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Preface
The document gives a fair idea of the kind of questions that were asked in JAIIB May 2023 Exam. The
document also helps in identifying the most important topics and extrapolate the topics from which
questions can be asked in the upcoming exams. Kindly note that the questions mentioned below are memory
based and are presented to the best of our knowledge. The questions have been classified into three sections
described as follows:

1. Complete Questions
These are the questions for which the topic of the question, the type of question and the options were known
to us and have been presented as they had appeared in the exam. There is also mention of the correct answer
with the detailed explanation along with the reference from where the question was asked (E.g. Page
number, Chapter number and the Module of the IIBF book from which the question has been set).

2. Topic of questions and type of questions

The second section consists of questions for which the exact question asked in the exam is not known to us,
but the topic and the kind of question is known and we have tabulated the same. This will give an idea of the
important topics and the depth to which the questions are asked in the exam.

3. Topic of questions
The third section consists of only the topics of the remaining questions as the type of question is also not
known to us. This will help in identifying important topics for the upcoming exam.

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Accounting & Financial Management
Q1. Which of the following statements is true about the golden rule of accounting for real accounts?
a) Debit all increases, and credit all decreases.
b) Credit all increases and debit all decreases.
c) Debit all assets and credit all expenses.
d) Credit all assets and debit all expenses.
Solution: A
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 3 – Page 102
Here is a brief
explanation of each of
the answer choices:
(A) is the correct
answer. This is the
golden rule of
accounting for real
accounts.
(B) is incorrect. This is
the opposite of the
golden rule of
accounting for real
accounts.
(C) is incorrect. This is
the golden rule of accounting for nominal accounts, which are income and expense accounts.
(D) is incorrect. This is the opposite of the golden rule of accounting for nominal accounts.

Q2. The Section 80U of the Income Tax Act in India is related to
a) Deductions in respect of royalty of income of authors of certain books.
b) Deductions in respect of royalty on patents.
c) Deductions in respect of interest on deposits by senior citizens.
d) Deductions in respect of a person with disability.
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 29 – Page 541
Here is a brief explanation of each of
the answer choices:
a) Deductions in respect of royalty of
income of authors of certain books:
Section 80QQB
b) Deductions in respect of royalty on
patents: Section 80 RB
c) Deductions in respect of interest on
deposits by senior citizens: Section
80 TTB
d) Deductions in respect of a person
with disability: Section 80 U

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Q3. The accounting standard - ‘AS18’ – is related to
a) Accounting for earnings per share.
b) Related party disclosures.
c) recognition, measurement, presentation, and disclosure of leases.
d) Preparation of consolidated financial statements.
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 1 – Page 11
AS 18: Related Party Disclosures deals
with the disclosures that are required
to be made in the financial statements
of an enterprise in respect of its
related party transactions.
AS 19: Leases deals with the
recognition, measurement,
presentation, and disclosure of leases
in the financial statements of lessors
and lessees.
AS 20: Earnings Per Share requires
enterprises to calculate and present
EPS in a way that is consistent with the
requirements of the standard. The
standard also requires disclosures
about EPS, such as the number of
shares used in the calculation, the
weighted average number of shares
outstanding, and the basic and diluted EPS.
AS 21: Consolidated Financial Statements deals with the preparation and presentation of consolidated
financial statements by a parent or holding company and its subsidiaries.

Q4. For the core banking system of a large bank, which one of the following statements is true?
a) Each branch has its own server connected directly to servers of other branches.
b) There is only one powerful server at centralised data centre.
c) Each branch has a server connected to the server at centralised data centre.
d) None of the above.
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 18 – Page 381

Under the Core Banking System of banks, a powerful server is installed at the centralised data center
(hub).
Every branch will have a branch server. These branch servers will be connected to the central server
(hub).

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 The branches and Hub will be connected through a dedicated line.

Q5. Process costing is ideal for which among the following types of industries?
I. Chemical Industry
II. Oil Refinery
III. Paper Industry
a) I & II
b) II & III
c) I & III
d) I, II & III
Solution: D
Module D – Chapter 31 – Page 560

Q6. Which of the following inventory valuation methods is permitted under Ind AS-2 ?
a) First In First Out (FIFO)
b) Absorption Costing Method
c) Weighted Average Cost Method
d) All of the above
Solution: D
Explanation:

Module A – Chapter 1 – Page 60

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Q7. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones:
I. When the market interest rate is equal to the coupon rate, the value of the bond is equal to its
par value.
II. When the market interest rate is greater than the coupon rate, the discount on the bond declines
as maturity approaches.
III. A bond price is inversely related to it yield to maturity.
IV. When the market interest rate is less than the coupon rate, the premium on the bond declines
as maturity approaches.
a) I. II & III
b) II & III
c) II, III & IV
d) I, II, III & IV
Solution: D
Module C – Chapter 22 – Page 449

As explained above, all the statements given in the question are correct.

Q8. A Capital Expenditure budget is a type of ________.

a) Master Budget
b) Functional Budget
c) Production Budget
d) Performance Budget
Solution: B

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 Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 35 – Page 611

Q9. If the estimated sales of a company during the year are ₹110 lakh and its break even sales level is ₹70
lakh, the margin of safety is______.
a) 24.24%
b) 32.32%
c) 36.36%
d) 39.39%

Solution: C
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 34 – Page 604
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑠−𝐵𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝐸𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑠
Marginal Safety = [ ] x 100
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑠
So,
Marginal Safety in this case = [(110 – 70)/110] x 100 = (40/110) x 100 = 36.36%

Q10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones:
I. In marginal costing, the fixed overhead costs are not allocated to the product whereas, it is
allocated in case of absorption costing.
II. Cost-Volume-Profit relationship is used in absorption costing while in marginal costing, it is not
used.

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 III. Costs are classified into fixed costs and variable costs under absorption costing. In marginal costing,
there is no such classification.
IV. Due to allocation of fixed overhead costs to the product, the valuation is higher under absorption
costing as compared to that under marginal costing.
a) I & IV
b) II & III
c) I & III
d) II & III
Solution: A
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 34 – Page 605 & 606

Q11. (Numerical on Break Even Sales – Actual Data Given in the Question may be different as we are only
using the data recollected from memory):
A company manufacturing Staplers has the following financial information:
A. Total fixed costs : ₹ 2 lakh
B. Sales price per stapler : ₹60
C. Cost of all direct inputs like material, labour etc. : ₹40
Calculate the break-even sales volume in terms of sales value.
a) ₹ 5 lakh
b) ₹ 6 lakh
c) ₹ 8 lakh
d) ₹ 10 lakh
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 34 – Page 603

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 As the sales price of one stapler is ₹60 and its variable cost is ₹40, the contribution is ₹20 (60 – 40). So,
sale of each stapler contributes ₹20 towards meeting the fixed cost.
Now, total fixed costs = ₹2,00,000
For meeting this cost, we have to sell 200000/20 = 10,000 staplers
After selling 10 thousand staplers, the fixed costs are fully met and there is no profit or loss. The next
stapler we sell, will result in profit of ₹20. So, the break even sales volume is 10,000 staplers.
So, the break-even sales value would be = Sales volume x Sales price of one stapler
= 10,000 x ₹60 = ₹6 Lakh

Q12. Variance in material costs is due to _________.

a) Variance in price of materials consumed.
b) Variance in the quantity of materials consumed.
c) theft or pilferage of the material during the production process.
d) All of the above

Solution: D
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 33 – Page 594

Q13. Which among the following statements is incorrect regarding Contract Costing?
a) A separate contract account is maintained for each contract.
b) All the direct costs related to execution of contract, are allocated to the contract.
c) In a contract, most of the costs are of indirect nature, unlike in job costing.
d) Work in progress is an important aspect of contract costing.

Solution: C
Explanation:
Module D –
Chapter 32 – Page
574

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Q14. What is the rate of taxation under the GST regime for banking services such as fund transfer, loan
processing fees etc.
a) 5%
b) 12%
c) 18%
d) 28%
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 30 – Page 552

Q15. (Numerical on Cost Volume Profit Analysis – Actual Data Given in the Question may be different as
we are only using the data recollected from memory):
A company manufacturing plastic bottles has the following financial information:
A. Total fixed costs : ₹ 1 lakh
B. Variable cost per unit : ₹120
C. Sales price per unit : ₹160
D. Total units sold : 3500
Calculate the profit/loss earned by the company.
a) ₹ 40000
b) ₹ 60000
c) ₹ 90000
d) ₹ 120000
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 34 – Page 602

In the formula,
S = ₹160
N = 3500
F = ₹100000

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 V = ₹120
So, Profit = (160 x 3500) – [100000 + (120 x 3500)]
= 560000 – [100000 + 420000]
= 560000 – 520000 = 40000
So, the gross profit earned is ₹40000.

Q16. If GST returns are not filed within time, one is liable to pay interest at the rate of ____% on delayed
payment. It has to be calculated on the amount of tax liability from the _______ of due date of return
till date of payment.
a) 12% ; next day
b) 18% ; next day
c) 12% ; next month
d) 18% ; next month
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 30 – Page 551

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding Derivative instruments and choose the correct ones:
I. Derivatives shift the risk from the seller of the derivative product to the buyer and therefore are
very effective risk management tools.
II. Derivatives improve the liquidity of the underlying asset.
III. Derivatives provide better avenues for raising funds.
IV. Derivatives contribute to increasing depth and complexity of the markets.
a) I, II & III
b) II & III
c) II, III & IV
d) I, III & IV
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 28 – Page 526

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Q18. Which among the following is not an essential component of the price of any futures contract?
a) Spot price of underlying asset.
b) Cost of financing, storing, insuring, and transporting the asset.
c) Taxes levied on market transactions.
d) Income earned from the underlying asset.
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 28 – Page 528

Q19. Which among the following is not a correct statement about the derivates?
a) Derivatives have the characteristics of high leverage.
b) Derivatives are simpler in pricing and their trading mechanism.
c) RBI is empowered to regulate the interest rate derivatives, foreign currency derivatives and credit
derivatives.
d) Derivates perform a very important economic function of price discovery in the market.
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 28 – Page 532 & 533

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Q20. Cash budget method of assessment is more suitable for those business enterprises which have
______.
a) Uniform level of operations
b) High level of operations
c) Low level of operations
d) Seasonal operations
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 27 – Page 522

Q21. For loans and advances to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs), RBI guidelines are as under: ‘Banks
are advised to grant working capital credit limits to MSEs computed on the basis of minimum _____
of their estimated annual turnover whose credit limit in individual cases is up to ______.’
a) 5% , ₹ 1 crore

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 b) 7% . ₹2 crore
c) 10% . ₹3 crore
d) 20% ‘ ₹5 crore
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 27 – Page 522

Q22. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Inter-Corporate Deposits?

a) Procurement procedure is simple as the regulation for such deposits are not very strict.
b) Rate of interest on such deposits is not fixed and is dependent on amount involved and tenure of
lending.
c) The market for inter-corporate deposits is not structured.
d) These deposits are secured deposits.
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 27 – Page 516

Q23. _______ is similar to factoring but is used only in case of exports and where the sale is supported by
bills of exchange/promissory notes?
a) Forfaiting
b) Featuring
c) Fostering
d) All of the above
Solution: A
Explanation:

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 Module C – Chapter 27 – Page 518

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding lease transactions and choose the correct ones:
I. In a lease transaction, the lessor is eligible for depreciation on the asset.
II. The lessee will be eligible to claim any depreciation of the leased asset.
III. The entire lease rentals are taxed as income of the lessor.
IV. The lessor is entitled to treat the rentals as expenses.
a) I, II & III
b) I & III
c) II, III & IV
d) I, III & IV
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 26 – Page 565

Q25. Which of the following statements is not true for an infrastructure project?
a) It has long gestation period.
b) It reduces the risk for the lender as his funds get assured deployment for a long time.
c) Normally, the debt equity ratio is high for an infrastructure project.
d) The implementation period is usually long.
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 Solution: B
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 26 – Page 495
Infrastructure projects involve some distinct features like exceptionally long implementation, gestation
and pay back periods, high debt equity ratio etc. It increases the risk of the lender due to:
1. Economic Uncertainty
2. Cost Overruns
3. Funding Challenges
4. External Factors

Q26. What is the minimum paid-up capital that is required to set up a Joint Stock Company?
a) ₹20 lakh
b) ₹10 lakh
c) ₹5 lakh
d) None of the above
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 14 – Page 253
Initially, he minimum paid-up capital that is required to set up a Joint Stock Company in India was Rs. 1
lakh. This was the minimum capital requirement under the Companies Act, 2013. However, the
Companies Amendment Act, 2015 relaxed the minimum requirement for paid-up capital. Therefore,
there is now no requirement for any minimum capital to be invested to start a private limited
company.

Q27. The aggregate amount of deduction under Section 80C, Section 80CCC and Sub-section 1 of Section
80CCD is limited to ________.
a) ₹2 lakh
b) ₹1.5 lakh
c) ₹1 lakh
d) None of the above
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module D – Chapter 29 – Page 541.
The aggregate amount of deduction under Section 80C, Section 80CCC and Sub-section 1 of Section
80CCD is limited to ₹1.5 lakh.

Q28. Consider the following statements and choose which ones are correct:
I. Authorised capital is the amount up to which the company can raise the capital.
II. Issued capital is issued directly to the public or be issued partly to vendors.
III. The part of issued capital that is actually subscribed to the public is known as scheduled capital.
IV. The amount of capital that is actually paid for by the shareholders is known as paid up capital.
a) I, II and III
b) III and IV
c) I, II, III and IV
d) I, II and IV

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 Solution: C
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 14 – Page 256
 Authorised capital is the amount up to which the company can raise the capital.
 Issued capital is issued directly to the public or be issued partly to vendors.
 The part of issued capital that is actually subscribed to the public is known as scheduled capital.
 The amount of capital that is actually paid for by the shareholders is known as paid up capital.

Q29. Which among the following statement is incorrect?

a) When the drawee of the bill is unable to make payment on the due date, the bill is said to be
dishonoured.
b) Transfer of bill to some other person be the holder is called endorsement of the bill.
c) When one party accepts the bill drawn on him for the purpose of mutual help, it is called as mutual
bill.
d) All of the above statements is correct
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 8 – Page 179 & 180
 When the drawee of the bill is unable to make payment on the due date, the bill is said to be
dishonoured.
 Transfer of bill to some other person be the holder is called endorsement of the bill.
 When one party accepts the bill drawn on him for the purpose of mutual help, it is called as
accomodation bill. Therefore, statement C is incorrect.

Q30. ______ mainly looks at the loans and advances, compliance with Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
requirements, CRR, SLR, CRAR etc. and other norms compliance as per latest RBI guidelines/Master
Directions/Master Circulars?
a) Concurrent audit
b) Statutory audit
c) Information Systems audit
d) None of the above
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 11 – Page 223
Salient Features of Statutory Audit:

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Q31. Under Section 129(5) of the Companies Act 2013, where the financial statements do not comply with
the accounting standards, such companies shall disclose the following:
I. The deviation from the accounting standards
II. Reasons for such deviation
III. Financial effects, if any, arising out of such a deviation.
a) I & II
b) I, II & III
c) Only II
d) II & III
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 1 – Page 11

Q32. At the end of an accounting period, the balances of _______ are transferred to the Profit & Loss
Account.
a) alI the ledger accounts
b) all the income and expenditure accounts
c) only the tangible real accounts and some income and expenditure accounts
d) some intangible real accounts and some income and expenditure accounts
Solution: B
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 13 – Page 240
At the end of an accounting period, the balances of revenue accounts and expense accounts are
transferred to the Profit & Loss Account.

Q33. The liability of the members of the joint stock company is limited to the ________ of shares held by
them.
a) Face value
b) Exchange value
c) Market value
d) All of the above
Solution: A
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 14 – Page 253

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Q34. A liability shall be classified as current when it satisfies which of the following criteria?
I. It is expected to be settled in the company’s normal operating cycle.
II. It is held primarily for the purpose of being traded.
III. It is due to be settled within 12 months after the reporting date
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I and III
Solution: A
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 15 – Page 259

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Q35. Which of the following cash flows from investing activities?
a) Cash payments to suppliers for goods and services
b) Cash payment to income taxes
c) Cash receipts from sales of property, plant and equipment
d) Cash proceeds from issuing debentures and loans.
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 16 – Page 315

Q36. Which among the following statements is true regarding the disclosure of accounting policies as per
AS 1?
a) All significant accounting policies adopted in preparation of financial statements should be disclosed.
b) All such policies should be disclosed in one place as a part of the financial statement itself.
c) If any change in accounting policy is expected to have a material effect in the future periods, they
need not be disclosed in the financial statement for the current period.
d) If fundamental accounting assumptions are followed in the financial statements, their specific
disclosure is not required.
Solution: C
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 1 – Page 13
Disclosure of Accounting Policies according to AS 1:
1. All significant accounting policies adopted in the preparation of financial statements should be
disclosed.
2. The disclosures should be in one place as part of the financial statement itself.

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 3. Any change in accounting policies that have a material effect in the current accounting
period should be disclosed. In this case, the amount by which any item in the financial statement is
affected by such a change should also be disclosed to the extent ascertainable.
4. Any change in accounting policies that is expected to have a material effect in the future accounting
periods should be disclosed.
5. If the fundamental accounting assumptions are followed in the financial statements,
specific disclosure is not required.
6. If any fundamental accounting assumption is not followed, then this fact should be disclosed.

Q37. Which among the following statements is correct?

a) A Credit Note is a document evidencing a debit to be raised against a party for reasons other than
sale on credit.
b) Debit Note is a document evidencing that the credit has been granted to the named person for the
reason stated therein.
c) A voucher showing a transaction that contains multiple debits, but one credit is called Credit Voucher.
d) When cash or cheque is received from the customer, a receipt for the amount received is issued.
Solution: D
Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 9 – Page 197
 Debit Note: A Debit note is a document evidencing a debit to be raised against a party for reasons
other than sale on credit. Hence, Option A is incorrect.
o On finding that goods supplied are not as per the terms of the order placed, the defective goods
are returned to the supplier of the goods and a note is prepared to debit the supplier; or when
an additional sum is recoverable from a customer such a note is prepared to debit the customer
with the additional dues.
o It details the reason for the debit.
o For example, a seller of goods will make a debit note if he finds that his goods have been
undervalued.
o Similarly, a purchaser of goods will make a debit note if the goods have been overvalued or he
has returned the goods or the seller has allowed a lower discount, etc.
 Credit Note: It is a document evidencing that the credit has been granted to the named person for
the reason stated therein. Hence, Option B is incorrect.
 Compound Voucher: It is a voucher that records a transaction that entails multiple debits/credits and
one debit/credit is called Compound Voucher. A voucher showing a transaction that contains multiple
debits but one credit is called Debit Voucher. Hence, Option C is incorrect.
A voucher showing a transaction that contains multiple credits but one debit is called Credit Voucher.
Receipt: When cash or cheque is received from the customer, a receipt for the amount received is issued.
Hence, Option D is correct. It is prepared in duplicate. The original copy is handed over to the party
tendering the payment and the duplicate is kept for record.

Q38. Which of the following is NOT a contra entry?

a) Cash withdrawn from bank for office use
b) Cash deposited into bank
c) Cash withdrawn from bank for personal use by owner.
d) Bank overdraft

Solution: C

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 Explanation:
Module A – Chapter 3 – Page 109

 A contra entry is a transaction that is recorded between two accounts that are opposite in nature. In
the case of cash and bank accounts, they are both assets, but one is a current asset (cash) and the
other is a non-current asset (bank). When a transaction involves both cash and bank accounts, it is
called a contra entry.
 The other three options are all contra entries because they involve both cash and bank accounts. For
example, when cash is withdrawn from bank for office use, it is recorded as a debit to the cash account
and a credit to the bank account. This is a contra entry because it reduces the balance of the cash
account and increases the balance of the bank account.
 The option that is not a contra entry is cash withdrawn from bank for personal use. This is because it
does not involve the bank account and cash account. Instead, it is recorded as a debit to the drawings
account and a credit to the cash account. This is not a contra entry because it does not reduce the
balance of the cash account and increase the balance of the bank account.

Q39. If you have a strong gut feeling that Interest rates will decrease in coming times and you want to
make maximum profits by selling Bonds, then which of the following Bonds will give you maximum
appreciation ?
a) Low Coupon and Low Maturity
b) High Coupon and High Maturity
c) Low Coupon and High Maturity
d) High Coupon and Low Maturity

Solution: C
Explanation:
Module C – Chapter 22 – Page 445
Prices fluctuate more for Long Maturity Period and Low Coupon bonds. So if a person is expecting a
decrease in interest rate resulting in increase in the of price of bonds, then the person should buy long
term and low coupon rate bonds. These Long term and low coupon rate bonds will have more increase
in price when interest rate decreases.
Hence C is the answer.

Q40. A prepayment of insurance premium will appear in the Balance Sheet and in the Insurance Account
respectively as _____________.
a) a liability and a debit balance
b) an asset and a debit balance
c) an asset and a credit balance
d) a liability and a credit balance

Solution: C
Explanation:
Module B – Chapter 13 – Page 245

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  There are several items of expense which are paid in advance in the normal course of business
operations.
 At the end of the accounting year, it is found that the benefits of such expense have not yet been
fully received; a portion of its benefit would be received in the next accounting year.
 This portion of expense is carried forward to the next year and is termed as prepaid expenses.
 The necessary adjustment in respect of prepaid expenses is made by recording he following journal
entry:
o Prepaid Expense A/c Dr.
o To Concerned Expense A/c
 The effect of the above adjustment entry is that the amount of the prepaid part is deducted from the
total of the particular expense, and the prepaid expense is shown on the assets side of the balance
sheet.
 A credit is an entry made on the right side of an account. It either increases equity, liability, or revenue
accounts or decreases an asset or expense account.
 Since, Insurance Account is an Expense A/c and normally shows debit balance but the premium has
been paid before the due date, Hence it is a prepaid insurance and would appear in the credit side
indicating the reduction in expenses on due date.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer. All other options are incorrect.

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2. Topics of Questions and Question types
Sno. Topic Type of Question
1. Depreciation numerical 1 – 2 questions related to straight line method
were asked in every shift.
2. Bank Reconciliation Statement 2 numerical were asked in third shift. Cashbook
balance was given and pass book balance was
asked.
One question was related to the need of Bank
reconciliation statement.
3. Share Allotment A numerical on calculating the refund value
when no. of shares, application fees are given.
4. Rules of debit and credit 4 – 5 case study based questions asking which
account will be debited or credited.
5. Computerised Accounting One multi statement question related to
disadvantages of computerized accounting.
6. Ratio analysis Questions related to various solvency, operating
and liquidity ratios were asked in every shift.

3. Topics of Questions
1. Bullet payment
2. NPV and IRR where applicable
3. Debt/asset ratio
4. Social responsibility
5. Going concern concept
6. Accrual concept
7. Net worth
8. Networking capital
9. Quick ratio, current ratio
10. Debtor creditor concept
11. Rectification of errors
12. Suspense account
13. Fund flow statement
14. Cash flow statement
15. NPV IRR ARR concept
16. Corporate social responsibility
17. Nominal rate
18. Why bank Reconciliation required
19. Negotiable Instruments
20. Statuary Audits (2 Questions Statement based)
21. Swap agreement
22. Sweat Based Equity
23. New capital investment
24. Stock turnover ratio

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25 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? hello@edutap.co.in 8146207241