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Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. MHT-CET : 20 Question Paper Set
14. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a (C) width of the slit.
height of 250 m. What is the distance upto (D) wavelength of light used and width of
which the broadcast can be received? the slit.
(Take R = 6.4 106 m)
21. A gas for which = 1.5 is suddenly
(A) 50 km (B) 60 km th
(C) 56.6 km (D) 54.6 km 1
compressed to of the initial volume.
15. The compressibility of water is 4
5
4 10 per atm. The decrease in volume of Then the ratio of the final to the initial
100 cm3 of water under a pressure of pressure is
100 atmospheres will be (A) 1 : 16 (B) 1 : 8 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 8 : 1
(A) 0.004 cm3 (B) 0.04 cm3 22. If an electron jumps from 1st orbital to 3rd
3
(C) 0.4 cm (D) 4 cm3 orbital, then it will
16. If the momentum of a photon is p, then its (A) absorb energy
frequency is (B) release energy
ph pc (C) be no gain of energy
(A) (B)
c h (D) be no loss of energy
mh mc 23. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe
(C) (D)
c h have their first overtone identical in
where, m is the rest mass of the photon frequency. Their lengths are in the ratio
17. A 4 kg stone tied at the end of a 1m long (A) 1:2 (B) 3:4
string is whirled in a vertical circle. At the (C) 2:3 (D) 4:5
instant, when the string makes an angle with 24. The primary winding of a transformer has 100
the vertical, the speed of stone is 4 m/s and the turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns.
tension in the thread is 103.2 N. Then is The primary is connected to an a.c. supply of
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 90 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The
18. The internal resistances of two cells shown are voltage and the current in the secondary are
0.1 and 0.3 . If R 0.2 , the potential (A) 240 V, 5 A (B) 240 V, 10 A
difference across (C) 60 V, 20 A (D) 120 V, 20 A
2 V, 0.1 2 V, 0.3 25. A thick copper rope of density 1.5 103 kg/m3
and Young’s modulus 5 106 N/m2, 8 m in
A B
length when hung from the ceiling of the
room, the increase in its length due to its own
0.2 weight is [g = 10 ms2]
(A) 9.6 103 m (B) 9.6 102 m
(A) B will be zero
(C) 9.6 101 m (D) 9.6 m
(B) A will be zero
(C) A and B will be 2 V 26. In photoelectric experiment if both the
(D) A will be > 2 V and B will be < 2 V intensity and frequency of the incident light
19. The ratio of the K.E. and P.E. possessed by a are doubled, then the saturation of
body executing SHM when it is at a distance of photoelectric current
1 (A) remain same
of its amplitude from the mean position is (B) is halved
n
1 2 (C) is doubled
(A) n2 : 1 (B) n :1 (D) becomes four times
2
(C) (n2 + 1) : 1 (D) (n2 1) : 1 27. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular
20. Angular width of central maximum of a path with constant speed of 16 m/s. It turned
diffraction pattern on a single slit does not through 90 after travelling 628 m on the road.
depend upon The centripetal force acting on the car is
(A) distance between slit and source. (A) 160 N (B) 320 N
(B) wavelength of light used. (C) 640 N (D) 1280 N
2
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Model Test - 01 (Part - I)
38. The diagram shown below corresponds to, 45. Perfectly black body appears black in colour
because
(A) body does not reflect radiation.
CB
(B) body does not transmit radiation.
F.B (C) body neither reflects nor transmits the
VB radiation.
(D) body absorbs black colour.
(A) the single energy level of an electron. 46. A resistance of 5 is connected in the left gap
(B) the discrete energy level of an electron.
of a metre bridge and 15 in the other gap.
(C) the energy transfer diagram.
The position of the balancing point is
(D) the energy band diagram. (A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 75 cm
39. A geostationary satellite can be installed 47. The ability of a conductor to store electrical
(A) over any city on the equator. charge is called as _______.
(B) over the north or south pole. (A) capacitance (B) resistance
(C) at height R above earth. (C) inductance (D) reactance
(D) at the surface of earth.
48. Which of the following are suitable for the
40. The relative permeability of a substance A is fusion process?
slightly greater than unity and that of a (A) Heavy nuclei
substance B is slightly less than unity. Then, (B) Light nuclei
(A) A is ferromagnetic and B is (C) Atom bomb
paramagnetic. (D) Radioactive decay
A+
(B) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic. 49.
(C) A is paramagnetic and B is diamagnetic. P S D D
(D) A and B are both paramagnetic.
a.c. R
41. Which of the following is not true for a input
output
potentiometer?
D
(A) While measuring e.m.f., it draws current P S D
from the source of known e.m.f.
B
(B) While measuring e.m.f., the resistance
of potentiometer becomes infinite. In above circuit, the path of current flowing
(C) Its sensitivity is high. through the circuit is,
(D) It is based on the null deflection method. (A) (B)
A+ A+
42. The time period of simple pendulum on S1 S1
satellite is D1 D2 D1 D2
(A) 0 s (B) s (C) 84.6 s (D) 2 s RL RL
51. Which of the following is a paramagnetic 59. The integrated rate law is a direct relationship
material? between ________ and _________.
(A) TiO2 (B) VO2 (A) time, concentration of the reactants
(C) O2 (D) All of these (B) time, concentration of the products
(C) time, activation energy of the reaction
52. In a chemical reaction, 2A + B C + D
(D) time, activity of catalyst
Find the INCORRECT statement.
(A) Rate of disappearance of (B) = Rate of 60. The space between the outermost filled energy
appearance of (C) = rate of appearance band and the next empty band is called _______.
of (D) (A) valence band (B) conduction band
1 (C) forbidden zone (D) none of these
(B) rate of disappearance of (A) = rate of
2 61. 8 gm of CH4 is completely burnt in air. The
appearance of (C) or (D) number of moles of water produced are
(C) Twice the rate of disappearance of A = _______.
rate of disappearance of (B) (A) 0.5 (B) 1
1 (C) 2 (D) 18
(D) the rate of disappearance of (A) =
2 62. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
rate of disappearance of (B) (A) Gangues are carefully chosen to
53. Orlon has monomeric units of _______. combine with the slag present in the ore
(A) vinyl cyanide (B) buta-1,3-diene to produce easily fusible flux to carry
(C) ethylene glycol (D) isoprene away the impurities.
(B) Slags are carefully chosen to combine
54. The formation of aldehyde from an alkyl with the flux present in the ore to
cyanide using SnCl2/conc.HCl is known as produce easily fusible gangue to carry
_______. away the impurities.
(A) Stephen reaction (C) Gangues are carefully chosen to
(B) Rosenmund reduction combine with the flux present in the ore
(C) Wurtz reaction to produce easily fusible slag to carry
(D) Etard reaction away the impurities.
55. Which metal is used in Wurtz synthesis? (D) Fluxes are carefully chosen to combine
(A) Ba (B) Al with the gangue present in the ore to
(C) Na (D) Fe produce easily fusible slag to carry away
the impurities.
56. The primary valences are ______.
(A) non-rigid and non-directional 63. _______ is least soluble in water.
(B) rigid and directional (A) Helium (B) Neon
(C) non-rigid and directional (C) Xenon (D) Krypton
(D) rigid and non-directional 64. What is the potential of a half-cell consisting
57. Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with of zinc electrode in 0.01M ZnSO4 solution at
hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction, the 25 C (E = 0.763 V)?
oxidation number of chromium _______. (A) 0.8221 V (B) 8.221 V
(A) increases from +3 to +6 (C) 0.5282 V (D) 9.232 V
(B) decreases from +6 to +3 65. Lucas reagent is a mixture of _______.
(C) remains unchanged (A) conc.HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2
(D) decreases from +6 to +2 (B) conc.HCl and hydrated ZnCl2
58. Which of the following does NOT contain (C) conc.HNO3 and hydrated ZnCl2
P—O—P bond ? (D) conc.HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2
(A) Pyrophosphorus acid 66. Which of the following is NOT an
(B) Polymetaphosphoric acid antimicrobial?
(C) Pyrophosphoric acid (A) Antibiotic (B) Antiseptic
(D) Hypophosphoric acid (C) Disinfectant (D) Antacids
5
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. MHT-CET : 20 Question Paper Set
67. The IUPAC name of the compound 73. Arene diazonium salts are used as useful
OH OH intermediates to introduce _______ group into
| | aromatic ring.
CH3 C C C2H5 is _______. (A) –F (B) –CN
| | (C) –OH (D) All of these
CH3 H
74. In the formation of an aldol, -carbon atom of
(A) 4-methylpentane-1,2-diol
one aldehyde molecule attaches to _______ of
(B) 2-methylpentane-2,3-diol
another aldehyde molecule.
(C) 2-methylhexane-1,2-diol
(A) -hydrogen atom
(D) 2-methylhexane-2,3-diol
(B) -carbon atom
68. Carbohydrates are used by body mainly _______. (C) carbonyl carbon atom
(A) for obtaining vitamins
(D) -carbon atom
(B) as a source of energy
(C) for all its developmental needs 75. In the following reaction:
(D) for building muscles Ether hot HI
A + B + H2O,
69. Grignard reagents are obtained by using dry If A and B are identical, the ether is _______.
reactants because they react with water to (A) simple
form _______. (B) mixed
(A) ketone (B) an alkane (C) simple or mixed
(C) an aldehyde (D) alcohol (D) cannot be predicted unless the nature of
alkyl radicals is known
70. Which statement is CORRECT for the boiling
point of solvent containing a dissolved non- 76. The CORRECT IUPAC name for K2[PtCl6] is
volatile solute? _______.
(A) Boiling point of the liquid gets lowered. (A) potassium platinumhexachloride
(B) Boiling point of the liquid gets elevated. (B) potassium hexachloroplatinum (IV)
(C) There is no effect of the added solute on (C) potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV)
the boiling point. (D) potassium hexachloroplatinum
(D) The change depends upon the nature of 77. Which of following elements are included in
the solute. actinide series?
71. The molecular formula of tear gas is _______. (A) Th to Lr (B) Ac to Lr
(A) SO2Cl2 (C) Ac to No (D) Th to No
(B) CCl3.NO2 78. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells are used in space-
(C) COCl2 craft to supply _______.
(D) Cl.C2H4 – S – C2H4.Cl (A) oxygen and hydrogen
72. Comparing a voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell (B) power and water
which of the following is a TRUE statement? (C) CO2 and power
(A) In both the cells, anode is where (D) water and oxygen
oxidation occurs and cathode is where 79. Isothermally and reversibly one mole of neon
reduction occurs. expands from 2 m3 to 20 m3 and produces 831.4J
(B) In both the cells, cathode is where of work. The temperature at which expansion
oxidation occurs and anode is where takes place is _______. (R = 8.314 JK1mol1)
reduction occurs. (A) 434.2 K (B) 4342 K
(C) In the former oxidation takes place at (C) 43.42 K (D) 316.42 K
anode and reduction at cathode and it is
viceversa in the latter. 80. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur
(D) In the former reduction takes place at contains a peroxy group?
anode and oxidation at cathode and it is (A) H2S2O2 (B) H2S2O8
viceversa in the latter. (C) H2S2O6 (D) H2S2O4
6
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Model Test - 01 (Part - I)
81. The H and S for a reaction at one 88. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 mL of
atmospheric pressure are +30.558 kJ and 3 M solution is _______.
0.066 kJ K1 respectively. The temperature at (A) 1 (B) 2
which the free energy change will be zero and (C) 3 (D) 1.5
below this temperature the nature of reaction 89. The rate constant is given by the equation
would be _______. k = PZ e Ea /RT . Which of the following factors
(A) 483 K, spontaneous should decrease for the reaction to proceed
(B) 443 K, non-spontaneous more rapidly?
(C) 443 K, spontaneous (A) T (B) Z
(D) 463 K, non-spontaneous (C) Ea (D) P
82. Solubility of aliphatic amines ________ with 90. With the increase in the molecular mass, the
increase in molar mass. solubility of the carboxylic acids in water
_______.
(A) increases (B) decreases
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains constant (D) none of these (C) remains the same (D) none of these
83. Enantiomers _______. 91. Deficiency of which vitamin causes
(A) are two optical isomers of the same
degeneration of spinal cord?
compound
(B) have identical chemical properties (A) E (B) K
(C) rotate the plane of the plane polarised light (C) B12 (D) A
by equal amount, but in opposite direction
92. Due to Frenkel defect, the density of ionic solids
(D) all of these
_______.
84. When white phosphorus (P4) is treated with (A) increases (B) decreases
thionyl chloride, the products obtained are
(C) does not change (D) changes
_______.
(A) PCl3 and PCl5 93. Imino group is present in _______.
(B) PCl3 and POCl3 (A) CH3NH2 (B) CH3NHCH3
(C) PCl3, S2Cl2 and SO2 (C) (CH3)2CHNH2 (D) (CH3)3N
(D) PCl3, PCl5 and S2Cl2
94. Which of the following is known as freon
85. The number of unpaired electrons in low spin which is used as a refrigerant?
octahedral complexes of Cr2+ (d4) and Fe3+ (d5) (A) CCl2F2 (B) CHCl3
are _______ respectively. (C) CH2F2 (D) CF4
(A) 0 and 1 (B) 2 and 1 95. The reaction of conc. HNO3 and phenol forms
(C) 0 and 2 (D) 1 and 0 _______.
86. From chromium to nickel, the strength of (A) benzoic acid
(B) salicylic acid
metallic bonds _______.
(C) o-and p-nitrophenol
(A) decreases continuously (D) picric acid
(B) increases continuously
(C) remains the same 96. At high temperature, zinc sulphide reacts with
dioxygen to given _______.
(D) increases till the first three elements and
(A) Zn + SO2 (B) Zn + SO3
then decreases (C) ZnO + SO2 (D) ZnO + S
87. The unit of equivalent conductivity is _______. 97. At 298 K, 1 L of solution containing 5.00 g of
(A) ohm cm solute shows osmotic pressure of 2.5 atm. The
(B) ohm 1cm 2 (gm equivalent) 1 molar mass of the solute is _______.
(C) ohm cm 2 (gm equivalent) (A) 12.23 g/mol (B) 48.93 g/mol
(D) Scm 2 (C) 49.55 g/mol (D) 122.3 g/mol
7
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. MHT-CET : 20 Question Paper Set
8
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Answer Keys to Model Test
Model Test - 01
PART - I
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (B)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (A) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (B)
91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (C)
PART - II
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (C) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (D) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (C)
PART – III
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (A)
355
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. MHT-CET : 20 Question Paper Set
Model Test - 01
PART - I 2n 1
1. Q mc . Here Q = 0, hence c 0 n (n 1) 2
2
1
2. Ultra sonic waves are longitudinal waves and For n >> 1,
hence cannot be polarised. n3
1 2 v v
3. K= I 11. n Before n and n After .n
2 v vc v vc
2K 2 600 v v
2 = = = 400
I 3
or = 20 vO
2
= 20
T Stationary observer
3.14
T= = = 0.31 s n Before 11 v vc 11 v
10 10 = = vc =
n After 9 v vc 9 10
5.
y = 2 sin 5t 2 cos t
13. Velocity at the bottom and top of the circle is
y = 2 sin 5t + 2 2 cos t 5gr and gr .
2
2
2
A= 2 2 = 4 8 = 12 = 2 3 1 1
(M) (5gr) = MgH and M(gr) = Mgh
2 2
d 0.75 10 3 8 10 3
6. = = 14. d = 2hR
D 1.2
= 5000 10–10 m = 5000 Å Here, h = 250 m, R = 6.4 106 m
20
Potential difference across B 2 0.3 0 26. The number of photoelectrons emitted is
3
independent of the frequency of incident light
1 A2 but depends upon intensity. So, current
m2 A 2 x 2 A 2 2 becomes double.
K.E. 2 n = n2 1
19.
P.E. 1 A 2
27. Since car turns through 90 after travelling
m2 x 2 2
2 n 628 m on the circular road, the distance 628 m
is quarter of the circumference of the circular
20. For a single slit diffraction pattern path. If R is the radius of the circular path, then
a sin = ‘a’ is slit width. 1
(2R) = 628
4
Angular width = 2 = 2 sin–1
a 628 2 628 2
R= = = 400 m
It is independent of D i.e., distance between 3.14
screen and slit. v = 16 m/s, m = 1000 kg
Centripetal force,
1 mv 2 1000 (16) 2
21. = 1.5, V2 = V1 Fcp = = = 640 N
4 R 400
For an adiabatic process,
P1V1 = P2 V2 28. Same wavefront is incident on two pin holes
or two slits which act as coherent sources.
P2 V1 3
12375
= (4)1.5 = (2 2 ) 2 = 23 = 8 30. E = + K.E; E = = 4.125 eV
P1 V2 3000
P2 K.E = E = 4.125 eV 1 eV = 3.125 eV
=8:1
P1 1
mv 2max = 3.125 1.6 1019 J
2
22. When an electron jumps from the orbit of
lower energy (n = 1) to the orbit of higher 2 3.125 1.6 1019
vmax = 31
1 106 m/s
energy (n = 3), energy is absorbed. 9.1 10
23. Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe = GM gR 2
c c 31. v0
and that for first overtone . r Rh
2L1 L1
32. Radius becomes larger, the wavefront
Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe =
becomes plane.
c 3c
and that for first overtone = .
4L 2 4L 2 2T cos 1
33. h= h
L 3 r g r
Hence 2 = .
L1 4 35. String will vibrate in 7 loops so it will have 8
nodes and 7 antinodes.
Ns Es 200 E Number of harmonics = Number of loops
24. = s Es = 240 V
Np Ep 100 120 = Number of antinodes
Es E p 240 10 Number of antinodes = 7
also = Is = 5 A Hence number of nodes
E p Is 120 Is = number of antinodes + 1 = 7 + 1 = 8
377
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. MHT-CET : 20 Question Paper Set
36. Given that = a bt, at time t = 0, = 0, 57. When acidified potassium dichromate is
0 = a treated with hydrogen sulphide, a pale yellow
d precipitate of sulphur is obtained and
Angular acceleration, = = b potassium dichromate is reduced to chromic
dt
sulphate. Here, the oxidation number of Cr
2 = 02 + 2
decreases from +6 to +3.
a2 K2Cr2O7 + 4H2SO4 + 3H2S
or 0 = a2 + 2 (b) = (+6)
2b
K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 7H2O + 3S
1
37. P 4 (+3)
4
4
58. Hypophosphoric acid (H4P2O6) contains four
4 3 0 P OH, two P = O and one P P bond.
P1 2 P 81
or 1 = 4 59. By using the integrated rate law, one can
P2 1 P2 0 256 calculate the concentration of the reactants at
any given time.
256
or P2 P1 61. CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
81 When 1 mole of methane (16 gm) is completely
40. (r)p > 1, (r)d < 1, (r)F >> 1 burnt in air, 2 moles of water along with 1 mole
42. Time period of a simple pendulum is given by of carbon dioxide are produced. Thus, when
half a mole of methane (8 gm) is completely
l burnt in air, 1 mole of water along with ½ mole
T = 2
g of carbon dioxide is produced.
On a satellite, g = 0 63. The solubility of group 18 elements in water
T= increases on moving down the group from He
43. For equilibrium of coil, to Xe. Hence, helium is least soluble in water
nBIA = c among the given group 18 elements.
nBIA 0.0591 1
c = 64. Eelectrode = E log
2 [Cu 2 ]
60 90 104 0.2 103 5 104 0.0591 1
=
18 = 0.763 log
2 0.01
c = 3 109 Nm/degree = 0.763 0.0591 = 0.8221 V
45. Perfectly black body is black in colour because 70. When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a
it does not reflect or transmit the radiation. liquid solvent, the boiling point of the resulting
x 5 1 solution is elevated due to lowering of vapour
46. = =
100 x 15 3 pressure of the solution. Elevation in the
3x = 100 – x boiling point is a colligative property which
4x = 100 x = 25 cm depends only on the number of solute particles
and is independent of the nature of the solute.
49. Point A is at positive potential with respect to
B. Thus diodes D2 and D4 are in forward bias 75. Since A and B are identical (homologous), the
and can conduct current. two alkyl radicals in the reactant ether has to
be same, making it simple ether.
1 d A d B
52. Rate = V2
2 dt dt 79. wmax = 2.303 nRT log10
V1
1
rate of disappearance of (A) 20
2 831.4 = 2.303 1 8.314 T log
= rate of disappearance of (B) 2
= rate of appearance of (C) 831.4
= rate of appearance of (D) T= = 43.42 K
2.303 8.314
378
Target Publications Pvt. Ltd. Hints to Model Test
V = Volume of solution
Large value of o
Fe3+ ion W2 = Weight of solute
M2 = Molar mass of solute
(3d5)
W RT
M2 = 2
V
dxy dyz dxz
5.00 0.0821 298
Low spin complex =
2.5 1
(Strong field ligand)
= 48.93 g mol–1
379