Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET – 2022

OPEN MOCK TEST - 1 (Code-A)

Test Date : 12/06/2022

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (3)
2. (2) 42. (4) 82. (1) 122. (2) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (1) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (1) 84. (2) 124. (4) 164. (2)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (2) 125. (4) 165. (4)
6. (2) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (4) 166. (2)
7. (2) 47. (3) 87. (3) 127. (3) 167. (3)
8. (4) 48. (3) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (2)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (1) 129. (2) 169. (4)
10. (1) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (4)
11. (3) 51. (4) 91. (2) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (3) 132. (2) 172. (1)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (1) 133. (2) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (4) 94. (3) 134. (1) 174. (1)
15. (2) 55. (4) 95. (4) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (4) 56. (2) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (4)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (4) 177. (4)
18. (2) 58. (1) 98. (1) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (1) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (2)
20. (2) 60. (3) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (3) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (4) 142. (2) 182. (2)
23. (1) 63. (1) 103. (1) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (2) 144. (4) 184. (2)
25. (3) 65. (1) 105. (2) 145. (1) 185. (4)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (1)
27. (2) 67. (2) 107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (1) 188. (2)
29. (2) 69. (2) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (2) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (3)
31. (1) 71. (4) 111. (1) 151. (1) 191. (1)
32. (3) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (4)
33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (1) 153. (4) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (4) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (4) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (3) 195. (4)
36. (1) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (1) 196. (4)
37. (2) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (1) 197. (3)
38. (1) 78. (4) 118. (4) 158. (4) 198. (3)
39. (4) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (4) 199. (2)
40. (1) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A
Sol.:
1. Answer (1)
Hint: For uniform acceleration v = u + at
Sol.: v = u + at
30 = u + a × 2 = u + 2a …(1)
60 = u + a × 4 = u + 4a …(2)
Subtracting (1) from (2)
–2
Time taken to cross river through shortest path is
30 = 2a  a = 15 m s
600
–1 W 600
Using in (1), 30 = u + 2 × 15  u=0ms t= = 1000 =
2
v −u 2 2
5 −3 2 1000  4
2. Answer (2)
3
1 1 t= h = 9 min
Hint: f = 20
2 LC
5. Answer (1)
1 1
Sol.: f = d |v | v2
2 LC Hint: at = , ac =
dt R
f2 C1 C
= = ac
f1 C2 KC Sol.: = tan37
t
3
25
=
1

1
=
1
 K = 25 ac = t
125 K 25 K 4
v2 3
3. Answer (4) = t
r 4
1
Hint: XL = L and XC = 3
C v2 = t  12 = 9t
4
Sol.: XL = L = 2fL 2
at t = 1 s, v =9×1=9
When frequency increase XL increases linearly v = 3 m/s

 X1 corresponds to inductor 6. Answer (2)

Ry
1 1 1 Hint: R = A + B and tan  =
XC = =  XC  Rx
C 2fC f
When frequency increase XC decreases, graph is Sol.:

rectangular hyperbola. So X2 corresponds to a

capacitor.
4. Answer (3)
W
Hint:  =
v − u2
2

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

R = A + B = 4iˆ − 2 ˆj + 6kˆ + (−2 ˆj − 6kˆ ) 11. Answer (3)

Ic
R = 4iˆ − 4 ˆj Hint:  = , Ib + Ic = IE
Ib
4
tan  = =1 IC
4 Sol.:  = 60  IC = 50  60 10−6
50 A
 = 45° with positive x-axis
–6
With positive y-axis, angle = 90° + 45° = 135° = 3000 × 10 A = 3 mA
7. Answer (2) –3
And IE = Ic + Ib = (3 + 50 × 10 ) mA = 3.05 mA
Hint: Mechanical energy is conserved in
12. Answer (2)
conservative gravitational field.
U + K = Constant 2T cos 
Hint & Sol.: h = , r = radius of tube
Sol.: U1 + K1 = U2 + K2 r g
2
−GmM mgR −2 GmM A = r
 + = + K2
R 2 3 R 1
 h
GmM  2  mgR A
  −1 +  + = K2
R  3 2
h A 1
−GmM mgR  = =
 + = K2 h 4A 2
3R 2
1
−gR 2  m mgR h =  40 = 20 cm
 + = K2 2
3R 2
13. Answer (4)
mgR mgR mgR
 K2 = − = Hint: l = l0T
2 3 6
Sol.: When temperature changes by T
8. Answer (4)
Hint: Each planet with respect to sun traces equal l = l0(1 + T)
area in equal intervals of time. So areal velocity is l2 – l1 = l2,0(1 + 2T) – l1,0(1 + 1T)
constant.
Sol.: By IInd law of Kepler: areal velocity of each l2 – l1 = (l2,0 – l1,0) – [l2,0 2 – l1,0 1]T
planet around sun is constant Given l2 – l1 = l2,0 – l1,0
9. Answer (2)
 1l1,0 = 2 l2,0
W
Hint: W = P V and P =
t lCu Fe 1.2  10 −5 1
 = = =
3 lFe Cu 4.8  10 −5 4
Sol.: P = 1.5 m of water = 1.5 × 10 × 10
3 –2 14. Answer (4)
= 15 × 10 N m
V = 60 × 10–6 m3 Hint: Malus law, I = I0cos2
P V 15 103  60 10−6  72 I0
Pav = = = 1.08 W Sol.: I1 =
t 60 2
 1.1 W I0  1 2
I2 = I1 cos2 45 = 
10. Answer (1) 2  2 
Hint: Velocity of efflux = 2gh
I0
=
Sol.: v = 2gh , here h = 10 m 4
(In formula, velocity does not depend on density) 1
i.e. intensity becomes times
v = 2  10  10 = 200 = 14.1m/s 4

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

15. Answer (2) 19. Answer (1)

Hint: When no torque acts, angular momentum u
Hint: ta = ,
will remain conserved. g
Sol.: I = Constant For total distance both upward and downward
mR 2
mR  2 distances travelled during 1 second are added.
 0 = 
2 2 Sol.:
R = R(1 + T)
2 2 2
R 0 = R (1 + T) × 
0 
=  = (1 + T )−2 u 68
(1 + T ) 2 0 ta = = = 6.8 s
g 10

= 1 + (−2T ) (Using binomial expansion)  From t = 6.0 s to t = 6.8 s distance covered
0
1
 d1 =  10  (0.8)2 = 3.2 m
− 1 = −2T 2
0
In next 0.2 second, it falls under gravity

= −2T 1 1
0 d2 = 0 +  g  (0.2)2 =  10  (0.2)2 = 5  (0.04)
2 2
16. Answer (4)
= 0.2 m
T
Hint:  = 1 − 2 Total distance during t = 6 s to t = 7 s (7th second)
T1
d = 3.2 + 0.2 = 3.4 m
Sol.: T1 = 327 + 273 = 600 K
20. Answer (2)
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K h
Hint:  = (from de Broglie)
T 300 mv
 = 1− 2 = 1− = 0.5
T1 600 Sol.:  p =  
  = 50%
h h
17. Answer (3) =
mpv p m .v 
F
Hint: By second law of motion a = vp m 4m 4
m = = =
v mp m 1
v = u + at
F 10 21. Answer (3)
Sol.:  a = = = 2 m s−2
m 5 Hint: Let frequency of C is n. Beat frequency
Force acts for 4 s, velocity at end of 4 s n = nA − nB .
v = u + at = 0 + 2 × 4 = 8 m/s 5 21
Sol.: nA = n + n= n (n = Frequency of C)
Now object moves with same velocity due to inertia 100 20
of motion.
4 24
18. Answer (2) nB = n − n= n
100 25
Hint: Power of e should be dimensionless Also given nA – nB = 9
 hc 
Sol.:    = [M0L0 T0 ] 21 24
 x   n− n=9
20 25
[x] = [hc]
 21 24 
–1 –1 3 –2  n − =9
 [x] = [M.L2T ][LT ] = [ML T ]  20 25 

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

105 − 96  Sol.:
 n =9  n = 100 Hz
 100  −(qQ ) 1 −(Qq ) 1
+ m(0)2 = + mv 2
1 2 40R 2
24 40 [( 3R )2 + R 2 ] 2
 nB =  100 = 96 Hz
25
1 −qQ Qq (Qq )  1 1 
mv 2 =KE = + = −
22. Answer (3) 2 40 (2R ) 40R 40  R 2R 
Hint: When normal reaction becomes zero block
Qq
gets separated from ship platform.  KE =
80R

Sol.: 26. Answer (3)

Hint: Using Kirchhoff’s voltage law for closed loop.
Sol.:
At the highest point of ship when motion is
downward, acceleration is also along mean
position
2
|a| =  A (A = amplitude)
100 1
When ma  mg (N = 0) Current in circuit I = = A
(200 + 200 + 100) 5
2
 Ag 1
Voltmeter reading VAB = I  R =  200 = 40 V
g 5
A
2 27. Answer (2)
So block will leave its contact at minimum Hint & Sol.: A negative charge in electric field will
g
experience force opposite to direction of electric
amplitude A = , at highest position of ship. field.
2
For induced electric field produced by changing
23. Answer (1) magnetic field with time forms closed loop.
Hint: By momentum conservation The electrostatic force between two charges does
0 = md .vd + m .v  not depend on presence of any other charge. The
force remains same.
Sol.: Initial momentum is zero. By conservation of 28. Answer (4)
linear momentum
Hint: Heat required Q = ms
0 = md .vd + m .v  Sol.: Heat required for water = ms
m .v  4 v 4v P × t = ms (P = Power of geyser)
| vd | = = =
md (210 − 4) 206 ms 1 4200  (42 − 22) 4200  20
P= = = =1400 W
t 60 60
24. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Electric field lines due to large sheet
1 2 3
are straight and parallel. Equipotential surfaces + +
r r2 r3
are perpendicular to electric field lines, which are Hint: Equivalent EMF = 1
1 1 1
planar. + +
r1 r2 r3
25. Answer (3)
and equivalent internal resistance
Hint: Total mechanical energy remains constant
1 1 1 1
= = + +
U + K = 0 r0 r1 r2 r3

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: When ray hits normally on silvered face, r2 = 0

 r1 + r2 = A
r1 + 0 = 37° …(2)

 3
sin60  2  5 3 5
 = = = =
sin37  
3 6 2 3
The equivalent circuit becomes  
5
32. Answer (3)
1 1 1
Hint: − =
v u f
2
2 2  1.1 2.2 v 
Current in circuit I = = =  v i =    vo
2r  2  4 u 
R+ 2 + 3  3
3   1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol.: − =  − =
I = 0.55 A v u f v (−30) 20
30. Answer (1) 1 1 1 3−2
 = − =  v = 60 cm
Real depth v 20 30 60
Hint: Apparent depth =
Refractive index 2
v 
 v i =    (vo )
u 
Sol.:
2
 60 
 v i =    (10) = 40 cm/s
 30 
33. Answer (2)
Let L = thickness of glass slab Hint: y = n11 = n22
Let x = actual distance from first face Sol.: n11 = n22 (for overlapping)
x
9=  x = 9 1 n2
 =
2 n1
L−x
5= D
 1
d = n2 1 n2
 =
 5 = L – 9 D n1  2 n1
2
L = 14  d
L = 14 × 1.5 = 21 cm n2  700 7
= 1 = =
31. Answer (1) n1 2 500 5
Hint: When light ray retraces its path, it incident  n1 = 5
normally on the silvered face.
34. Answer (1)
Sol.: Hint:
1
Resolving power of microscope 
Wavelength
1 1
Sol.: R1  and R2 
1 2
For refraction at first face
R1 2 450 3
sin60  = = =
= = …(1) R2 1 600 4
sin r1 1

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

35. Answer (4) 39. Answer (4)

Hint: At Brewster angle, refracted light is partially mv 2 mv 2m
polarised and reflected is fully polarised. Hint: qvB =  r= ,T =
r qB qB
Sol.: Sol.: Time period is independent of speed of
charged particle
2m
T =
qB
40. Answer (1)
When i = p (Reflected light is totally polarised) Hint: Momentum transferred to surface when
surface is reflecting or polished.
By Brewster law: tanP = 
 2IA 
sin P P =  t
By Snell's law =  c 
sin r
 2IA  2  24  20  3600
 sinr = cosp Sol.: P =   t =
 c  3  108
 sinr = sin(90° – p) = 1.15 × 10–2 kg m/s
 r = 90° – p or r + P = 90°  1.2 × 10–2 kg m/s
41. Answer (4)
 Reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular Hint: v RB = v RG − v BG

SECTION-B Sol.:
36. Answer (1)
f  f 
Hint: Maximum magnifying power M = 0 1 + e 
fe  D 
Sol.: fe = 5 cm, f0 = 200 cm, D = 25 cm
200  5  30
M= 1+  = 40  = 48 v RB = v RG + ( −v BG )
5  25  25
37. Answer (2) | v RB | = v RG
2
+ v BG
2
= 4 2 km/h

Hint: For diffraction minima n = asin 42. Answer (4)

a = Slit opening u 2 sin2 u 2 sin2 
Hint: R = , Hm =
Sol.:  = asin, for first minima g 2g
5 R 4
 = 5  sin30 = = 2.5 cm  =
2 Hm tan 
38. Answer (1) R 4 12 4
Sol.: =  =
Hint: eV = hf – W0 Hm tan  4 tan 

Sol.: When light of frequency f1 is incident on 16 4 4

tan  = =  sin  =
surface 12 3 5
eV1 = hf1 – W0 2
u 2 sin2  u2  4 
 4=  4=  
When light of frequency f2 is incident on same 2g 2g  5 
surface 25 25g
 u 2 = 8g  =
eV2 = hf2 – W0 16 2
 eV2 = hf2 – [hf1 – eV1] 25g g
u= = 5
h 2 2
V2 = (f2 − f1) + V1
e = 5 5 m/s

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

43. Answer (3)

1 max. stress 1 8.1108
Hint: Use equation of continuity.  n=  =
2L  2  0.75 9  103
Sol.: By continuity equation
A1v1 + A2v2 = A3v3 + A4v4 2
=  3  102
 10 + 5 = 8 + A4v4 3
15 – 8 = A4v4 = 200 Hz
7 = A4v4 46. Answer (3)
7 = 0.7 × v Hint: Change equation for y2 to sinusoidal form
 v = 10 m/s  
Sol.: y1 = 4 sin  3t + 
44. Answer (1)  3
H    
Hint: = KA   (For conductor)  1 3 
t y 2 = 4  (12 + ( 3)2  (sin3t )  + .cos3t  
 l    1 + ( 3)
2 2
1 + ( 3)
2 2 
  
Sol.:
 1 3 
y 2 = 4  2 sin3t  + cos3t 
 2 2 
= 8[sin3t.cos60° + cos3t.sin60°]
y1 4 1
y 2 = 8[sin(3t + 60)]  = =
y2 8 2
47. Answer (3)
V
Thermal resistance Hint: | E | =
x
l
R= , K = Thermal Conductivity Sol.: V = 0.6 V , x = 10−6 m
KA
Let T = junction Temperature V 0.6
 E= = = 6  10+5 V/m
From diagram x 10−6
dH1 dH2 dH3 dH4 48. Answer (3)
 + = +
dt dt dt dt Hint: Longest wavelength appears when electron
T1 − T T2 − T T − T4 T − T3 jumps from next energy state and shortest
 + = +
R R R R wavelength appears when electron jumps from
30 − T 40 − T T − 20 T − 10 n =  to the lowest energy shell.
 + = +
R R R R 1 1 1 
Sol.: =R − 
 30 – T + 40 – T = T – 20 + T – 10 L 12
2 
100 1 1
 30 + 40 + 20 +10 = 4T T = = 25°C 1
=R −
4 P 2 
3 42 
45. Answer (1)
L (16 − 9) 7
1 T = =
Hint: Fundamental frequency n = P 144 144
2l 
49. Answer (3)
M r 2   L
Sol.:  = = , T = max. stress × area Sol.:
L L

T max. stress  r 2 max. stress

So, = =
 2
r  

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50. Answer (3)  = induced emf = BlV = 0.2 × 10 × 1 = 2 volt

 Induced current in loop
Hint:  = Bvl and i =
R  2 20
–1 i= = = = 20 mA
Sol.: v = 10 m s , l = 1 m, B = 0.2 T R 100 1000

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A Sol.:
51. Answer (4) Species Number of Electrons
Hint: At STP, volume of 1 mol of a gas is 22.4 L N3 – : 10
Sol.: S2– : 18
11 Ni2+ : 26
• 11 g of CO2 = mol of CO2 = 0.25 mol of
44
Co2+ : 25
CO2 = 0.25 × 3 × NA atoms = 0.75 NA atoms
Cr3+ : 21
11.2
• 11.2 L of O2(g) at STP = mol of O2(g) V2+ : 21
22.4
Zn2+ : 28
= 0.5 mol of O2(g) = 0.5 × 2 × NA atoms
Cu2+ : 27
= NA atoms
54. Answer (4)
12
• 12 g of Mg(s) = mol of Mg = 0.5 mol of Mg Hint: For single electron species, the energy of
24
atomic orbitals depends only upon the value of
= 0.5 NA atoms of Mg principal quantum number i.e. n.
• 0.5 mol of H2O2 = 0.5 × 4 × NA atoms = 2NA Sol.: For He+ ion, higher is the value of principal
atoms quantum number i.e. n, higher will be the energy
of atomic orbital.
52. Answer (3)
 Correct order of energy of atomic orbitals is
Hint: Empirical formula is simple whole number
5s > 4d = 4p = 4s > 3d = 3p = 3s
ratio of elements present in a compound.
55. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hint: In modern periodic table on moving down the
group, the electronegativity generally decreases
Atomic No. of Molar
Element Mass% and on moving left to right, in period, the
Mass Moles Ratio electronegativity increases.
Sol.:
7.7
C 92.3 12 u 7.7 =1 • Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases on
7.7
moving left to right in the modern periodic
7.7 table.
H 7.7 1u 7.7 =1
7.7 The ionisation enthalpy of N is greater than O,
because N has half filled 2p sub-shell.
 The Empirical formula of the compound is CH
• Generally, on moving top to bottom, the
53. Answer (3) negative value of electron gain enthalpy
decreases but the negative electron gain
Hint: Species with same number of electrons are
enthalpy of O is comparatively less than
isoelectronic in nature. expected because of interelectronic repulsion.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

• As the metallic character of elements 57. Answer (3)

increases, the basic character of their oxides Hint: No. of hybrid orbitals = No. of  bonds + No.
also increases.
of lone pairs of electrons on central atom
• Elements Electronegativity Sol.:
on Pauling Scale
No. of Hybrid Hybridisation
N 3.0
orbitals = No. of Xe
C 2.5 of  bond +
Si 1.8 lone pair
Al 1.5
56. Answer (2) 2+3=5 sp3d
Hint:
1
• BO = (N − Na )
2 b 3+1=4 sp3
• Species which contain unpaired electrons are
paramagnetic in nature.
• Species which do not contain unpaired
electron are diamagnetic in nature. 6+1=7 sp3d3
Sol.:
• N2(14e)
1
BO = (10 − 4) = 3 (Diamagnetic) 58. Answer (1)
2
Hint: Ideal Gas Equation : PV = nRT.
• N2– (15e– )
4.8
Sol.: nO = = 0.15
1 2 32
BO = (10 − 5) = 2.5 (Paramagnetic)
2 3.2
• NO(15e–) nSO = = 0.05
2 64
1
BO = (10 − 5) = 2.5 (Paramagnetic) nT = 0.15 + 0.05 = 0.2
2
PV = nRT
• NO (14e–)
+

1 0.2  0.0821 300

BO = (10 − 4) = 3 (Diamagnetic)  P=
2 2
• O2(16e–) = 2.463  2.5 atm
1
BO = (10 − 6) = 2 (Paramagnetic) 59. Answer (2)
2
Hint: For free Expansion, Pext = 0
• O2+ (15e– )
Also, w = – PextV = 0
1
BO = (10 − 5) = 2.5 (Paramagnetic) Sol.: For adiabatic process, heat change in the
2 process is zero.
• –
H2(2e ) • According to first Law of thermodynamics,
1 U = q + w = 0
BO = (2 − 0) = 1 (Diamagnetic)
2
• Also, U = nCvT
• H2– (3e– )
 U = 0
1
BO = (2 − 1) = 0.5 (Paramagnetic)  T = 0
2
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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

60. Answer (3) Sol.:

Hint: Enthalpy of reaction
= (BE)Reactants –(BE)Products
1 1
Sol.: A 2 (g) + B2 (g) ⎯⎯→ AB(g)
2 2
fH = rH = (BE)reactants – (BE)products 65. Answer (1)
1 1 Hint: Volume strength = M × 11.2
=  (BE)A − A +  (BE)B −B – BE A –B
2 2 Sol.: Volume strength = 0.5 × 11.2
x y = 5.6 V
= + –z
2 2 66. Answer (2)
61. Answer (4) Hint: Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium
Hint: Salt of weak acid and strong base undergoes oxide
anionic hydrolysis. 4LiNO3 → 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
Sol.: NaCN + H2O  HCN + Na+ + OH– Sol.:
• LiCl is deliquescent and crystallises as a
NaCN is a salt of strong base and weak acid. So,
hydrate, LiCl.2H2O whereas other alkali metal
hydrolysis of CN– takes place.
chlorides do not form hydrates.
62. Answer (3)
• LiHCO3 is not obtained in solid form while all
Hint: Ksp[Sn(OH)2]= [Sn2+] [OH–]2 other alkali metals form solid hydrogen
Sol.: Let the solubility of Sn(OH)2 be s mol L–1 carbonates.
• Sn(OH)2 (s) Sn2+ (aq) + 2OH– (aq) 67. Answer (2)
s 2s
Hint: In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to
• NaOH → Na + + OH– 4 carbon atoms.
0.1 0.1
Sol.:
K sp[Sn(OH) = [Sn2+] [OH–]2
2]
• In diamond, each carbon atom undergoes sp3
Ksp = s (2s + 0.1)2 hybridisation and linked to four other carbon
atoms.
1.4 × 10–28 = s × (0.1)2 (2s + 0.1  0.1)
• In graphite, each carbon atom in hexagonal
s = 1.4 × 10–26 mol/L ring undergoes sp2 hybridisation and makes
63. Answer (1) three sigma bonds with three neighbouring
Hint: Structure of Br3O8 is carbon atoms. Fourth electron forms a  bond.
• In Buckminsterfullerene, all the carbon atoms
are equal and they undergo sp2 hybridisation.
Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds
with other three carbon atoms.
Sol.: 68. Answer (3)
Hint: Bridgehead carbon cannot be sp2
hybridised.
Sol.:
64. Answer (3)
Hint: In a disproportionation reaction, an element
in one oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised •
and reduced.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

• (No enolisable hydrogen)

Bridgehead carbon C(*) cannot be sp2 hybridised.

69. Answer (2)
Hint:
14  milliequivalent of NH3
% of N =  100 • CH  CH is more acidic than CH  C – CH3
1000  mass of organic compound
72. Answer (2)
Sol.: Milliequivalents of ammonia = 0.5 × 10 × 2 Hint: In hcp lattice, no. of tetrahedral voids and
= 10 octahedral voids formed by N closed packed
atoms are 2N and N respectively
14  10  100
% of N = = 70% Sol.: Let the no. of atoms of A be N
0.2  1000
3 3
70. Answer (2) So, the no. of atoms of B =  2N = N
4 2
Hint: In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides on treatment
3
with sodium metal in dry ether give higher alkanes ( atoms of B occupy th of the tetrahedral voids)
4
Sol.:
1
• Wurtz reaction: Also, the no. of atoms of C = N
2
2CH3 – Br + 2Na ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CH3 – CH3 + 2NaBr
Dry Ether
( atoms of C occupy half of the octahedral voids)
• Decarboxylation:  The formula of the compound is ANB 3 CN
N
– +
+ NaOH ⎯⎯ → CH4 + Na 2CO3
CaO 2 2
CH3COO Na 
 A2B3C
• Kolbe’s Electrolytic method:
73. Answer (1)
– +
2CH3COO Na + 2H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Electrolysis
Hint: In case of negative deviations from Raoult’s
Law, the intermolecular attractive forces between
CH3 – CH3 + 2CO2 + H2 + 2NaOH
A-A and B-B are weaker than those between A-B
71. Answer (4) and leads to decrease in vapour pressure resulting
in negative deviations.
Hint: Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives ethyne
Sol.: Mixture CHCl3 and Acetone shows negative
which has acidic hydrogen
deviation because of hydrogen bonding.
Sol. CaC2 + 2H2O → H − C  C − H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Na
→
(1 equivalent)
(A)
(Degree of
unsaturation = 2)

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

• Mixture of benzene and toluene and mixture of 1 mol of Al = 3

bromoethane and chloroethane show ideal No. of Faraday required to deposit 0.05 mol of Al
behaviour.
= 3 × 0.05
• Mixture of ethanol and acetone shows positive
= 0.15 F
deviation from Raoult’s Law.
77. Answer (3)
74. Answer (4)
Hint: Unit of rate constant is (mol L–1)1-n s-1, where
Hint: Tf = iKfm
n is the order of the reaction.
Sol.: For urea, i = 1
Sol.: For second order reaction, n = 2
For water, Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1
 Unit of rate constant = (mol L–1)1–2 s–1
w  1000
m= = mol–1 L s–1
M W
78. Answer (4)
3  1000
= Hint: Fe2O3xH2O is a positively charged sol
60  500
Sol.:
3  1000
Tf = 1 1.86  = 0.186 • A negative ion causes the precipitation of
60  500
positively charged sol.
Tf = Tf − Tf • Greater the valency of the flocculating ion
= 0°C – 0.186°C added, greater is its power to cause
precipitation.
= –0.186°C
75. Answer (3)  Fe2O3xH2O is most easily coagulated by

Hint: According to Kohlrausch Law of independent PO3–

4
migration, 79. Answer (2)
m (CH3COOH) = m (CH3COO ) + m (H ) – + Hint: Smoke is an example of aerosol
Sol.: For smoke, the dispersed phase is solid and
Sol.:
the dispersion medium is gas.
• m (CaCl2 ) = m (Ca2+ ) + 2m (Cl– ) 80. Answer (1)
Hint: Vapour phase refining method includes
• m (HCl) = m (H+ ) +  º (Cl– )
Mond process and van Arkel Method.
•  (CH COO) Ca = 2 (CH COO– ) +  (Ca2+ )
m Sol.:
3 2 m 3 m

 (CH COO) Ca
• Mond process is used for the refining of Ni
m
  (CH COOH) =
m 3 2
+   (HCl) 330K −350K
3
2 m • Ni + 4CO ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Ni(CO)4
450 − 470 K
 (CaCl )
m • Ni(CO)4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Ni + 4CO
– 2
2 • van Arkel method is used for the refining of Zr
x z and Ti
= +y–
2 2 • Zr + 2I2 → ZrI4
76. Answer (2) • ZrI4 → Zr + 2I2
Hint: AlCl3 → Al3+ + 3Cl– • Ge can be refined using zone refining
For 1 mol of Al, 3 F is required. • Cu can be refined using electrolytic refining
w 1.35 81. Answer (3)
Sol.: No. of moles of Al = = = 0.05
M 27 
Hint: NH4NO3 ⎯⎯ → N2O + 2H2O
No. of Faraday’s required to deposit (X)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: 2Pb(NO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯

673K
→ 4NO2 + 2PbO + O2 Sol.:
(Y)

• Oxidation state of N in N2O(X) : 2x – 2 = 0

x = +1
• Oxidation state of N in NO2(Y) = x + 2 (–2) = 0
x = +4

CFSE = 3 × –0.40 + 2 × 0.60 = 0

82. Answer (1) SECTION-B
Hint: More is the acidic strength, lower will be the 86. Answer (1)
pKa value
Hint: Magnetic moment,  = n(n + 2) BM
Sol.: Down the group, as the size of halogen atom
Where n is the no. of unpaired electrons.
increases, the H-X bond length increases. As a
result the H-X bond energy decreases Sol.: H2O is a weak field ligand
 Acidic strength increases So, pairing of electron will not take place.
 The correct order of acidic strength is • [Fe(H2O)6]3+ ; Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5
HI > HBr > HCl > HF
So, the correct order of pKa value is n=5
HF  HCl  HBr  Hl  = n (n + 2)
pK a 3.2 –7.0 –9.5 –10.0
 = 5 (5 + 2)
83. Answer (3) = 5.92 BM
Hint: Ions which contain unpaired electrons can • [Fe(H2O)6]2+ ; Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6
exhibit colour in aqueous medium.
Sol.: n=4
Ions No. of unpaired Colour  = n (n + 2)
electrons
 = 4 (4 + 2)
Sc3+ 0 Colourless
= 4.90 BM.
Ti4+ 0 Colourless 87. Answer (3)
V3+ 2 Green Hint: More is the stability of the carbocation, more
will be the reactivity of alkyl halide towards SN1
Zn2+ 0 Colourless reaction.
84. Answer (2) Sol.:
Hint: Because of the presence of unpaired • Correct order of stability of carbocation is
electrons in the f-subshell, many lanthanoid ions
are coloured.
Sol.: Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure
and are good conductors of heat and electricity. • Correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides
towards SN1 reaction is
85. Answer (2)
Hint: For high spin octahedral complexes,
eg orbitals starts to fill when each orbital of t2g (CH3)3C – Cl >
acquires one electron. > CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl > (CH3)2CH – Cl
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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

88. Answer (2)

Hint: Reaction follows benzyne mechanism Sol.: Compounds containing and

Sol.:
groups give iodoform test.
• Aliphatic and aromatic aldehydes give Tollen’s
test.
• Benzaldehyde does not give Fehling's test.

Iodoform Tollen’s Fehling’s

Compounds
Test Test Test

Positive Positive Positive

Positive Negative Negative

89. Answer (1)

Hint: Phenetole is ethoxybenzene, Negative Positive Negative

Sol.:
Positive Negative Negative

92. Answer (3)

Hint: Rearrangement of carbocation takes place.
Sol.:

90. Answer (3)

Hint: Chlorobenzene when fused with NaOH at
623 K and 300 atm pressure followed by
acidification gives phenol.
Sol.:

93. Answer (1)

91. Answer (2)
Hint: Nucleophilic addition on acetone takes place
Hint: Ketones neither give Tollens’ test nor
using Grignard reagent.
Fehling’s test.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: 96. Answer (2)

Hint: Thiamine is vitamin B1

Sol.:

• Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) causes

Beri-Beri.

• Deficiency of vitamin A causes night

blindness.

• Deficiency of vitamin B2 causes Cheilosis.

94. Answer (3)
• Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes Convulsions.
Hint: Primary aromatic or aliphatic amines on
reaction with chloroform and ethanolic potassium 97. Answer (2)
hydroxide give isocyanide. This is known as
Hint: Polyester are the polycondensation products
carbylamine test.
of dicarboxylic acids and diols
R − NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ⎯→ R − NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
Isocyanide
(pungent smell) Sol.:
Sol.:

• CH3NH2 and , both give

carbylamine test.

• CH3NH2 and , both give

carbylamine test.
• CH3CH2NH2 gives carbylamine test while
will not give 98. Answer (1)

Hint: Veronal is a derivative of Barbituric Acid

carbylamine test.
Sol.: Veronal is a tranquilizer.
• CH3NH – CH3 and , both do not
99. Answer (2)
give carbylamine test. Hint & Sol.: Maximum prescribed concentration of
95. Answer (4) Cd in drinking water is 0.005 ppm.
Hint: Nitrobenzene on reduction gives aniline
100. Answer (4)
Sol.:
Hint: For fcc unit cell,

a=2 2 r

Sol.: a = 298 pm

1
r= a
2 2

1
r=  298 pm
2 2

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A Sol.: Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially
101. Answer (2) rather than longitudinally making it easier for
Hint: G. Bentham and J.D. Hooker gave natural stomata to open.
classification system. 108. Answer (2)
Sol.: Bentham and Hooker classified plants on the Hint: Leaves of C4 plant show Kranz anatomy.
basis of natural affinities, external as well as Sol.: In C4 plant, malic acid is formed from
internal features like embryology, anatomy and oxaloacetic acid in the cells of mesophyll tissue.
phytochemistry. Malic acid then enters in bundle sheath cells.
102. Answer (4) 109. Answer (3)
Hint: Members of Rhodophyceae show oogamy Sol.: Joseph Priestley performed a series of
which is accompanied by complex post fertilisation experiment with the help of a bell jar, a mouse,
development. burning candle and mint plant. He revealed the
essential role of air in the growth of green plants.
Sol.: Porphyra, Gracilaria and Gelidium are
members of Rhodophyceae. 110. Answer (4)

103. Answer (1) Hint: Protoplasmic respiration occurs when body

undergoes prolonged starvation.
Hint: Liverwort have thalloid plant body.
Sol.: In protoplasmic respiration, protein is used
Sol.: Marchantia is a liverwort in which thallus is as respiratory substrate.
dorsiventral and closely appressed to the
111. Answer (1)
substrate.
Hint: The precursor of chlorophyll is formed from
104. Answer (2)
-ketoglutaric acid in Krebs cycle.
Hint: All solutions have lower water potential than
Sol.: Succinyl CoA is used as raw material for
pure water.
chlorophyll and cytochrome synthesis.
Sol.: Solute potential is always negative.
112. Answer (3)
105. Answer (2)
Sol.: ABA – derivative of carotenoids
Hint: Band of suberised matrix called casparian
Auxin – Indole compound
strip which is impervious to water.
Gibberellic acid – Terpenes derivative
Sol.: The inner boundary of the cortex the
Cytokinin – Adenine derivative
endodermis is impervious to water because of
presence of casparian strip. 113. Answer (1)

106. Answer (4) Hint: They are pathogenic to both animals and
plants.
Sol.:
Sol.: Mycoplasma are smallest living cell which
⚫ Manganese is involved in the splitting of water completely lack cell wall.
to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.
114. Answer (3)
⚫ Deficiency of copper cause necrosis of leaves.
Hint: ABA promotes seed dormancy.
⚫ Boron is required for pollen germination.
Sol.: By the application of nitrate and gibberellic
⚫ Sulphur is constituent of vitamins and acid we can remove effect of chemical inhibitors
coenzymes. which promote seed dormancy.
107. Answer (3) 115. Answer (1)
Hint: Orientation of microfibrils also aid in opening Sol.: Primata and Diptera represents order of
of stomata. human and housefly respectively.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

116. Answer (3) 124. Answer (4)

Hint: Complete disintegration of the nuclear Hint: Double chain of DNA is helically twisted in
envelope marks the beginning of this phase. right-handed fashions.
Sol.: During metaphase stage, chromosomes are Sol.:
thickest and shortest. Hence it is easy to study the ⚫ Uracil replaces thymine in RNA.
morphology of chromosomes. ⚫ The backbone is constituted by sugar-
117. Answer (2) phosphate, and the bases project inside.
Hint: Leucoplast are the colourless plastids of 125. Answer (4)
variable shapes and size with stored nutrients. Sol.: If an amino acid is coded by more than one
Sol.: Elaioplast is a kind of leucoplast; stores oils codons, it is degenerate.
and fats as food. 126. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4) Hint: Hot spots are regions of accelerated habitat
loss.
Hint: Centromere is slightly away from the middle
of the chromosomes showing L-shape during Sol.: The concept of hot spot was developed to
anaphase. designate priority areas for in-situ conservation.
Sol.: Sub-metacentric chromosomes appear 127. Answer (3)
L-shaped during anaphase of cell cycle. Sol.: Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon
species got extinct in the last 500 years due to
119. Answer (3)
over-exploitation by humans.
Hint: Telophase I is final stage of reduction
128. Answer (4)
division.
Hint: DFC is detritus food chain and GFC is
Sol.: The nuclear membrane and nucleolus
grazing food chain.
reappear in telophase I.
Sol.: GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in
120. Answer (2) aquatic ecosystem.
Hint: The younger flowers are present towards the 129. Answer (2)
apex in racemose inflorescence.
Sol.: The temperature of Earth has increased by
Sol.: The flowers are borne in a acropetal order 0.6°C. This rise in temperature is leading to
and main axis continues to grow indefinitely in deleterious changes in the environment and
case of racemose inflorescence. resulting in odd climate changes (El Nino effect).
121. Answer (3) 130. Answer (1)
Hint: Perianth is observed in lily family. Hint: On logarithmic scale, the relationship is a
straight line.
Sol.: Floral formula
Sol.:
represents Liliaceae family.
⚫ The species richness increases with the
122. Answer (2) increase in explored area.
Hint: Sclereids are type of sclerenchymatous cell. ⚫ For large areas value of Z lies in range of 0.6
Sol.: Sclereids are present in the fruit wall of nuts to 1.2.
like walnut, almonds, etc. ⚫ Larger the explored area, more is the
123. Answer (1) steepness of slope of line.
Hint: The cells of this region divide repeatedly to 131. Answer (3)
produce new cells. Hint: Goats and Abingdon tortoise interaction is an
Sol.: The cells of region of meristematic activity interspecific competition.
are thin walled, very small with dense protoplasm, Sol.: Introduction of goats, resulted in exclusion of
undifferentiated and divide repeatedly, present just Abingdon tortoise from Galapagos island because
above the root cap. goats are better browser.

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132. Answer (2) 140. Answer (2)

Hint: Pusa sem-2 and Pusa sem-3 are insect-pest Hint: Number of seeds never exceeds number of
resistant varieties of flat bean. ovules.
Sol.: Sol.: Orobanche and Striga are parasitic plants
⚫ Pusa snowball K1 is disease resistant variety produce thousands of tiny seeds and orchids also
of cauliflower. contain thousands of seeds.
⚫ Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of
Wheat is single seeded.
cowpea.
141. Answer (3)
⚫ Pusa A-4 is disease resistant variety of Bhindi.
133. Answer (2) Hint: Generally, dsDNA is genetic material in
bacteriophage.
Sol.: The IARI, New Delhi released vitamin C
enriched bitter gourd, bathua, mustard and Sol.: QB-bacteriophages are RNA containing
tomato. viruses.
134. Answer (1) 142. Answer (2)
Hint: BOD is Biochemical oxygen demand. Hint: Colourblindness is sex linked disorder.
Sol.: BOD test measures the amount of uptake of Sol.: The gene which is responsible for colour
oxygen by micro-organisms in the given sample of
blindness is present on X-chromosome.
water.
135. Answer (3) 143. Answer (4)

Hint: Biofertilizers are used in organic farming. Hint: The phenotypic ratio of Mendelian dihybrid
cross is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Sol.: Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the
nutrient quality of the soil. The main source of Sol.:
biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
Round Round Wrinkled Wrinkled
SECTION-B : : :
yellow green yellow green
136. Answer (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Hint: Endosperm is triploid and meiocyte is
3
diploid.  = wrinkled yellow seeds.
16
Sol.: Endosperm (3n) = 51
Meiocyte (2n) = 34. 144. Answer (4)

Gamete (haploid) = n = 17. Sol.: Microsatellite – small repetitive sequence of

137. Answer (4) 1-6 base pairs.

Sol.: Zygote ⎯→ Embryo 145. Answer (1)

Ovary ⎯→ Fruit Hint: Meiosis II is also an equational division.

Ovule ⎯→ Seed Sol.: In anaphase-II, the splitting of centromere of
Ovary wall develops into pericarp and it is each chromosomes occurs.
protective in function. 146. Answer (3)
138. Answer (2) Hint: In pleiotropy, single gene product may
Hint: This layer also nourishes the developing produce more than one effects.
pollen grains. Sol.: Phenylketonuria is an example of Pleiotropy.
Sol.: Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm
147. Answer (2)
and generally have more than one nucleus.
Hint: Female honey bee are diploid.
139. Answer (3)
Sol.: Mucilagenous covering protects the pollens Sol.: Female honey bee is diploid with 32 number
from wetting in hydrophytes. of chromosomes.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

148. Answer (1) Sol.: Sapwood is actively involved in the

Hint: Inferior ovary is present in ray florets of conduction of water and minerals from root to
sunflower. leaves.
Sol.: Ray florets of sunflower have epigynous 150. Answer (2)
flower.
Hint: Pseudocarp develop from floral parts other
149. Answer (4)
than ovary.
Hint: Conduction of water is performed by
peripheral region of secondary xylem. Sol.: Apple and strawberry are false fruits.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A subjected before being marketed such as
151. Answer (1) separation, preservation, etc. Insertion of rDNA
into a bacterial host cell is called transformation.
Hint: Ethics include a set of standard protocols.
155. Answer (3)
Sol.: Patents are supposed to satisfy certain
Hint: Hisardale
criteria such as novelty, non-obviousness and
utility. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use Sol.: Breeding between individuals of same breed
of bio-resources by multinational companies and which are closely related for 4-6 generations is
other organisations without proper authorisation called inbreeding. Mating of animals within the
from countries and without compensatory same breed but having no common ancestors on
payment to people concerned. Biowar is use of either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations
biological toxins or infectious agents with the intent is called out-crossing. Breeding between two
to kill or harm humans or organisms as act of war. different related species is called interspecific
hybridization.
152. Answer (3)
156. Answer (1)
Hint: Organism which is genetically and
morphologically similar to parent Hint: Receptors are present in GIT.

Sol.: Dolly is a cloned sheep. Polly and Molly are Sol.: Morphine is an opioid analgesic and sedative
obtained from latex of poppy plant. Cannabinoids
transgenic sheeps and ANDi is a transgenic
are obtained from Cannabis sativa. Heroin/smack
monkey. -1-antitrypsin is used to treat
is chemically diacetyl morphine. Cocaine is a
emphysema. Rosie is a transgenic cow which
stimulant, obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
produced human protein enriched milk. Golden
rice is a transgenic rice enriched in 157. Answer (1)
-carotene. Hint: Saprophytic mode of nutrition
153. Answer (4) Sol.: Muscarine is a hallucinogen obtained from a
fungus, Amanita muscaria.
Hint: Enzyme needed is obtained from Thermus
aquaticus bacterium. 158. Answer (4)
Sol.: PCR is a technique of synthesizing multiple Hint: Disease caused by Rhino virus
copies of desired gene in vitro. The basic Sol.: Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by
requirements of PCR are DNA template, two Salmonella typhi. Trichomoniasis is caused by a
nucleotide primers (forward and reverse primers) protozoan, Trichomonas vaginalis. Dengue is
and a thermostable DNA polymerase caused by Arbovirus. Hepatitis B, genital warts,
(Taq polymerase). genital herpes, common cold and chikungunya are
154. Answer (3) viral diseases.

Hint: PCR is used to amplify gene of interest. 159. Answer (4)

Sol.: DNA ligase is used for ligation of a gene of Hint: First milk produced after parturition
interest in a vector. Downstream processing Sol.: Colostrum is yellow coloured fluid rich in IgA
includes all the processes to which a product is antibodies produced during initial few days of

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 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

lactation. It provides natural passive immunity to Sol.: Evolution is a stochastic process based on
new born. Antibodies are present in blood and chance events in nature and chance mutation in
body secretions to provide humoral immune organisms.
response. Anamnestic response is based on
166. Answer (2)
memory cells produced during primary immune
response. Hint: Centchroman is present in Saheli

160. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: Secretion containing lysozyme 1. Non-Medicated – Lippes loop

Sol.: Skin and mucus coating of digestive tract, IUD
respiratory tract and genital tract are included in 2. Hormone – LNG-20 and
physical barriers. Interferons are cytokine barriers. releasing IUDs Progestasert
161. Answer (3)
3. Copper-ions – Cu-T, Cu-7 and
Hint: Reptiles having 4-chambered heart
releasing IUDs Multiload-375
Sol.: Sauropsids gave rise to thecodonts which
evolved into crocodiles, dinosaurs and birds. So, 4. Non-steroidal – Saheli
crocodiles are the closest living relatives of birds. contraceptive pill

162. Answer (4) 167. Answer (3)

Hint: Biogenetic law was proposed by Ernst Hint: ZIFT
Haeckel. Sol.: When zygote or early embryo upto 8 celled
Sol.: Darwin's finches are examples of adaptive stage is transferred into the fallopian tube, it is
radiation, allopatric speciation and natural called ZIFT. In GIFT, both sperms and ovum are
selection but are not an example of evolution by transferred into the fallopian tube/oviduct.
anthropogenic action. Flippers of penguins and
168. Answer (2)
dolphins are examples of adaptive convergence.
Hint: Lined by germinal epithelium
163. Answer (4)
Sol.: Cells of Sertoli are present in seminiferous
Hint: The extinct animals
tubules of testis which synthesize certain factors
Sol.: for transformation of spermatids into sperms called
Formation of Earth – 4.5 billion years spermiogenesis. Rete testis and vasa efferentia
back are included in male sex accessory ducts.
169. Answer (4)
Origin of life – 4 bya
Hint: GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete
1st non- cellular forms – 3 bya gonadotropins
of life
Sol.: Sex hormones inhibit the secretion of GnRH
Dinosaurs – 65 mya from hypothalamus and thus inhibit the secretion
disappeared from the of both FSH and LH during pregnancy.
Earth
170. Answer (4)
164. Answer (2) Hint: Undifferentiated embryonic cells
Hint: Bhopal is the capital Sol.: After implantation, finger-like projections
Sol.: Cave paintings by pre-historic humans (Cro- appear on trophoblast called chorionic villi.
Magnon man) are found at Bhimbetka rock shelter Attachment of blastocyst with endometrium of
in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. uterus is called implantation. Oxytocin is released
165. Answer (4) from maternal neurohypophysis.
Hint: Not a directed process in terms of 171. Answer (3)
determinism Hint: Formed after entry of sperm within ovum
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: In humans, during oogenesis, meiosis-I is 178. Answer (4)

completed in tertiary follicle to form secondary Hint: Zinc is a cofactor for this enzyme.
oocyte and first polar body. Secondary oocyte
Sol.: Zinc is a co-factor for carboxypeptidase
completes meiosis II in fallopian tube after entry of
which forms coordination bonds with side chains
sperm during fertilisation to form 2nd polar body
at active site and at the same time forms one or
and an ootid. more coordination bonds with the substrate.
172. Answer (1) 179. Answer (2)
Hint: Endocrine glands Hint: Complete digestive tract is present in
Sol.: In both plants and animals, hormones are roundworms.
responsible for the transitions between the three Sol.: Incomplete digestive tract is present in
phases of life namely juvenile phase, reproductive flatworms but Taenia solium is an exception
phase and old age. Interaction between hormones because digestive tract is completely absent in it.
and certain environmental factors regulate the Pheretima is an annelid having complete digestive
reproductive processes and associated tract.
behavioural expressions of organisms.
180. Answer (3)
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Air bladder is present in bony fishes.
Hint: Secretion is also the function of cuboidal
Sol.: Exocoetus is a marine bony fish having air
epithelium. bladder/swim bladder which regulates buoyancy.
Sol.: Secretion and absorption are main functions Air sacs are present in birds to supplement
of both cuboidal and columnar epithelia. respiration. Petromyzon is a cyclostome having
Epithelium which forms glands is known as sucking and circular mouth. Macaca is a mammal
glandular epithelium. Both cuboidal and columnar having mammary glands.
epithelium form glandular epithelium. 181. Answer (2)
174. Answer (1) Hint: Body is dorso-ventrally flattened
Hint: Property of neurons and muscle fibres Sol.:
Sol.: Connective tissue fibres provide strength, Earthworm – Segmented worm
elasticity and flexibility to the tissues. Excitability is
Wuchereria – Filarial worm
the property shared by both muscular and neural
Ancylostoma – Hook worm
tissues.
Platyhelminthes – Flat worms
175. Answer (2)
182. Answer (2)
Hint: Biting and chewing type of mouth parts
Hint: Castle’s intrinsic factor
Sol.: Maxillae and mandibles are paired mouth
parts but labrum and labium are unpaired mouth Sol.: Oxyntic cell or parietal cell secretes HCI and
parts of cockroach. Castle's intrinsic factor. HCl is responsible for
reabsorption of iron and Castle's intrinsic factor is
176. Answer (4)
responsible for absorption of vitamin B12. Iron
Hint: Structure present in female deficiency as well as deficiency of vitamin B 12
Sol.: Spermathecae are two in number, present in causes anaemia.
6th abdominal segment of only female cockroach 183. Answer (3)
and are responsible for storage of sperms.
Hint: Cells which secrete mucus
177. Answer (4)
Sol.: Lipases are present in pancreatic juice and
Hint: Presence of zwitterionic form succus entericus. Small quantities of lipases are
Sol.: The structure of amino acids changes in present in gastric juice also. Nucleases are
solutions of different pH due to ionizable nature of present in pancreatic juice. Hepato-pancreatic
–NH2 and –COOH groups. duct opens into duodenum.

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184. Answer (2) 190. Answer (3)

Hint: Branchial respiration Hint: Deficiency of protein dystrophin is due to
Sol.: Buccal respiration is present in frogs. genetic defect.
Respiration through gills is known as branchial Sol.: Tetany is defined as rapid spasms due to low
respiration. Branchial respiration is present in Ca+2 in body fluids. Muscular dystrophy is an X-
some arthropods, molluscs and fishes. linked genetic disease. Gout is an inflammation in
185. Answer (4) the region of joints due to accumulation of uric acid
Hint: Foetal haemoglobin has less P50 value. crystals.

Sol.: Foetal haemoglobin has less affinity for BPG, 191. Answer (1)
so it has more affinity for O2. In emphysema, Hint: Cartilaginous joint
residual volume and lung volume increases. Sol.: Pubic symphysis is an example of
Pneumotaxic centre increases breathing rate by cartilaginous joint. A block of white fibrous
decreasing duration of inspiration. cartilage is present in between two vertebrae. So,
SECTION-B these joints are considered as cartilaginous joints.
186. Answer (1) 192. Answer (4)
Hint: 6-8% Hint: Centre present in medulla
Sol.: Proteins constitute 6-8% of plasma, Sol.: Swallowing centre is present in medulla
monocytes are 6-8% of total WBCs and oblongata, region of hindbrain. Association areas
neutrophils constitute about 60-65% of total regulate complex functions of brain such as
WBCs. Lymphocytes form 20-25% of total WBCs. intersensory association, memory and
187. Answer (2) communication.
Hint: Open circulation is present in insects. 193. Answer (1)
Sol.: First heart sound called ‘lub’ is systolic and Hint: Velocity of sound waves is more in solid
second heart sound called ‘dub’ is diastolic heart medium.
sound. Cockroach belongs to phylum Arthropoda
Sol.: Retinal absorbs light and dissociates from
exhibiting open circulatory system. Earthworm
opsin so as to change the structure of opsin. Ear
belongs to phylum Annelida exhibiting closed
ossicles increase efficiency of transmission of
circulatory system.
sound waves.
188. Answer (2)
194. Answer (3)
Hint: Collecting duct is not a part of nephron.
Hint: Tall stature due to more growth
Sol.: Glomerulus is a part of nephron but not a part
Sol.: Hypersecretion of growth hormone during
of renal tubule. Nephron is differentiated into two
childhood leads to a very tall stature called
parts – glomerulus and renal tubule.
gigantism. Hyposecretion of growth hormone
189. Answer (2)
during childhood causes dwarfism.
Hint: GFR = 125 mL/min which is 1/5th of RPF.
195. Answer (4)
Sol.: About 1/5th of cardiac output is filtered per
Hint: Androgens regulate libido.
minute by both kidneys. Filtration of blood takes
Sol.: At puberty, synthesis of androgens starts
place through 3 layers, endothelium of blood
under the effect of GnRH. Androgens act on CNS
capillaries, podocytes of Bowman's capsule and
basement membrane. Vasa recta is a branch of and have an influence on libido.
peritubular capillary network which is present 196. Answer (4)
along with juxtamedullary nephron. Hint: Vasodilator hormone
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: Renin through Renin-angiotensin Sol.: Urge of eating and drinking is regulated by
mechanism increases blood pressure and thus hypothalamus. Medulla oblongata regulates
increases GFR. ANF has potent vasodilator effect swallowing, gastric secretion, cardiovascular
and thus decreases blood pressure and GFR. So, reflexes and respiration.
this hormone is not released when GFR is already 199. Answer (2)
low. Hint: Ganglionic cells form optic nerve
197. Answer (3) Sol.: Retina of human eye consists of 3 layers,
Hint: Head + short arm = cross arm from outside to inside, these are photoreceptor
cells, bipolar cells and ganglionic cells.
Sol.: Myosin filament is a polymeric protein formed
200. Answer (2)
by a number of monomeric units called
meromyosin. Each meromyosin has two important Hint: Connects neural system with endocrine
system
parts globular head with short arm and tail. Head
with short arm is called HMM and tail is called Sol.: Hypothalamus synthesizes somatostatin
(GHIH) which inhibits secretion of growth
LMM.
hormone. Certain cells of pancreas also
198. Answer (3) synthesize local hormone somatostatin to inhibit
Hint: Hunger & thirst centre secretion of  and  cells of islets of Langerhans.

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