral
(2) Square Planar
(3) Tetrahedral

(4) Trigonal bipyramidal
Q12 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Choose the correct Statements from the following:

(A) Ethane-1 2-diamine is a chelating ligand.
(B) Metallic aluminium is produced by elecrtrolysis of aluminium oxide in presence of cryolite.
(C) Cyanide ion is used as ligand for leaching of silver.

(D) Phosphine act as a ligand in Wilkinson catalyst.
(E) The stability constants of Ca 2+
and Mg 2+
are similar with EDTA complexes.
(1) (B), (C), (E) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) only

(4) (A), (D), (E) only
Q13 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is:
(1) [Ni(CN) 4]
2−
(2) PCl 5
(3) BrF 5
(4) PF 5
Q14 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The coordination geometry around the manganese in decacarbonyldimanganese(0)
(1) Octahedral
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square pyramidal

(4) Square planar
Q15 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Number of complexes which show optical isomerism among the following is _______
3− 3+
cis − [Cr(ox)2 Cl2 ] , [Co(en)3 ] ,
2+ +
cis − [Pt(en)2 Cl2 ] , cis − [Co(en)2 Cl2 ] ,
2+ 3−
trans − [Pt(en)2 Cl2 ] , trans −[Cr(ox)2 Cl2 ]
Q16 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The correct statements from following are:

A. The strength of anionic ligands can be explained by crystal field theory.
B. Valence bond theory does not give a quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of coordination
compounds.
C. The hybridization involved in formation of [Ni(CN) 4]
2−
complex is dsp .
2
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of cis- [PtCl 2 (en)2 ]

2+
is one
(1) A, D only
(2) A, C only
(3) B, D only
(4) B, C only
Q17 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)

LIST - I LIST - II
(Complex ion) (Electronic Configuration)
3+
2 0
A. [Cr(H2 O) ] I. t2 g
eg
6
3+
3 0
B. [Fe(H2 O) ] II. t2 g
eg
6
2+
3 2
C. [Ni(H2 O) ] III. t2 g
e
6
3+
6 2
D. [V(H2 O) ] IV. t2 g e
6

(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Q18 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Select the option with correct property -
(1) [Ni(CO) ] and [NiCl

4 4]
2−
both diamagnetic
(2) [Ni(CO) ] and [NiCl
4 4]
2−
both paramagnetic
(3) [NiCl diamagnetic, [Ni(CO) ] paramagnetic

2−
4] 4
(4) [Ni(CO) ] diamagnetic, [NiCl paramagnetic

2−
4 4]

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (1) Q3 (2) Q4 (1)
Q5 (4) Q6 (1) Q7 (4) Q8 (0)
Q9 (1) Q10 (2) Q11 (1) Q12 (3)
Q13 (3) Q14 (1) Q15 (4) Q16 (4)
Q17 (4) Q18 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
+2
[Ni(H2 O) ]
6
→ Green colour solution due to d − d transition.
[Ni(CN)4 ]
−2
→ is diamagnetic and it is colourless.
Q2
In Homoleptic complex all the ligand attached with the central atom should be the same. Hence [Ni(CN)
2−
4]
is a homoleptic complex.
Q3
3+
[Co(NH3 ) ]
6
Co
3+
(strong field ligand) ⇒ 3 d 6
(t
6
2 g
0
, eg ) ,
Hybridisation : d 2
sp
3
Inner obital complex(spin paired complex)
Pairing will take place.

3−
[CoF6 ]
Co
3+
(weak field ligand) ⇒ 3 d 6
(t
4
2 g
2
, eg )
Hybridisation : sp 3
d
2
Outer orbital complex (spin free complex) no pairing will take place
Q4
2+
Ni + NH4 OH + dmg →
2 Five member ring

Solutions MathonGo
III II
Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]
3
Prussian Blue
Q5
(hot excess) → [Pb(OH)

−2
PbCrO4 + NaOH 4] + Na2 CrO4
Dianionic complex with coordination number four
Q6
+3
[Co(NH3 ) ]
6
− d sp
2 3
hybridization
BrF5 − sp
3
d
2
hybridization
[PtCl4 ]
−2
− dsp
2
hybridization
SF6 − sp
3
d
2
hybridization
Q7
The catalyst used in Wacker's process is PdCl 2
Q8
2+ 8
Pt (d )
Pt
2+
→ dsp
2
hybridization and have no unpaired e −
s .
∴ Magnetic moment = 0

Solutions MathonGo
Q9
(1)
(2)
(3)

Solutions MathonGo
(4)
Q10
K2 MnO4
2 + x − 8 = 0
⇒ x = +6
O.S. of Mn = +6
IUPAC Name =
Potassium tetraoxidomanganate(VI)
Q11
3+
AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution forms octahedral geometry [Al(H 2
O) ]
6
Q12
Bidentate, chelating
Based on Hall-Heroults process

[Rh(PPh3 ) Cl]
3
Wilkinson's catalyst

Solutions MathonGo
Air
Ag2 S + NaCN ⇌ Na [Ag(CN)2 ] + Na2 S
Ca
++
ion forms more stable complex with EDTA
Q13
BrF5
Q14
Mn2 (CO)10
Q15
cis −[Cr(ox) 2
Cl2 ]
3−
→ can show optical isomerism (no POS & COS)
[Co(en)3 ]
3+
→ can show (no POS & COS)
cis −[Pt(en) 2
Cl2 ]
2+
cis −[Co(en) 2
Cl2 ]
+
trans −[Pt(en) 2
Cl2 ]
2+
→ can't show (contains POS & COS)
trans −[Cr(ox) 2
Cl2 ]
3−
→ can't show (contains POS & COS)
Q16

Solutions MathonGo
B. VBT does not explain stability of complex

C. Hybridisation of [Ni(CN) 4]
−2
is dsp .2
Q17
3+
[Cr(H2 O) ]
6
Contains Cr 3+
: [Ar]3 d
3
: t
3
2 g
eg
∘
3+
[Fe(H2 O) ]
6
Contains Fe 3+
: [Ar]3 d
5
: t
3
2 g
egg
2
2+
[Ni(H2 O) ]
6
Contains Ni 2+
: [Ar]3 d
8
: t
6
2 g
eg
2
3+
[V(H2 O) ]
6
Contains V 3+
: [Ar]3 d
2
: t
2
2 g
∘
eg
Q18
[Ni(CO)4 ] → diamagnetic, sp hybridisation, number of unpaired electrons = 0

3
paramagnetic, sp hybridisation, number of unpaired electrons = 2

2− 3
[NiCl4 ] ,→

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
In case of isoelectronic species the size of F −

, Ne and Na is affected by:
+
(1) Principal quantum number (n)

(2) None of the factors because their size is the same
(3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(4) Nuclear charge (z)
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Lowest Oxidation number of an atom in a compound A 2 B is -2 . The number of an electron in its valence
shell is
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Statement (I) : Both metal and non-metal exist in p and d-block elements.
Statement (II) : Non-metals have higher ionisation enthalpy and higher electronegativity than the metals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

Q4 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The strongest reducing agent amont the following is:
(1) NH 3
(2) SbH 3
(3) BiH 3
(4) PH 3

Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
From the given list, the number of compounds with +4 oxidation state of Sulphur
SO3 , H2 SO3 , SOCl2 , SF4 , BaSO4 , H2 S2 O7
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases across a period.
Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true

Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)

Statement I : The electronegativity of group 14 elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases.
Statement II : Group 14 contains non-metallic, metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below :

Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The element having the highest first ionization enthalpy is
(1) Si

(2) Al
(3) N
(4) C
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II: Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below.

Q10 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its
(1) Large size and high electronegativity
(2) Small size and low electronegativity

(3) Small size and high electronegativity
(4) Large size and low electronegativity
Q11 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However from As to Bi only a
small increase in covalent radius is observed.
Reason (R): covalent and ionic radii in a particular oxidation state increases down the group.



Q12 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
if IUPAC name of an element is "Unununnium" then the element belongs to nth group of periodic table. The
value of n is _______
Q13 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : H Te is more acidic than H

2 2 S .
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H 2 Te is lower than H 2 S .
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true.

(4) A is true but R is false.
Q14 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Statement - I: Along the period, the chemical reactivity of the element gradually increases from group 1 to
group 18.
Statement - II: The nature of oxides formed by group 1 element is basic while that of group 17 elements is
acidic.
In the the light above statements, choose the most appropriate from the questions given below:
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is False.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II is false.
Q15 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The correct sequence of electron gain enthalpy of the elements listed below is
A. Ar
B. Br
C. F
D. S
(1) C > B > D > A
(2) A > D > B > C

(3) A > D > C > B
(4) D > C > B > A
Q16 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Consider the following elements.
Which of the following is/are true about A , B , C and D ? ′ ′ ′ ′
A. Order of atomic radii: B ′

< A
′
< D
′
< C
′
B. Order of metallic character : B ′

< A
′
< D
′
< C
′
C. Size of the element: D ′

< C
′
< B
′
< A
′
D. Order of ionic radii : B ′+

< A
′+
< D
′+
< C
′+

(1) A only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only

(4) B, C and D only

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (6) Q3 (2) Q4 (3)
Q5 (3) Q6 (3) Q7 (1) Q8 (3)
Q9 (4) Q10 (3) Q11 (2) Q12 (11)
Q13 (2) Q14 (3) Q15 (2) Q16 (2)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
In F −
, Ne, Na
+
all have 1 s 2 2
, 2 s , 2p
6
configuration. They have different size due to the difference in nuclear
charge.
Q2
has complete octet in its dianionic form, thus in its atomic state it has 6 electrons
+ −2 −2
A2 B → 2 A + B , B
in its valence shell. As it has negative charge, it has acquired two electrons to complete its octet.
Q3
I. In p-Block both metals and non metals are present but in d-Block only metals are present.
II. EN and IE of non metals are greater than that of metals
I - False, II-True
Q4
Strongest reducing agent : BiH explained by its low bond dissociation energy.
3
Q5
Compounds SO3 H2 SO3 SOCl2 SF4 BaSO4 H2 S 2 O7
O.S.of Sulphur: +6 +4 +4 +4 +6 +6
Q6
First ionisation energy increases along the period. Along the period Z increases which outweighs the shielding
effect
Q7

Solutions MathonGo
Gr-14 EN
C 2.5
Si 1.8
Ge 1.8
Sn 1.8
Pb 1.9
The electronegativity values for elements from Si to Pb are almost same. So Statement I is false.
Q8
Al < Si < C < N; IE1 order.
Q9
Statement-1 is false because chlorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Q10
Fact Based.
Q11
According to NCERT,
Statement-I : Factual data,
Statement-II is true.
But correct explanation is presence of completely filled d and f -orbitals of heavier members
Q12
11 belongs to 11 th
group
Q13
Due to lower Bond dissociation enthalpy of H 2

Te it ionizes to give H more easily than H
+
2
S .
Q14

Solutions MathonGo
Chemical reactivity of elements decreases along the period therefore statement −I is false.
Group - 1 elements from basic nature oxides while group - 17 elements form acidic oxides therefore statement
- II is true.
Q15
Element Δeg H(kJ/mol)
F −333
S −200
Br −325
Ar +96
Q16
In general along the period from left to right, size decreases and metallic character decrease.
In general down the group, size increases and metallic character increases.
′ ′ ′ ′
B < A (size) C > A (size)
′ ′ ′ ′
D < C (size) D > B (size)
′ ′
B < A (metallic character)
′ ′
D < C (metallic character)
′+ ′+
B < A (size)
′+ ′+
D < C (size)
∴ C statement is incorrect.

Chemical Kinetics JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

14
The ratio of in a piece of wood is part that of atmosphere. If half life of is 5730 years, the age of
C 1 14
12
C
C 8
wood sample is ______ years.
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant volume:
A(g) → 2 B( g) + C(g)
S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm)
1. 0 0.1
2. 115 0.28
The rate constant of the reaction is _______ ×10 −2

s
−1
(nearest integer)
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Consider the following data for the given reaction

2HI(g) → H2( g)
+ I2( g)
1 2 3
−1
HI (molL ) 0.005 0.01 0.02
−1 −4 −3 −2
Rate (molL s − 1) 7.5 × 10 3.0 × 10 1.2 × 10
The order of the reaction is ______
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First order reaction is ______ times of half life (t 1/2
) of the
reaction.
Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)

K1 K2
For a reaction taking place in three steps at same temperature, overall rate constant K = K3
. If Ea 1
, Ea2 and
Ea3 are 40,50 and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall Ea is _______ kJ/mol.
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)

The half-life of radioisotopic bromine - 82 is 36 hours. The fraction which remains after one day is _______
×10
−2
.
(Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)
Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L −1

s
−1
at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L −1
s
−1
at 20 minutes after
initiation. Half life of the reaction is _______ minutes. (Given log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771)
Q8 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
NO2 required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of N 2 O5 in CCl as by equation

4
2 N2 O5( g)
→ 4NO2( g)
+ O2( g)
The initial concentration of N 2 O5 is 3 mol L −1

and it is 2.75 mol L −1
after 30 minutes.
The rate of formation of NO is x × 10 2
−3
mol L
−1
min
−1
, value of x is _______
Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas phase reaction is given by (where P is initial pressure and P i t
is total pressure at time t)

Pi
(1) k = 2.303
t
× log
(2Pi −Pt )
2Pi
(2) k = 2.303
t
× log
(2Pi −Pt )
(2Pi −Pt )
(3) k = 2.303
t
× log
Pi
Pi
(4) k = 2.303
t
×
(2Pi −Pt )
Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
r = k[A] for a reaction, 50% of A is decomposed in 120 minutes. The time taken for 90% decomposition of A
is _______ minutes.

Answer Key
Q1 (17190) Q2 (2) Q3 (2) Q4 (10)
Q5 (30) Q6 (63) Q7 (24) Q8 (17)
Q9 (1) Q10 (399)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
14 12
( C/ C)
atmosphere
λt = ln 14 12
( C/ C)
wood sample
As per the question,

14 12
( C/ C)
wood 1
14 12
=
( C/ C) 8
atmosphere
So, λt = ln 8
ln 2
t = ln 8
t1/2
t = 3 × t1/2 = 17190 years
Q2
A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)
t = 0 0.1
t = 115 sec 0.1 − x 2x x
0.1 + 2x = 0.28
2x = 0.18
x = 0.09
1 0.1
K = ln
115 0.1 − 0.09
−1
= 0.0200sec
−2 −1
= 2 × 10 sec
Q3
Let, R = k[HI] n
using any two of given data,

−3 n
3 × 10 0.01
= ( )
−4
7.5 × 10 0.005
n = 2
Q4
2.303 a 100
( ) log( ) 3
t99.9% k a−x 100−99.9 log 10 3
= 2.303
= = = = 10
t1/2 log 2 log 2 0.3
log 2
k
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
(Ea +Ea −Ea )
K1 ⋅ K2 A1 ⋅ A2 −
1 2 3
K = = ⋅ e RT
K3 A3
(Ea +Ea −Ea )
−Ea /RT
A1 A2 −
1 2 3
A ⋅ e = ⋅ e RT
A3
Ea = Ea1 + Ea2 − Ea3 = 40 + 50 − 60 = 30 kJ/mole
Q6
Half life of bromine −82 = 36 hours

0.693
t1/2 =
K
0.693 −1
K = = 0.01925hr
36
st
1 order rxn kinetic equation
2.303 a
t = log
K a − x
a t × K
log = (t = 1 day = 24hr)
a − x 2.303
−1
a 24hr × 0.01925hr
log =
a − x 2.303
a
log = 0.2006
a − x
a
= anti log(0.2006)
a − x
a
= 1.587
a − x
If a = 1
1
= 1.587 ⇒ 1 − x = 0.6301 = Fraction remain
1 − x
after one day
Q7
−k×10×60
0.04 = k[A]0 e … (1)
−k×20×60
0.03 = k[A]0 e … (2)
\)
(1)/(2)

Solutions MathonGo
4
600k(2−1)
= e
3
4
600k
= e
3
4
ln = 600k
3
4 ln 2
ln = 600 ×
3 t1/2
ln 2
t1/2 = 600 sec
4
ln
3
log 2 0.3010
t1/2 = 600 × sec. = 10 × min
log 4 − log 3 0.6020 − 0.477
t1/2 = 24.08 min
Ans. 24
Q8
Rate of reaction (ROR)

1 Δ [N2 O5 ] 1 [NO2 ] Δ [O2 ]
= − = =
2 Δt 4 Δt Δt
1 Δ [N2 O5 ] 1 (2.75 − 3) −1 −1
ROR = − = − mol L min
2 Δt 2 30
1 (−0.25) −1 −1
ROR = − molL min
2 30
1 −1 −1
ROR = molL min
240
Δ[NO2 ]
Rate of formation of NO 2
=
Δt
= 4 × ROR
4 −3 −1 −1 −3
= = 16.66 × 10 molL min ≃ 17 × 10 .
240
Q9
A → B + C
Pi 0 0
Pi − x x x
Pt = Pi + x
Pi − x = Pi − Pt + Pi
= 2Pi − Pt
2.303 Pi
K = log
t 2Pi − Pt
Q10

Solutions MathonGo
r = k[A]
So, order of reaction = 1
t1/2 = 120 min
For 90% completion of reaction

2.303 a
⇒ k = log( )
t a − x
0.693 2.303 100

⇒ = log
t1/2 t 10
∴ t = 399 min.

Chemical Equilibrium JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
For the reaction N 2 O4 ( ,

g) ⇌ 2NO2 ( g) Kp = 0.492 atm at 300 K. K for the reaction at same temperature is
c
_______ ×10 . −2
(Given : R = 0.082 L atm mol −1

K
−1
)
Q2 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The following concentrations were observed at 500 K for the formation of NH from N and H . At 3 2 2
equilibrium : [N 2] = 2 × 10
−2
M, [H2 ] = 3 × 10
−2
M and [NH 3] = 1.5 × 10
−2
M . Equilibrium constant for the
reaction is _______
Q3 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
For the given reaction, choose the correct expression of K from the following :- C
3+ − 2+
Fe + SCN ⇌ (FeSCN)
(aq) (aq) (aq)
2+
[FeSCN ]
(1) K C
=
3+ −
[Fe ][SCN ]
3+ −
[Fe ][SCN ]
(2) K C =
2+
[FeSCN ]
2+
[FeSCN ]
(3) K C
=
3+ 2 − 2
[Fe ] [SCN ]
2
2+
[FeSCN ]
(4) K C =
3+ −
[Fe ][SCN ]
Q4 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
A(g) ⇌ B(g) +
C
2
( g) The correct relationship between K P ,α and equilibrium pressure P is
1/2 1/2
α P
(1) K P =
(2+α)
1/2
3/2 1/2
(2) K
α P
P
=
1/2
(2+α) (1−α)
1/2 3/2
(3) K P
=
α
(2+α)
P
3/2
1/2 1/2
(4) K P =
α P
3/2
(2+α)

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (417) Q3 (1) Q4 (2)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Δng
KP = KC ⋅ (RT)
Δng = 1
KP 0.492
−2
⇒ Kc = = = 2 × 10
RT 0.082 × 300
Q2
2
[NH3 ]
KC =
3
[ N2 ] [H2 ]
2
−2
(1.5 × 10 )
KC =
3
−2 −2
(2 × 10 ) × (3 × 10 )
KC = 417
Q3
Products ion conc.
KC =
Reactants ion conc.
2+
[FeSCN ]
KC =
3+ −
[Fe ] [SCN ]
Q4
C
A(g) ⇌ B(g) + ( g)
2
α
t = teq (1 − α) α
2
α
(1−α)
α 2
PB = ⋅ P, PA = ⋅ P, PC = ⋅ P
α α α
(1+ ) (1+ ) (1+ )
2 2 2
2
PB ⋅P
C
KP =
PA
3 1
(α) 2 (P) 2
= 1
(1−α)(2+α) 2

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH has lower boiling point than NH . Reason (R) : In liquid state NH molecules are
3 3 3
associated through vander waal's forces, but PH molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding. In the
3
light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules. LiF, K 2 O, N2 , SO2 and CIF .
3
(1) CIF 3 < N2 < SO2 < K2 O < LiF
(2) LiF < K 2O < CIF3 < SO2 < N2
(3) N 2 < SO2 < CIF3 < K2 O < LiF
(4) N 2 < CIF3 < SO2 < K2 O < LiF
Q3 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
The number of molecules/ion/s having trigonal bipyramidal shape is ........ .

2−
PF5 , BrF5 , PCl5 , [PtCl4 ] , BF3 , Fe(CO)5
Q4 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)

Statement (I) : A π bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-nuclear asix.
Statement (II) : The π antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei.
∗


Q5 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Select the compound from the following that will show intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(1) H 2O
(2) NH 3
(3) C 2 H5 OH
(4)
Q6 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Choose the polar molecule from the following :
(1) CCl 4
(2) CO 2
(3) CH 2 = CH2
(4) CHCl 3
Q7 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Sum of bond order of CO and NO is +
Q8 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
The number of non-polar molecules from the following ______
Q9 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)

Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst following is _______
O3 , H2 O, SF4 , ClF3 , NH3 , BrF5 , XeF4
Q10 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is
_______
+ + 2− 2− +
H2 , He ,O ,N ,O , F2 , Ne , B2
2 2 2 2 2
Q11 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The total number of anti bonding molecular orbitals, formed from 2 s and 2p atomic orbitals in a diatomic
molecule is _______
Q12 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The total number of 'Sigma' and Pi bonds in 2formylhex-4-enoic acid is _______
Q13 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The total number of molecules with zero dipole moment among CH 4, BF3 , H2 O, HF, NH3 , CO2 and SO is
2
_______
Q14 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Molecule Shape
(A) BrF5 (I) T-shape
(B) H2 O (II) See saw
(C) ClF3 (III) Bent
(D) SF4 (IV) Square pyramidal
(1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-IV, (D)-III

(2) (A) -II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV

(3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II

(4) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
Q15 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2 s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule
Q16 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Statement-I: Since fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF is greater than
3
NH3 .
Statement-II: In NH , the orbital dipole due to lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are in opposite
3
direction, but in NF the orbital dipole due to lone pair and dipole moments of N-F bonds are in same
3
direction.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate from the options given below.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II is are true.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is are true.
Q17 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals takes place only when the combining
atomic orbitals
A. have the same energy
B. have the minimum overlap
C. have same symmetry about the molecular axis

D. have different symmetry about the molecular axis

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A and C only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) B and D only
Q18 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The number of species from the following in which the central atom uses sp hybrid orbitals in its bonding is
3
_______
NH3 , SO2 , SiO2 , BeCl2 , CO2 , H2 O, CH4 , BF3
Q19 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following is least ionic?
(1) BaCl 2
(2) AgCl
(3) KCl
(4) CoCl 2
Q20 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2D. If the bond distance is 1Å, then fractional charge on each
atom is _______ ×10 −1
esu .
(Given 1D = 10 −18
esu cm)

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (3) Q3 (3) Q4 (3)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4) Q7 (6) Q8 (4)
Q9 (4) Q10 (1) Q11 (4) Q12 (22)
Q13 (3) Q14 (4) Q15 (8) Q16 (2)
Q17 (2) Q18 (4) Q19 (2) Q20 (0)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Unlike NH 3, PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid state. That is why the
boiling point of PH is lower than NH .
3 3
Q2
Increasing order of ionic character N 2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2 O < LiF
Ionic character depends upon difference of electronegativity (bond polarity).
Q3
PF5 , PCl5 , Fe(CO)5 ; Trigonal bipyramidal
BrF5 ; square pyramidal
; square planar
−2
[PtCl4 ]
BF3 ; Trigonal planar
Q4
A π bonding molecular orbital has higher electron density above and below inter nuclear axis
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
H2 O, NH3 , C2 H5 OH ⇒ Intermolecular H-Bonding
Q6
μ ≠ 0
CHCl3 is polar molecule and rest all molecules are non-polar.
Q7
+
¯
¯¯¯
CO ⇒ C ≡O : BO = 3
+ +
NO ⇒ N ≡ O : BO = 3
Q8
The non-polar molecules are CO 2

, H2 , CH4 and BF 3
Q9

Solutions MathonGo
Q10
Magnetic behaviour Bond order
H2 Diamagnetic 1
+
He Paramagnetic 0.5
2
+
O2 Paramagnetic 2.5
2−
N Paramagnetic 2
2
2−
O Diamagnetic 1
2
F2 Diamagnetic 1
+
Ne Paramagnetic 0.5
2
B2 Paramagnetic 1
Q11
Antibonding molecular orbital from 2 s = 1

Antibonding molecular orbital from 2p = 3
Total = 4
Q12

Solutions MathonGo
22 bonds
Q13
Molecules with zero dipole moment = CO 2, CH4 , BF 3
Q14
BrF5
Square pyramidal
H2 O
Bent
ClF3
T-shape
SF4 ,
See-saw

Solutions MathonGo
Q15
wo molecular orbitals σ2 s and σ ∗ 2 s.

Six molecular orbitals σ2p and σ ∗ 2p . π2p
z z x
, π2py and π ∗ 2p x
∗
, π 2py
Q16
Q17
*Molecular orbital should have maximum overlap
* Symmetry about the molecular axis should be similar
Q18
3
NH3 → sp
2
SO2 → sp
3
SiO2 → sp
BeCl2 → sp
CO2 → sp
3
H2 O → sp
3
CH4 → sp
2
BF3 → sp
Q19
AgCl < CoCl2 < BaCl2 < KCl (ionic character)
Reason : Ag has pseudo inert gas configuration.

+
Q20
μ = 1.2D = q × d
⇒ 1.2 × 10
−10
esu Å = q × 1Å
−10
∴ q = 1.2 × 10 esu

Carboxylic Acid Derivatives JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Identify major product ' P ' formed in the following reaction.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q2 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reactions is Sulphanilic acid +NaNO 2 + CH3 COOH → X
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

Answer Key
Q1 (4) Q2 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Q2
This is known as Griess-Ilosvay test.

Biomolecules JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
If one strand of a DNA has the sequence ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in complementary strand is:
(1) CATTAGCT
(2) TACGAAGT
(3) GTACTTAC
(4) ATGCGACT
Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
The number of tripeptides formed by three different amino acids using each amino acid once is _______.
Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)
Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage known as :
(1) Phosphodiester linkage
(2) Glycosidic linkage

(3) Disulphide linkage
(4) Peptide linkage
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?
(1) Primary
(2) Tertiary
(3) Secondary
(4) Quaternary
Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)


LIST-I LIST-II
(Substances) (Element Present)
A.Ziegler catalyst I.Rhodium
B.Blood Pigment II. Cobalt
C.Wilkinson catalyst III.Iron
D.Vitamin B B 12 IV.Titanium
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is :
(1) β
(2) α
(3) δ
(4) γ
Q7 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
Number of compounds among the following which contain sulphur as heteroatom is _______
Furan,Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine
Q8 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Q9 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling's reagent is:
(1) Sucrose
(2) Lactose
(3) Glucose
(4) Maltose
Q10 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The total number of correct statements, regarding the nucleic acids is

A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information.
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell division
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.

D. The message for the synthesis of particular proteins is present in DNA
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to daughter cells.

Q11 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)

List - I List - II
A. Glucose /NaHCO3 /Δ I. Gluconic acid
B. Glucose /HNO3 II. No reaction
C. Glucose/HI/ Δ III. n-hexane
D. Glucose / Bromine water IV. Saccharic acid
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Q12 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
A compound (x) with molar mass 108 g mol −1

undergoes acetylation to give product with molar mass
192 g mol
−1
. The number of amino groups in the compound (x) is _______
Q13 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
From the vitamins A, B B 1, B6 , B12 , C, D, E and K, the number vitamins that can be stored in our body is
_______

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (6) Q3 (1) Q4 (1)
Q5 (4) Q6 (2) Q7 (2) Q8 (4)
Q9 (1) Q10 (3) Q11 (2) Q12 (2)
Q13 (5)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Adenine base pairs with thymine with 2 hydrogen bonds and cytosine base pairs with guanine with 3 hydrogen
bonds.
Q2
Let 3 different amino acid are A, B, C then following combination of tripeptides can be formed-
ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA
Q3
Phosphodiester linkage
Q4
Boiling an egg causes denaturation of its protein resulting in loss of its quarternary, tertiary and secondary
structures.
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
Ziegler catalyst → Titanium

Blood pigment → Iron
Wilkinson catalyst → Rhodium

Vitamin B 12 → Cobalt
Q6
Proteins are natural polymers composed of α-amino acids which are connected by peptide linkages.
Hence proteins upon acidic hydrolysis produce α-amino acids.
Q7
Q8
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV Fact based.
Q9
Sucrose do not contain hemiacetal group.
Hence it does not give test with Fehling solution.
While all other give positive test with Fehling solution
Q10
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information. (False)

B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell division. (True)
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell. (False)

Solutions MathonGo
D. The message for the synthesis of particular proteins is present in DNA. (True)
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to daughter cells. (True)
Q11
NaHCO3
Glucose −−−−−→ no reaction

Δ
HNO3
Glucose −−−→ saccharic acid

Δ
HI
Glucose −→ n-hexane
Δ
Br2
Glucose −−→ Gluconic acid

Δ
Q12
Gain in molecular weight after acylation with one −NH group is 42.
2
Total increase in molecular weight = 84
∴ Number of amino group in x = 84
42
= 2
Q13
Vitamins A, D, E, K and B 12 are stored in liver and adipose tissue.

Amines JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Number of compounds which give reaction with Hinsberg's reagent is _______.
Q2 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following reaction is correct?

∘
HNO2 C
(1) CH 3
CH2 CH2 NH2 −−−−−→ CH3 CH2 OH + N2 + HCl
H2 O
(2)
(3)
C2 H5 CONH2 + Br2 + NaOH
(4)
→ C2 H5 CH2 NH2 + Na2 CO3 + NaBr + H2 O
Q3 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
The product A formed in the following reaction is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q4 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B)
(1) A = HNO 3 /H2 SO4 ;
(2) A = NaNO 2
∘
+ HCl, 0 − 5 C ;

(3) A = NaNO 2
∘
+ HCl, 0 − 5 C ;
(4) A = NaNO 2
∘
+ HCl, 0 − 5 C ;
Q5 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
The products A and B formed in the following reaction scheme are respectively
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q6 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)

Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H 2
SO4 followed by heating at 453 − 473 K gives p− aminobenzene

sulphonic acid, which gives blood red colour in the 'Lassaigne's test'.
Statement II: In Friedel - Craft's alkylation and acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the AlCl catalyst.
3
Due to this, nitrogen of aniline aquires a positive charge and acts as deactivating group.
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer Key
Q1 (5) Q2 (2) Q3 (3) Q4 (4)
Q5 (3) Q6 (4)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4

Solutions MathonGo
Q5
Q6

Aldehydes and Ketones JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)
Match List - I with List -II.
Choose the correct answer from options given below:
(1) A-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) A-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) A-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

(4) A-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Q2 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)
From the compounds given below, number of compounds which give positive Fehling's test is _______
Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone,
Acetophenone,Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde, cyclohexane carbaldehyde.
Q3 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Identify the reagents used for the following conversion
(1) A = LiAlH 4
, B = NaOH(aq) , C = NH2 − NH2 /KOH , ethylene glycol
(2) A = LiAlH 4
, B = NaOH(alc) , C = Zn/HCl

(3) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH (aq)

,
C = NH2 − NH2 /KOH , ethylene glycol
(4) A = DIBAL − H, B = NaOH (alc)

, C = Zn/HCl
Q4 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
This reduction reaction is known as:
(1) Rosenmund reduction

(2) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(3) Stephen reduction

(4) Etard reduction
Q5 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)
The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal with semicarbazide contains _______ number of nitrogen
atoms.
Q6 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
m-chlorobenzaldehyde on treatment with 50% KOH solution yields
(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)
Q7 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
The product of the following reaction is P .
The number of hydroxyl groups present in the product P is _______.
Q8 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)
Identify the name reaction.
(1) Stephen reaction

(2) Etard reaction
(3) Gatterman-koch reaction

(4) Rosenmund reduction

Answer Key
Q1 (2) Q2 (3) Q3 (4) Q4 (1)
Q5 (3) Q6 (2) Q7 (0) Q8 (3)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
DIBAL-H, H2 O
CH3 (CH2 ) COOC2 H5 −−−−−−−−−→ CH3 (CH2 ) CHO

5 5
Zn(Hg) \& conc. HCl
C6 H5 COC6 H5 −−−−−−−−−−−−→ C6 H5 CH2 C6 H5

CH3 MgBr
C6 H5 CHO −−−−−−→ C6 H5 CH(OH)CH3

H2 O
+
NaBH4 ,H
CH3 COCH2 COOC2 H5 −−−−−−→ CH3 CH(OH)CH2 COOC2 H5
Q2
Acetaldehyde (CH 3 CHO) , Methanal (HCHO), and
cyclohexane carbaldehyde
Q3
Q4
It is known as rosenmund reduction that is the partial reduction of acid chloride to aldehyde
Q5

Solutions MathonGo
[original image]
(https://cdn.mathpix.com/snip/images/RfbnxN2W2Xq3M7QVlkJImYdx9RlPBeMoRcyxserMHMI.original.fullsize.png)
Q6
Meta-chlorobenzaldehyde will undergo Cannizzaro reaction with 50%KOH to give m− chlorobenzoate ion and m-
chlorobenzyl alcohol.
Q7
Product benzene has zero hydroxyl group
Q8
Gatterman-Koch reaction

Alcohols Phenols and Ethers JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank
Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)
Match List - I with List - II.

List-I List-II
(Reactants) Products
(A) Phenol, Zn/Δ (I) Salicylaldehyde
(B) Phenol, CHCl3 , NaOH, HCl (II) Salicylic acid
(C) Phenol, CO2 , NaOH, HCl (III) Benzene
(D) Phenol, Conc. HNO3 (IV) Picric acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B), (II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Q2 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)

Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent.


Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:
(1) Phthalein dye test

(2) Lucas test
(3) Tollen's test

(4) Carbylamine test
Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Match List-I with List-II.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Q5 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)
Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolysed in presence of an
acid results
(1) Salicyclic acid
(2) Benzene-1,2-diol
(3) Benzene-1, 3-diol
(4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde

Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)
Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when reacted with
(1)
, NaOH
(2) CO 2, NaOH
(3) CCl 4, NaOH
(4) HCCl 3, NaOH
Q8 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles and electrophiles.
Reason R: Alcohols react with active metals such as sodium, potassium and aluminum to yield corresponding
alkoxides and liberate hydrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: pK value of phenol is 10.0 while that of ethanol is 15.9.

a
Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Answer Key
Q1 (3) Q2 (1) Q3 (1) Q4 (4)
Q5 (4) Q6 (4) Q7 (4) Q8 (4)
Q9 (1)

Solutions MathonGo
Q1
Q2
Acidic strength
Ethanol give lucas test after long time

Statement (I) → correct
Statement (II) → incorrect
Q3

Solutions MathonGo
Carbylamine Test-Identification of primary amines Lucas Test - Differentiation between 1 ∘

,2
∘
and 3 alcohols
∘
Tollen's Test - Identification of Aldehydes Phthalein Dye Test - Identification of phenols
Q4
(A) → Kolbe Schmidt Reaction
(B) → Reimer Tiemann Reaction

(C) → Oxidation of phenol to p-benzoquinone
(D) → PhOH + NaOH → H 2O + PhO
−
Q5
Q6
It is Reimer Tiemann Reaction
Q7

Solutions MathonGo
Q8
As per NCERT, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) is correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation.
Q9
Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because conjugate base of phenoxide is more stable than ethoxide.

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Thermodynamics (C) JEE Main 2024 January Question Bank

Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)

Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)

pressure of 80kPa, then the amount of heat transferred is ______ J.

Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 2)

For a certain thermochemical reaction M → N at T = 400 K, ΔH ⊖

equilibrium constant (log K) is ______ ×10 . −1

Q5 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 1)

Which of the following is not correct?

(1) ΔG is negative for a spontaneous reaction

(2) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction

Q6 - 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)

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Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

CCl4 at constant temperature is _______ kJ.

(Given molar mass in gmol −1

Q7 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 1)

Q8 - 2024 (30 Jan Shift 2)

Two reactions are given below:

Then enthalpy change for following reaction

3C(s) + Fe2 O3( s)

Q9 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 1)

Consider the following reaction at 298 K.

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Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

Q10 - 2024 (31 Jan Shift 2)

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Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

Q1 (4) Q2 (57) Q3 (1200) Q4 (37)

Q5 (2) Q6 (56) Q7 (200) Q8 (492)

Q9 (163) Q10 (28721)

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During free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0.

= −8.314 × 300 ln(10)

Using, first law of thermodynamics,

⇒ 28400 = −2.303 × 8.314 × 400 log K

(ΔG)P,T = (+) ve for non-spontaneous process

Molar mass of CCl 4

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rk done is given by area enclosed in the P vs V cyclic graph or V vs P cyclic graph.

= 200 × 1000 Pa − L = 2 L − bar = 200 J

(3) = 3 × (2) − (1)

ΔH3 = 3 × ΔH2 − ΔH1

It is isothermal reversible expansion, so work done negative

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Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

Q1 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 1)

Q2 - 2024 (01 Feb Shift 2)

The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:

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Questions with Answer Keys MathonGo

Q3 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)

Q4 - 2024 (27 Jan Shift 1)

Consider the following complex ions

(1) R < Q < P

(2) R < P < Q

(4) Q < P < R