Bacterial growth requirements, Bacterial growth 23-02-2022

(1). The phase of rapid growth of bacteria during the growth cycle is called
a) Pre log phase
b) Lag phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Logarithmic phase
e) Decline/ death phase

Answer: d

(2). Which of the following is not a phase of typical bacterial growth cycle?
a) Pre log phase
b) Lag phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Logarithmic phase
e) Decline/ death phase

Answer: a

(3). A typical bacterial growth cycle/curve comprises of how many phases?

a) Four phases
b) Two phases
c) One phase only
d) Ten phases
e) Three phases

Answer: a

(4). Which phase of the bacterial growth cycle is also known as exponential phase?
a) Lag phase
b) Stationary phase
c) Logarithmic phase
d) Decline/ death
e) None of the above
Answer: c

(5). Most antibiotics disrupt biosynthetic processes of bacterial growth while they actively
divide. This most efficacious phase of bacterial growth curve is
a) Logarithmic phase
b) Lag phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Decline/ death
 e) All of the above
Answer: a

(6). During which of the following phase of bacterial growth cycle the new cells produced
balances the number of cells that die

a) Logarithmic phase
b) Lag phase
c) Decalcification phase
d) Decline/ death
e) Stationary phase

Answer: e
(7). Which of the following special apparatus bacterial growth can remain in log phase?
a) Spectrophotometer
b) Turbidimeter
c) Fluorochrome
d) Hemostat
e) Chemostat
Answer: e
(8). During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be
most effective?

a) Death phase
b) Lag phase
c) a and b both
d) Log phase
e) Stationary phase

Answer: d

(9). Organisms that may grow in very high temperature are

a) Thermophiles
b) Acidophiles
c) Mesophiles
d) Psychrotrophs
e) Hyper acidophiles

Answer: a

(10). Obligate anaerobes are bacteria that

a) Can grow in presence of oxygen

 b) Only grow when oxygen is present
c) Can grow in equal quantity of oxygen and carbon dioxide
d) Have superoxide dismutase
e) Cannot grow in oxygen because they do not have catalase or superoxide dismutase

Answer: e

Trichomonas vaginalis
1. What is true about Trichomonas Vaginalis
a) Has 2 posterior Flagella
b) Exists only as trophozoite
c) Has 3 pairs of central nuclei
d) Undulating membrane covers only anterior one third
e) Trichomoniasis is caused by the cyst form
Answer: b
2. A 36 years old married female presented to gynecologist with complaints of watery, foul-
smelling greenish discharge accompanied with itching and burning. The organism exists
only in trophozoite form is
a) Neisseria gonorrhea
b) Candida albicans
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Herpes Simplex
e) Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: e
3. Wet mount microscopy of vaginal discharge revealed pear shaped, flagellated organism
with typical jerky movement. The organism causes trichomoniasis in sexually active
females. What is that organism?
a) Neisseria gonorrhea
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Candida albicans
d) Chlamydia trachomatis
e) Herpes Simplex
Answer: b
4. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as
a) jerky
b) Amoeboid
c) Rotatory
 d) Oscillatory
e) Gliding
Answer: a
5. Trichomonas vaginalis is a
a) Bacteria
b) Prion
c) Parasite
d) Virus
e) Fugus
Answer: c
6. Which protozoa exists only as Trophozoite and is sexually transmitted
a) Entamoeba
b) Trichomonas
c) Cryptosporidium
d) Giardia
e) Trypanosoma
Answer: b
7. Trichomonas vaginalis is a cause of
a) Trichomoniasis
b) Traveler’s diarrhea
c) Impetigo
d) Meningitis
e) Pharyngitis
Answer: a
8. The frequency of symptomatic Trichomoniasis is highest in
a) Postmenopausal women
b) Children below two years of age
c) Males in their fifties
d) Sexually active females in their thirties
e) Neonates
Answer: d
9. All are features associated with Trichomonas vaginalis except
a) Pear shaped organism
b) A central nucleus
c) Both trophozoite and cyst form
 d) Four anterior flagella
e) Jerky motility
Answer: c
10. Treatment of choice for Trichomoniasis is
a) Ampicillin
b) Sulfasalazine
c) Riboflavin
d) Clindamycin
e) Metronidazole
Answer: e

Acanthamoeba and Naegleria

1. Naegleria trophozoites enter into the body through
a) Ingestion of contaminated sea food
b) Mucosal membrane while swimming
c) Ingestion of stored packed food
d) Used syringes
e) Cat feces
Answer: b
2. Naegleria fowleri is
a) Protozoa
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
d) Prion
e) Fungus
Answer: a
3. Acanthamoeba castellanii is
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Prion
d) Protozoa
e) Fungus
Answer: d
4. Acanthamoeba causes
a) Urinary tract infection
 b) Traveler’s diarrhea
c) Hepatitis
d) Impetigo
e) Keratitis
Answer: e
5. Naegleria fowleri causes
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Meningitis
c) Traveler’s diarrhea
d) Hepatitis
e) Impetigo
Answer: b
6. Naegleria fowleri is
a) Gram positive cocci
b) Gram negative cocci
c) Gram positive bacilli
d) Gram negative bacilli
e) Free living amoeba in warm fresh water
Answer: e
7. Acanthamoeba is
a) Gram positive cocci
b) Gram negative cocci
c) Gram positive bacilli
d) Gram negative bacilli
e) Free living amoeba
Answer: e
8. Acanthamoeba castellanii causes keratitis in those who wear
a) Gloves
b) Shoe cover
c) Contact lenses
d) Facemask
e) Glasses
Answer: c
9. Contamination with which of the following is the source of Acanthamoeba keratitis
a) Bird feces
 b) Cat scratch
c) Dog bite
d) Tap water
e) Mosquito bite
Answer: d
10. Acanthamoeba causes disease primarily in
a) Immunocompromised individuals
b) Healthy men
c) Healthy neonates
d) Healthy women
e) Young boys with normal growth
Answer: a

Circulatory system and shock

(1) Circulatory system comprises of

(a) Heart, blood vessels and blood
(b) Heart, blood vessels and liver
(c) Brain, lung and pancreas
(d) Stomach, heart and blood vessels
(e) Kidneys, brain and skeletal muscles
Answer: a

(2) The heart and circulatory system have the vital roles in the body. They provide your
body
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nutrients
(c) A way to get rid of waste
(d) Only (a) and (c)
(e) All of the above
Answer: e

(3) White blood cells contain a _______, while red blood cells do not
(a) Nucleus
(b) Hemoglobin
(c) Muscle fiber
(d) Red color
(e) Brain
Answer: a

(4) What links the arteries to the veins?

 (a) Muscle
(b) Capillaries
(c) Aorta
(d) Liver
(e) Femoral vein
Answer: b

(5) Organ system of which transport nutrients and circulate blood is known as

(a) Ligament system

(b) Filament system
(c) Cartilage system
(d) Digestive system
(e) Circulatory system

Answer: e

(6) Cardiovascular system of humans and all other vertebrates is classified as

(a) Fibrous system

(b) Closed cardiovascular system
(c) Synovial system
(d) Open cardiovascular system
(e) Capsulated system

Answer: b

(7) Deoxygenated blood returned to heart in chamber called

(a) Left ventricle

(b) Right ventricle
(c) Right atrium
(d) Left atrium
(e) Aorta

Answer: c

(8) Circulation system which provides supply of blood to muscles of heart is

classified as

(a) Lymphatic circulation

 (b) Coronary circulation
(c) Bronchial circulation
(d) Hepatic circulation
(e) Orbital

Answer: b

(9) Circulatory system is also known as

(a) Ligament system

(b) Filament system
(c) Cardiovascular system
(d) Cartilage system
(e) Nervous system

Answer: c

(10) Endothelium is

(a) Elastic in nature

(b) Fully permeable
(c) Non-permeable
(d) Selectively permeable
(e) (a) and (c)

Answer: d

(11) Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(a) Pulmonary
(b) Renal arteries
(c) Hepatic
(d) Cardiac
(e) Femoral

Answer: a

(12) A condition that occurs because of cardiovascular dysfunction and inability of

circulatory system to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic
demands of the vital organs is known as

(a) Air embolism

 (b) Red Infarct

(c) Thrombosis

(d) Shock

(e) Hemorrhagic fever

Answer: d

(13) All are true about shock except

(a) Hypovolemic shock is the most common type. It results in inadequate circulating
blood volume
(b) Cardiogenic shock is caused when the heart fails to pump effectively
(c) Septic shock is caused by vasoconstriction in severe infection such as infection by
gram negative bacteria
(d) Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to an allergen
(e) Neurogenic shock can occur in the setting of anesthetic accident or a spinal cord
injury as a result of loss of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood
Answer: c

(14) Overwhelming infection and resulting vasodilation can lead to the following type
of shock

(a) Anaphylactic
(b) Cardiogenic
(c) Hypovolemic
(d) Septic
(e) Neurogenic shock
Answer: d

(15) Trauma to the spinal cord and resultant loss of autonomic and motor reflexes
below the injury level can lead to the following type of shock

(a) Cardiogenic
(b) Hypovolemic
(c) Neurogenic
(d) Septic
(e) Anaphylactic
Answer: c
 (16) The skin is cool and clammy in the following type of shock

(a) Cardiogenic
(b) Hypovolemic
(c) Neurogenic
(d) Septic
(e) Anaphylactic
Answer: b

(17) The net effects of compensatory mechanisms in initial non progressive phase of
shock include all except

(a) Tachycardia
(b) Peripheral vasoconstriction
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Renal conservation of fluid
(e) Cutaneous vasodilation present with warm, flushed skin in septic shock
Answer: c

(18) Vasodilation and resulting hypotension and increased capillary permeability is

characteristic of

(a) Anaphylactic shock

(b) Cardiogenic Shock
(c) Hypovolemic shock
(d) Septic Shock
(e) Anaphylactic shock

Answer: d

(19) A 15-year-old girl is admitted to the Emergency Ward with sudden onset of
severe shortness of breath, no chest pain, diffuse wheezing, cyanosis, and a BP of 70/30,
Pulse = 100. This event occurred soon after she ate nuts. What is the likely diagnosis?

(a) Acute pulmonary embolism

(b) Tension pneumothorax
(c) Anaphylaxis
(d) Myocardial infarction
(e) Bacillary dysentery

Answer: c

(20) Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure and help us to respond to shock. They are
located in
 (a) Abdominal aorta
(b) Carotid arteries and aortic arch
(c) Brain and ventricular muscle tissue
(d) Brain and spinal cord
(e) Kidneys

Answer: b

(21) What feature distinguish the septic shock from hypovolemic shock

(a) Patients with septic shock will have warm flushed skin due to vasodilatation
(b) Patient with septic shock will present with cool skin due to vasoconstriction
(c) Patients with septic shock will present with bluish color of skin
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Answer: a

(22) Anaphylactic shock is which type of hypersensitivity

(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV
(e) All of the above
Answer: a
Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E Viruses
(1) All of the following are known cause of Hepatitis except
a) HAV
b) HBV
c) HCV
d) Parvovirus B 19
e) HDV
Answer: d
(2). Which of the following cause hepatitis but are not exclusively hepatitis viruses?
a) Epstein Bar virus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Yellow fever virus
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
Answer: e
(3). Which of the following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?
 a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Hepatitis C virus
c) Hepatitis D virus
d) Hepatitis A virus
e) Hepatitis E virus
Answer: a
(4). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are enveloped?
a) Only HBV
b) HAV
c) HBV, HCV and HDV
d) HEV
e) Only HDV
Answer: c
(5). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are non-enveloped?
a) HAV and HEV
b) HAV and HBV
c) HEV and HDV
d) HEV and HBV
e) HCV and HBV
Answer: a
(6). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis A virus is
a) Contaminated syringes
b) Droplet infection
c) Air born
d) Fecal-oral
e) Transplacental
Answer: d
(7). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis E virus is
a) Contaminated syringes
b) Fecal-oral
c) Droplet infection
d) Air born
e) Transplacental
Answer: b
(8) HBe Antibody is an important indicator of
 a) Transmissibility
b) Immunity
c) Relapse
d) Chronicity
e) Subacute infection
Answer: a
(9) HBsAg is an important indicator of
a) Only chronic carrier state
b) Immunity
c) Acute disease and chronic carrier state
d) Window period
e) Complete recovery
Answer: c
(10). HBsAg positive woman gives birth to a baby, which step should be taken for baby
a) Give only Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Give only Hepatitis B immune globulin
c) Wait for the symptoms of hepatitis to develop
d) No action needed
e) Give both Hepatitis B immune globulin and Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: e

Rickettsiae and Mycoplasma

(1). Which of the following is wall-less microorganism?
a) Staphylococci
b) Streptococci
c) Meningococci
d) Mycoplasma
e) Salmonella
Answer: d
(2). Which of the following are smallest free-living organisms?
a) Mycoplasma
b) Spirochetes
c) Acid fast bacilli
d) Staphylococci
e) Enterobacteriaceae
Answer: a
(3). All of the following organisms cause primary atypical pneumonia except
a) Legionella pneumophilia
b) Salmonella Typhi
c) Chlamydia pneumoniae
d) Coxiella burnetii
e) Mycoplasma
Answer: b
(4). Which of the following is the only bacteria which has cholesterol in bacterial
membrane?
a) Vibrio cholera
b) Clostridium tetani
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e) Streptococcus pyrogens
Answer: d
(5). Mycoplasma Pneumoniae is transmitted by
a) Fecal-oral route
b) Hand shaking
c) Respiratory droplet
d) Transplacental
e) Needle stick injury
Answer: c

E. Coli, Klebsiella, Citrobacter, Enterobacter 25/03/2022

(1). Escherichia coli is
a) Gram positive cocci
b) Gram negative cocci
c) Gram positive bacilli
d) Gram negative bacilli
e) Acid fast bacilli
Answer: d
(2). All of the following diseases are caused by Escherichia coli except
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Pneumonia
c) Traveler’s diarrhea
d) Neonatal meningitis
 e) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Answer: b
(3). The first step of Escherichia coli to cause intestinal infection is adherence of the
organism which is achieved by
a) Pilli
b) Glycocalyx
c) Pseudopods
d) Flagella
e) Chemotaxis
Answer: a
(4). Shiga toxin is produces by
a) Escherichia coli
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) Vibrio cholera
e) Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: a
(5). Escherichia coli is
a) Straight Gram positive cocci
b) Straight Gram negative cocci
c) Straight Acid fast bacilli
d) Straight Gram positive bacilli
e) Straight Gram negative bacilli
Answer: e
(6). On EMB agar Escherichia coli have typical
a) Green sheen
b) Brown sheen
c) Red sheen
d) Golden sheen
e) Purple sheen
Answer: a
(7). Lactose negative organisms are colorless, whereas Escherichia coli which ferments
lactose forms
a) Black colonies
b) Pink colonies
 c) Golden colonies
d) Yellow colonies
e) Blue colonies
Answer: b
(8). Escherichia coli is gram negative bacilli, under microscope Gram negative bacteria
appear
a) Blue
b) Black
c) Yellow
d) Green
e) Pink
Answer: e
(9). All are true for Escherichia coli except
a) It is gram negative bacilli
b) It is not a leading cause of urinary tract infection
c) It is motile
d) It causes bloody diarrhea
e) It is a straight bacillus
Answer: b
(10). Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes
a) Bloody diarrhea
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Pharyngitis
d) Watery diarrhea
e) Rheumatic fever
Answer: a

Clostridium Botulinum, Difficile 31/03/2022

(1). Which of the following is most toxic exotoxin?
a) Cholera toxin
b) Botulism Toxin
c) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
d) Tetanus toxin
e) Diphtheria toxin
Answer: b
(2). Which of the following bacilli have drum stick appearance?
 a) Clostridium Tetani
b) Hemophilus influenza
c) Vibrio cholera
d) Campylobacter jejuni
e) Salmonella Typhi
Answer: a
(3). Which of the following microorganism produces neurotoxin as virulence factor?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Clostridium Tetani
c) Bacillus anthracis
d) Neisseria gonorrhea
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: b
(4). Clostridium perfringens is normal flora of which part of human body
a) Skin
b) Stomach
c) Intestine
d) Eyes
e) Oral cavity
Answer: c
(5). All of the following are Gram positive bacilli except
a) Clostridium Tetani
b) Vibrio Cholera
c) Clostridium Botulism
d) Clostridium Difficile
e) Clostridium perfringens
Answer: b
(6). Which of the following disease is caused by Clostridium perfringens?
a) Impetigo
b) Diphtheria
c) Gas gangrene
d) Esophagitis
e) Toxic shock syndrome
Answer: c
(7). Which of the following disease is caused by Clostridium tetani?
 a) Tetanus
b) Impetigo
c) Diphtheria
d) Esophagitis
e) Toxic shock syndrome
Answer: a
(8). Which is the most potent toxin produced by Clostridium Tetani and Clostridium
Botulism?
a) Cytotoxin
b) Aflatoxin
c) Neurotoxin
d) Shiga toxin
e) Vero toxin
Answer: c
(9). Botulism is commonly caused by
a) Canned food
b) Boiled milk
c) Uncooked rice
d) Half boiled eggs
e) Boiled pulses
Answer: a
(10). Tetanus is caused by which of the following organisms?
a) Gram positive cocci
b) Gram Negative cocci
c) Gram positive bacilli
d) Gram positive bacilli
e) Acid fast bacilli
Answer: c

Type IV Hypersensitivity Reaction 02/04/2022

(1). Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as
a) Instant hypersensitivity
b) Immediate hypersensitivity
c) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
d) Immune complex hypersensitivity
e) Delayed hypersensitivity
Answer: e
(2). T helper cell mediated hypersensitivity is
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
e) There is no role of helper T cells in hypersensitivity reactions
Answer: d
(3). Contact dermatitis is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
e) Both Type I and Type III hypersensitivity
Answer: d
(4). Tuberculin test is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
e) None of the above
Answer: d
(5). The Helper T cells release cytokines to activate macrophages to cause cell damage.
These sensitized helper T cells mediate which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Type IV hypersensitivity
b) Type III hypersensitivity
c) Type II hypersensitivity
d) Type I hypersensitivity
e) All of the above
Answer: a
(6). Which of the following is important cytokines for Delayed Type Hypersensitivity reaction?
a) TNF-α
b) TNF-β
c) PDGFR-β
d) IFN-α
e) All of the above
Answer: a
(7). The raised, red spot at the site of tuberculin test is the result of which type of hypersensitivity
reaction

a) This is not due to hypersensitivity reaction

b) Type I hypersensitivity
c) Type II hypersensitivity
d) Type III hypersensitivity
e) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: e
(8). Which one of the following is NOT an example of a type IV hypersensitivity?

a) Contact dermatitis
b) Contact with poison ivy
c) Asthma
d) Positive tuberculin skin test
e) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

Answer: c
(9). Which of the following is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity?

a) Contact dermatitis
b) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d) Urticaria
e) ABO transfusion reaction

Answer: a
(10). All of the hypersensitivity reactions are antibody mediated except which of the
following
a) Both Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity
b) Type I hypersensitivity
c) Type II hypersensitivity
d) Type III hypersensitivity
e) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: e

Staphylococcus Type, Diagnosis 15/04/2022

4th year
 Haemopoietic System, Bone Marrow and Haematopoiesis
(1). Which of the following is precursor of platelets?
a) Normoblast
b) Macrophage
c) Megaloblast
d) Megakaryocyte
e) Lymphoblast
Answer: d
(2). Erythropoietin is synthesized in
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas
e) Bone marrow
Answer: a
(3). What is the normal platelet count?
a) 50 -100 x 109/L
b) 500 -1000 x 109/L
c) 30 -130 x 109/L
d) 5 -800 x 109/L
e) 150 - 450 x 109/L
Answer: e
(4). In normal adult hematopoiesis occurs in
a) Bones
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Kidney
e) Pancreas
Answer: a
(5). The average life span of red blood cells is
a) 500 days
b) 120 days
c) 60 minutes
d) 90 hours
e) Red cells are immortal
Answer: b
(6). There are two types of bone marrow
a) Red and green
b) Black and brown
c) Red and yellow
d) Orange and Blue
e) Brown and green
Answer: c
(7). The yellow bone marrow is made mostly of
a) Fat
b) Muscle fibers
c) Protein
d) Bone
e) Squamous cells
Answer: a
(8). Erythrocytes are product of
a) Erythroblast
b) Megakaryocyte
c) Monoblast
d) Macrophage
e) Osteoblast
Answer: a
(9). Precursor of lymphocytes is
a) Megakaryocyte
b) Monoblast
c) Lymphoblast
d) Macrophage
e) Osteoblast
Answer: c
(10). Life span of platelets is
a) 6 hours
b) 10 days
c) 26 days
d) One month
e) One year
Answer: b

Normocytic Normochromic Anemia 28-02-2022

(1). Which of the following is/are associated with normocytic normochromic anemia?
a) Acute blood loss
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Chronic kidney disease
d) Sickle cell anemia
e) All of the above
Answer: e
(2). Which of the following is not a cause of normocytic normochromic anemia?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Immune hemolytic anemia
d) Chronic kidney disease
e) Acute blood loss
Answer: b
(3). A patient has low hemoglobin concentration for age and gender. What next
investigation will reveal the morphology of red blood cells?
a) Serum ferritin level
b) Peripheral blood smear
c) Red blood cell indies in complete blood count
d) Total iron binding capacity
e) Serum and red cell folate
Answer: b
(4). All of the following cause normocytic normochromic anemia associated with decreased
bone marrow production of red cells except
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Infiltration of bone marrow by secondary malignancies
c) Acute blood loss
d) Infiltration of bone marrow by parasites
e) Pure red cell aplasia
Answer: c
(5). A 59 years old hypertensive female complaints of fatigue. She developed kidney disease
6 months back. There is no any history of bleeding or dark colored urine. Her CBC shows
Hemoglobin 8 g/dl and MCV 90 fl. Peripheral blood smear shows normocytic
normochromic red blood cells. What is the most likely cause of her anemia?
a) Anemia of chronic disease
b) Folate deficiency
c) Iron deficiency
d) Pernicious anemia
e) Vitamin B12 deficiency
Answer: a
(6). There is active bleeding due to trauma or injury resulting in acute blood loss. This kind
of blood loss causes which kind of anemia?
a) Microcytic Hyperchromic anemia
b) Microcytic Hypochromic anemia
c) Macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils
d) Normocytic Normochromic anemia
e) Microcytic Normochromic anemia
Answer: d
(7). Which of the following is true about normocytic red blood cells?
a) The red blood cells are abnormally large
b) The red blood cells are abnormally small
c) Mean corpuscular volume is above normal
d) Mean corpuscular volume is below normal
e) The Red blood cells are of normal size with normal Mean corpuscular volume
Answer: e
(8). Normocytic normochromic anemia associated with hemolysis is associated with
a) Increased reticulocyte count
b) Decreased reticulocyte count
c) There is no effect of hemolysis on reticulocyte count
d) None of the above
e) Both b and c are true
Answer: a
(9). Low hemoglobin level with normocytic normochromic red blood cells is seen in
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Chronic kidney disease
e) All of the above
Answer: e
(10). (9). Normocytic normochromic red blood cells in association of low hemoglobin level
are seen in all conditions except
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Chronic kidney disease
Answer: c

Macrocytic anemias: Non-Megaloblastic

(1) Which of the following red cell indices tells you how big your patient’s red
cells are?
(a) RBC
(b) Hgb
(c) RDW
(d) MCV
(e) MCHC
Answer: d
(2) Normal range for Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is
(a) 80-95 fl
(b) 20-45 fl
(c) 60-110 fl
(d) 95-200 fl
(e) 200-300 fl
Answer: a
(3) Oval macrocytes are feature of which of the following
(a) Liver disease
(b) Megaloblastic anemia
(c) Neonate
(d) Aplastic anemia
(e) Hypothyroidism
Answer: b
(4) Macrocytic anemias are the anemias in which
(a) The red cells are small
(b) The red cells are normal in size
(c) The red cells are big
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Answer: c
(5) Macrocytosis is reported/ expressed in terms of
(a) Percentage
(b) Pico gram
(c) Kilo gram
(d) Gram/deciliter
(e) Femtoliter
Answer: e
(6) Non-Megaloblastic anemia may be seen in all the following conditions except:

(a) Pregnancy
(b) Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
(c) Aplastic anemia
(d) Smoking
(e) Cytotoxic drugs

Answer: b
(7) Macrocytosis in liver disease is caused by
(a) Deposition of lipid in red cell membrane
(b) Deposition of Iron in red cell membrane
(c) Deposition of Carbon in Golgi apparatus
(d) Deposition of high-density lipoprotein in endoplasmic reticulum
(e) Deposition of lipid in nucleus
Answer: a
(8) The macrocytosis associated with smoking is attributed to excess cell water
secondary to
 (a) Oxygen retention
(b) Helium retention
(c) Carbon dioxide retention
(d) Hydrogen retention
(e) Lithium retention
Answer: c
(9) The physiological causes of large circulating erythrocytes are

(a) Newborns
(b) Infants
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Only (a)
(e) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: e
(10) Which of the following is more typical of non-megaloblastic than
megaloblastic anemia
(a) Hypersegmented neutrophils
(b) Oval macrocytes
(c) Microcytes
(d) Round macrocytes
(e) Tear drop cells
Answer: d