Question Bank

GRADE X
SUBJECT: GENERAL SCIENCE

QUESTION BANK
CHAPTER – 6: LIFE PROCESSES
I] MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following are energy foods?
(a) Carbohydrates and fats
(b) Proteins and mineral salts
(c) Vitamins and minerals
(d) Water and roughage
2. Roots of the plants absorb water from the soil through the process of:
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) None of these
3. In amoeba, food is digested in the:
(a) food vacuole
(b) mitochondria
(c) pseudopodia
(d) chloroplast
4.Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine
(b) Mouth →oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine
(c) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
(d) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
5.Name the substances whose build up in the muscles during vigorous physical
exercise may cause cramps?
(a) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(b) Lactic acid + Energy
(c) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
(d) Pyruvate
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6. Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.
(a) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from
different organs and bring it back to the heart
(b) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry
blood away from the heart to various organs of the body
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the
heart to various organs of the body
(d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure
and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body.
7. Where is the dirty blood in our body filtered?

(a) Heart
(b) Lungs
(c) Ureter
(d) Kidneys
8. The procedure used for cleaning the blood of a person by separating urea from it is
called:
(a) osmosis
(b) filtration
(c) dialysis
(d) double circulation
9. The movement of food in phloem is called:

(a) transpiration
(b) translocation
(c) respiration
(d) evaporation
10. Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of
passage through the body, is exhibited by which of the following:
(a) hyla, rana, draco
(b) whale, dolphin, turtle
(c) labeo, chameleon, salamander
(d) hippocampus, exocoetus, anabas
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11.The image shows bread moulds on a bread
.
How do these fungi obtain nutrition?
(a) by eating the bread on which it is growing
(b) by using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food
(c) by breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them
(d) by allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them
12.The image shows the Excretory system in Humans.
What is the importance of the labelled part in the excretory system?

(a) It produces urine.
(b) It filters waste from the blood.
(c) It stores the urine till urination.
(d) It carries urine from the kidney to the outside.
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13. A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in digestion of food.
In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur?

(a) Test tubes A as pepsin will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
(b) Test tube B as HCl will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
(c) Test tube A as pepsin will breakdown into simple molecules.
(d) Test tube B as HCl will activate pepsin for breakdown of protein into simple
molecules.
14. A student sets up an experiment to study human respiration using lime water, test
tube and a straw. Lime water is colourless in the absence of CO2 and is milky in its
presence. The student fills a freshly prepared limewater in a test tube and blows air
through straw into the limewater. It was observed that the solution turns cloudy as
shown. What can be evaluated from this observation?
(a) Oxygen is exhaled during respiration.

(b) Water vapours are produced during respiration.
(c) Carbon dioxide is exhaled during respiration.
(d) Glucose is produced during respiration.
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15. A student performs an experiment using a Balsam plant with intact stem, leaves,
roots and flowers. The plant was kept in a test tube containing eosin solution (a pink
colour dye). The test tube mouth was covered using cotton plug as shown.
The student kept the plant undisturbed in the lab. After 2-3 hours, a transverse section
of stem was obtained using sharp scissors and studied under microscope. The studies
reveal the presence of pink colour in the vessels of xylem. What does this observation
explain?
(a) Most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem.
(b) Water moves through xylem in the plant.
(c) Eosin solution gets stored in the xylem.
(d) Xylem reacts with eosin and gives colour.
II ASSERTION AND REASON
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1.Assertion (A) : Plants lack excretory organs.
Reason (R) : Plants usually absorb essential nutrients
2.Assertion (A) : In anaerobic respiration, one of the end product is alcohol.

Reason (R) : There is an incomplete breakdown of glucose.
3.Assertion (A) : Energy is required to carry out different life processes.

Reason (R) : Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in the mitochondria.
4.Assertion (A) : Rings of cartilage are present in the throat,

Reason (R) : These ensure that the air-passage does not collapse
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5. Assertion (A): The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles causes muscle
cramps.
Reason(R) : During vigorous physical exercise leg muscles respire anaerobically.
6. Assertion(A) : Phloem helps in translocation of food from the leaves.

Reason(R) : Phloem provides mechanical support to plant.
III VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1.What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?

2.Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf
peel was viewed under a microscope. What is the green colour due to?
3.Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of
gases between their body and their environment.
4.What process in plants is known as transpiration?
5.What is osmoregulation?
6.Why is carbon dioxide mostly transported in dissolved form?
7.When we breathe out, why does the air passage not collapse? Give reason
8.Mention the respiratory unit of lungs and excretory unit of kidneys.
9.Some organisms derive nutrition from plants or animals without killing them. What are
these organisms called? Write one example.
10.What are the major constituents of urine?

11.Where does the urine produced by the kidneys get stored?
12.How does transpiration help in upward transport of substances?
13.When the right atrium contract, blood flows from it to which part of the heart?
14.State the functions of the following:
(i) Blood
(ii) WBC
15.Write the functions of the two upper chambers of the human heart.
16.Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping system. How is the
leakage prevented?
17.Which mechanism plays an important role in transportation of water in plants
(i) During daytime
(ii) At night?
IV SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1.Name the following
(a) The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy
(b) Organisms that can prepare their own food
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(c) The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs
(d) Cells that surround a stomatal pore
(e) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food
(f) An enzyme secreted from gastric glands in stomach that acts on proteins.
2. “All plants give out oxygen during day and carbon dioxide during night”. Do you agree
with this statement? Give reason.
3. How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
4. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers,one in the dark and
the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give reasons.
5. If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does it
mean that there is no photosynthesis occurring?Justify your answer.
6. Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
7. Differentiate between an autotroph and a heterotroph.
8. Is ‘nutrition’ a necessity for an organism? Discuss.
9. What would happen if green plants disappear from earth?
10. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain
healthy for long? Give reasons for your answer.
11. How does aerobic respiration differ from anaerobic respiration?

12.Differentiate between an artery and a vein.
13. What are the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis?
14. Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
15. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands?
16. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
17. What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
18. Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?
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V LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1.Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
2. Describe the alimentary canal of man.
3. Explain the process of breathing in man.
4. Explain the importance of soil for plant growth.
5. Draw the diagram of alimentary canal of man and label the following parts.
Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine
6. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?
7. Explain the mechanism of photosynthesis.
8. Explain the three pathways of breakdown in living organisms.
9. Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.
10. Describe the process of urine formation in kidneys.
VI CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Heterotrophic nutrition is a mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain readymade

organic food from outside sources. The organisms that depend upon outside sources
for obtaining organic nutrients are called heterotrophs.
Heterotrophic nutrition is of three types: saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic nutrition.
(i) In which of the following groups of organisms food material is broken outside the
body and absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
(ii) Which of the following is a parasite?

(a) Yeast
(b) Taenia
(c) Amoeba
(d) Earthworm
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(iii) Which of the following is an example of saprotroph?
(a) Grass
(b) Mushroom
(c) Amoeba
(d) Paramecium
(iv) Heterotrophic nutrition involves

(a) production of simple sugar from inorganic compounds
(b) utilisation of chemical energy to prepare food
(c) utilisation of energy obtained by plants
(d) all of these.
(v) In Paramecium, food enters the body through

(a) mouth
(b) pseudopodia
(c) cilia
(d) cytostome
2. The alimentary canal is basically a long tube extending from the mouth to the anus.
The tube has different parts. Various regions are specialised to perform different
functions.
We eat various types of food which has to pass through the same digestive tract.
Naturally the food has to be processed to generate particles which are small and of the
same texture. This is achieved by crushing the food with our teeth
i) Which enzyme is present in our mouth to digest starch?
ii) What are the types of enzymes released by our stomach?
iii) Which is the longest part of our alimentary canal in our body?
iv) What are villi?
V) What are the enzymes that are released by pancreas?
3. Plant transport systems will move energy stores from leaves and raw materials from
roots. These two pathways are constructed as independently organised conducting
tubes. One, the xylem moves water and minerals obtained from the soil. The other,
phloem transports products of photosynthesis from the leaves where they are
synthesised to other parts of the plant
i) What are the different parts of xylem?
ii) What do you meant by the term transpiration?
iii) What are the advantages of transpiration?
iv) What is translocation?
v) How does plant remove their waste product?
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CHAPTER – 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
2. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

(a) Dendrite → axon → axonal end → cell body
(b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
(c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
(d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
3. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

(a) dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron
(b) axon to cell body of the same neuron
(c) cell body to axonal end of the same neuron
(d) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron
4. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

(a) cell body
(b) axonal end
(c) dendritic end
(d) axon
5. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

(a) Receptors→ Muscles→ Sensory neuron→ Motor neuron→ Spinal cord
(b) Receptors→ Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
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6. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is called reflex action
(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to muscles
(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal cord
(iv) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a
gland is called reflex arc
(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
7. Which of the following statements are true about the brain?
(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain
(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight etc are located in fore brain.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the
medulla in the hind brain
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body
(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
8. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

(a) cerebrum
(b) cerebellum
(c) medulla
(d) pons
9. Spinal cord originates from

(a) cerebrum
(b) medulla
(c) pons
(d) cerebellum
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10. The movement of shoot towards light is
(a) geotropism
(b) hydrotropism
(c) chemotropism
(d) phototropism
11. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to

(a) increase the length of cells
(b) promote cell division
(c) inhibit growth
(d) promote growth of stem
12. Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant?

(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Abscisic acid
13. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?

(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Auxin
(d) Insulin
14. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin

(a) It is produced from pancreas
(b) It regulates growth and development of the body
(c) It regulates blood sugar level
(d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes
15. Select the mis-matched pair

(a) Adrenaline : Pituitary gland
(b) Testosterone: Testes
(c) Estrogen : Ovary
(d) Thyroxin : Thyroid gland
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16. The shape of guard cells changes due to change in the
(a) protein composition of cells
(b) temperature of cells
(c) amount of water in cells
(d) position of nucleus in the cells
17. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to

(a) effect of light
(b) effect of gravity
(c) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support
(d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
18. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to

(a) hydrotropism
(b) chemotropism
(c) geotropism
(d) phototropism
19. The movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of sun is due to
(a) phototropism
(b) geotropism
(c) chemotropism
(d) hydrotropism
20. The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is due to
(a) auxin
(b) gibberellin
(c) abscisic acid
(d) cytokinin
21. Which of the following statements about transmission of nerve impulse is incorrect?
(a) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end
(b) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemicals
which generate an electrical impulse at the axonal end of another neuron
(c) The chemicals released from the axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and
generate a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of another neuron
(d) A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to another neuron but also to muscle
and gland cells
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22. Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by
(a) medulla in fore brain
(b) medulla in mid brain
(c) medulla in hind brain
(d) medulla in spinal cord
23. Which of the following is not an involuntary action?

(a) Vomiting
(b) Salivation
(c) Heart beat
(d) Chewing
24. When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot

(a) differentiate the taste of an apple from that of an ice cream
(b) differentiate the smell of a perfume from that of an agarbatti
(c) differentiate red light from green light
(d) differentiate a hot object from a cold object
25. What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses?
26. Which statement is not true about thyroxin?

(a) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin
(b) It regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body
(c) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesise thyroxin
(d) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone
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27. Dwarfism results due to
(a) Excess secretion of thyroxin
(b) Less secretion of growth hormone
(c) Less secretion of adrenaline
(d) Excess secretion of growth hormone
28. Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of
secretion of
(a) oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
(b) estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
(c) testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary
(d) testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland
29. A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because

(a) his blood pressure was low
(b) his heart was beating slowly
(c) he was suffering from goitre
(d) his sugar level in blood was high
30. The hormone which increases the fertility in males is called

(a) oestrogen
(b) testosterone
(c) insulin
(d) growth hormone
31. Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?

(a) Adrenal
(b) Testes
(c) Pituitary
(d) Ovary
32. Junction between two neurons is called

(a) cell junction
(b) neuro muscular junction
(c) neural joint
(d) synapse
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33. In humans, the life processes are controlled and regulated by
(a) reproductive and endocrine systems
(b) respiratory and nervous systems
(c) endocrine and digestive systems
(d) nervous and endocrine systems
Short Answer Questions

34. Label the parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) and show the direction of flow of
electrical signals in Figure
35. Name the plant hormones responsible for the following

(a) elongation of cells
(b) growth of stem
(c) promotion of cell division
(d) falling of senescent leaves.
36. Label the endocrine glands in Figure
37. What is a tropic movement? Explain with an example.

38. What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
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39. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
40. Answer the following:
(a) Which hormone is responsible for the changes noticed in females at puberty?
(b) Dwarfism results due to deficiency of which hormone?
(c) Blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of which hormone?
(d) Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
41. Answer the following:
(a) Name the endocrine gland associated with brain?
(b) Which gland secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones?
(c) Name the endocrine gland associated with kidneys?
(d) Which endocrine gland is present in males but not in females?
Long Answer Questions
42. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.
43. What are the major parts of the brain? Mention the functions of different parts.
44. What constitutes the central and peripheral nervous systems? How are the
components of central nervous system protected?
45. Mention one function for each of these hormones :
(a) Thyroxin
(b) Insulin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Growth hormone
(e) Testosterone.
46. Name various plant hormones. Also give their physiological effects on plant growth
and development.
47. What are reflex actions? Give two examples. Explain a reflex arc.
48. “Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and
coordination in human beings.” Justify the statement.
49. How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
50. Why is the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic
end of another neuron but not the reverse?
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CHAPTER 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
Multiple Choice Questions
1. In the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual method are
(i) banana
(ii) dog
(iii) yeast
(iv) Amoeba
(a) (ii) and (iv)

(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(a) stamen and anther
(b) filament and stigma
(c) anther and ovary
(d) stamen and style
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a

flower?
(a) pollination, fertilisation, seedling, embryo
(b) seedling, embryo, fertilisation, pollination
(c) pollination, fertilisation, embryo, seedling
(d) embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilisation
4. Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among

themselves because
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
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(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
5. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in
(a) cytoplasm
(b) ribosome
(c) golgi bodies
(d) genes
6. Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
(a) only similarities with parents
(b) only variations with parents
(c) both similarities and variations with parents
(d) neither similarities nor variations
7. A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that

(a) they reproduce asexually
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular
8. In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by

(a) breaking up of filaments into smaller bits
(b) division of a cell into two cells
(c) division of a cell into many cells
(d) formation of young cells from older cells.
9. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is
called
(a) budding
(b) reduction division
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
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10. The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants is
(a) gametes, zygote, embryo, seedling
(b) zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling
(c) seedling, embryo, zygote, gametes
(d) gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling
11. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species

remains constant due to
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
12. In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) filaments
(b) hyphae
(c) rhizoids
(d) roots
13. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from

(a) stem, roots and flowers
(b) stem, roots and leaves
(c) stem, flowers and fruits
(d) stem, leaves and flowers
14. Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) large number of spores
(ii) availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) presence of tubular branched hyphae
(iv) formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
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15. Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between
(a) pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
16. Which of the following statements are true for flowers?

(i) Flowers are always bisexual
(ii) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(iii) They are produced in all groups of plants
(iv) After fertilisation they give rise to fruits
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
17. Which among the following statements are true for unisexual flowers?
(i) They possess both stamen and pistil
(ii) They possess either stamen or pistil
(iii) They exhibit cross pollination
(iv) Unisexual flowers possessing only stamens cannot produce fruits
(a) (i) and (iv)

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
18. Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering
plants?
(i) It requires two types of gametes
(ii) Fertilisation is a compulsory event
(iii) It always results in formation of zygote
(iv) Offspring formed are clones
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
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19. In Figure 8.1, the parts A, B and C are sequentially
(a) cotyledon, plumule and radicle

(b) plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) plumule, cotyledon and radicle
(d) radicle, cotyledon and plumule
20. Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because
(a) sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(b) genetic material comes from two parents of the same species
(c) genetic material comes from two parents of different species
(d) genetic material comes from many parents
21. Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to

(a) keep the individual organism alive
(b) fulfill their energy requirement
(c) maintain growth
(d) continue the species generation after generation
22. During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body.

Mark one change associated with sexual maturation in boys
(a) loss of milk teeth
(b) increase in height
(c) cracking of voice
(d) weight gain
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23. In human females, an event that reflects onset of reproductive phase is
(a) growth of body
(b) changes in hair pattern
(c) change in voice
(d) menstruation
24. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the
(a) process of mating
(b) formation of sperm
(c) easy transfer of gametes
(d) all the above
25. Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?
(i) formation of germ cells
(ii) secretion of testosterone
(iii) development of placenta
(iv) secretion of estrogen
(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
26. The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of
sperms is
(a) testis → vasdeferens → urethra
(b) testis → ureter → urethra
(c) testis → urethra → ureter
(d) testis → vasdeferens → ureter
27. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?

(a) Syphillis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV - AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea
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Short Answer Questions
28. In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens being removed artificially, the
flower produces fruit. Provide a suitable explanation for the above situation.
29. Can you consider cell division as a type of reproduction in unicellular organism?
Give one reason.
30. What is a clone? Why do offsprings formed by asexual reproduction exhibit
remarkable similarity?
31. Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the
same number of chromosomes?
32. Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution. Give one
reason for this.
33. Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry
slice of bread?
34. Give two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by
sexual reproduction.
35. From the internet, gather information about the chromosome numbers of five
animals and five plants. Correlate the number with the size of organism and answer the
following questions.
(a) Do larger organisms have more number of chromosomes/cells?
(b) Can organism with fewer chromosomes reproduce more easily than organisms with
more number of chromosomes?
(c) More the number of chromosomes/cells greater is the DNA content. Justify.
36. In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty four chromosomes.
(a) What is the number of chromosomes in the female gamete?
(b) What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?
37. Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if pollination does not occur?
38. Is the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular
organism always constant? How is the constancy maintained in these three stages?
39. Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilization?
40. Reproduction is linked to stability of population of a species.
24
Justify the statement.
41. How are general growth and sexual maturation different from each other?
42. Trace the path of sperm during ejaculation and mention the gland and their
functions associated with the male reproductive system.
Long Answer Type questions

43.Why are budding, fragmentation and regeneration all consideredas asexual types of
reproduction? With neat diagrams explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
44. Write two points of difference between asexual and sexual types of reproduction.
Describe why variations are observed in the offspring formed by sexual reproduction.
45. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and product of
fertilisation in a flower.
46.Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth and its entry into
the ovule.
47. Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual
reproduction.
48. Draw the diagram of a flower and label the four whorls. Write the names of gamete
producing organs in the flower.
25
CHAPTER 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
I MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1.Which statement explains the Mendel’s law of segregation?
(a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both the
parent.
(b) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from both the
parent.
(c) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of two alleles each from either of the
parent.
(d) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of one allele each from either of the
parent.
2. The inheritance of color trait in flower is as shown.
R and r denote two different genes for color. Which law of Mendel can be explained
using the image?
(a) Only Law of segregation
(b) Only Law of independent assortment
(c) Law of segregation and Law of dominance
(d) Law of segregation and Law of independent assortment
3. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on the Mendel’s laws,
a male offspring will inherit which combination of chromosomes?
(a) both the X chromosomes from one of its parents
(b) both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents
(c) combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents
(d) combination of X and Y chromosome from either of its parents
26
4. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that
were all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the dominant trait
(b) shortness is the dominant trait
(c) tallness is the recessive trait
(d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
5. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded
pea plant, (rr YY) the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
6. The maleness of a child is determined by
(a) the X chromosome in the zygote
(b) the Y chromosome in zygote
(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
(d) sex is determined by chance
7. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
8.Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow
(rrYY) seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1
plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have new combination of characters. Choose the
new combination from the following
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green
27
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
II ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
1.Assertion(A): Mendel selected the pea plant for his experiments.
Reason (R) : Pea plant is cross-pollinating and has unisexual flowers.
2. Assertion(A) : The sex of a child is determined by the mother.
Reason (R) : Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.
3. Assertion(A) : Traits like tallness and dwarfness in pea plant are inherited
independently.
Reason(R) : When a homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with dwarf pea plant,
medium sized pea plant is obtained in F, generation.
4.Assertion(A) : Monohybrid cross deals with inheritance of one pair of contrasting
characters.
Reason(R) : Dihybrid cross deals with inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
characters
5. Assertion(A) : When pea plants (pureline) having round yellow seeds are crossed
with pureline plants having wrinkled green seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F,
generation bear wrinkled green seeds.
Reason(R) : Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.
III VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is heredity?
2. Name the plant on which Mendel performed his experiments.
3. Name the information source for making proteins in the cells.
4. What is a gene?
28
IV SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1.How is the sex of a newborn determined in humans?
2. Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a
newborn?
3. Why do all the gametes formed in human females have an X chromosome?
4. In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is
50 : 50. Give a suitable explanation
5. Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following characters in pea plant and mention
which is dominant and recessive (i) yellow seed (ii) round seed
6. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his experiments?
7.(a) Why did Mendel carry out an experiment to study inheritance of two traits in
garden pea?
(b) What were his findings with respect to inheritance of traits in F 1 and F2 generation?
(c) State the ratio obtained in the F2 generation in the above mentioned experiment.
8. In pea plant, round seed is dominant over wrinkled. If a cross is carried between
these two plants, give answer to the following questions.
(a) Mention the genes for the traits of parents.
(b) State the trait of F1 hybrids.
(c) Write the ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross. What is the name of the
cross?
V LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Demonstrate with an example that traits may be dominant or recessive. Write down
Mendel’s law related to it.
2. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants
denoted by tt, Preeti obtained only tall plants denoted by Tt in the F1 generation.
However, in F2 generation she obtained both tall and short pea plants. Using the above
information, explain the law of dominance.
3. In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the FI
had all white flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to
100 individuals, 75 of which had white flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individual?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?
VI CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1. A scientist cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive)
pea plant he will get pea plants of F1 generation. If now self-cross the pea plant of F2
generation is done, then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
29
(a) State the type of plants not found in F2 generation but appeared in F2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation. Write the full form of
DNA.
(c) What do the plants of F2 generation look like ?
(d) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
2.The rules for inheritance of such traits in human beings are related to the fact that
both the father and the mother contribute practically equal amounts of genetic material
to the child. This means that each trait can be influenced by both paternal and maternal
DNA. Thus, for each trait there will be two versions in each child. What will, then, the
trait seen in the child be?
(a) What were the contrasting traits used by Mendel?
(b) What was the phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross?
(c) What was the genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross?
(d) How does the traits get expressed?
(e) Write the monohybrid cross between tall and dwarf plants?
30
CHAPTER 15: OUR ENVIORNMENT
1.Which statement shows interaction of an abiotic component with a biotic component in
an ecosystem?
(a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf.
(b) Rainwater running down into the lake.
(c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
(d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food
2. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

(a) Pond
(b) Crop field
(c) Lake
(d) Forest
3. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by

(a) carnivores
(b) herbivores
(c) decomposers
(d) producers
4. An ecosystem includes
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living object
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes non-living objects
5. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ,
what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(a) 5 k J
(b) 50 k J
(c) 500 k J
(d) 5000 k J
6. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount

at each higher trophic level is known as
(a) eutrophication
(b) pollution
(c) biomagnification
(d) accumulation
31
7.Depletion of ozone is mainly due to
(a) chlorofluorocarbon compounds
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) pesticides
8. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant

energy are called (a) decomposers
(b) producers
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores
9. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to
the next is in the form of
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy
10. Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms
belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the
(a) food web
(b) ecological pyramid
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
11. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always

(a) unidirectional
(b) bidirectional
(c) multi directional
(d) no specific direction
II ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
32
1. Assertion: Polythene bags and plastic containers are non-biodegradable
substances.
Reason: They can be broken down by microorganisms in natural simple harmless
substances.
2. Assertion: The concentration of harmful chemicals is least in human beings.

Reason: Man is at the apex of the food chain.
3. Assertion: Ozone is formed in upper atmosphere by O2 in presence of UV

radiations.
Reason: Ozone depletion will lead to UV rays reaching earth which may cause skin
cancer.
4. Assertion: Aquarium needs regular cleaning

Reason: There are no microbes to clean water in aquarium, therefore, it needs to be
regularly cleaned.
III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1.Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to environment?

2. Write the common food chain of a pond ecosystem.
3. What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags during shopping?
4. Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems?
5. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. Cite
examples
6. Suggest one word for each of the following statements/ definitions
(a) The physical and biological world where we live in
(b) Each level of food chain where transfer of energy takes place
(c) The physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind and soil of an ecosystem
(d) Organisms which depend on the producers either directly or indirectly for food
7. Explain the role of decomposers in the environment?
IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1.Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional?

Justify.
2. What are decomposers? What will be the consequence of their absence in an
ecosystem?
3. Suggest any four activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
33
4. Give two differences between food chain and food web.
5. Name the wastes which are generated in your house daily. What measures would
you take for their disposal?
6. Suggest suitable mechanism (s) for waste management in fertilizer industries.
7. What are the by-products of fertiliser industries? How do they affect the environment?
8. Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment
34
CHAPTER 1: CHEMICAL REACTION AND EQUATION
1. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true? Exposure of silver chloride to
sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
(i) The formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) Sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) Decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) Oxidation of silver chloride
(a) (i) only

(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only
2. A Dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing
acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally
disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4.

(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO4.
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a
colourless compound.
3. Which of the following metal exist in their native form in nature?

(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Zn
(d) Fe
4. Which one of the following reactions is correctly balanced?

(a) 2H2+O2→2H2O
(b) 2H2+O2→H2O
(c) 2H2+3O2→2H2O
(d) 2H2+2O2→2H2O
5. The element A is very soft in nature and can be cut with knife. This is very reactive to
air and cannot be kept open. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from
the following.
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) P
(d) Ca
35
6. Alloys are the homogeneous mixture of metals with a non metal. Which among the
following alloys contain non-metals as one of its constituents?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel
7. Which of the following conditions is necessary for a chemical reaction?

(a) It must be accompanied with change it’s temperature and pressure.
(b) At least one of the reactants must be in a fixed quantity.
(c) It must follow the law of conservation of mass.
(d) All of the above.
8. Which of the following type of reaction is taking place in the chemical equation given
below?
8Fe+S8→8FeS
(a) Combustion
(b) Combination
(c) C)Decomposition
(d) D)Displacement
9. Which one of the following processes involve chemical reactions?

(a) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(b) Liquification of air
(c) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open
(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high Temperature
10. In stainless steel alloy, iron metal is mixed with

(a) Cu and Cr
(b) Cr and Ni
(c) Cr and Sn
(d) Cu and Ni
11. There is an equation 'X', which contains equal number of atoms of each element on
both the sides. What is 'X'?
(a) A balanced equation
(b) An unbalanced equation
(c) A chemical equation
(d) All of the above
12. Which one of the following pair will give Displacement Reaction?
(a) AgNo3 solution and Copper metal
(b) FeSo4 solution and Copper metal
(c) CuSo4solution and silver metal
36
(d) NaCl solution and Copper metal
13. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A
small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B
and C respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the
temperature of the solutions contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker
C, the temperature of the solution falls. Which one of the following
statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
(iii) In beaker C, exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C, endothermic process has occurred.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
14. Examples of amphoteric oxide is

(a) Na2O
(b) K2O
(c) Al2O3
(d) MgO
15. Which of the following is formed after rusting of iron?

(a) Fe2O3.H2O
(b) FeO.H2O
(c) FeO3.H2O
(d) Fe2O.H2O
16. In the given equation, what does 'X' stand for ?

(2)Al + (X)H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + (3)H2
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
17. Oxidation of fats and oils is called :

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rusting
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Rancidity
18. Galvanization is method of protecting iron from rusting by coating a thin layer of
(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminium
37
(c) Zinc
(d) Silver
Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Chemistry in Automobiles:
For an internal combustion engine to move a vehicle down the road, it must convert the
energy stored in the fuel into mechanical energy to drive the wheels. In your car,the
distributor and battery provide this starting energy by creating an electrical
"spark”, which helps in combustion of fuels like gasoline. Below is the reaction depicting
complete combustion of gasoline in full supply of air:
2C8H18(l) + 25O2(g) → 16 'X' + Y
19. Which of the following are the products obtained

from the reaction mentioned in the above case?
Product ‘X’ Product ‘Y’
(a) CO2 H2O2
(b) H2O CO
(c) CH3OH H2O
(d) CO2 H2O
20. Identify the types of chemical reaction occurring

during the combustion of fuel:
(a) Oxidation & Endothermic reaction
(b) Decomposition & Exothermic reaction
(c) Oxidation & Exothermic reaction
(d) Combination & Endothermic reaction
21. On the basis of evolution/absorption of energy, which of the following processes are
similar to combustion of fuel?
(i) Photosynthesis in plants
(ii) Respiration in the human body
(iii) Decomposition of vegetable matter
(iv) Decomposition of ferrous sulphate.
(a) (ii) & (iii)

(b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (iii) & (iv)
(d) (ii) & (i)
22. A student while walking on the road observed that a cloud of black smoke belched
out from the exhaust stack of moving trucks on the road.’ Choose the correct reason for
the production of black smoke:
38
(a) Limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion of fuel.
(b) Rich supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.
(c) Rich supply of air leads to a combination reaction.
(d) Limited supply of air leads to complete combustion of fuel.
23. When decomposition is carried out by heating, it is

called as:
(a) Heat decomposition
(b) Photolytic decomposition
(c) Electrolytic decomposition
(d) Thermal decomposition
24. An element reacts with oxygen to give compound with high melting point. This
compound is also soluble in water. This element likely to be
(a) Calcium
(b) Carbon
(c) Silicon
(d) iron
25. Food cans are coated with tin and not with Zinc because
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin
(b) Zinc has a higher melting point
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) Zinc is reactive than tin
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTION
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by

a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false and R is true.
26. Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky.

Reason (R): Carbon dioxide sullies the water.
27. Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures.

Reason (R): At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid.
28. Assertion (A): After whitewashing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is
obtained after two to three days.
Reason (R): Calcium oxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form calcium hydrogen
carbonate which gives shiny white finish.
29. Assertion (A): Burning of candle is a physical change.
39
Reason (R): In physical change, no new substance is formed.
30. Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under kerosene.

Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
31. Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid.
Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.
32. Assertion (A): Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as
nitrogen.
Reason (R): Nitrogen gas prevents the oil and fats of the chips from being oxidized.
Q33. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the
type of reaction in each case.
(a) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst at 773K to
form ammonia gas.
(b)Sodium hydroxide solution is treated with acetic acid to form sodium acetate and
water.
(c) Ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid to form ethyl acetate in the presence of
concentrated H2SO4.
(d) Ethene is burnt in the presence of oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water and
releases heat and light.
Q34. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the
type of reaction in each case.
Q35. Complete the missing components / variables given as x and y in the following
reactions
(a) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 KI (aq) → Pbl2 (x) + 2 KNO3 (y)
(b) Cu (s) + 2 AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + x(s)
(c) Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (x) + H2 (y)
Q36. Following reactions are exothermic or endothermic in nature?Justify

(a) Decomposition of ferrous sulphate
(b) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(c) Dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water
(d) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
40
Q37. Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions
(a) 4 NH3 + 5 O2 → 4 NO + 6 H2O
(b) H2O + F2 → HF + HOF
(c) Fe2O3 + 3 CO → 2 Fe + 3 CO2
(d) 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O
Q38. Identify the oxidising agent (oxidant) in the following reactions

(a) Pb3O4 + 8 HCI → 3 PbCl2 + Cl2 + 4 H2O
(b) 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO
(c) CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4
(d) V2O5 + 5 Ca → 2 V + 5 CaO
(e) 3 Fe + 4 H2O → Fe3O4 + 4 H2
(f) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Q39. A solution of potassium chloride, when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an
insoluble white substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also
mention the type of the chemical reaction?
Q40. Ferrous sulphate decomposes with the evolution of a gas having a characteristic
dour of burning sulphur. Write the chemical reaction involved and identify the type of
reaction.
Q41.Grapes hanging on the plant do not ferment, but after being plucked from the plant
can be
fermented. Under what conditions do these grapes ferment? Is it a chemical or a
physical
change?
Q42.Which among the following are physical or chemical changes?
(a) Evaporation of petrol
(b) Burning of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
(c) Heating of an iron rod to red hot.
(d) Curdling of milk
41
(e) Sublimation of solid ammonium chloride
Q43.We made the following observations during the reaction of some metals with dilute
hydrochloric acid.
(a) Silver metal does not show any change
(b) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium (Al) is added.
(c) The sodium metal reaction is highly explosive.
(d) Some gas bubbles are seen when lead (Pb) is reacted with the acid.
Explain these observations giving suitable reasons.
Q44. A substance X, an oxide of a group 2 element, is used intensively in the cement

industry. This element is present in bones also. On treatment with water, it forms a
solution which turns red litmus blue. Identify X and also write the chemical reactions
involved.
Q45. Write a balanced chemical equation for each following reaction and classify
them.
(a) Lead acetate solution is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid to form lead chloride
and acetic acid solution.
(b) A piece of sodium metal is added to absolute ethanol to form sodium ethoxide and
hydrogen gas.
(c) Iron (III) oxide on heating with carbon monoxide gas reacts to form solid iron and
liberates carbon dioxide gas.
(d) Hydrogen sulphide gas reacts with oxygen gas to form solid sulphur and liquid water
Q46. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles?

Q47. A magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen to give a white compound X accompanied
by light emission. If the burning ribbon is now placed in an atmosphere of nitrogen, it
continues to burn and forms a compound Y.
(a) Write the chemical formulae of X and Y.

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation when X is dissolved in water.
42
Q48. A silver article generally turns black when kept in the open for a few days. The
article, when rubbed with toothpaste again, starts shining.
(a) Why do silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a few days? Name the
phenomenon involved.
(b) Name the black substance formed and give its chemical formula.
Q49. On heating blue coloured powder of copper (I) nitrate in a boiling tube, copper
oxide
(black), oxygen gas, and a brown gas X is formed
(a) Write a balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
(b) Identity the brown gas X evolved.
(c) Identify the type of reaction.
(d) What could be the pH range of the aqueous solution of the gas X?
Q50. A-What happens when a piece of

(a) Zinc metal is added to copper sulphate solution?
(b) Aluminium metal is added to dilute hydrochloric acid?
(c) Silver metal is added to copper sulphate solution?
Also, write the balanced chemical equation if the reaction occurs
B- You are provided with two containers made up of copper and aluminium. You are
also
provided with dilute HCI, HNO3, ZnCl2 and H2O solutions. In which of the above
containers we can keep these solutions?
43
CHAPTER 2: ACID BASES AND SALTS
1. A solution turns red litmus to blue; its PH is likely to be,
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 10
2. The solution reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky.
The Solution contains,
a) NaCl
b) HCl
c) LiCl
d) KCl
3. 10 ml of a solution of Na0H is found to be completely neutralised by 8 ml of HCl.

If wetake 20ml of Na0H, the amount of Hcl solution required to neutralise it will be,
a) 10 ml
b) 20 ml
c) 16 ml
d) 30 ml
4. Which of the following is used for treating indigestion?

a) Antibiotic
b) Analgesic
c) Antacid
d) Antiseptic.
5. Sodium hydroxide turns phenolphthalein indicator to which colour?

a) Pink
b) blue
c) Red
d) orange
6. Methyl orange is,

a) Pink (red) in acidic medium, yellow in basic medium.
b) Yellow in acidic medium, pink in basic medium.
c) Colourless in acidic medium, pink in basic medium.
d) Pink in acidic medium, colourless in basic medium.
44
7. Which of the following is an olfactory indicator?
a) Red cabbage
b) Litmus
c) Turmeric
d) Clove.
8. Sour milk is a natural source of which acid?

a) Citric acid
b) Lactic acid
c) acetic acid
d) oxalic acid
9. Alkalis are,
a) Acids, which are soluble in water.
b) Acids, which are insoluble in water.
c) Bases, which are insoluble in water.
d) Bases, which are soluble in water.
10. Name the gas released when sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with hydrochloric
acid.
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon di oxide
c) Water
d) All of these
11. A strong acid is,

a) Completely gets ionised in water.
b) Partially gets ionised in water.
c) Do not get ionised in water.
d) All of these
12. Which of the following will turn red litmus blue?

a) Vinegar
b) Lemon juice
c) Soft drinks
d) Baking soda solution.
13. What happens when carbon di oxide gas reacts with sodium hydroxide?
a) Carbon monoxide is formed.
b) sodium carbonate is formed.
c) Carbon di oxide does not react with sodium hydroxide.
d) None of these
45
14. Which of the following compound is formed when Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid?
a) Zinc chloride
b) Zinc sulphate
c) Zinc carbonate
d) Zinc hydroxide
15. " Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not." The reason for
this is,
a) Tap water contains ions which conduct electricity.
b) Tap water contains electrons which conduct electricity.
c) Tap water contains protons which conduct electricity.
d) Tap water contains neutrons which conducts electricity.
16. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their PH values.

a) NA0H solution<blood<lemon juice
b) blood<lemon juice<NA0H
c) Lemon juice<blood<NA0H
d) blood<NAOH<lemon juice
17. Name the reaction when an acid reacts with a base to produce salt and water.
a) Addition reaction
b) Neutralisation reaction
c) Substitution reaction
d) Oxidation reaction
18. Which of the following acid having highest hydrogen ion concentration is one with,
a) PH=2.5
b) PH= 1.8
c) PH= 7
d) PH=10
19. Dissolution of acid in water is,

a) Endosmosis
b) Isothermic
c) Exothermic
d) Endothermic
20. Read the given passage and answer the following questions from Q.1 to Q.4.
Suhana takes three beakers A, B and C filled with aqueous solutions of glucose,
alcohol and hydrochloric acid respectively as shown in the following figure:
46
1-Which of the following statement is correct in terms of glowing of bulb when the switch
is ON?
(A) Bulb A and B do not glow but bulb C glows.
(B) Bulb A and C do not glow but bulb B glows.
(C) Bulb B and C do not glow but bulb A glows.
(D) All the bulbs glow.
2-The bulb glows in a solution depending on whether the solution is:
(A) acidic
(B) an electrolyte
(C) basic
(D) a non electrolyte
3-Which of the following are present in a dilute

aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(A) H3O+ + Cl–
(B) H3O+ + OH–
(C) Cl– + OH–
(D) Unionized HCl
4-Which of the following statement is true if alcohol is replaced with NaOH solution:
(A) bulb glows in alcohol but not in NaOH solution.
(B) bulb will glow in NaOH solution but not in alcohol.
(C) bulb does not glow in alcohol and neither will it glow in NaOH solution.
(D) bulb glows in NaOH solution as well as in alcohol.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS:

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false and R is True.
47
21. Assertion (A): After whitewashing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is
obtained after two to three days.
Reason (R): Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium Hydrogen
Carbonate which gives shiny white finish
22. Assertion (A): When zinc is added to dilute

hydrochloric acid, hydrogen is given off.
Reason (R): Hydrogen chloride molecules contain
hydrochloric acid and hydrogen atoms.
23.Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to dilute
hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction.
24.Assertion (A): Ammonia solution is an alkali.

Reason (R): Ammonia solution turns blue litmus paper red.
25. Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.1 to Q.5.
Study the given table and answer the following questions. It shows the pH value of the
plaque (which collects around teeth) surrounding the teeth of a child over 3 hrs.
1. The three constituents of plaque are

(a) Acid
(b) Saliva
(c) Bacteria
(d) All of these
2. The pH which leads to tooth decay?
(a) above 7
(b) at 7
(c) below 5.5
(d) above 5.5
48
3. State the time during the day when condition is
most favourable for process of tooth decay.
(a) 1.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 3.0
(d) 4.0
4. The nature of toothpastes commonly used to
protect tooth decay is:
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) none of the above
Q26.What will be the action of the following substances on litmus paper?
• Dry HCI gas

• Moistened NH3 gas
• Lemon juice
• Carbonated soft drinks
• Curd
• Soap solution
Q27.Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also, give the
common method to get relief from the discomfort caused by the ant sting.
Q28.What happens when nitric acid is added to the eggshells?
Q29.A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and (ii) a base in two separate beakers.
She forgot to label the solutions, and litmus paper was not available in the laboratory.
Since both the solutions are colourless, how will she distinguish between the two?
Q30.How would you distinguish between baking powder and washing soda by heating?
Q31.Salt A is commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another
salt B, which is used to remove the hardness of water, and a gas C is evolved. The gas
C, when passed through lime water, turns it milky. Identify A, B and C.
Q32.In one of the industrial processes used to manufacture sodium hydroxide, a gas X
is formed as a byproduct. The gas X reacts with lime water to give a compound Y used
as a bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y giving the chemical
equation of the reactions involved.
49
Q33.Fill in the missing data in the following table.
Salt obtained from
S. No. Name of the salt Formula Base Acid
1. Ammonium chloride NH4Cl NH4OH –
2. Copper sulphate – – H2SO4
3. Sodium chloride NaCl NaOH –
4. Magnesium nitrate Mg(NO3)2 – HNO3
5. Potassium sulphate K2SO4 – –
6. Calcium nitrate Ca(NO3)2 Ca(OH)2 –
Q34.What are strong and weak acids? In the following list of acids, separate strong
acids from weak acids. Hydrochloric acid, citric acid, acetic acid, nitric acid, formic acid,
sulphuric acid.
Q35.When zinc metal is treated with a dilute solution of a strong acid, a gas is evolved,
which is utilised in the hydrogenation of oil. Name the gas evolved. Write the chemical
equation of the reaction involved and also write a test to detect the gas formed.
Q36.For making cake, baking powder is taken. If your mother uses baking soda instead
of baking powder in cake at home,
(a) How will it affect the taste of the cake and why?
(b) How can baking soda be converted into baking powder?
(c) What is the role of tartaric acid added to baking soda?
Q37.A metal carbonate X reacting with acid gives a gas that gives the carbonate back
when passed through a solution Y. On the other hand, a gas G obtained at the anode
during electrolysis of brine is passed on dry Y, it gives a compound Z, used for
disinfecting drinking water. Identity X, Y, G and Z.
50
Q38.A dry pellet of a common base B absorbs moisture and turns sticky when kept
open. The compound is also a by-product of the chloralkali process. Identify B. What
type of reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide? Write a balanced
chemical equation for one such solution.
Q39.A sulphate salt of Group 2 element of the Periodic Table is a white, soft substance,
which can be moulded into different shapes by making its dough. When this compound
is left open for some time, it becomes a solid mass and cannot be used for moulding
purposes. Identify the sulphate salt and why does it show such behaviour? Give the
reaction involved.
Q40. Why is Plaster of Paris stored in a moisture proof container?

Q41. What do you mean by neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Q42. Mention two uses of baking soda and washing soda.
Q43. Why does a milkman add a small amount of baking soda to fresh milk to shift the
pH of fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Q44. Why do acids not show acidic behavior in the absence of water?
Q45. Rain water conducts electricity but distilled water does not. Why?
Q46. Why don’t we keep sour substances in brass and copper vessels?
Q47. What is the common name of CaOCl2?
Q48. Name the compound used for softening hard water.
Q49. (i) What happens when baking soda is heated?
(ii)Give the properties and uses of bleaching powder.
Q50. Give a few uses of acids, bases and salts respectively.
51
CHAPTER 3: METALS AND NON-METALS

1. Which of the given properties is generally not shown by metals?
A. Electrical conduction
B. Sonorous in nature
C. Dullness
D. Ductility
2. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as

A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Sonorousity
D. Conductivity
3. Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of
aluminium are responsible for the same?
(a) Good thermal conductivity
(b) Good electrical conductivity
(c) Ductility
(d) High melting point
A. (A) & (B)
B. (A) & (C)
C. (B) & (C)
D. (A) & (D)
4. Which one of the given metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?
A. Na
B. Ca
C. Mg
D. Fe
5. Which of the given oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron
with steam?
A. FeO
B. Fe₂O₃
C. Fe₃O₄
D. Fe₂O₃ and Fe₃O₄
6. What happens when calcium is treated with water?

(a) It does not react with water
(b) It reacts violently with water
(c) It reacts less violently with water
(d) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
52
A. (A) & (D)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (A) & (B)
D. (C) & (D)
7. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the given
acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
A. H₂SO₄
B. HCl
C. HNO₃
D. All the these
8. The composition of aqua-regia is

A. Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
B. Conc.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
C. Conc.HCl : Conc. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
D. Dil.HCl : Dil. HNO₃ = 3 : 1
9. Which of the following are not ionic compounds?

(a) KCl
(b) HCl
(c) CCl₄
(d) NaCl
A. (A) & (B)
B. (B) & (C)
C. (C) & (D)
D. (A) & (C)
10. Which one of the given properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
A. Solubility in water
B. Electrical conductivity in solid state
C. High melting and boiling points
D. Electrical conductivity in molten state
11. Which of the following metals exists in its native state in nature?
(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Zn
(d) Ag
A. (A) & (B)

B. (B) & (C)
C. (B) & (D)
D. (C) & (D)
53
12. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating
material. The material, generally used is
(A) Sulphur
(B) Graphite
(C) PVC
(D) All can be used
13. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the
formation of
A. Ag₃N
B. Ag₂O
C. Ag₂S
D. Ag₂S and Ag₃N
14. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer
of
A. Gallium
B. Aluminium
C. Zinc
D. Silver
15. Stainless steel is very useful material for our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
A. Ni and Cr
B. Cu and Cr
C. Ni and Cu
D. Cu and Au
16. If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a
green coating. It is due to the formation of
A. CuSO₄
B. CuCO₃
C. Cu(NO₃)₂
D. CuO
17. Generally, metals are solid in nature. Which one of the given metals is found in
liquid state at room temperature?
A. Na
B. Fe
C. Cr
D. Hg
54
18. Which of the given metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten
state?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Fe
(d) Cu
A. (A) & (D)
B. (C) & (D)
C. (A) & (C)
D. (A) & (B)
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTION

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
19. Assertion (A): When a piece of copper metal is added to dilute sulphuric acid, the
solution turns blue.
Reason (R): Copper reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form blue copper (II) sulphate
solution.
20.Assertion (A): Metals are sonorous.

Reason (R): They are generally brittle in the solid state; they break into pieces when
hammered.
21. Assertion (A): Gas bubbles are observed when sodium carbonate is added to
dilute hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is given off in the reaction.
22.Assertion (A): A mineral is called ore, when metal is extracted from it conveniently
and economically.
Reason (R): All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.
55
23. Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.4.
Based on this information, answer any four questions from Q. 1. to Q. 4.
When a silvery grey powder of a solid (A) is mixed with a powder of solid (B) no reaction
occurs. But if the mixture is ignited and lighted using magnesium ribbon a reaction
occurs with evolution of large amount of heat forming product (C) which settles
down as liquid metal and the solid product (D) formed floats on the liquid (C). (C) in
solid form reacts with moisture to form rust. The amount of heat generated during the
reaction is so high that the reaction is used in welding of electric conductors, joints in
railway tracks.
Q. 1. Identify A and C?
(a) A – Al and C – Fe
(b) A – Fe and C – Al
(c) A – Mg and C- Al
(d) A – Al and C – Cu
Q. 2. Identify B and D which are oxides of:

(a) B – Fe, D – Al
(b) B – Mg , D – Al
(c) B – Al, D - Cu
(d) B – Al, D – Fe
Q. 3. Amphoteric oxides are:

(a) Metal oxides which do not react with acids but reacts with bases.
(b) Metal oxides which reacts with both acids as well as bases.
(c) Metal oxides which reacts with acids but do not react with bases.
(d) Metal oxides which shows no reaction with either acids or bases.
Q. 4. Which of the following is amphoteric in nature ?

(a) Both aluminium oxide and zinc oxide
(b) Only zinc oxide
(c) Only aluminium oxide
(d) Neither of them
Q24. Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Sohan went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of
old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him
which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight
was reduced drastically. The lady was sad but after a futile argument, the man beat a
hasty retreat.
56
Q. 1. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Aqua regia
Q. 2. The composition of aqua-regia is

(a) Dil. HCl: Conc. HNO3 3: 1
(b) Conc. HCl: Dil. HNO3 3: 1
(c) Conc. HCl: Conc. HNO3 3: 1
(d) Dil. HCl: Dil. HNO3 3: 1
Q. 3. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Aqua regia is a strong oxidising agent.
(b) Aqua regia is a strong reducing agent.
(c) Aqua regia dissolves gold in it.
(d) Aqua regia is a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid.
Q. 4. Aqua regia dissolves:

(a) Gold and platinum
(b) Gold and silver
(c) Platinum and silver
(d) Only gold
Q. 5. Examples of Noble metals are:

(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Platinum
(d) All of the above
Q25. Read the following and answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.5.
Metallic Character:
The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form positive ion (cation) is known as
electro-positivity or metallic character. Down the group, metallic character increases due
to increase in atomic size and across the period, from left to right electropositivity
decreases due to decrease in atomic size.
Non-Metallic Character:
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is called non-
metallic character or electronegativity. The elements having high electro-negativity have
a higher tendency to gain electrons and form anion. Down the group, electronegativity
decreases due to increase in atomic size and across the period, from left to right electro
-negativity increases due to decrease in atomic size.
57
Q. 1. Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of metallic
character of Alkali metals plotted in the graph?
Q. 2. After completion of this reaction, a metal is obtained in the molten state. Identify
the metal:
Q. 3. The correct equation to justify thermite reaction is:

Q. 4. The correct name for Fe2O3 is:__________
Q26. Iqbal treated a lustrous, divalent element M with sodium hydroxide. He observed
the formation of bubbles in the reaction mixture. He made the same observations when
this element was treated with hydrochloric acid. Suggest how can he identify the
produced gas. Write chemical equations for both reactions.
Q27. During the extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to obtain pure metals.
(a ) Which material will be used as anode and cathode for refining silver metal in this
process?
(b ) Suggest a suitable electrolyte also.
(c ) Where do we get pure silver in this electrolytic cell after passing an electric current?
Q28. Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in
the extraction process of metal?
Q29. Generally, when metals are treated with mineral acids, hydrogen gas is liberated,
but when metals (except Mn and Mg) are treated with HNO3, hydrogen is not liberated.
Why?
Q30. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway tracks.
(a) Identify the compound X.
(b) Name the reaction.
(c) Write down its reaction.
58
Q31. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it gives a basic salt Y with the
molecular formula XOH (Molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which easily
catches fire. Identify X, Y and Z and also write the reaction involved.
Q32. A non-metal X exists in two different forms, Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural
substance, whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z
Q33. The following reaction takes place when the aluminium powder is heated with
MnO2
3 MnO2 (s) + 4 Al (s) → 3 Mn (I) + 2 Al2O3 (l) + Heat
(a ) Is aluminium getting reduced?
(b ) Is MnO2 getting oxidised?
Q34. What are the constituents of solder alloy? Which property of solder makes it
suitable for welding electrical wires?
Q35. A metal A, which is used in the thermite process, when heated with oxygen, gives
an oxide B, which is amphoteric in nature. Identify A and B. Write down the reactions of
oxide B with HI and NaOH.
Q36. A metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature is obtained by heating its
sulphide in the presence of air. Identify the metal and its ore and give the reaction
involved.
Q37. Give the formulae of the stable binary compounds that would be formed by the
combination of the following pairs of elements.
(a) Mg and N2
(b) Li and O2
(c) Al and Cl2
(d) K and O2
Q38. What happens when
(a) ZnCO3 is heated without oxygen?
(b) A mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S is heated?
Q39. A non-metal A is an important constituent of our food and forms two oxides, B and
C. Oxide B is toxic. In contrast, C causes global warming
(a) Identify A, B, and C
(b) To which Group of Periodic Table does A belong?
59
Q40. Name one metal and one non-metal that exist in the liquid state at room
temperature. Also, name two metals having a melting point of less than 310 K (37°C)
Q41. Element A reacts with water to form a compound B used in whitewashing. The
compound B on heating forms an oxide C which gives back B on treatment with water.
Identify A, B and C and give the reactions involved.
Q42. An alkali metal A gives a compound B (molecular mass = 40) on reacting with
water. Compound B gives a soluble compound C on treatment with aluminium oxide.
Identify A, B and C and give the reaction involved.
Q43. Give the reaction involved during extraction of zinc from its ore by
(a) Roasting of zinc ore
(b) Calcination of zinc ore
Q44. Metal M does not liberate hydrogen from acids but reacts with oxygen to give a
black colour product. Identify M and black coloured products and explain M’s reaction
with oxygen.
Q45. We kept a solution of CuSO4 in an iron pot. After a few days, the iron pot was
found to have several holes in it. Explain the reason in terms of reactivity. Write the
equation of the reaction involved.
Q46. A non-metal A, the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in a 1:3 ratio in
the presence of a catalyst (Fe), gives a gas B. On heating with Oz, it gives an oxide C. If
this oxide is passed into the water in the presence of air, it gives an acid D which acts
as a strong oxidising agent.
(a) Identify A, B, C, and D
(b) To which group of periodic tables does this non-metal belong?
Q47. Give the steps involved in extracting low and medium reactivity metals from their
respective sulphide ores.
Q48. Explain the following
(a) Reactivity of Al decreases if it is dipped in HNO3
(b) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg
(c) NaCl is not a conductor of electricity in solid-state, whereas it does conduct
electricity in aqueous solution as well as in the molten state
(d) Iron articles are galvanised.
(e) Metals like Na, K, Ca and Mg are never found in their free state in nature.
60
Q49. (i) Given below are the steps for extraction of copper from its ore.
Write the reaction involved.
(a) Roasting of copper (1) sulphide
(b) Reduction of copper (1) oxide with copper (1) sulphide.
(c) Electrolytic refining.
Draw a neat and well labelled diagram for electrolytic refining of copper.
Q50. An element A burns with golden flame in the air. It reacts with another element B,
atomic number 17, to give a product C. An aqueous solution of product C on electrolysis
gives a compound D and liberates hydrogen. Identify A, B, C and D. Also, write down
the equations for the reactions involved.
61
CHAPTER 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND
Q1) The electronic configuration of an element is found to be 2, 4. How many bonds can
one carbon atom form in a compound?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Q2) The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of
sunlight.
CH4 + Cl4 → X
What is likely to be the product of the reaction represented by “X”?
(a) CH4+ H2SO4
(b) CH3Cl + HCl
(c) CHCl3 + HCl
(d) CH3Cl + H2SO4
Q3-Soaps are formed by saponification of
(a) Alcohols
(b) Glycosides
(c) Simple esters
(d) Carboxylic acids.
Q4-Which of the given can be used for the denaturation of ethyl alcohol?
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Pyridines
(c) Copper sulphate
(d) All of these
Q5-Vinegar is a solution of
(a) 30% – 40% acetic acid in alcohol
(b) 5% – 8% acetic acid in alcohol
(c) 5% – 8% acetic acid in water
(d) 15% -20% acetic acid in water
Q6-Covalent compounds
(a) Have high melting and boiling point
(b) Are mostly soluble in water
(c) Are formed between atoms of metals and non-metals
(d) Are formed by the sharing of electrons in the bonding atoms
62
Q7) A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon
compound bear?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Methane
(d) Propane
Q8) The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in the
presence of sunlight.
CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl
How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon compound in the presence of sunlight?
(a) it adds hydrogen into the compound
(b) it adds an oxygen atom into the compound
(c) it substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound
(d) it breaks double and triple bonds into a single bond
Q9) Which of the given is used to oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid?
(a) Alkaline KMnO₄
(b) Conc. H₂SO₄
(c) Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇
(d) All of these
Q10) A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes
during winter. What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic
acid?
(a) it has a low boiling point
(b) it has a low melting point
(c) it has a very high boiling point
(d) it has a very high melting point
Q11) Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?
(a) C4H10
(b) C4H6
(c) C4H8
(d) C4H4
63
Q12) A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end
and the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap
molecule with oil?
(a) ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil
(b) the closest end of the soap interacts with the oil
(c) carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil
(d) ends of the soap randomly interact with the oil
Q13) Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all
are-
(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) saturated compounds
(c) aliphatic compounds
(d) differ from each other by a CH2 group
Q14) Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?

C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4
(a) C6H6
(b) C2H6
(c) C2H4
(d) C3H4
Q15) A student studies that soap solution results in micelle formation which helps to
remove dirt. It has a unique orientation which helps in keeping the dirt out of the water
as shown in the image.
What helps the dirt to rise away?
(a) suspension of the dirt in the micelles
(b) a collection of water molecules in the centre of the micelle
(c) attraction between the ionic end and the dirt to remove it
(d) mixing of the soap molecules along with the dirt to make it heavier
Q16) Choose the correct statement

(a) The ethene molecule is made up of 2 carbon atoms and 4 hydrogen atoms.
(b) Each carbon atom shares three electrons with three hydrogen atoms to form
three carbon-hydrogen single covalent bonds.
(c) In ethane, the two carbon atoms share one pair of electrons among themselves
to form one carbon-carbon single covalent bond.
(d) All the above.
64
Q17) Following is (are) the property(ies) of ionic compounds.
(a) They have high melting and boiling points
(b) They conduct electricity in solution or in molten state
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Q18) Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?

(a) Of all the fullerene, C60 allotrope is the most stable.
(b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball.
(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings.
(d) Its hardness is lower than that of diamond.
Q19) How many single bonds are present in methane?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
Q20) A hydrocarbon should have a minimum of how many carbon atoms to show
isomerism?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Fived
(d) Six
21. Draw the structures of the following compounds

(a) Ethanoic acid
(b) Bromo pentane
22.What is a homologous series? State any two characteristics of homologous series?

23.Name the functional groups present in the following compounds?
(i)
(ii)
24. a) How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
b) Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?
25. A cyclic compound ‘X’ has molecular formula . It is unsaturated and burns with
sooty flame. Identify ‘X’ and write its structural formula
65
(a) Define the term isomers?
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write
their names.
26. a) What is the next higher homologue of C3H7OH? What is its formula and what is it
called?
b) Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling point. Why?
27. a) How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane, C2H6?
b) Write the electron dot structure of ethene molecule, C2H4.
28. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i) C2H5Cl
(ii) C2H5OH
29. a) Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds
having functional group – OH.
b) Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having
functional group – COOH.
30. a) Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having
general formula CnH2n
b) Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general
formula CnH2n+2.
31- a) How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane C2H6?
b) Write the next homologue of each of the following:
(i) C2H4
(ii) C4H6
c) Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following:
C3H6; C5H10; C4H10; C6H14; C2H4
32. What is meant by isomers? “We cannot have isomers of first three members of
alkane series.” Give reason to justify this statement. Draw the structures of two isomers
of pentane, C5H12.
33.What are homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of
two consecutive members of homologous series of aldehydes. State which part of these
compounds determines their:
(i) physical and (ii) chemical properties.
34.What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general
formula of (i) alkenes, and (ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each
series to show the bonding between the two carbon atoms.
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35. Define the term ‘structural isomerism’. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this
property. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C4H10.
36. List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Name the type
of bonding found in most of its compounds. Why does carbon form compounds mainly
by this kind of bonding?
37.Give reason why the carbon compounds

(i) generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) do not conduct electricity in molten state.
38. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List
their three characteristic properties
39.Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of
possible isomers of butane, C4H10.
40. What are hydrocarbons? Write the name and general formula of:
(i) saturated hydro-carbons,
(ii) unsaturated hydrocarbons, and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of each type.
41.
(a) Define the term ‘isomers’.
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write
their names.
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above two compounds.
42. State the reason why carbon can neither from C4+ cations C4- anions, but forms
covalent compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds:
(a) are bad conductors of electricity?
(b) have low melting and boiling points?
43. Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas configuration by either gaining
or losing electrons from their outermost shells. Give reason to explain why carbon
cannot attain noble gas configuration in this manner to form its compounds. Name the
type of bonds formed in ionic compounds and in the compounds formed by carbon. Also
give reason why carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
44. Give reasons for the following:
(i)Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii)Diamond has a high melting point.
(iii)Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
45.An element M with electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 combines separately with (NO3)-

and (PO4)-3 radicals. Write the formula of two compounds formed. Will M form covalent
or ionic compound. Justify your answer.
67
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
Q.46. Assertion(A) : Carbon is the only element that can form large number of
compounds.
Reason (R) : Carbon is tetravalent and shows the property of catenation.
Q.47. Assertion(A) : If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third
member will be propanal.
Reason (R) : All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical
properties.
Q.48. Assertion(A) : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.

Reason (R) : Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the
same physical state. These forms are called allotropes.
Q.49 Assertion(A) : Soaps are not suitable for washing purpose when water is hard.
Reason (R) : Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Q.50. Assertion(A) : Carbon compounds can form chain, branched and ring structures.
Reason (R) : Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.
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CHAPTER 10. LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point
source is incident on it?
(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens
(b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other
(d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
2. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long

image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this
mirror is
(a) – 30 cm
(b) – 20 cm
(c) – 40 cm
(d) – 60 cm
3. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger
than the actual object?
(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
(b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length
(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
(d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature
4. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should
an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror
5. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
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6. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front
of it
7. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in below Figure. The
refractive index of medium B relative to A will be
(a) greater than unity

(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero
8. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through
the holes C and D respectively as shown in the below Figure. Which of the following
could be inside the box?
(a) A rectangular glass slab

(b) A convex lens
(c) A concave lens
(d) A prism
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9. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes
on the other face of the box as shown in the below Figure. Which of the following could
be inside the box?
(a) Concave lens

(b) Rectangular glass slab
(c) Prism
(d) Convex lens
11. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror
12. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
13. The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
14. In which of the following mirrors, image of an object is always virtual, erect and
smaller in size than the size of object?
(a) convex mirror
(b) concave mirror
(c) plane mirror
(d) none of the these
15. A boy runs towards a plane mirror with a velocity of 2m/s. With what speed will her
image move towards him?
(a) 2m/s
(b) 0
(c) 4m/s
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16. The linear magnification of the concave lens is always positive but less than one.
This is because
(a) concave lens forms real images only.
(b) concave lens forms virtual images only.
(c) concave lens forms virtual, erect and diminished images irrespective of the position
of the object.
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION (1 MARK)
1. Assertion(A): Concave mirrors are used as make-up mirrors.

Reason (R): When the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then a
diminished image of the face is seen in the concave mirror.
2. Assertion(A): The formula connecting u, v and f for a spherical mirror is valid in all
situations for all spherical mirrors for all positions of the object.
Reason (R): Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces.
3. Assertion(A): The mirrors used in search lights are concave spherical.

Reason (R): In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
4. Assertion(A): For observing traffic at back, the driver mirror is convex mirror.
Reason (R): A convex mirror has much larger field of view than a plane mirror.
5. Assertion(A): Virtual images are always erect.

Reason (R): Virtual images are formed by converging lenses only.
6. Assertion (A): Higher the Refractive index of the medium lesser will be the speed of
light in that Medium.
Reason (R): Refractive index is inversely proportional to the speed of light.
7. Assertion (A): Mirror Formula cannot be used for Plane Mirrors

Reason (R): Plane Mirror is a Spherical Mirror of Infinite Focal Length.
8. Assertion (A): Light changes its speed when it passes from one medium to another.
Reason (R): When a ray travels from vacuum to a medium, then refractive index is
known as absolute refractive index.
9. Assertion (A): Large Concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce
heat in solar cookers.
Reason (R): Concave mirror converges the light rays falling on it to a point.
10. Assertion(A): Light travels faster in water than air

Reason (R): Water is denser than Air.
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11. Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light
and violet light.
Reason (R): Refractive Index of a pair of medium does not depend on the wavelength
of the light used.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The power of a lens is – 40, what is its focal length?
2. State laws of reflection.
3. What are the properties of image formed by a plane mirror?
4. Give two uses of convex mirror.
5. What is refractive index?
6. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a concave lens for the object
placed at infinity.
7. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when it travels through glass slab.
8. State the lens formula and mirror formula.
9. The refractive index of water is 1.33 and kerosene is 1.44 calculate the refractive
index of kerosene with respect to water.
10. Draw and explain the ray diagram formed by a convex mirror when:
(a) object is at infinity.
(b) object is at finite distance from the mirror.
11. Differentiate between concave lens and convex lens.
(a) Name two mirrors used in this fair shop.
(b) Name the mirror in which the size of image is small.
12. Name two types of spherical mirror.
13. Give uses of concave mirror.
14. Give uses of convex mirror.
15. What are the two types of refractive index?
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16. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
17. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
(a) Headlights of a car.
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle.
(c) Solar furnace.
18. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
19. Find the focal length of a lens of power –2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
20. An incident ray makes an angle of 60° with the mirror. What is the angle of
reflection?
21. Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium into another?
22. The power of a lens is –4.0 D. What is the nature of this lens?
23. Which type of mirrors are used to give an erect and enlarged image of an object?
24. Which kind of mirrors are used in the headlights of a motor-car and why?
1. State the laws of reflection of light.
2. What are the properties of the image formed by plane mirror?
3. Define pole and centre of curvature of spherical mirrors.
4. Give the uses of concave mirrors.
5. Give the uses of convex mirrors.
6. Give the laws of refraction of light.
8. What is absolute refractive index of the medium?
9. Two medium with refractive index 1.31 and 1.50 are given. In which case
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10. (i) bending of light is more?
(ii) speed of light is more?
11. When a ray of light entering from air is incident on the surface of a glass slab at an
angle of 90°, what will be the measure of angle of refraction. Why does a ray change its
path when it passes from one medium to another medium?
12. Refractive index of kerosene oil is 1.44 and that of water is 1.33. A ray of light
entersfrom kerosene oil to water. Where would light ray bend and why?
13. Which is optically denser out of the two medium M1 = 1.71 (refractive index) and M2
= 1.36 (refractive index). How does speed of light change when it travels from optically
rarer to denser medium.
14. Draw a ray diagram of image formed when an object is placed in front of convex
lens (i) beyond 2 f and (ii) between f and 2f.
15. State the mirror formula, lens formula and power of lens.
16. Define power of lens. What is the S. I. unit of power of a lens? If power of lens is
+2D.
17. What is the nature and focal length of the lens?
18. If the speed of light in water is 2.25 × 10^8 m/s and the speed in vacuum is
3×108m/s. Calculate the refractive index of water.
19. The refractive index of water is 1.33 and kerosene is 1.44. Calculate the refractive
index of kerosene with respect to water.
20. Draw ray diagrams to show the image formed by a concave lens for the object
placed at (i) infinity (ii) Between f and 2f of the lens.
21. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when it travels through glass slab.
22. Draw the following diagram in your answer book and show the formation of image of
the object AB with the help of suitable rays.
23. An object of 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 64 cm from a white screen on

placing a convex lens at a distance of 32 cm from the object it is found that a distant
image of the object is formed on the screen. What is the focal length of the convex lens
and size of the image formed on the screen? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation
of the image in this position of the object with respect to the lens.
75
24. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. At what distance from the lens should the
object be placed so that it gives a real and inverted image 20 cm away from the lens?
What would be the size of the image formed if the object is 2 cm high? With the help of
a ray diagram show the formation of the image by the lens in this case.
25. Draw the given diagram in your answer book and complete it for the path of ray of
light beyond the lens.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. A convex lens has a focal length of 12 cm. At what distance from the lens should an
object of height 6 cm be placed so that on the other side of the lens its real and inverted
image is formed 24 cm away from the lens? What would be the size of the image
formed? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed in this case.
2. A convex lens has a focal length of 15 cm. At what distance from the lens should the
object be placed so that is forms on its other side a real and inverted image 30 cm away
from the lens? What would be the size of image formed if the object is 5 cm high? With
the help of a ray diagram show the formation of the image by the lens in this case.
3. Draw and explain the ray diagram formed by a convex mirror when (a) object is at
infinity. (b) object is at finite distance from the mirror.
4. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations:
(i) Rear view mirror in vehicles (ii) Solar furnace (iii) Torch (iv) Solar cooker (v) To get
the full length image of tall building.
5. With the help of a ray diagram show the position, size and the nature of the image
formed by a convex lens for various positions of the object.
6. With the help of a ray diagram show the position, size and the nature of the image
formed by a concave mirror for various positions of the object.
7. Explain refraction through glass slab with necessary diagrams
8. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of focal

length 20 cm.
(i) What should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be bigger or smaller than the object?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
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9. One-half of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm is covered with a black paper.
(i) Will the lens produce a complete image of the object?
(ii) Show the formation of image of an object placed at 2F1 of such covered lens with
the help of a ray diagram.
(iii) How will the intensity of the image formed by half covered lens compare with non-
covered lens?
10. Draw ray diagrams to represent the nature, position and relative size of the image
formed by a convex lens for the object placed:
(a) At 2F
(b) Between F1 and the optical centre O of lens
11. Comment on the size, position of the image formed by a concave mirror of focal
length 18 cm when an object is placed in front of mirror:
(i) at 22 cm (ii) 14 cm (ii) 40 cm.
13. Two medium with refractive index 1.31 and 1.50 are given. In which case
(i) bending of light is more?
(ii) speed of light is more?
14. Give the uses of concave mirror and convex lens.
15. a)Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
b) Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
c) Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
d) concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object
placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located?
16. Write laws of refraction. Explain the same with the help of ray diagram, when a ray
of light passes through a rectangular glass slab.
17. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a concave lens when an object
is placed
(a) at the focus of the lens
(b) between focus and twice the focal length of the lens
(c) beyond twice the focal length of the lens
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18. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex mirror when an object
is placed
(a) at infinity
(b) at finite distance from the mirror
19. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained on a screen placed on the
other side of the lens. If the image is three times the size of the flame and the distance
between lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed from
the lens? What is the nature of the image at a distance of 80 cm and the lens?
20. Size of image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to

be reduced to 1/3rd of its size. At what distance the object has been placed from the
mirror? What is the nature of the image and the mirror?
21. Define power of a lens. What is its unit? One student uses a lens of focal length 50
cm and another of –50 cm. What is the nature of the lens and its power used by each of
them?
22. A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex
lens. He noted down the position of the candle screen and the lens as under Position of
candle = 12.0 cm Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
(ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position
of 31.0 cm?
(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if he further shifts the candle towards
the lens?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (iii) as said above.
23. (a) State the relationship between object distance, image distance and focal length
of a spherical mirror.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when an
object is placed between pole and focus of the mirror.
(c) A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an image of an object kept at a
distance of 10cm from the mirror. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed
by it.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. The spherical mirror forms different types of images when the object is placed at
different locations. When the image is formed on screen, the image is real and when the
image does not form on screen, the image is virtual. When the two reflected rays meet
actually, the image is real and when they appear to meet, the image is virtual.
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A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image for different positions of the
object. But if the object is placed between the focus and pole. the image formed is virtual
and erect.
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image. A concave mirror is
used as doctor’s head mirror to focus light on body parts like eyes, ears, nose etc., to be
examined because it can form erect and magnified image of the object. The convex mirror
is used as a rear view mirrors in automobiles because it can form an small and erect
image of an object.
(i) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image
formed is
(ii) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is
likely to be
(iii) A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger,
the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The
following is the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(iv) To get an image larger than the object, one can use
(v) A convex mirror has wider field of view because
2. An image formed in a convex mirror is always virtual, erect and smaller in size
whatever be the position of the object. However in a concave mirror the image may be
real or virtual: erect or inverted :smaller or bigger in size than the object. This would
depend upon the distance of the object from the mirror.
1. A Concave mirror is used as reflector in
2. In street lamps, the reflector used is a
3. Which of the mirrors has larger field of view?
4. Real or virtual image of an object formed by a concave mirror depends on
3. The image of an object formed by a convex lens may be real/virtual: erect/inverted;

smaller/larger than the object. It would depend upon distance of the object from the
lens. however, the image of an object formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect
and smaller in size than the object.
1. To obtain image of an object on a screen jwe require a
2. Where an object should be placed in front of a concave lens to obtain a virtual image
of the object?
3. Where should an object be placed in front or a convex lens to obtain image of the
size of the object?
4. To obtain an image smaller than the size of the object, we may use a
79
CHAPTER11. HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
1. Which is the outermost covering of the eye?

a. Sclerotic
b. Cornea
c. Iris
d. Pupil
2. Through which part of the eye the light coming from the object enters into the eyes?
a. Retina
b. Choroid
c. Cornea
d. Iris
3. The lens in our eyes is a
a. concave lens.
b. convex lens.
c. plano-convex lens.
d. concavo-convex lens.
4. A spot behind the pupil and situated on the retina is called
a. red spot.
b. black spot.
c. blind spot.
d. yellow spot.
5. The image formed on the retina is retained by it for about of a second.
a. 1/15th
b. 1/16th
c. 1/18th
d. 1/20th
6. The range of vision of a normal human eye is from infinity to about
a. 30 cm.
b. 45 cm.
c. 25 cm.
d. 15 cm.
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7. Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the eye?
a. Iris
b. Cornea
c. Pupil
d. Lens
8. The defect of vision which cannot be corrected by using spectacles is
a. myopia.
b. hypermetropia.
c. presbyopia.
d. cataract.
9. A person who cannot see nearby objects distinctly is a case of
a. myopia.
b. hypermetropia.
c. presbyopia.
d. cataract.
10. Which lens is prescribed to be used in the spectacles for correcting a myopic defect?
a. Concave lens
b. Convex lens
c. Cylindrical lens
d. Bifocal lens
11. For a dual eye effect, lens prescribed is
a. convex lens.
b. concave lens.
c. bifocal lens.
d. plano-convex lens.
12. A person who cannot see distant objects clearly. His vision can be corrected by using
spectacles containing
a. concave lenses.
b. plane lenses.
c. contact lenses.
d. convex lenses.
13. In which defect of vision the power of accommodation of the eye decreases with
aging?
a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbyopia d. Cataract
81
14. To correct presbyopia defect, the elderly people need to use spectacles with a
a. concave lens.
b. bifocal lens.
c. contact lens.
d. convex lens.
15. The defect of vision due to progressive clouding of the lens of the eye is
a. presbyopia.
b. cataract.
c. myopia.
d. hypermetropia.
16. The colour of light that bends least on passing through a prims is
a. violet.
b. green.
c. indigo.
d. red.
17. The colour of white light that undergoes maximum bending on passing through a
prism is
a. violet.
b. red.
c. blue.
d. yellow.
18. Which colour of light has the highest wavelength?
a. Violet
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
19. The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass prism is
called
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. deflection.
d. dispersion.
20. Which of the following colour of white light has the least wavelength?
a. Red
b. Orange
c. Violet
d. Blue
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21. Formation of a rainbow in the sky is the result of
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. dispersion.
d. a combination of dispersion, refraction and reflection of light.
22 Twinkling of stars is due to the phenomenon of atmospheric
a. reflection.
b. refraction.
c. deflection.
d. scattering.
23. The colour of the sky appears blue due to of light.
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. scattering
d. dispersion
24. The red colour of the sun at the time of sunrise and sunset is because
a. red colour is least scattered.
b. blue colour is least scattered.
c. red colour is most scattered.
d. blue colour is most scattered.
25. Tyndall effect is related to
a. reflection of light.
b. scattering of light.
c. refraction of light.
d. dispersion of light.
26. A glass prism splits the white light into colours.
a. six
b. eight
c. seven
d. nine
27. The water droplets over the cloud act like small .
a. lenses
b. spheres
c. triangles
d. prisms
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28. Intensity of scattered light varies inversely as the power of the wavelength of incident
light.
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th
29. Which colour of light can easily pass through fog without getting scattered?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Orange
d. Yellow
30. How many times is the wavelength of red light greater than that of blue light?
a. 1.5 times
b. 1.6 times
c. 1.7 times
d. 1.8 times
1. Assertion(A): A prism can split the incident white light into bands of different colours.
Reason(R): The different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to
the incident rays.
2. Assertion(A): The angle of incidence and the angle of emergence are equal.
Reason(R): The angle of refraction and the angle of deviation are not equal.
3. Assertion(A): Rainbow is formed in the sky due to the dispersion of sunlight by water
droplets.
Reason(R): Light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more than the light of longer
wavelength.
4. Assertion(A): The light of violet colour deviates the most and the light of red colour
the least, while passing through a prism.
Reason(R): For a prism material, refractive index is highest for red light and lowest for
violet light.
5. Assertion(A): The stars twinkle, while the planets do not.

Reason (R): The stars are much bigger in size than the planets.
6. Assertion: The path of light is visible due to scattering of light.

Reason (R): Tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light.
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7. Assertion: Rainbow is an example of the dispersion of sunlight by the water droplets.
Reason (R): Light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more than light of larger
wavelength.
1. Define the term dispersion of white light. State the colour which bends (i) the least
and (ii) the most while passing through a glass prism.
2. Give reason:
(i) The extend of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a glass prism depends on
its colour. (ii) Light of red colour are used for danger signals.
3. What is meant by spectrum of white light? How can we recombine the components of
white light after a prism has separated them?
4. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should
be the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision? Draw the corresponding
diagram.
5. Define near point and far point of human eye. What is the value of far point and near
point of the human eye with normal vision?
6. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What
could be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
7. A person needs a lens of power -5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For
correcting his near vision he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal
length of the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision?
8. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and
power of the lens required to correct the problem?
9. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a

hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect?
Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
10. A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is this effect
called? State the reason for this effect.
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1.How does refraction takes place in the atmosphere? Why do stars twinkle but not the
planets?
2. Give reason for the following

(a) Danger signals are red in colour
(b) Sun is visible two minutes before actual sunrise
(c) Sky appears to be blue
(d) Stars appears to twinkle
3 Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled ray
diagram. Hence define the angle of deviation.
4. A student cannot see clearly a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance 3 metre
from his eye. (i) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. List two causes.
5. (a) What is dispersion of white light? What is the cause of such dispersion? Draw a
diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. (b) A glass prism is able
to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a glass slab does not
produce any spectrum. Explain why is it so?
6. (a) Explain the following terms used in relation to defects in vision and correction
provided by them: (i) Myopia (ii) Bifocal lenses (iii) Far-sightedness.
(b) Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object placed within 10 cm from the
eye?
7. What is Tyndall effect? What ¡s its cause? Explain two phenomena observed in daily
life which are based on Tyndall effect.
8. What is hypermetropia? List two causes. Draw a diagram to illustrate this defect. Also
show a diagram how this defect can be corrected using a lens.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven constituent colors when it
passes through a glass prism is called dispersion of white light. The various colors seen
are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. The sequence of colors
remembers as VIBGYOR. The band of seven colors is called the spectrum.
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1. What happens when white light is passed from air to glass prism?
2. Which Color deviates most in the formation of spectrum of white light by a prism?
3. The angle between incident ray and emergent ray of a prism is called .
2. Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through

earth’s atmosphere. As we move above the surface of earth, density of air goes on
decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc. also affect the optical density of
earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric refraction, stars seen appear higher
than they actual are; advanced sunrise; delayed sunset, oval appearance of the sun at
sunrise and sunset; stars twinkle, planets do not.
1. Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day.

2. Apparent position of the star appears raised due to
3. The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to
4. Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by
5. In absence of atmosphere, the colour of sky appears
CHAPTER 12. ELECTRICITY

1. When a current 'I' flows through a resistance 'R' for time’t’ the electrical energy spent
is given by
A. IRt
B. I2Rt
C. IR2 t
D. I2R/t
2. Which of the given is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
A. Ohm
B. Ampere
C. Volt
D. Faraday
3. The relation between potential difference (V) and current (I) is :
A. V α I2
B. V α 1/I
C. V2 α I
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D. V α I
4. An electric heater is rated at 2 Kw. Electrical energy costs Rs 4 per k Wh. What is the
cost of using the heater for 3 hours?
A. Rs. 12
B. Rs. 24
C. Rs. 36
D. Rs. 48
5. A car headlight bulb working on a 12 V car battery draws a current of 0.5 A. The
resistance of the light bulb is:
A. 0.5 Ω
B. 6 Ω
C. 12 Ω
D. 24 Ω
6. When the current passing through each resistor is same, the circuit is called
(a) series circuit
(b) parallel circuit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
7. In parallel circuit, which of the following is same across resistors

(a) Current
(b) Potential difference
(c) Resistance
(d) Resistivity
8. When resistance is doubled at constant voltage, current will become.

(a) 1/2
(b) 2 times
(c)1/4
(d) 4 times
9. Resistance in a circuit if current flowing is doubled will become

(a) double
(b) half
(c) four times
(d) remains same
10. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then
connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio
R/R′ is
(a) 1/25
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 25
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11. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameter
are first connected in series and then in parallel in a circuit across the same potential
difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
For question numbers 1 and 2 two statements are given-one labeled as Assertion (a)
and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
1. Assertion: Resistance depends on length and area of cross-section of material and

temperature.
Reason: Resistivity is a characteristic property of material.
2. Assertion: Fuse wire is thin and has high resistance.

Reason: Alloys do not oxidise readily at high temperature.
3.Assertion: In parallel circuit, the current is divided into electrical gadgets, therefore,
used in domestic circuit.
Reason: The resistance in parallel circuit decreases, therefore, useful.
4. Assertion: Fairy lights circuit is connected in series connection.

Reason: In series combination, if one component fails then complete circuit is broken.
5. Assertion: Electric toasters are made up of alloys.

Reason: Alloys have high resistivity and do not get oxidised at high temperature.
6. Assertion: The commercial unit of electrical energy is 1 kWs

Reason: 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J.
7. Assertion: A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the mainline.

Reason: If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire
melts.
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1. Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power.
2. What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules.
3. V-I graph for two wires A and B are shown in the figure. If both wires are of
same length and same thickness, which of the two is made of a material of high
resistivity? Give justification for your answer.
4. An electric oven rated at 500 W is connected to a 220 V line and used for 2
hours daily. Calculate the cost of electric energy for a month of 30 days at the
rate of Rs. 5 per kW h.
5. Two wires A and B are of equal length and have equal resistance. If the
resistivity of A is more than that of B which wire is thicker and why?
6. An electric bulb of resistance 200Ω draws a current of 1 Ampere. Calculate the

power of the bulb the potential difference at its ends and the energy in kWh
consumed burning it for 5h.
7. 14. An electric heater of 1000 W is used for two hours in a day? What is the
cost of using it for a month of 28 days, if one unit costs 3.00 rupees?
8. A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once
again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change?
9. An electric iron has a rating of 750 W, 220 V. Calculate the (i) current flowing
through it, and (ii) its resistance when in use.
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10. What will be the reading of the Ammeter (A) and the Voltmeter(V), when the
key is closed in the below circuit diagram.
11. Study the following electric circuit and find (i) the current flowing in the circuit
and (ii) the potential difference across 10 Ω resistor.
12. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors Shown
in the figure.
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13. A current of 6 A enters one corner P of an equilateral triangle PQR having 3
wires of resistances 2 Ω each and leaves by the corner R. Find the current I 1
and I2.
14. What would be the rating of the fuse for an electric kettle which is operated at
220 V and consumes 500 W power? What will be the power consumed by the
same kettle when the operated potential difference is 110 V.
15. For the electric circuit given below calculate:
(i) Current in each resistor,

(ii) Total current drawn from the battery, and
(iii) Equivalent resistance of the Circuit
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16. Find the current flowing through the following electric circuit.
17. Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 30 days, if the following devices
are used as specified:
a.two bulbs of 40W for six hours.
b.two tubelights of 50W for eight hours
c.A TV of 120W for six hours.
d.Give the rate of electricity is 2.50 rupees per unit?
18. (a) Calculate the resistance of 1 km long copper wire of radius 1 mm. Resistivity of
the copper is 1.72 x 10-8 Ω m.
(b) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 4 cells of
2V each connected to a key, an ammeter and two resistors of 2 Ω and
3 Ω respectively in series and a voltmeter to measure potential difference across 3.
19. An electric bulb is rated at 60 W, 240 V. Calculate its resistance. If the voltage drops
to 192 V, calculate the power consumed and the current drawn by the bulb. (Assume
that the resistance of the bulb remain unchanged.)
20. Consider the following circuit diagram. If R1 = R2 =R3 = R4= R5 = 3 Ω, find the
equivalent resistance(Rs) of the circuit.
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21. A torch bulb is rated 2.5 V and 750 mA. Calculate (i) its power, (ii) its resistance and
(iii) the energy consumed, if this bulb is lighted for four hours
22. Five resistors are connected in a circuit as shown. Find the ammeter reading when
circuit is closed.
23. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 Ω so that the
equivalent resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5 Ω, (ii) 6 Ω?
24. If three resistors of 6 Ω, 9 Ω and 21 Ω are connected in series to a 12 V battery,
find: (a) The total resistance of the circuit. (b) The current flowing through the circuit. (c)
The potential difference across the 21 Ω resistor.
25. An electric lamp of 100 W, a toaster of resistance 50 W, and a water filter of
resistance 500 W are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of
an electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all the
three appliances, and what is the current flowing through it?
26. State Ohm’s law. How can this law be verified experimentally? Does Ohm’s law hold
good under all conditions.
27. (a) Define electrical energy with S.I. unit?

(b) A house hold uses the following electric appliance;
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400w for ten hour each day.
(ii) Two electric fans of rating 80w each for twelve hours each day.
(iii) Six electric tubes of rating 18w each for 6hours each day.
Calculate the electricity bill of the household for the month of June if the cost per unit of
electric energy is Rs. 3.00.
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28. What is Joule’s heating effect? List applications of Joule’s heating effect in daily life.
29. Two wires A and B are of equal length, different cross sectional areas and made of
same metal.
(a)(i) Name the property which is same for both the wires,
(ii) Name the property which is different for both the wires.
(b)If the resistance of wire A is four times the resistance of wire B, calculate
(i) the ratio of the cross sectional areas of the wires and
(ii) The ratio of the radii of the wire.
30. (a) State ohm’s law?

(b) The value of (I) current following through a conductor for the corresponding valves of
(V)potential difference are given below
Plot a graph between V and I and also calculate resistance.
31. Redraw the circuit of question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current
through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12
Ώ resistors. What would be the reading in the ammeter and voltmeter?
32. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery
instead of connecting them in series?
33. How can three resistors of resistance 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω be connected to give a total
resistance of (a) 4 Ω (b) 9 Ω?
34. The value of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of
potential difference V across the resistor are given below:
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
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35. Explain the following
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and
electric irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(d) How does the resistance of wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(e) Why are copper and aluminum wires usually employed for electric transmission?
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)
36. Ohm’s law gives the relationship between current flowing through a conductor with
potential difference across it provided the physical conditions and temperature remains
constant. The electric current flowing in a circuit can be measured by an ammeter.
Potential difference is measured by voltmeter connected in parallel to the battery or cell.
Resistances can reduce current in the circuit. A variable resistor or rheostat is used
to vary the current in the circuit.
(i) What type of conductor is represented by the following graph?
(ii) What type of conductors are represented by the following graph?
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(iii) Which type of conductor is represented by the graph given alongside?
(iv) Which of the following is the factor on which resistance of a conductor does not
depend?
37. Study this table related to material and their resistivity and answer the questions that
follow.
(i) What is the range of resistivity in metals, good conductors of electricity?

(ii) Which property of the alloy makes it useful in heating devices like electric
iron, toasters, immersion rods, etc.?
(iii) Which of the following is used in transmission wires?
(iv) Which is the best conducting metal?
(v) Which of the following is used as a filament in electric bulbs?
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CHAPTER 13. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
1. Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of force
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the
north pole of a magnetic compass needle will point
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field
lines
2. If the key in the arrangement is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic
field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are
(a) concentric circles

(b) elliptical in shape
(c) straight lines parallel to each other
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it
3. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current
when the key is ON. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and
on the axis of the coil) is anti clockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field
lines point from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large
4. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

(a) is zero.
(b) decreases as we move towards its end.
(c) increases as we move towards its end.
(d) is the same at all points.
5. Which of the following property of a proton can change while it enters freely in a
magnetic field? (There may be more than one correct answer.)
(a) mass
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(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) moment
6. For the current in a long straight solenoid N- and S-poles are created at the two ends.
Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that
the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a
piece of magnetic material like soft iron core, when placed inside the coil
(c) The pattern of magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the
pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet
(d) The N- and S-poles exchange positions when the direction of current through the
solenoid is reversed
1. Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect.

Reason: Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
2. Assertion: A compass needle gets defected when electric current is passed through
the nearly metallic wire.
Reason: The S.I unit of magnetic field strength is Oersted.
3. Assertion: Compass is a small magnet and gives direction of magnetic field lines.
Reason: It gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet.
4.Assertion: A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.

Reason: When soft iron is placed inside the solenoid it can also be magnetised.
1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
2. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other?
3. A current through a horizontal power line flows from east to west direction. What is
the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below it and at a point directly above it?
4. If in a straight wire ‘A’, current is flowing in vertically downward direction whereas in

the straight wire ‘B’ current is flowing in vertically upward direction. What is the direction
of magnetic field (a) in wire ‘A’, (b) in wire ‘B’.?
5. A bar magnet is placed between two iron bars. Draw a diagram to show the induced
poles.
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6. Identify the poles of the magnet as shown in the given figure:
7. State the direction of magnetic field inside a bar magnet.
8. Mention the special feature regarding the shape of magnetic field lines.
9. If magnetic field lines are crossed at a point, what does it indicate? Explain why two
magnetic lines of force do not intersect.
10. Draw a diagram to represent the uniform magnetic field in the region around the
magnet.
11. What type of core is used in electromagnets?
12. Draw the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conduction.
Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass
through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the
magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
13. What type of core is used to make electromagnets?
14. What type of core should be put inside a current-carrying solenoid to make an
electromagnet?
15. Give the factors on which magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid will
depend.
16. Name the factors on which force acting on a current carrying conductor will depend.
17. A beam of alpha particles enters a chamber moving along the magnetic field. What
is the magnetic force experienced by the beam?
18. When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic
field greatest?
19. What is the pattern of field lines inside a solenoid? What do they indicate?
20. How is magnetic field produced in a solenoid used?
21. What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right hand thumb rule?
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22. Suggest one way to distinguish a wire carrying current from a wire carrying no
current.
23. Why are magnetic field lines form closed curves?
24. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron
beam, moving horizontally from the back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a
strong magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
25. (a) Draw magnetic field lines of a current carrying circular loop. Identify the region
where field is strongest and why?
(b) List two properties of magnetic field lines.
26. Why and when does a current carrying conductor kept in magnetic field experiences
force? List the factors on which direction of force will depend.
27. How is the strength of magnetic field near a straight current-carrying conductor
(i) related to the strength of current in the conductor?
(ii) is affected when the direction of flow of current is reversed?
28. State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet is increased.
1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
2. What are magnetic field lines? Explain why magnetic field lines are closed curves?
3. The given magnet is divided into three parts A, B and C as:
Name the part when the strength of magnetic field is (i) maximum, (ii) minimum. How
will the density of magnetic field lines differ at these parts?
4. A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation for
the following cases, and give reason for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.
5. (a) Two magnets are lying side by side as shown below. Draw magnetic field lines
between the poles P and Q:
(b) What does the degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify?
6. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in figure A and figure B.
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Select the figure that represents the correct pattern of field lines. Give reasons for your
answer. Also name the poles of the magnets facing each other.
7. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (1) and (2).
8. The magnetic field associated with a current carrying straight conductor is in

anticlockwise direction. If the conductor was held along the east-west direction, what will
be the direction of current through it? Name and state the rule applied to determine the
direction of current.
9. (a) In a pattern of magnetic field lines due to bar magnet, how can the regions of
relative strength be identified?
(b) Compare the strength of magnetic field near the poles and the middle of a bar
magnet.
10. What are magnetic field lines? How is the direction of magnetic field at a point deter-
mined?
11. Describe an activity to determine the direction of magnetic field produced by a

current carrying straight conductor. Also show that the direction if the magnetic field is
reversed on reversing the direction of the current.
12. (i) A compass needle gets deflected when brought near a current
carrying conductor. Why?
(ii) What happens to the deflection of needle when current in the conductor is
increased?
13. Identify the type of magnetic field represented by the magnetic field lines
given below and name the type of conductors which can produce them.
14. Define a solenoid. Compare the magnetic field produced by a solenoid with
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that of a bar magnet.
15. Distinguish between a bar magnet and an electromagnet.
16. Can a freely suspended current carrying solenoid stay in any direction? Justify your
answer. What will happen when the direction of current in the solenoid is reversed?
Explain.
17. A uniform magnetic field is directed vertically upwards. In which direction in this field
forces an particle (+ve charged) be projected to that it is deflected southward? Name
and state the rule you have to use to find the direction in this force.
18. For the circular coil carrying current shown below draw magnetic field lines. Decide
which of its face behaves as north pole and which face behaves as south pole. Give
reason to justify your answer.
19. You are given three identical looking bars one of which is a magnet, the other made
of a magnetic material and the third made of a non magnetic material. Using just these
three bars how will you find out which is which?
20. Describe an activity to show magnetic field lines are produced when current is
passed through circular coil.
21. What is meant of solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave? Give its
main use.
22. With the help of diagram of experimental set up describe an activity to show that the
force acting on a current carrying conductor placed on magnetic field increases with
increase in field strength.
23. Write one application for each of the following:

(a) Right-hand Thumb Rule,
(b) Fleming’s left Hand Rule,
24. How will the magnetic field produced at a point due to a current carrying circular coil
change if we:
(i) increase the current flowing through the coil, (ii) reverse direction of current through
coil, (iii) increase the number of turns in the coil?
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25. (a) Mention the factors on which the direction of force experienced by a current
carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field will depend.
1. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure
below.
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S?
(ii) Given r1> r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the
direction of the magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight
current carrying conductor.
2. (a) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through a bar-magnet and around a
current carrying solenoid.
(b) What is the pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid and what does these
indicate?
(c) How can a solenoid be utilised to make an electromagnet? [Delhi 2015]
(d) State two ways by which the strength of this electromagnet can be increased.
3. With the help of a labelled circuit diagram describe an activity to illustrate the pattern
of the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying long conducting wire.
(i) Name the rule that is used to find the direction of magnetic field associated with a
current carrying conductor.
4. What is meant by magnetic force? Name and explain the rule to determine the
direction of force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How
does this force gets affected on:
(i) doubling the magnitude of current, (ii) reversing the direction of flow of current, (iii)
reversing the direction of magnetic field.
5. (a) State Fleming’s Left Hand rule.

(b) List three characteristic features of the electric current used in our homes.
(c) What is a fuse? Why is it called a safety device?
(d) Why is it necessary to earth metallic electrical appliances?
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6. What happens to a magnetic needle is brought close to current carrying conductor?
When,
i) Towards north of the conductor when current is moving from west to east.
ii) Towards south of the conductor when current is moving from west to east
iii) Towards north of the conductor when current is moving from east to west
iv) Towards south of the conductor when current is moving from east to west.
v) Above the conductor when current is moving from east to west
vi) Below the conductor when current is moving from east to west
7. What is the direction of motion of current carrying conductor? When,

i) Current is moving from south to north and magnetic field is perpendicular into the
plane of the paper.
ii) Current is moving from south to north and magnetic field is perpendicular out of the
plane of the paper
iii) Current is moving from North to South and magnetic field is perpendicular into the
plane of the paper.
iv) Current is moving from North to South and magnetic field is perpendicular outwards
the plane of the paper?
8. State and explain Fleming’s left hand rule. What are its applications?
9. Explain the principle and working of safety devices in domestic electric circuit,
i) Fuse,
ii) MCB and
iii) Earthing wire.
10. What is i) short circuit and ii) Overloading?
11. How to protect from electrical hazards in domestic electric circuit?
12. A house catchup fire due to electrical short circuit, what are the measures to be
adopted for avoiding such electrical hazards?
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GRADE X

SUBJECT: GENERAL SCIENCE

7. Where is the dirty blood in our body filtered?

9. The movement of food in phloem is called:

What is the importance of the labelled part in the excretory system?

In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur?

(a) Oxygen is exhaled during respiration.

2.Assertion (A) : In anaerobic respiration, one of the end product is alcohol.

3.Assertion (A) : Energy is required to carry out different life processes.

4.Assertion (A) : Rings of cartilage are present in the throat,

6. Assertion(A) : Phloem helps in translocation of food from the leaves.

III VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE

1.What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?

10.What are the major constituents of urine?

IV SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1.Name the following

(b) Organisms that can prepare their own food

(d) Cells that surround a stomatal pore

(e) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food

6. Why do fishes die when taken out of water?

7. Differentiate between an autotroph and a heterotroph.

8. Is ‘nutrition’ a necessity for an organism? Discuss.

9. What would happen if green plants disappear from earth?

11. How does aerobic respiration differ from anaerobic respiration?

13. What are the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis?

14. Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?

16. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?

17. What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?

1.Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.

2. Describe the alimentary canal of man.

3. Explain the process of breathing in man.

4. Explain the importance of soil for plant growth.

Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine

6. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?

7. Explain the mechanism of photosynthesis.

8. Explain the three pathways of breakdown in living organisms.

9. Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.

10. Describe the process of urine formation in kidneys.

VI CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Heterotrophic nutrition is a mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain readymade

(ii) Which of the following is a parasite?

(iv) Heterotrophic nutrition involves

(v) In Paramecium, food enters the body through

2. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

3. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

4. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

5. Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

(a) (i) and (ii)

(a) (i) and (ii)

8. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

9. Spinal cord originates from

11. The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to

12. Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant?

13. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?

14. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin

15. Select the mis-matched pair

17. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to

18. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to

23. Which of the following is not an involuntary action?

24. When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot