TS ICET SAMPLE PAPER 1 nUqZZr2

TS ICET 2024
Sample Paper
Contents
A Note to The Student 3
About The Ebook 4
Section A: Analytical Ability 5
Section B: Mathematical Ability 21
Section C: Communication Ability 35
Answer Key 45
Solutions 46
Other Useful Resources - 90
2
A Note to The Student
A
re you preparing for success in the highly competitive TS ICET examination and seek-
ing a comprehensive sample paper to evaluate your skills? Your search concludes
here. Careers360 has curated a well-structured sample paper for the 2024 TS ICET
examination, aligning with the question types and format specified by the Telangana State
Council Higher Education. This sample paper serves as an invaluable tool to augment your
preparation for the TS ICET exam.
Incorporating questions from various topics assessed in the TS ICET examination, such as
data sufficiency, problem-solving, English language, business and computer terminologies,
quantitative aptitude, and mathematical ability, this question set is carefully designed. It is
crafted after a thorough analysis of past years’ TS ICET papers, ensuring that students gain
a conceptual understanding of the syllabus and examination format ahead of the actual test.
We trust that this resource will prove beneficial in your preparation. Take the opportunity to
explore other valuable resources mentioned at the end of the document to further enhance
your management examination readiness.
Best Wishes
Team Careers360
3
About The Ebook
Through the contents of this ebook, the candidates can find the following information which
is beneficial for their overall preparation.
1. 75 Questions on Analytical Ability (20 Questions from Data Sufficiency and 55 from
Problem-Solving). All the questions are designed as per the standards set by TS ICET
examinations.
2. 75 questions from Mathematical Ability (35 questions from Arithmetical Ability, 30 ques-
tions from Algebraical and Geometrical Ability 10 from and Statistical Ability)
3. 50 Questions from Communication Ability (questions from Meanings, Synonyms and

Antonyms, Verb (Tense & Voice), Phrasal Verbs & Idioms, Articles & Prepositions, Com-
puter Terminology, Business Terminology, Comprehension (three) passages (Each pas-
sage carries five questions and Business and Computer Terminology)
4. Answer Key for the first evaluation
5. Comprehensive and elaborate solutions have been provided for each question. These
solutions are meticulously crafted to facilitate candidates in gaining a thorough under-
standing of the concepts. The intention is to assist individuals in identifying specific
areas where they may need additional support. By offering detailed explanations, our
aim is to ensure that candidates not only comprehend the correct answers but also
grasp the underlying principles, enabling them to strengthen their knowledge base and
address any challenges they may encounter.
6. Other useful resources that can help the candidates in improving their overall prepara-
tions and for extra reference.
4
Section A:
Analytical Ability
1. In which year was Priya born?
Statements:
Priya at present is 30 years younger than her mother.
Priya's sister, who was born in 1970, is 40 years younger than her mother.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Both I and II are sufficient
2. What will be the total weight of 8 chairs, each of the same weight?
Statements:
One-fourth of the weight of each chair is 6 kg.
The total weight of four chairs is 15 kilograms more than the total weight of three chairs.

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
3. How many children does A have?
Statements:
B is the only daughter of Y who is the wife of A.
C and D are brothers of A.

4. How much was the total sale of the store?
Statements:
The store sold 6000 units of product X, each costing Rs. 30.
This store has no other product line.
5
Options:
5. How many pages of book Y did Mia read on Saturday?
Statements:
The book has 400 pages, out of which three-fourths were read by her before Saturday.
Mia read the first 50 pages of the book on the evening of Sunday.
Options:
6. How many students in a class play basketball?
Statements:
Only girls play basketball.
There are fifty boys and twenty-five girls in the class.
Options:
7. What is Arjun's age?
Statements:
Arjun, Rohit, and Karan are all of the same age.
The total age of Rohit, Karan, and Akshay is 36 years, and Akshay is as old as Rohit and
Karan together.
Options:
8. How much money do Alok and Rohini have together?
Statements:
Rohini has 25 rupees less than what Rahul has.
6
Alok has 40 rupees more than what Rahul has.
Options:
9. Among Priya, Neha, Ria, Karishma, and Trisha, who came last for the program?
Statements:
Priya came after Neha but not after Trisha.
Karishma came after Trisha but not after Ria.
Options:
10. Who among X, Y, Z, W, and V is the lightest?
Statements:
Z is heavier than Y and V but lighter than W.
W is not the heaviest.
Options:
11. What is the shortest distance between Aville and Bville?
Statements:
Bville is 25 kms away from Ctown.
Aville is 18 kms away from Ctown.
Options:
12. Arjun, Rahul, Varun, and Karan are four friends. Who among them is the heaviest?
Statements:
Rahul is heavier than Arjun and Karan but lighter than Varun.
7
Arjun is lighter than Rahul and Varun but heavier than Karan.
Options:
13. Neha's and Arjun's incomes are in the ratio of 5 : 2 respectively. What is Neha's income?
Statements:
A. Arjun's income is 60% that of Neha's income.
B. Arjun's income is Rs 4800.
Options:
A. Statement A alone is sufficient while B alone is not sufficient.
B. Statement B alone is sufficient while A alone is not sufficient.
C. Either A or B is sufficient.
D. Neither A nor B is sufficient.
E. Both A and B are sufficient.
14. What is Rahul's rank from the top in a class of forty students?
Statements:
A. There are six students between Rahul and Akash.
B. Akash is the fifteenth from the top.
Options:
15. S studies in which of the schools X, Y, Z, W, and M?
Statements:
A. S does not study in the same school as either P or K.
B. P and K study in schools Z and M respectively.
Options:
8
16. On which day in May is Aryan's birthday?
Statements:
A. Aryan was born exactly 20 years after his father was born.
B. His father will be 45 years 8 months and 10 days on September 25 this year.
Options:
C. Both A and B are sufficient.
D. Either A or B is sufficient.
17. What is the code for 'go' in the code language?
Statements:
A. In the code language, 'ja ka la' means 'go to market'.
B. In the same code language, 'ka jo ti' means 'he will go tomorrow'.
Options:
C. Both A and B are sufficient.
18. Among G, H, I, J, K, and L, who is the heaviest?
Statements:
A. G and J are heavier than H, K, and L, but none of them is the heaviest.
B. G is heavier than J but lighter than I.
Options:
19. What is the numerical code for 'fire' in a certain code?
Statements:
A. The code for 'you can bring fire for me' is '463285'.
B. The code for 'bring fire for me' is '9285'.
Options:
9
20. How many guests attended the party yesterday?
Statements:
A. Each invitation allows the invitee to bring up to five guests.
B. In total, 150 invitations were sent out for the party.
Options:
21. Directions: Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series?
AJRX, CNXF, ERDN,?, IZPD
A. HVJV
B. GVJV
C. HVIT
D. GVKV
22. Directions: Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given
series?
GTCL, KWEM, OZGN, SCIO, ?
A. VGLQ
B. WKFD
C. VJEF
D. WFKP
23. Directions: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
2, 6, 9, 27, 30, 90, ?
A. 85
B. 88
C. 90
D. 93
24. Directions: Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series?
WTDH, URGK, SPJN, ?, OLPT
A. QNMQ
B. QNLP
C. QMNP
D. RNMQ
10
25. Directions: Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series?
214, 207, 193, ?, 144, 109
A. 172
B. 117
C. 175
D. 170
series?
3, 8, 15, 26, 39, ?
A. 61
B. 49
C. 52
D. 56
27. Directions: Which of the following letter clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
ADZ, GJF, MPL, SVR, ?
A. XYB
B. YBX
C. XBY
D. YXB
series.
2, 10, 40, 120, 240, ?
A. 480
B. 300
C. 360
D. 240
series?
27, 38, ?, 68, 87, 110
A. 47
B. 50
C. 51
D. 53
11
given series to make it logically complete?
ZXV, TRP, NLJ, HFD, ?
A. BZX
B. XZB
C. ZXB
D. BXZ
series?
BZVR, DXWQ, ?, HTYO, JRZN
A. FXPV
B. FXPN
C. FVXP
D. FVPX
series?
8, 14, ?, 44, 68, 98, 134
A. 20
B. 28
C. 36
D. 26
33. Directions: Which number should replace the question mark (?) in the following number
series?
642, 598, 554, ?, 466, 422
A. 514
B. 524
C. 500
D. 510
given series?
QZAE, RYCG, SXEI, ?, UVIM
A. TWHK
B. SWGL
C. TWGK
D. SWGK
series?
57, 69, 88, 112, 150, 186, 243, ?
12
A. 286
B. 289
C. 291
D. 300
series?
BAWP, ?, DWCH, EUFD, FSIZ
A. CYZL
B. CZYL
C. CLZY
D. CYZH
37. Directions: Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
31, 37, 46, 60, 81, ?
A. 117
B. 106
C. 122
D. 111
series?
XGR, TKN, POJ, LSF, ?, DAX
A. HVB
B. HWB
C. GWB
D. HWA
series?
XGR, TKN, POJ, LSF, ?, DAX
A. HVB
B. HWB
C. GWB
D. HWA
series?
245, 212, ?, 146, 113, 80
A. 176
B. 179
C. 178
D. 180
13
41. Directions: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the
second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each
other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Milk : Litre :: Sugar : ?
A. Hectare
B. Kilometer
C. Metre
D. Kilogram
42. Directions: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the
second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third
number.
12 : 132 :: 20 : 380 :: 2 : ?
43. Directions: Select the word pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered meaningful
English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number
of consonants/vowels in the word)
Librarian : Library
A. Sailor: Aeroplane
B. Priest : Temple
C. Watchmen : Train
D. Doctor: Treatment
second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered meaningful English
words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word)
Cells : Tissue :: Organs : ?
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Body
D. Heart
second word is related to the first word.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each
other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Paint : Art :: Prose : ?
A. Music
B. Literature
C. Drama
D. Theatre
14
46. Directions: Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and hence form
a group. Which letter cluster does not belong to that group?
A. ANHS
B. JEQJ
C. JPRT
D. PYWD
47. Directions: Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and hence form
a group. Which letter cluster does not belong to that group?
A. CGB
B. FYI
C. RKU
D. KDN
48. Directions: Three of the following four-letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is
different. Pick the odd one out.
A. HMS
B. AFZ
C. KQP
D. DIW
49. Directions: Three of the following letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is
A. ADZV
B. MPNK
C. FIUR
D. TWGD
50. Directions: Three of the following four-letter clusters are alike in a certain way and one is
A. EHV
B. BEY
C. JMP
D. GJT
51. Directions: In a certain code language, TURNIP is coded as VNRUWU, and DAIKON is
coded as TTOLCE. How will RADISH be coded in the same language?
A. NXMGCS
B. NXNHCS
C. MXNHCS
D. CYMGDP
15
52. Directions: In a certain code language, ROSE is coded as 228 and TULIP is coded as
390. How will LOTUS be coded in that language?
A. 435
B. 425
C. 430
D. 420
53. Directions: In a certain code language, ENVOY is written as DMUNX, and CHECK is
written as BGDBJ. How will ANGLE be written in that language?
A. ZNDID
B. YLDJD
C. YNEJC
D. ZMFKD
54. Directions: In a certain code language, FRISK is written as THLIQ, and MOADS is written
as QODQB. How will WAGER be written in that language?
A. CUJBC
B. CYJBD
C. CYJPC
D. CUJPG
55. Directions: In a certain code language, if CBVQ is written as 652520 and FRJT is written
as 9211323, how will EHLP be written in the same code language?
A. 80121421
B. 7910520
C. 8012514
D. 8111519
56. Directions: If MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM, then MAGNETIC will be coded as?
A. NGMAEITC
B. NGAMECTI
C. NGAMETIC
D. NGMAETIC
57. Directions: In a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN

written in that code?
A. EJKNEGTP
B. EJKNFTGP
C. EJNFITPK
D. EJKNFTGH
16
58. Directions: In a certain code language, GALE is coded as 3576, and FLAG is coded as
7361. What is the code for E in the given code language?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 7
59. Directions: In a certain code language, BOOK is written as 325, and READ is written as
400. How will ABLE be written in that language?
A. 445
B. 440
C. 442
D. 438
60. Directions: In a certain code language, SLAP is coded as 3160, and PAST is coded as
6071. What is the code for L in the given code language?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 0
61. In a class, 17 students like maths, 10 like english and 3 like none. If 2 like both English
and Maths then the total number of students in the class is
A. 24
B. 20
C. 27
D. 28
62. In a society of 25 people, 16 like tea, 13 like coffee, 2 like none.Then the number of people
who like tea only are
A. 10
B. 6
C. 15
D. 9
63. Directions: Looking at a photograph of a woman, Samuel said, "She is the mother of my
father's brother's daughter." How is Samuel related to the women shown in the picture?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Brother-in-law
D. Husband's brother's son
17
64. Directions: Pointing to a woman, Suman said, "She is the grandmother of my father-in-
law's wife's only son". How is that woman related to Suman?
A. Mother
B. Husband's grandmother
C. Daughter
D. Mother-in-law
65. Directions: By interchanging the given two signs and numbers which of the following
equations will be not correct?
× and –, 8 and 4
I. 4 + 3 × 8 – 2 ÷ 1 = 3
II. 8 × 2 – 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = 11
A. Both I and II
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Only I
The following bar diagram gives information on exporter of gemstones in the world (in billions
of dollars) . Based on this, answer the questions from 66-70.
66. What is the average export value of gemstones for India, making it the largest exporter in
the world?
A. $30 billion
B. $50 billion
C. $20 billion
D. $15 billion
18
67. Which country ranks second in gemstone exports globally?
A. Australia
B. Thailand
C. South Africa
D. Colombia
68. What is the average export value of gemstones for Thailand, the second-largest exporter?
A. $50 billion
B. $30 billion
C. $20 billion
D. $15 billion
69. Which country is the third-largest exporter of gemstones?
A. Australia
B. South Africa
C. Colombia
D. India
70. With an average export value of $10 billion, which country holds the fifth position in
gemstone exports?
A. India
B. Thailand
C. Australia
D. Colombia
The following bar diagram gives information on smartphone market share (in billions of
dollars) . Based on this, answer the questions from 71-75.
19
71. What is the total number of smartphone units sold by the five companies combined?
A. 250 million units

B. 200 million units
C. 370 million units
D. 270 million units
72. Calculate the average number of smartphone units sold by the five companies.
A. 50 million units
B. 60 million units
C. 54 million units
D. 48 million units
73. Which companies have a market share greater than the calculated average?
A. Apple and Samsung

B. Apple, Samsung, and Huawei
C. Apple, Samsung, Huawei, and Xiaomi
D. All five companies except Google
74. What is the ratio of Xiaomi's smartphone units sold to Samsung's smartphone units sold?
A. 2:5
B. 1:2.5
C. 1:5
D. 2:3
75. If Google's smartphone units sold are increased by 50%, what is the new number of units
sold by Google?
A. 15 million units
B. 25 million units
C. 30 million units
D. 35 million units
20
Section B:
Mathematical Ability
76. The least number which should be added to 8961 to make it exactly divisible by 84 is:
A. 27
B. 57
C. 141
D. 107
77. Number of composite numbers lying between 67 and 101 is:
A. 27
B. 24
C. 26
D. 23
78. If the sum of digits of any number between 100 and 1000 is subtracted by the same
number, the resulting number is always divisible by:
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
79. The difference between the greatest and the least five-digit numbers formed by 2, 5, 0, 6,
and 8 is (repetition of digits is not allowed):
A. 69552
B. 65925
C. 65952
D. 63952
80. What is the least number subtracted from 3401, so it is completely divisible by 11?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
21
81. How many numbers are there from 700 to 950 which are neither divisible by 3 nor by 7?
A. 107
B. 141
C. 144
D. 145
82. Directions: A certain sum of money was distributed among Darshana, Swati, and Nivriti.
Nivriti has INR 539 with her. If the ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati, and
Nivriti is 5: 6: 7, what is the total sum of money that was distributed?
A. INR 1,341
B. INR 1,422
C. INR 1,386
D. INR 1,356
83. Directions: An amount of INR 6,764 is to be distributed among four friends P, Q, R, and S
in the ratio of 8: 6 : 3: 2. How much amount will P and R get in total?
A. INR 4,120
B. INR 2,848
C. INR 3,916
D. INR 3,766
84. Find the LCM of 20, 30, 45 and 65.
A. 2000
B. 2340
C. 2240
D. 180
85. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 1105 and 5. If the LCM is 17 times the first number,
then find the two numbers.
A. 65 and 85
B. 55 and 85
C. 65 and 75
D. 60 and 80
86. Three numbers are in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 9 and their LCM is 34,650. Their HCF is:
A. 315
B. 55
C. 110
D. 99
22
87. The cost of apples is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net
percentage decrease?
A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 6%
88. If the price of petrol increased by 7%, then by what percentage should the consumption
be decreased by the consumer, if the expenditure on petrol remains unchanged?
A. 6 58/107%
B. 5 11/107%
C. 3 49/107%
D. 4 99/107%
89. The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman is 5 : 1. If her income and expenditure are
increased by 10% and 20%, respectively, then find the percentage change in her savings.
A. 55%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 40%
90. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 8% and 5%, respectively. By how
much percentage will the area of the rectangle increase?
A. 13.4%
B. 15.4%
C. 12.4%
D. 16.4%
91. Out of an earning of Rs.720, Pankaj spends 65%. How much does he save?
A. Rs.250
B. Rs.252
C. Rs.253
D. Rs.251
92. A laptop is sold for Rs. 54,000 after giving a discount of 20%. What is the list price (in Rs.)
of the laptop?
A. 69,500
B. 67,500
C. 70,000
D. 64,800
23
93. A trader allows a 20% trade discount and a 30% cash discount. If the list price is INR 1,200,
the selling price (in INR) is:
A. 627
B. 720
C. 762
D. 672
94. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at a cost price but he uses 950 gm weight
for a kilogram. His gain percentage is: (rounded off to two decimal places)
A. 5.35%
B. 5.26%
C. 5.86%
D. 5.96%
95. If the cost price of 28 oranges is equal to the selling price of 24 oranges, then the profit
percentage is:
A. 16 2/3%
B. 16 1/3%
C. 18 2/3%
D. 18 1/3%
96. A, B and C enter into a partnership with capitals in the ratio 2/3 : 3/5 : 5/6. After 8 months,
A increases his share of capital by 25%. If at the end of the year, the total profit earned is INR
5,820, then the share of C in the profit is:
A. INR 2,050
B. INR 2,350
C. INR 2,450
D. INR 2,250
97. A and B enter into a partnership with capital in the ratio 5: 6. After 4 months, A withdraws
1/5 of his capital, while B increases his capital by 33 1/3%, What is the share (in INR lakhs) of
B in the annual profit of INR 6.3 lakhs?
A. 2.34
B. 3.96
C. 2.61
D. 3.69
98. A and B enter into a partnership such that 5 times A's investment is equal to 7 times B's
investment. If the total profit is Rs. 12000, then what is the share of A?
A. Rs. 6300
B. Rs. 7000
24
C. Rs. 8000
D. Rs. 7500
99. A can complete a work in 18 days, while B can complete it in 12 days. B worked on it for 4
days. How long will A take to finish the remaining work?
A. 16 days
B. 12 days
C. 14 days
D. 10 days
100. A, B and C working alone, can complete a job in 16, 24 and 36 days, respectively. In how
many days can they complete the job if they work together?
A. 7 11/19
B. 5 17/19
C. 4 13/19
D. 6 7/19
101. An inlet pipe can fill an empty tank in 3.6 hours, while an outlet pipe can drain a
completely filled tank in 6.3 hours. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously when the tank
is empty, in how many hours will the tank get completely filled?
A. 9
B. 8.4
C. 8.1
D. 8.7
102. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 36 km/hr and 48 km/hr. The time taken
by the faster train to cross a man sitting in the slower train is 33 seconds. What will be the
length of the faster train?
A. 770 metres
B. 90 metres
C. 110 metres
D. 180 metres
103. Two tourist buses start from the same point and move along two roads at right angles
at speeds of 48 km/hr and 36 km/hr, respectively. The distance between the buses after 15
seconds is ________.
A. 175 m
B. 350 m
C. 250 m
D. 150 m
25
104. The radius of a hemisphere is 6.3 cm. What will be its volume?
A. 572.80 cm3
B. 643.50 cm3
C. 523.90 cm3
D. 353.38 cm3
105. What is the area of the curved surface of a right circular cone with a height of 8 m and a
slant height of 10 m?
A. 60 m2
B. 60π m2
C. 40 m2
D. 40π m2
106. What is the diameter (in cm) of a sphere with a surface area of 6.16 sq cm?
A. 1.4
B. 0.7
C. 2.8
D. 2.1
107. The total surface area of a hemisphere is 41.58 sq. cm. Find its curved surface area.
A. 27.72 sq. cm.

B. 55.44 sq. cm.
C. 9.24 sq. cm.
D. 13.86 sq. cm.
108. The diameter of a sphere is twice the diameter of another sphere. The curved surface
area of the first and the volume of the second are numerically equal. The numerical value of
the radius of the first sphere is:
A. 3
B. 24
C. 8
D. 16
109. The diagonal of a cuboid of length 5 cm, width 4 cm, and height 3 cm is:
A. 5√2 cm
B. 2√5 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 10 cm
110. The longest rod that can be placed in a room is 12 metres long, 9 metres broad, and 8
metres high is:
26
A. 27 m
B. 19 m
C. 17 m
D. 13 m
111. If X and Y are two sets such that X has 42 elements, Y has 64 elements, and X ∩ Y has
22 elements, how many elements does X ∪ Y have ?
A. 94
B. 74
C. 84
D. None of these
112. In a group of 100 people, 65 can speak Hindi and 55 can speak English. Then number of
people, who can speak both Hindi and English is
A. 20
B. 10
C. 40
D. 30
113. In a school there are 40 teachers who teach mathematics or physics. Of these, 24 teach
mathematics and 8 teach both physics and mathematics. Then the number of teacher
who teach physics is
A. 12
B. 24
C. 28
D. 20
114. The highest power of the variable that occurs in the polynomial is called the __________ .
A. Coefficient
B. Degree
C. Leading term
D. None of these
115. The degree of the polynomial is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
116. The digits of a two-digit number differ by seven. Find the difference of the number and
the number formed by reversing the digits?
27
A. 54
B. 36
C. 63
D. 82
117. If (1, 4) is the point of intersection of the lines 2x + by = 6 and 3y = 8 + ax, Then the value
of a + b is
A. 5
B. 1
C. 4
D. None of these
118. If a + b = 11 and ab = 35, then what is the value of (a4 + b4)?
A. 151
B. 261
C. 124
D. 102
119. The average of 100 items was found to be 30. If, at the time of calculation, two items
were wrongly taken as 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11, then the correct average is:
A. 29.8
B. 29
C. 29.9
D. 29.5
120. Four numbers are in AP also the series of the three terms i.e. the first of these numbers,
twice the average of second and third numbers and the fourth number are in GP. What will be
the ratio of the product of the first and fourth term of AP to the product of the second and
third term of AP?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
121. The sum of 10 terms of the series 9, 99, 999, 9999, … is
A.
B.
28
C.
D. None of these
122. Find the 4th term of the HP 6, 4, 3, …
A. 0
B. 2
C. 5/12
D. 12/5
123. How many terms of the geometric series 2+4+8+16+..... will make the sum 510?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
124. The next term of the sequence 3, 15, 75, 375, ... is
A. 1500
B. 1875
C. 2000
D. 2500
125. If the sum of three of an AP is 15 and their product is 80, then the terms are
A. 1, 5, 9
B. 5, 5, 5
C. 2, 5, 8
D. 4, 5, 6
126. From the top of a building 60 meters high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom
of a tower are observed to be 30 degrees and 60 degrees, respectively. The height of the tower
in meters is:
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
127.
29
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.
A. 2 - 2√2
B. 3 - √6
C. 3 - √2
D. 2 - √3
129.
A. 1/3
B. 2/√13
C. 2/3
D. 3/√13
130. A coconut tree swings with the wind in such a manner that the angle covered by its trunk
is 18°. If the topmost portion of the tree covers a distance of 44 metres, find the length of the
tree. ( tan 18° = 0.3249).
A. 120 metres
B. 210 metres
C. 140 metres
D. 70 metres
131. A person standing at a distance looks at a building having a height of 1000 metres. The
angle between the top of the building and the ground is 30o. At what approximate distance (in
metres) is the person standing away from the building?
A. 1000
B. 936
C. 1732
D. 1542
30
132. The radius of a circle is 10 cm. The angle made by chord AB at the centre of this circle is
60 degrees. What is the length of this chord?
A. 40 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 10 cm
133. The circumference of the two circles is 198 cm and 352 cm respectively. What is the
difference between their radii?
A. 45 cm
B. 16.5 cm
C. 49.5 cm
D. 24.5 cm
134. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base 28 cm and the same area. If the height
of the parallelogram is 12 cm, then find the length of the altitude of the triangle.
A. 28 cm
B. 23 cm
C. 24 cm
D. 21 cm
135. The length of the chord of a circle is 24 cm, and the perpendicular distance between the
centre and the chord is 5 cm. The radius of the circle is:
A. 10 cm
B. 13 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 24 cm
136. An aeroplane goes 14 km due east and then 48 km due north. How far is it from its initial
position?
A. 14 km
B. 48 km
C. 50 km
D. 28 km
137. Two angles of a triangle are equal and the third angle measures 78°. What is the measure
of each of the unknown angles?
A. 50°
B. 51°
C. 49°
D. 52°
31
138. If the side of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, then what is its area?
A. 81√3 cm2
B. 48√3 cm2
C. 32√3 cm2
D. 64√3 cm2
139. The value of x for which lines l and m be parallel to each other?
A. 60°
B. 30°
C. 120°
D. 90°
140. Two lines AB and CD intersect each other at a point O such that ∠AOC : ∠AOD = 1:2,
then the measure of ∠BOD is
A. 30°
B. 120°
C. 60°
D. 90°
141. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a king or a heart
or a red card.
A. 4/13
B. 2/13
C. 6/13
D. 7/13
32
142. A jewelry box contains 5 white pearl, 2 gold rings and 6 silver rings. What are the odds of
drawing a white pearl from the jewelry box?
A. 3:5
B. 5:8
C. 3:8
D. 5:6
143. If the letters of the word ALGORITHM are arranged at random in a row what is the
probability the letters GOR must remain together as a unit?
A. 1/24
B. 1/72
C. 5/36
D. 1/36
144. Find the mode of the ungrouped data set: 3, 5, 2, 1, 5, 4, 4, 2, 3, 1, 4, 3, 3
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 4
145. A school conducted a survey to find the number of books students have. The data was
grouped as follows. What is the mode number of books?
Number of Siblings Frequency
0-10 25
10-20 50
20-30 20
30-40 15
40-50 10
A. 14.54
B. 15.72
C. 14.33
D. 14.21
146. Calculate the median of the following numerical data
33
Class Interval Frequency
10-20 5
20-30 10
30-40 12
40-50 8
50-60 5
A. 42.5
B. 33.7
C. 39.6
D. 41.2
147. Which of the following statements best sums up the median when applied to grouped
data?
A. The median depicts the value that occurs the most commonly.
B. When data are sorted in ascending order, the median represents the middle value.
C. The median is an indicator of data speed.
D. The median is the data's arithmetic average.
148. The average mark of 60 students in a class is 62. The average marks of boys and girls in
that subject are 60 and 65, respectively. The number of boys in the class is:
A. 36
B. 25
C. 41
D. 34
149. The average weight of 5 men decreases by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is
replaced by another person. Find the weight of the new person.
A. 125 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 120 kg
D. 135 kg
150. The average of eight consecutive odd numbers is 48. Find the sum of the fifth and
seventh numbers.
A. 102
B. 86
C. 89
D. 90
34
Section C:
Communication Ability
151. In astronomy, a star that suddenly increases in brightness, often outshining an entire
galaxy, is called a ________.
A. Quasar
B. Black Hole
C. Supernova
D. Comet
152. The close-knit community of researchers working on dinosaur fossils shared a ________
camaraderie, fostering collaboration and mutual support.
A. Distant
B. Bosom
C. Casual
D. Formal
153. The dictator ruled with an iron fist, creating a ________ regime that suppressed dissent
and opposition.
A. Democratic
B. Dictatorial
C. Monarchical
D. Republican
154. The archaeologist meticulously uncovered the ancient artifacts, revealing a rich and
________ history of the civilization.
A. Somber
B. Eclectic
C. Joyous
D. Redundant
155. The children played joyfully and ___________ in the park, their laughter echoing through
the air.
A. Emphatically
B. Inaudibly
C. Cautiously
D. Audibly
35
156. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Peruse
A. Check
B. Draw
C. Pursue
D. Narrate
157. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Isn’t knowledge supposed to make life sweeter and happier?
A. Curriculum
B. Profession
C. Wisdom
D. Superiority

Demolish
A. Create
B. Fabricate
C. Ruin
D. Shape
159. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the underlined word.

No one was prepared for the environmental calamity that hit the town in the middle of the
night.
A. Damage
B. Catastrophe
C. Degradation
D. Stress

Predicament
A. Ease
B. Quandary
C. Blessing
D. Solution
161. She insisted on ________ the document before the meeting.
A. Reviewing
B. Reviewed
C. Review
D. Reviews
36
162. The cat tried ________ the high shelf to reach the toy.
A. To Climb
B. Climbing
C. Climbed
D. Climb
163. The students were asked to complete the assignment by Friday, but many of them still
haven't ________ it.
A. Completing
B. Complete
C. Completed
D. Completer
164. The chef spent hours ________ the perfect recipe for the new dish.
A. To Develop
B. Developed
C. Developing
D. Develop
165. The orchestra members are rehearsing diligently to ________ a flawless performance at
the concert.
A. Delivering
B. Delivered
C. Deliver
D. Delivers
166. She decided to ________ smoking last year and has been successful in maintaining a
smoke-free lifestyle.
A. Give Up
B. Give Off
C. Give Away
D. Give In
167. The team needs to ________ new strategies to overcome the challenges they are facing.
A. Come Across
B. Come Up With
C. Come Over
D. Come Into
37
168. The company decided to ________ the old policies and implement more modern and
effective ones.
A. Phase Out
B. Phase In
C. Phase Over
D. Phase Up
169. The manager asked the employee to ________ the report before the deadline.
A. Turn Up
B. Turn In
C. Turn On
D. Turn Over
170. I'm sorry, but I need to ________ this meeting early as I have another appointment.
A. Break Off
B. Break Down
C. Break Out
D. Break Up
171. The students were thrilled ________ the opportunity to participate in the science fair.
A. For
B. Of
C. At
D. Upon
172. The chef is known for his mastery ________ creating exquisite desserts.
A. For
B. Of
C. At
D. Upon
173. The team worked together diligently ________ completing the project ahead of schedule.
A. For
B. Of
C. At
D. Upon
174. The cat pounced ________ the mouse as it scurried across the floor.
A. For
B. Of
38
C. At
D. Upon
175. The artist is renowned ________ her vivid and expressive paintings.
A. For
B. Of
C. At
D. Upon
176. Which generation of computers introduced the use of transistors, reducing the size and
cost of computer systems?
A. First Generation
B. Second Generation
C. Third Generation
D. Fourth Generation
177. What type of computer is designed for large-scale processing of business data and is
commonly used in organizations for tasks such as database management and transaction
processing?
A. Supercomputers
B. Mainframe Computers
C. Microcomputers
D. Minicomputers
178. Which category of computers is known for its extremely high-performance capabilities
and is often used for complex scientific and engineering calculations?
A. Minicomputers
B. Supercomputers
C. Workstations
D. Microcomputers
179. What was the primary electronic component used in the first generation of computers?
A. Microprocessors
B. Transistors
C. Vacuum Tubes
D. Integrated Circuits
180. What does the acronym GUI stand for in the context of computers?
A. General User Interface

B. Graphical User Interface
C. General Utility Integration
D. Graphic Unit Interface
39
181. What does the phrase "Hit the ground running" mean in a business context?
A. Start a project quickly and energetically.

B. Reach a compromise in negotiations.
C. Focus on low-priority tasks first.
D. Close a business deal efficiently.
182. When someone suggests "Thinking outside the box" in a business meeting, what are they
encouraging?
A. Staying within traditional boundaries.

B. Generating creative and unconventional ideas.
C. Following established procedures.
D. Avoiding risks and challenges.
183. In a business setting, what does the term "Low-hanging fruit" refer to?
A. Challenging and complex tasks.

B. Easily achievable tasks or goals.
C. Unreachable objectives.
D. Unexpected obstacles.
184. How is the term "Win-win situation" typically used in business?
A. A situation where one party benefits.

B. A scenario where both parties benefit.
C. A negotiation strategy focused on dominance.
D. A compromise that leaves both parties dissatisfied.
185. What does the phrase "Circle back" mean in a business context?
A. Closing a business deal.

B. Revisiting or discussing a topic later.
C. Initiating a project.
D. Starting a process quickly and energetically.
Read the Passage and answer the questions Q. No. 186 to Q. No. 190
The alarming degradation of ecosystems demands urgent attention. The current

environmental crisis, including the ongoing loss of biodiversity and exploitation of natural
resources, exacerbates the vulnerability of our planet. The need to restore and preserve
ecosystems has never been more critical.
The ongoing climate crisis is closely linked to the depletion of natural areas and species loss.
A significant contributor to this crisis is the relentless exploitation of coastal and marine
ecosystems, deforestation, and unsustainable land-use practices. To address this global
challenge, active participation in the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is imperative. This
40
ten-year initiative is not just an environmental endeavour; it is a pathway to eradicating
poverty, mitigating climate change impacts, and preserving biodiversity.
India must play a proactive role in this global effort. The restoration of ecosystems offers a
multi-faceted solution. It provides an opportunity to enhance livelihoods, combat climate
change by restoring natural carbon stores, and create habitats for wildlife, thereby preventing
the collapse of biodiversity. A sustainable future for India requires a fundamental shift in how
we approach agriculture, forestry, and land management. The focus should be on cultivating
food systems that harmonize with nature.
Empowering small-scale farmers and women in agriculture is integral to achieving these
goals. Beyond that, challenging societal norms and business practices that contribute to
environmental degradation is essential. Capacity building and education are powerful tools to
instigate these changes.
On a global scale, there is an urgent need to reduce net carbon dioxide emissions by 45% by
2030. Achieving net-zero emissions by 2050 is crucial to meeting the Paris Agreement's target
of limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius. India must lead the charge in transforming
energy systems, land use, agriculture, forest protection, urban development, infrastructure,
and lifestyles to contribute significantly to these global efforts.
186. The degradation of ecosystems is directly linked to:
A. A decrease in healthcare facilities.

B. A decrease in natural spaces.
C. Exploitation of natural habitat.
D. Healthier ecosystems.
187. The primary goal of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is:
A. Eradicating poverty through industrialization.

B. Focusing on space exploration.
C. Enhancing livelihoods and combating climate change.
D. Ignoring the environmental crisis.
188. The recommended changes for ecological balance include:
A. Exploiting coastal, marine life, and soil erosion.

B. Upholding progress unmindful of the damage to the environs.
C. The way we farm our lands without causing damage to ecosystems.
D. Ignoring the impact of human activities on the environment.
189. Climate change is:
A. Highly warranted.
B. In the interest of wildlife.
C. Detrimental to human and natural resources.
D. A natural progression that one cannot stop.
41
190. Achieving the goal of reducing net carbon dioxide emissions by 45% by 2030 requires
substantial transformations in
A. Space exploration technologies.

B. Agricultural practices.
C. Ignoring global environmental agreements.
D. Exploitation of marine life.
Growing up in a small town nestled between rolling hills and meandering streams, my
childhood was a canvas painted with simplicity and charm. The local community was tight-
knit, and life moved at a leisurely pace, much like the gentle breeze that rustled through the
ancient oak trees. Our days were filled with adventures along dirt roads, picking wildflowers
in the meadows, and creating memories that would last a lifetime.
As I reflect on those formative years, it becomes evident that the quaint town shaped my
values and perspective on life. The sense of belonging and shared experiences within the
community fostered a deep appreciation for connection and relationships. Each person had a
role to play, from the bustling town square to the cosy corner diner where locals gathered for
hearty conversations over steaming mugs of coffee.
Despite the simplicity, challenges were not absent. Economic shifts and changing times
brought transformations to our small haven. The once-familiar landscape evolved, and the
close-knit community faced the need to adapt. The echoes of those changes, both poignant
and hopeful, left an indelible mark on my understanding of resilience and the inevitability of
transformation.
Questions:
191. What was the author's childhood town like?
A. Bustling metropolis.
B. Nestled between hills and streams.
C. Desert landscape.
D. Urban and fast-paced.
192. How does the author describe the local community?
A. Disconnected and distant.

B. Tight-knit and close.
C. Chaotic and disorganized.
D. Modern and cosmopolitan.
193. What shaped the author's values and perspective on life?
A. Busy city life.

B. Rolling hills and meandering streams.
42
C. Adventures along dirt roads.
D. Economic challenges.
194. What did economic shifts and changing times bring to the small town?
A. Stability and prosperity.

B. Nostalgia and reminiscence.
C. Transformations and the need to adapt.
D. Stagnation and resistance to change.
195. How does the author characterize the impact of economic shifts and changing times
on the small town?
A. A seamless transition without challenges.

B. A stagnation of progress.
C. Transformations necessitating adaptation.
D. Nostalgia without any mark on the town.
In the twilight of the old library, I stumbled upon a literary gem that was a real feather in the
cap of classic literature. As I stduied its pages, I encountered an idiom that added a new layer
to the narrative — "to paint the town red." The author used this vibrant phrase to describe the
characters' exuberant celebration, leaving an indelible mark on the story.
The protagonist, an erudite individual with a penchant for solitude, embarked on a journey that
meandered through the labyrinth of self-discovery. The narrative unfolded like a tapestry of
emotions, with each chapter revealing a new facet of the protagonist's complex personality.
The author's adept use of synonyms painted vivid pictures, capturing the essence of the
character's multifaceted nature.
Yet, in the midst of the literary richness, an antonym surfaced to add contrast to the narrative.
The protagonist's initial reticence gave way to moments of ebullience, creating a dynamic
character arc that kept the reader engaged. The juxtaposition of these contrasting elements
showcased the author's mastery in crafting a narrative that resonated beyond the pages of
the book.
196. What does the idiom "to paint the town red" mean in the context of the passage?
A. To criticize someone.
B. To celebrate with enthusiasm.
C. To create a melancholic atmosphere.
D. To express gratitude.
197. Which synonym is used in the passage to describe the protagonist's love for solitude?
A. Gregarious.
B. Introverted.
43
C. Sociable.
D. Outgoing.
198. What is the antonym for "reticence" as described in the passage?
A. Reserve.
B. Taciturnity.
C. Loquacity.
D. Silence.
199. How does the author describe the protagonist's journey in the passage?
A. Direct and straightforward.

B. Meandering through the labyrinth of self-discovery.
C. Predictable and monotonous.
D. Focused on external adventures.
200. What does the juxtaposition of contrasting elements in the narrative showcase according
to the passage?
A. The author's struggle with writing techniques.

B. The protagonist's consistent personality traits.
C. The author's mastery in crafting a resonant narrative.
D. The lack of depth in character development.
44
Answer Key
==========================================================================
==========================================================================
1 - D, 2 - D, 3 - D, 4 - A, 5 - D, 6 - D, 7 - D, 8 - D, 9 - D, 10 - D,11 - D, 12 - A, 13 - B, 14 - D, 15 - D, 16
- C, 17 - C, 18 - A, 19 - D, 20 - D, 21 - B, 22 - D, 23 - D, 24 - A, 25 - A, 26 - D, 27 - B, 28 - D, 29 - C,
30 - A, 31 - C, 32 - D, 33 - D, 34 - C, 35 - C, 36 - C, 37 - D, 38 - B, 39 - B, 40 - B,41 - D, 42 - D, 43 - B,
44 - C, 45 - B, 46 - C, 47 - A, 48 - C, 49 - A, 50 - A, 51 - A, 52 - A,53 - D, 54 - C, 55 - D, 56 - C, 57 - B,
58 - B, 59 - B, 60 - A, 61 - D, 62 - A, 63 - D, 64 - B, 65 - B, 66 - B, 67 - B, 68 - B, 69 - A, 70 - D, 71 -
C, 72 - C, 73 - A, 74 - B, 75 - C, 76 - A, 77 - A, 78 - D, 79 - C, 80 - C, 81 - C, 82 - C, 83 - C, 84 - B, 85
- A, 86 - C, 87 - A, 88 - A, 89 - D, 90 - A, 91 - B, 92 - B, 93 - D, 94 - B, 95 - A, 96 - D, 97 - B, 98 - B,
99 - B, 100 - A, 101 - B, 102 - C, 103 - C, 104 - C, 105 - B, 106 - A, 107 - A, 108 - B, 109 - A, 110 -
C , 111 - C, 112 - A, 113 - B, 114 - B, 115 - B, 116 - C, 117 - A, 118 - A, 119 - A, 120 - B, 121 - A,
122 - D, 123 - B, 124 - B, 125 - C, 126 - A, 127 - D, 128 - D, 129 - B , 130 - C,131 - C, 132 - D, 133
- D, 134 - C, 135 - B, 136 - C, 137 - B, 138 - D, 139 - B, 140 - C, 141 - D, 142 - B, 143 - B, 144 - A,
145 - A, 146 - A, 147 - B, 148 - A, 149 - D, 150 - A, 151 - C, 152 - B, 153 - B, 154 - B, 155 - D, 156 -
A, 157 - C, 158 - C, 159 - B, 160 - B, 161 - A, 162 - A, 163 - C, 164 - C, 165 - C, 166 - A, 167 - B,
168 - A, 169 - B, 170 - A, 171 - C, 172 - B, 173 - A, 174 - D, 175 - A, 176 - B, 177 - B, 178 - B, 179 -
C, 180 - B, 181 - A, 182 - B, 183 - B, 184 - B, 185 - B, 186 - B, 187 - C, 188 - C, 189 - C, 190 - B, 191
- B, 192 - B, 193 - B, 194 - C, 195 - C, 196 - B, 197 - B, 198 - C, 199 - B, 200 - C
==========================================================================
==========================================================================
45
Solutions
1.
Option D is the right answer. From both I and II, we find that Priya is (40 - 30) = 10 years older
than her sister, who was born in 1970. So, Priya was born in 1960.
2.
From I, we conclude that the weight of each chair = (4 × 6) kg = 24 kg.
So, the total weight of 8 chairs = (24 × 8) kg = 192 kg.
From II, we conclude that:
The weight of each chair = (weight of 4 chairs) - (weight of 3 chairs) = 15 kg.
So, the total weight of 8 chairs = (15 × 8) kg = 120 kg.
Therefore, neither I nor II alone is sufficient to determine the total weight of 8 chairs.
3.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine the number of children A has.
4.
The correct option is A. I alone is sufficient to determine the total sale of the store, which is
Rs. (6000 x 30) = Rs. 180,000.
5.
The correct option is D. Both I and II are sufficient to determine that Mia read (400 - (400 ×
3/4) - 50) i.e., 50 pages on Saturday.
6.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine how many students play
basketball in the class. Because it is not mentioned in the question about the number of boys
who play basketball.
7.
The correct option is D. Both I and II are sufficient to determine that Arjun's age is 12 years.
Explanation:
As given in I and II, we have: A = R = K, R + K + A = 36, and A = R + K.
Putting R + K = A in R + K + A = 36, we have: 2A = 36 or A = 18.
Thus, R + K = 18, and since A = R = K, each of them is 6 years old. Therefore, Arjun's age is 12
years.
8.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine the amount of money Alok
and Rohini have together.
46
Explanation:
From I, we have: R = H - 25.
From II, we have: A = H + 40.
Thus, from both I and II, we have: A + R = (H + 40) + (H - 25) = (2H + 15).
So, to get the required amount, we need to know the amount that Rahul (H) has, which is not
provided in the statements.
9.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine who came last for the
program.
Explanation:
From I, we have the order: N, P, T.
From II, we have the order: T, K, R.
Combining the above two, we get the order: N, P, T, K, R.
Thus, we cannot determine who came last for the program as the order is not fully determined.
10.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine who is the lightest among X,
Y, Z, W, and V.
Explanation:
From I, we have: Z > Y, Z > V, W > Z. Thus, we have W > Z > Y > V.
From II, W is not the heaviest. So, X is the heaviest. Thus, we have: X > W > Z > Y > V.
Therefore, we cannot determine who is the lightest among X, Y, Z, W, and V, as the order is
not fully determined.
11.
The correct option is D. Neither I nor II is sufficient to determine the shortest distance
between Aville and Bville.
Explanation:
From I, we have: Bville is 25 kms away from Ctown.
From II, we have: Aville is 18 kms away from Ctown.
However, we do not have information about the relative positions of Aville, Bville, and Ctown,
so we cannot determine the shortest distance between Aville and Bville.
12.
The correct option is A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient to determine who
among Arjun, Rahul, Varun, and Karan is the heaviest.
Explanation:
From I, we have: R > A, R > K, V > R.
Thus, V > R > A > K or V > R > K > A. So, Varun is the heaviest.
From II, we have: R > A, V > A, A > K.
Thus, V > R > A > K or R > V > A > K. So, either Varun or Rahul is the heaviest.
13.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Statement A is simply an interpretation of the information provided in the question.
47
However, Neha's income can be determined from Statement B as follows: Let Neha's and
Arjun's incomes be 5y and 2y respectively. Then, 2y = 4800 or y = 2400. Therefore, Neha's
income = 5y = Rs. 12000. Hence only B is required.
14.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Statement A is insufficient as it provides a range of possibilities for Rahul's rank without a
specific position.
However, Statement B alone is also insufficient, as it only gives information about Akash's
rank and doesn't provide any direct information about Rahul.
Therefore, neither statement alone is sufficient to determine Rahul's rank.
15.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
As given in both statements A and B, P studies in school Z, and K studies in school M. So, S
does not study in school Z or school M. Thus, S studies in any one of the schools X, Y, or W.
However, we cannot determine the specific school where S studies. Therefore, neither
statement alone is sufficient to determine the school where S studies.
16.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Clearly, the birthday of Aryan's father can be found out from Statement B, and then Aryan's
birthday can be determined using the fact given in Statement A. Therefore, both statements
together are sufficient to determine the day in May on which Aryan's birthday falls.
17.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In both statements A and B, the common word is 'go', and the common code word is 'ka'. So,
'ka' is the code for 'go'. Therefore, both statements together are sufficient to determine the
code for 'go' in the given code language.
18.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
From Statement A, we conclude that since none of G and J is the heaviest and each one of H,
K, and L is lighter than both G and J, so I is the heaviest. Therefore, Statement A alone is
sufficient to determine who is the heaviest.
19.
Answer: Option D
48
Explanation:
In Statement A and B, the common words are 'for' and 'me', and the common code numbers
are '2' and '5'. So, the code for 'fire' is either '2' or '5'. However, there is no unique code for
'fire' that can be determined from either statement alone. Therefore, neither statement alone
is sufficient to determine the code for 'fire'.
20.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
From Statement A, we know that each invitation allows the invitee to bring up to five guests.
From Statement B, we know that 150 invitations were sent out.
However, we cannot determine the exact number of guests who attended the party since it
depends on how many guests each invitee brings. Therefore, neither statement alone is
sufficient to determine the number of guests.
21.
Given: AJRX, CNXF, ERDN, ?, IZPD
Like AJRX;
A J R X
+2 +4 +6 +8
C N X F
Similarly for
C N X F
+2 +4 +6 +8
E R D N
Hence, the next letter cluster —

E R D N
+2 +4 +6 +8
G V J V
So on, the next letter cluster will be obtained by —

G V J V
+2 +4 +6 +8
I Z P D
So, the missing letter cluster is GVJN. Hence the second option is correct.
49
22.
Given: GTCL, KWEM, OZGN, SCIO,?
Add consecutive natural numbers in decreasing order (starting from 4) to the letters of the
previous term to get the next term in the series.
GTCL → G + 4 = K; T + 3 = W; C + 2 = E; L + 1 = M → KWEM
KWEM → K + 4 = O; W + 3 = Z; E + 2 = G; M + 1 = N → OZGN
OZGN → O + 4 = S; Z + 3 = C; G + 2 = I; N + 1 = O → SCIO
SCIO → S + 4 = W; C + 3 = F; I + 2 = K; O + 1 = P → WFKP
So, WFKP is the missing term in the given series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
23.
Given: 2, 6, 9, 27, 30, 90, ?
Multiply and add 3 alternatively to each term of the series to get the next term.
2 × 3 = 6; 6 + 3 = 9; 9 × 3 = 27; 27 + 3 = 30; 30 × 3 = 90; 90 + 3 = 93
So, 93 is the missing term of the series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
24.
Given: WTDH, URGK, SPJN, ?, OLPT
Like, W – 2 = U; T – 2 = R; D + 3 = G; H + 3 = K. The letters are URGK.
⇒ U – 2 = S; R – 2 = P; G + 3 = J; K + 3 = N. The letters are SPJN.
Similarly, S – 2 = Q; P – 2 = N; J + 3 = M; N + 3 = Q. The letters are QNMQ.
Hence, the first option is correct.
25.
Given: 214, 207, 193, ?, 144, 109
Subtract the consecutive multiples of 7 from each term to get the next term.
214 – 7 = 207; 207 – 14 = 193; 193 – 21 = 172; 172 – 28 = 144; 144 – 35 = 109
So, 172 is the missing term in the series. Hence, the first option is correct.
26.
Given: 3, 8, 15, 26, 39, ?
Add consecutive prime numbers to each term to get the next term in the series.
3 + 5 = 8; 8 + 7 = 15; 15 + 11 = 26; 26 + 13 = 39; 39 + 17 = 56
So, 56 is the missing term. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
27.
Given: ADZ, GJF, MPL, SVR, ?
Add 6 to each letter cluster to get the next term in the given series –
ADZ→A + 6 = G, D + 6 = J, Z + 6 = F
GJF→G + 6 = M, J + 6 = P, F + 6 = L
MPL→M + 6 = S, P + 6 = V, L + 6 = R
SVR→S + 6 = Y, V + 6 = B, R + 6 = X
So, YBX is the missing term. Hence, the second option is correct.
50
28.
Given: 2, 10, 40, 120, 240, ?
Multiply the numbers by the consecutive natural numbers (in decreasing order) to get the
next term –
2 × 5 = 10; 10 × 4 = 40; 40 × 3 = 120; 120 × 2 = 240; 240 × 1 = 240
So, the missing number is 240. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
29.
Given: 27, 38, ?, 68, 87, 110
Add consecutive prime numbers (starting from 11) to each number in the given series to get
the next number of the series.
27 + 11 = 38; 38 + 13 = 51; 51 + 17 = 68; 68 + 19 = 87; 87 + 23 = 110
So, 51 is the missing number. Hence, the third option is correct.
30.
Given: ZXV, TRP, NLJ, HFD, ?
Subtract 6 from the positional value of each letter to get the next term.
ZXV; Z – 6 = T; X – 6 = R; V – 6 = P,
TRP; T – 6 = N; R – 6 = L; P – 6 = J,
NLJ; N – 6 = H; L – 6 = F; J – 6 = D,
HFD; H – 6 = B; F – 6 = Z; D – 6 = X
So, the missing term is BZX. Hence, the first option is correct.
31.
Given: BZVR, DXWQ, ?, HTYO, JRZN
Add 2, and 1 to the first and the third letters respectively, and subtract 2 and 1 from the
second and the fourth letters of the previous term to get the next term in the series.
First letter of the series→B + 2 = D; D + 2 = F; F + 2 = H; H + 2 = J
Second letter of the series→ Z – 2 = X; X – 2 = V; V – 2 = T; T – 2 = R
Third letter of the series→V + 1 = W; W + 1 = X; X + 1 = Y; Y + 1 = Z
Fourth letter of the series→R – 1 = Q; Q – 1 = P; P – 1 = O; O – 1 = N
So, FVXP is the required letter cluster of the series. Hence, the third option is correct.
32.
Given: 8, 14, ?, 44, 68, 98, 134
Here, the logic is that the difference between the numbers is a multiple of 6 in ascending
order.
14 – 8 = 6; 26 – 14 = 12; 44 – 26 = 18; 68 – 44 =24; 98 – 68 = 30; 134 – 98 = 36
So, the missing number is 26. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
33.
Given: 642, 598, 554, ?, 466, 422
Let's apply the pattern –
642 – 44 = 598; 598 – 44 = 554; 554 – 44 = 510; 510 – 44 = 466; 466 – 44 = 422
510 is the missing number in the series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
51
34.
Given: QZAE, RYCG, SXEI, ?, UVIM
Add 1, 2, and 2 to the place values of the first, third, and fourth letters respectively, and subtract
1 from the second letter to get the respective letters of the next term –
First letter: Q + 1 = R; R + 1 = S; S + 1 = T; T + 1 = U
Second letter: Z – 1 = Y; Y – 1 = X; X – 1 = W; W – 1 = V
Third letter: A + 2 = C; C + 2 = E; E + 2 = G; G + 2 = I
Fourth letter: E + 2 = G; G + 2 = I; I + 2 = K; K + 2 = M
TWGK is the missing term of the series. Hence, the third option is correct.
35.
Given: 57, 69, 88, 112, 150, 186, 243, ?
The pattern followed is –
So, 291 is the answer
36.
Given: BAWP, ?, DWCH, EUFD, FSIZ
Add and subtract consecutive natural numbers alternatively from each letter of the given letter
clusters.
BAWP→B + 1 = C; A – 2 = Y; W + 3 = Z; P – 4 = L→CYZL
CYZL→C + 1 = D; Y – 2 = W; Z + 3 = C; L – 4 = H→DWCH
DWCH→D + 1 = E; W – 2 = U; C + 3 = F; H – 4 = D→EUFD
EUFD→E + 1 = F; U – 2 = S; F + 3 = I; D – 4 = Z→FSIZ
So, CYZL is the missing term in the series. Hence, the first option is correct.
missing term. Hence, the third option is correct.
37.
Given: 31, 37, 46, 60, 81, ?
The difference of the numbers being added to the terms of the series is an odd number.
The pattern is as follows –
So, 111 is the missing number of the given series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
52
38.
Given: XGR, TKN, POJ, LSF, ?, DAX
Subtract and add 4 alternatively to the place values of the letters in the clusters.
XGR→X – 4 = T; G + 4 = K; R – 4 = N
TKN→T – 4 = P; K + 4 = O; N – 4 = J
POJ→P – 4 = L; O + 4 = S; J – 4 = F
LSF→L – 4 = H; S + 4 = W; F – 4 = B
HWB→H – 4 = D; W + 4 = A; B – 4 = X
HWB is the missing term of the series. Hence, the second option is correct.
39.
Given: XGR, TKN, POJ, LSF, ?, DAX
Subtract and add 4 alternatively to the place values of the letters in the clusters.
XGR→X – 4 = T; G + 4 = K; R – 4 = N
TKN→T – 4 = P; K + 4 = O; N – 4 = J
POJ→P – 4 = L; O + 4 = S; J – 4 = F
LSF→L – 4 = H; S + 4 = W; F – 4 = B
HWB→H – 4 = D; W + 4 = A; B – 4 = X
HWB is the missing term of the series. Hence, the second option is correct.
40.
Given: 245, 212, ?, 146, 113, 80
Here, the pattern is –
245 – 33 = 212; 212 – 33 = 179; 179 – 33 = 146; 146 – 33 = 113; 113 – 33 = 80
179 is the missing term. Hence, the second option is correct.
41.
Given: Milk : Litre :: Sugar : ?
Milk is measured in Litres.
Similarly, Sugar is measured in Kilograms.
Therefore, Kilogram is the correct answer and the series is as follows –
Milk : Litre :: Sugar : Kilogram
Hence, the fourth option is correct.
42.
Given: 12 : 132 :: 20 : 380 :: 2 : ?
Subtract the first number from its square –
⇒ 12 : 132 → 12 2 – 12 = 132
⇒ 20 : 380 → 202 – 20 = 380
Let's check the options –
First option: 8 ⇒ 2 : ? → 22 – 2 = 2 ≠ 8
Second option: 6 ⇒ 2 : ? → 22 – 2 = 2 ≠ 6
Third option: 12 ⇒ 2 : ? → 22 – 2 = 2 ≠ 12
Fourth option: 2 ⇒ 2 : ? → 22 – 2 = 2
So, the missing term in the series is 2. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
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43.
Given: Librarian : Library
A librarian is the caretaker of the library as he is responsible for ensuring that the library works
smoothly and efficiently.
Let's check each option –
First option: Sailor : Aeroplane – There is no direct relationship between sailor and aeroplane.
Second option: Priest : Temple – Priest is responsible for ensuring the efficient working of the
temple and he looks after the religious activities of the temple.
Third option: Watchmen : Train – There is no direct relationship between watchmen and train.
Fourth option: Doctor : Treatment – The doctor's job is to treat people but he is the caretaker
of the hospital. So, the relationship is not similar as given in the question.
Hence, the second option is correct.
44.
Given: Cells : Tissue :: Organs : ?
When a large number of similar cells come together and perform a specific task, they form
tissue.
Similarly, when lots of organs come together and perform their respective tasks, they form the
body.
Hence, the third option is correct.
45.
Given: Paint : Art :: Prose : ?
Paint is a form of Art.
Similarly, Prose is a form of expression in Literature.
So, Literature is the correct answer and the series is as follows –
Paint : Art :: Prose : Literature
46.
Let's check the given options –
First option: ANHS→A + 7 = H; N + 5 = S
Second option: JEQJ→J + 7 = Q; E + 5 = J
Third option: JPRT→J + 7 = Q ≠ R; P + 5 = U ≠ T
Fourth option: PYWD→P + 7 = W; Y + 5 = D
So, only in the third option, the difference between the alternate letters of the letter cluster is
not equal to 7 and 5. Hence, the third option is correct.
47.
First option: CGB; C + 4 = G; G – 5 = B
Second option: FYI; F – 7 = Y; Y + 10 = I
Third option: RKU; R – 7 = K; K + 10 = U
Fourth option: KDN; K – 7 = D; D + 10 = N
The difference between the letters of the first option is different from the other options. So,
the first option is different from the others. Hence, the first option is correct.
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48.
First option: HMS → S is the opposite of H; H + 5 = M
Second option: AFZ → Z is the opposite of A; A + 5 = F
Third option: KQP → P is the opposite of K; K + 6 = Q
Fourth option: DIW → W is the opposite of D; D + 5 = I
The third option differs from the other three options as the difference between the first and
second letters is 6 instead of 5. Hence, the third option is correct.
49.
First option: ADZV; the First and the third letters are opposite letters but the second and the
fourth letters are not opposite letters.
Second option: MPNK; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second
and the fourth letters are opposite letters.
Third option: FIUR; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second and
the fourth letters are opposite letters.
Fourth option: TWGD; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second
and the fourth letters are opposite letters.
So, only the first option is different from the other three options. Hence, the first option is
correct.
50.
Let's check the given options –
First option: EHV→E + 3 = H; V is the opposite of E
Second option: BEY→B + 3 = E; Y is the opposite of B
Third option: JMP→J + 3 = M; Q is the opposite of J
Fourth option: GJT→G + 3 = J; T is the opposite of G
So, only the third option does not follow the pattern of the other three options. Hence, the third
option is correct.
51.
Given: TURNIP is coded as VNRUWU, and DAIKON is coded as TTOLCE.
Add consecutive natural numbers to each letter of the TURNIP and DAIKON and then reverse
them to get the required code –
T + 1 = U; U + 2 = W; R + 3 = U; N + 4 = R; I + 5 = N; P + 6 = V
UWURNV → VNRUWU
Thus, TURNIP is coded as VNRUWU.
D + 1 = E; A + 2 = C; I + 3 = L; K + 4 = O; O + 5 = T; N + 6 = T
ECLOTT → TTOLCE
Thus, DAIKON is coded as TTOLCE.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for RADISH → R + 1 = S; A + 2 = C; D + 3 = G; I + 4 = M; S + 5
= X; H + 6 = N
SCGMXN → NXMGCS
So, RADISH is coded as NXMGCS in the code language. Hence, the first option is correct.
55
52.
Given: ROSE is coded as 228 and TULIP is coded as 390.
Add the position values of each letter of ROSE and then multiply it by the number of letters in
the word to get the required code –
Position value of letters of ROSE, R → 18; O → 15; S → 19; E → 5
And, the number of letters in ROSE = 4
⇒ (18 + 15 + 19 + 5) × 4 = 57 × 4 = 228
Thus, ROSE is coded as 228.
Likewise, Position value of letters of TULIP, T → 20; U → 21; L → 12; I → 9; P → 16
And, the number of letters in TULIP = 5
⇒ (20 + 21 + 12 + 9 + 16) × 5 = 78 × 5 = 390
Thus, TULIP is coded as 390.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for LOTUS –
Position value of letters of LOTUS, L → 12; O → 15; T → 20; U → 21; S → 19 and number of
letters in LOTUS = 5
⇒ (12 + 15 + 20 + 21 + 19) × 5 = 87 × 5 = 435
Thus, LOTUS is coded as 435. Hence, the first option is correct.
53.
Given: ENVOY is written as DMUNX, and CHECK is written as BGDBJ.
Subtract 1 from each letter of ENVOY and CHECK to get their required code –
E – 1 = D; N – 1 = M; V – 1 = U; O – 1 = N; Y – 1 = X
Thus, ENVOY is coded as DMNUX.
C – 1 = B; H – 1 = G; E – 1 = D; C – 1 = B; K – 1 = J
Thus, CHECK is coded as BGDBJ.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for ANGLE → A – 1 = Z; N – 1 = M; G – 1 = F; L – 1 = K; E –
1=D
So, ANGLE is coded as ZMFKD. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
54.
Given: FRISK is written as THLIQ –
Likewise, MOADS is written as QODQB –
56
Similarly, follow the same pattern for WAGER –
So, WAGER is coded as CYJPC. Hence, the third option is correct.
55.
Given: CBVQ is written as 652520 and FRJT is written as 9211323.
Add 3 to the positional values of each letter –
C = 3 + 3 = 6; B = 2 + 3 = 5; V = 22 + 3 = 25; Q = 17 + 3 = 20
Thus, CBVQ is written as 652520.
Likewise, F= 6 + 3 = 9; R = 18 + 3 = 21; J = 10 + 3 = 13; T = 20 + 3 = 23
Thus, FRJT is written as 9211323.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for EHLP –
E = 5 + 3 = 8; H = 8 + 3 = 11; L = 12 + 3 = 15; P = 16 + 3 = 19
So, EHLP is written as 8111519.
So, only the fourth option satisfies the same pattern code. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
56.
Given: MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM.
MOMENTUM is coded as EMOMNTUM –
Divide the letters of the word into two halves→MOME / NTUM
Reverse the letters of the first part→EMOM; write the second part as it is.
Now, join them, the code will be EMOMNTUM.
Similarly, MAGNETIC is coded as –
Divide the letters of the word into two halves→MAGN / ETIC
Reverse the letters of the first part→NGAM; write the second part as it is.
Now, join them, the code will be NGAMETIC.
So, MAGNETIC is written as NGAMETIC in that code language. Hence, the third option is
correct.
57.
Given: TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT.
Like, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT –
T + 2 = V; E + 2 = G; A + 2 = C; C + 2 = E; H + 2 = J; E + 2 = G; R + 2 = T
Similarly, CHILDREN is coded as –
C + 2 = E; H + 2 = J; I + 2 = K; L + 2 = N; D + 2 = F; R + 2 = T; E + 2 = G; N + 2 = P
So, the code for CHILDREN is EJKNFTGP. Hence, the second option is correct.
57
58.
Given: GALE→3576; FLAG→7361
On comparing both the coded words, we find that –
In the given words, G, A, L, and the codes 3, 6, and 7 are common.
The remaining letter and code in Word 1 is E and 5. So, the code of E is 5.
59.
Given: The code for BOOK is 325 and the code for READ is 400.
Like, BOOK; B(25) + O(12) + O(12) + K(16) = 65; 65 × 5 = 325
Similarly, READ; R(9) + E(22) + A(26) + D(23) = 80; 80 × 5 = 400
So, ABLE; A(26) + B(25) + L(15) + E(22) = 88; 88 × 5 = 440
Then, the second option is correct.
60.
Given:
⇒ SLAP is coded as 3160
⇒ PAST is coded as 6071
Common letters: A, S, P; Common code: 6,0,1.
So, the code for L is 3.
Hence, the first option is correct.
61.
The problem can be shown through venn digram
Total students = 2 + 15 + 8 + 3 = 28
62.
Let 'a' people like both
58
As total = 25
⇒ 2 + (16 – a) + a + (13 – a) = 25
⇒ 31 - a = 25
⇒ a=6
So people who like tea only= 16 - a = 16 - 6 = 10
63.
Following the instructions of the question, the family tree will be –
Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the
figure.
So, Samuel is Husband's brother's son. Hence, the fourth option is correct.
64.
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –
Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the
figure.
So, from the above family tree, the woman is Suman's husband's grandmother. Hence, the
second option is correct.
65.
Given:
I. 4 + 3 × 8 – 2 ÷ 1 = 3
II. 8 × 2 – 4 + 6 ÷ 2 = 11
Let's check each equation after interchanging signs and numbers according to the
instructions.
On interchanging the signs and numbers in the first equation, we get –
59
⇒8+3–4×2÷1=3
Solving the L.H.S. of the equation –
=8+3–4×2
=8+3–8
= 11 – 8
=3
On interchanging the signs and numbers in the second equation, we get –
⇒ 4 – 2 × 8 + 6 ÷ 2 = 11
Solving the L.H.S. of the equation –
=4–2×8+3
= 4 – 16 + 3
= 7 – 16
= –9 ≠ 11
So, the second equation is not correct after interchanging the signs and numbers. Hence, the
second option is correct.
66. Answer: B
Explanation: India is the largest exporter of gemstones globally, with an average export value
of $50 billion. This signifies a significant contribution to the international gemstone market.
67. Answer: B
Explanation: Thailand secures the second position in gemstone exports globally, with a
substantial average export value of $30 billion, highlighting its significance in the gemstone
trade.
68. Answer: B
Explanation: Thailand boasts an average export value of $30 billion, establishing itself as the
second-largest exporter of gemstones, reflecting the country's notable role in the international
gemstone market.
69. Answer: A
Explanation: Australia holds the position of the third-largest exporter of gemstones, with an
average export value of $20 billion, indicating a substantial presence in the global gemstone
trade.
70. Answer: D
Explanation: Colombia ranks as the fifth-largest exporter of gemstones, with an average
export value of $10 billion, showcasing a noteworthy contribution to the international
gemstone market.
71. Answer: C
Explanation: The total number of smartphone units sold by all five companies combined is
370 million units.
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72. Answer: C
Explanation: The average number of smartphone units sold is calculated by dividing the total
units sold (370 million) by the number of companies (5). Therefore, the average is 370 million
/ 5 = 74 million units.
73. Answer: A
Explanation: The companies with market shares greater than the calculated average of 74
million units are Apple (150 million) and Samsung (100 million). Huawei (60 million) and
Xiaomi (40 million) also have market shares greater than the average, but Google, with 20
million units, has a market share lower than the average.
74. Answer: B
Explanation: The ratio of Xiaomi's units sold to Samsung's units sold is determined by dividing
Xiaomi's units (40 million) by Samsung's units (100 million), resulting in a ratio of 2:5.
75. Answer: C
Explanation: Increasing Google's units sold by 50% means multiplying its original units (20
million) by 1.5. Thus, the new number of units is 20 million × 1.5 = 30 million units.
76.
When 8961 is divided by 84, the quotient is 106, and the remainder is 57.
The required number which should be added = Divisor - remainder
= 84 - 57 = 27
Hence, the correct answer is 27.
77.
To find the number of composite numbers lying between 67 and 101, first list all the prime
numbers between 67 and 101: 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97
There are 6 prime numbers in this list.
Total numbers between 67 and 101 = 33
The number of composite numbers = 33 – 6 = 27
78.
Let's consider a number with three digits, a, b, and c.
The value of this number can be expressed as follows: 100a + 10b + c
Subtracting the sum of the digits from the number,
(100a + 10b + c) – (a + b + c) = 99a + 9b = 9 (11a + b)
Hence, the resulting number is always divisible by 9.
Option 4 is correct.
79.
The greatest 5-digit number formed by 0,2,5,6,8 is 86520
The smallest 5-digit number formed by 0,2,5,6,8 is 20568 (we cannot start with 0 because this
makes it a 4-digit number).
Required Difference = Greatest 5-digit number – Smallest 5-digit number
Required Difference = 86520 – 20568 = 65952
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80.
Given number: 3401
If we divide 3401 by 11,
The quotient will be 309 and the remainder will be 2.
Thus, 3401 – 2 = 3399, which is completely divisible by 11.
81.
Divisible by 3 (i.e., 702....948) = (948 - 702)/3 + 1 = 83
Divisible by 7 (i.e., 707...945) = (945 - 700)/7 + 1 = 35
L.C.M of 3, 7 is 21.
Divisible by 21 (i.e., 714...945) = (945 - 714)/21 + 1 = 12
Divisible by 3, 7 = 83 + 35 - 12 = 106
Total numbers from 700 to 950 = 251
Total numbers from 700 to 950 which are not divisible by both 3 and 7 = 250 - 106 = 144
82.
Given:
The ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati, and Nivriti is 5 : 6 : 7
Darshna : Swati : Nivriti → 5 : 6 : 7
But Nivriti has Rs. 539 with her.
Then, 7→539
1 = 539 ÷ 7
1→77
The total sum of money = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18
The total sum of money was distributed = 18 x 77 = 1386.
So, the total sum of money distributed is 1,386 rs. Hence, the third option is correct.
83.
Given:
The ratio of P, Q, R, and S respectively = 8 : 6 : 3 : 2
Sum of the rs to be distributed = Rs 6,764
(8 + 6 + 3 + 2) = Rs 6,764
19 = Rs 6,764
1 = 6,764 ÷ 19
1 = Rs 356
So, Rs distributed,
P = 8 × 356
= Rs 2,848
Q = 6 × 356
= Rs 2,136
R = 3 × 356
= Rs 1,068
S = 2 × 356
= Rs 712
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So, the amount of P and R total is Rs (2,848 + 1,068) = Rs 3,916. Hence, the third option is
correct.
84.
Given: The numbers are 20, 30, 45 and 65.
The LCM of the provided numbers is the product of the factors with the highest powers.
The factors of the number 20 = 22 × 5.
The factors of the number 30 = 2 × 3 × 5.
LCM(20, 30, 45, 65) = 22 × 32 × 5 × 13 = 2340.
85.
LCM = 1105
HCF = 5
Let the first number be x and the second number be y.
17x = 1105
x = 1105/17 = 65
LCM × HCF = x × y
1105 × 5 = 65 × y
y = 1105 × 5 / 65 = 85
86.
Let the numbers be 5x, 7x, and 9x.
Given: LCM = 34650
LCM of the given numbers = 315x
Thus, 315x = 34650
⇒ x = 34650/315
= 110
HCF of 5x, 7x, and 9x is x
87.
Let the price of apples be Rs. 100
After the increase, the price = 100 × 120% = Rs. 120
After the decrease, the price = 120 × 80% = Rs. 96
⇒ Decrease = 100 – 96 = Rs. 4
Net percentage decrease = (4/100) × 100 = 4%
Hence, the correct answer is 4%.
88.
Let the price of petrol be Rs. 100.
The price of petrol increases by 7%, the new price = 100 + 7% of 100 = 107
The consumption be decreased by the consumer if the expenditure on petrol remains
unchanged.
63
Required percentage = (107 - 100)/107 × 100 = 700/107% = 6 58/107%
Hence, the correct answer is 6 58/107%.
89.
Given: The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman is 5 : 1. Her income and expenditure
are increased by 10% and 20%, respectively.
Let the initial expenditure and savings be 500 units and 100 units respectively.
So, the initial income = 500 + 100 = 600 units
After her income and expenditure are increased by 10% and 20%, respectively
The new income = 600 × (110/100) = 660 units
and the new expenditure = 500 × (120/100) = 600 units
So, the new savings = 660 – 600 = 60 units
Therefore, the percentage change in her savings = (100 - 60)/100 × 100 = 40%
Hence, the correct answer is 40%.
90.
Let the length and breadth be l and b
Original area = lb
Length after 8% increase = 1.08l
Breadth after 5% increase = 1.05b
New area = 1.08l × 1.05b = 1.134lb
Percentage increase in area = (1.134lb - lb)/lb × 100
= 13.4%
Hence, the correct answer is 13.4%.
91.
Total earnings = Rs. 720
He spends 65% of his earnings.
Thus, money spent = 720 × 0.65 = Rs. 468
So, money saved = 720 – 468 = Rs. 252
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 252
92.
Given: A laptop is sold for Rs. 54,000 after giving a discount of 20%.
Let the list price be x.
Selling price of the laptop = 80% of the list price
54000 = 80x/100
⇒ x = Rs. 67,500
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 67,500.
93.
List Price = INR 1200
Selling Price = (100-Discount1%) × (100-Discount2%) × Marked Price / 10000
Selling Price = (80/100) × (70/100) × 1200 = INR 672
64
94.
There is a profit of 50 grams on 950 grams.
By using the formula:
Profit % = Profit / CP × 100
= 50 / 950 × 100
= 5.26
Hence, the correct answer is 5.26%.
95.
The cost price of 28 oranges is equal to the selling price of 24 oranges.
Let the selling price of 1 orange = Rs. 1
So, the cost price of 28 oranges = selling price of 24 oranges = 1 × 24 = 24
Selling price of 28 oranges = 1 × 28 = 28
So, profit percentage = (28-24)/24 × 100 = 16 2/3%
Hence, the answer is 16 2/3%.
96.
Capitals ratio of A, B and C = 2/3 : 3/5 : 5/6
= (2 × 30)/3 : (3 × 30)/5 : (5 × 30)/6
= 20 : 18 : 25
Capitals ratio of A, B and C after end of the year,
= (20 × 8 + 20 × 5/4 × 4) : 18 × 12 : 25 × 12
= (160 + 100) : 216 : 300
= 260 : 216 : 300
Capitals ratio of A, B and C after end of the year = 260x : 216x : 300x = 65x : 54x : 75x
According to the question,
⇒ 65x + 54x + 75x = 5820
⇒ 194x = 5820
⇒ x = 30
Share of C = 75 × 30 = INR 2250
Hence, the correct answer is INR 2250.
97.
Let money invested by A and B be 5x and 6x
Total money invested by A in the first 4 months = 5x × 4 = 20x
Total money invested by B in the first 4 months = 6x × 4 = 24x
After 4 months, money invested by A = 5x × 4/5 = 4x
After 4 months, money invested by B = 6x × (1 + 100/300) = 6x × 4/3 = 8x
Total money invested by A in the last 8 months = 4x × 8 = 32x
Total money invested by B in the last 8 months = 8x × 8 = 64x
Total money invested by A in a year = 20x + 32x = 52x
Total money invested by B in a year = 24x + 64x = 88x
Ratio of money invested by A and B = 52x : 88x = 13 : 22
B's profit = 630000/35 × 22 = 396000
Hence, the correct answer is 3.96 lakhs.
65
98.
Let A's investment be a and B's be b.
5a = 7b ⇒ a/b = 7/5 ⇒ a:b = 7:5
In a partnership, the distribution of profit is proportional to the investment.
So, A's share of the profit = 7/(7+5) × 12000 = 7000
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 7000.
99.
A can complete a work in 18 days.
A's 1 day's work = 1/18
B can complete it in 12 days.
B's 1 day's work = 1/12
B's 4 days' work = 1/12 × 4 = 1/3
Work left = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3
A will finish the remaining work in 2/3 divided by 1/18 = 12 days
Hence, the correct answer is 12 days.
100.
Given: A, B and C working alone, can complete a job in 16, 24 and 36 days.
1 day work of A = 1/16
1 day work of B = 1/24
1 day work of C = 1/36
1 day work of A + B + C = 1/16 + 1/24 + 1/36
= (9+6+4)/144 = 19/144
When they work together, they will finish the work in 144/19 = 7 11/19 days.
Hence, the correct answer is 7 11/19 days.
101.
The rate at which the inlet pipe can fill the tank is 1 tank per 3.6 hours, or 1/3.6 tanks per hour.
The rate at which the outlet pipe can drain the tank is 1 tank per 6.3 hours, or 1/6.3 tanks per
hour.
When both pipes are opened simultaneously, the net rate of filling the tank is the rate of the
inlet pipe minus the rate of the outlet pipe.
Net rate = 1/3.6 - 1/6.3
Time = 1/Net rate
Time = 1/(1/3.6 - 1/6.3)
Time = 1/(5/18 - 10/63) = 1/(5/42) = 42/5
Time = 8.4
Hence, the correct answer is 8.4.
102.
Relative speed = 48 – 36 = 12 km/hr = 12 × 5/18 = 10/3 m/s
Time taken = 33 seconds
Distance = 10/3 × 33 = 110 metres
Length of the faster train = 110 metres
Hence, the correct answer is 110 metres.
66
103.
Speed of Bus A = 48 km/hr = 48×5/18 = 40/3 m/s

Speed of bus B = 36 km/h = 36×5/18 = 10 m/s
Distance covered by bus A in 15 sec
⇒ Distance = 40/3 × 15 = 200 m
Distance covered by bus B in 15 sec
⇒ Distance = 10 × 15 = 150 m
As the two roads are at a right angle, so
⇒ Let Base = 200 m and Height = 150 m
Here, Hypotenuse = Distance between two buses
By Pythagoras theorem
Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Height2
⇒ Hypotenuse2 = 2002 + 1502 = 40000 + 22500 = 62500
⇒ Hypotenuse = √62500 = 250 m
Hence, the distance between the two buses is 250 m.
104.
Volume of a hemisphere with radius r = (1/2) × (4/3)πr3
= (1/2) × (4/3) × (22/7) × 6.3 × 6.3 × 6.3
= 523.90 cm3
Hence, the correct answer is 523.90 cm3
105.
Given: Height(h) = 8 m and slant height(l) = 10 m
Radius(r) = sqrt(l2 - h2)
= sqrt(102 - 82)
= sqrt(100 - 64)
= sqrt(36)
=6m
Area of the curved surface of a right circular cone
= πrl
= π × 6 × 10
= 60π m2
Hence, the correct answer is 60π m2
106.
Let the radius be r.
The total surface area of a sphere = 4πr2
67
or, 6.16 = 4πr2
or, 6.16 = 4 × (22/7) × r2
or, r2 = 49/100
Therefore, r = 0.7 cm
Diameter = 2 × r = 2 × 0.7 = 1.4 cm
Hence, the diameter of the sphere is 1.4
107.
The curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr2
The total surface area of a hemisphere = 3πr2
⇒ 41.58 = 3πr2
⇒ 3πr2 × (2/3) = 41.58 × (2/3)
Therefore, 2πr2 = 27.72 sq. cm.
Hence, the answer is 27.72 sq. cm.
108.
Let the radius of the first sphere be r and the radius of the second sphere be R.
2r = 2R × 2
⇒ R = r/2
The curved surface area of the first sphere = 4πr2
The volume of the second sphere = (4/3)πR3
4πr2 = (4/3)πR3
⇒ r2 = (1/3) (r/2)3
⇒ r2 = r3/4
Therefore, r = 24 cm
Hence, the radius of the first sphere is 24
109.
Given: Length = 5 cm
Width = 4 cm
Height = 3 cm.
Diagonal of a cuboid = √(l2 + b2 + h2).
= √(52 + 42 + 32)
= √(25 + 16 + 9)
= √50
= 5√2 cm
Hence, the correct answer is 5√2 cm
110.
Length of room, l = 12 m
Breadth, b = 9 m
Height, h = 8 m
The longest rod to be kept in the room
= diagonal of the cuboid
= √(l2 + b2 + h2)
68
= √(122 + 92 + 82)
= √(144 + 81 + 64)
= √289
= 17 m
Hence, the correct answer is 17 m.
111.
Given that
n(X) = 42, n(Y) = 64 and n(X ∩ Y) = 22
we need to find n (X ∪ Y)
from the concept,
n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) - n(X ∩ Y)
n(X ∪ Y) = 42 + 64 - 22 = 84
112.
Total number of people = 100
Let H be the set of people who speak Hindi and E be the set who can speak English
According to question,
n(H ∪ E) = 100, n(H) = 65, n(E) = 55
And we need to find, number of people who can speak both language, i.e. n(H ∩ E)
from the concept
n(H ∪ E) = n(H) + n(E) - n(H ∩ E)
100 = 65 + 55 - n(H ∩ E)
n(H ∩ E) = 120 - 100 = 20
So, number of people who can speak both language is 20.
113.
Let M denote the set of teachers who teach mathematics and P denote the set of teachers
who teach physics
In the statement of the problem, the word ‘or’ gives us a clue of union and the word ‘and’
gives us a clue of intersection. We, therefore, have
n(M ∪ P) = 40 , n(M) = 24 and n(M ∩P) = 8
and we have to find n(P).
from the concept
n(M ∪ P) = n(M) + n (P) – n(M ∩ P),
40 = 24 + n(P) - 8
n(P) = 40 - 16 = 24
114.
Introduction -
The word Polynomial comes from the Greek poly- (meaning "many") and -nomial (in this
case meaning "term") ... so it says "many terms"
A polynomial can have:
Constants like (2, -4, 10, ½ etc)
Variables (like x, y and z)
Exponents (like 2 in x2), but only 0, 1, 2, 3, ... etc are allowed
A polynomial p(x) is an algebraic expression that can be written in the form of
69
Each real number ai is called a coefficient. The number a0 that is not multiplied by a variable
is called a constant. Each product is a term of a polynomial. The highest power of the
variable that occurs in the polynomial is called the degree of a polynomial. The leading term
is the term with the highest power, and its coefficient is called the leading coefficient.
115.
Introduction -
Each real number ai is called a coefficient. The number a0 that is not multiplied by a variable
is called a constant. Each product is a term of a polynomial. The highest power of the
variable that occurs in the polynomial is called the degree of a polynomial. The leading term
is the term with the highest power, and its coefficient is called the leading coefficient.
Example
(i) is a polynomial in of degree 1
(ii) is a polynomial in of degree 2
(iii) is a polynomial in of degree 3

(iv) is a polynomial in of degree 4
The degree of the polynomial is 2.
116.
Let the two-digit number be 10x+y
Given that
x-y=7
And, after reversing the two-digit number we get 10y+x
And we have to find
(10x+y)-(10y+x)
= 9x - 9y
70
=9(x - y)
= 9 x 7 = 63
117.
(1, 4) is the point of intersection of the lines 2x + by = 6 and 3y = 8 + ax,
(1, 4) is the solution of both the equation
a+b=5
118.
Given, a + b = 11 and ab = 35
Consider, a + b = 11
Squaring both sides, we get,
⇒ (a + b)2 = 112
⇒ a2 + b2 + 2ab = 121
⇒ a2 + b2 + 2(35) = 121
⇒ a2 + b2 + 70 = 121
⇒ a2 + b2 = 51
Squaring both sides,
⇒ (a2 + b2)2 = 512
⇒ a4 + b4 + 2(35)2 = 2601
⇒ a4 + b4 + 2 × 1225 = 2601
⇒ a4 + b4 + 2450 = 2601
⇒ a4 + b4 = 2601 - 2450
⇒ a4 + b4 = 151
119.
Given: The average of 100 items is 30.
Sum of all items = 100 × 30 = 3000
A wrong entry of 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11 is also included.
The difference made by the wrong entry of 32 and 12 instead of 23 and 11 = (32 + 12) – (23
+ 11) = 10
So, the actual sum = (3000 – 10) = 2990
Average value = Sum of observations / Total no. of observations
So, the average of the items = 2990 / 100 = 29.90
Hence, the correct answer is 29.90.
120.
Given that Four numbers are in AP.
Let a - 3d, a - d, a + d, a + 3d be the four numbers which are in AP.
71
Also, it is given that, are in GP.
i.e. a - 3d, 2a, a + 3d are in GP.
Since, a - 3d, 2a, a + 3d are in GP.
So, (2a)2 = (a - 3d) x (a + 3d) = a2 - 9d2
We need to find the ratio of the product of the first and fourth term of AP to the product of the
second and third term of AP
i.e.
121.
We have to find 9+99+999+9999+... up to 10 terms.
we can write this series in this form
Now observe that 10, 100, 1000, 10000 .... are in GP with a common ratio 10.
So,
Now,
122.
Harmonic Progression -
General term of a Harmonic Progression
The nth term or general term of a H.P. is the reciprocal of the nth term of the corresponding
A.P. Thus, if is an H.P. and the common difference of corresponding A.P.
is d, i.e. , then the general term or nth term of an H.P. is given by
Or we can say that the nth term of an H.P. is the reciprocal of nth term of corresponding A.P.
If 2, 4, 6, 8, .... are in AP then, are in HP.
72
Consider 1/6, /14, 1/3, ...
Here T2 – T1 = T3 – T2 = 1/12
Therefore 1/6, 1/4, 1/3 is in A.P.
4th term of this Arithmetic Progression = 1/6 + 3 × 1/12 = 1/6 + 1/4 = 5/12,
Hence, 4th term of HP is 12/5
123.
Sum of n terms of a GP -
We will now find how to sum an arbitrary GP. Consider the sum of the first n terms of a GP
with first term a and common ratio r:
Let Sn be the sum of n terms of the G.P.
Multiply both sides by r, and write the terms with the same power of r below each other, as
shown below:
Now, subtract the first equation from the second equation:
The above formula does not hold for r = 1, For r = 1 the sum of n terms of the G.P. is
.:
Let us take an example. Consider the following GP:
We have a = 1, and r = 2. Now, let us find the sum of the first 11 terms of this GP. We have:
If ratio of the given GP is less than 1, we use .
Let the required number of terms be n.

Here, a = 2, r = 2 and Sn = 510
Hence, the required number of terms is 8
73
124.
Geometric progression -
A geometric progression is one in which any term divided by the previous term is a constant.
This constant is called the common ratio of the sequence. The common ratio can be found
by dividing any term in the sequence by the previous term.
Consider the following progression:
Each term in this progression is twice the previous term. In other words, the ratio of every term
to the previous term is fixed, and equal to 2.
In the series above, the first term is 1. For an arbitrary GP, the first term is generally denoted
by a and is in general common ratio is denoted by r.
So, if is in geometric progression
The sequence is a Geometric Progression, because

So next term will be 5x375=1875
125.
Let three numbers be a - d, a, a + d
Given that
a - d + a + a + d = 15
3a = 15
a=5
and,
(5-d)(5)(5+d)=80
(5-d)(5+d)=16
d=3
terms of AP are 5-3, 5, 5 + 3 i.e. 2,5,8
126.
Let AB be the building and CD be the tower such that ∠BDE = 30°, ∠BCA = 60°, and AB = 60m.
Let CA = DE = x m.
From ΔCAB,
CA/AB = cot 60° = 1/√3
74
⇒ x/60 = 1/√3
⇒ x = 60 × 1/√3
⇒ x = 60 × 1/√3 × √3/√3 = 20√3 m.
⇒ CA = DE = 20√3 ...(i)
From ΔBED,
BE/DE = tan 30° = 1/√3
⇒ BE/20√3 = 1/√3 [using (i)]
⇒ BE = 20√3 × 1/√3 m = 20 m
Therefore, CD = AE = AB - BE = 60 m - 20 m = 40 m
Hence, the answer is 40 m.
127.
(cos A)/(1 - tan A) + (sin A)/(1 - cot A)
= (cos A)/(1 - (sin A)/(cos A)) + (sin A)/(1 - (cos A)/(sin A))
= (cos2 A)/(cos A - sin A) + (sin2 A)/(sin A - cos A)
= (cos2 A)/(cos A - sin A) - (sin2 A)/(cos A - sin A)
= ((cos A - sin A)(cos A + sin A))/(cos A - sin A)
= cos A + sin A
Hence, the correct answer is sin A + cos A
128.
Given, a = 45° and b = 15°
a - b = 45° - 15° = 30°
And, a + b = 45° + 15° = 60°
So, (cos(a - b) - cos(a + b))/(cos(a - b) + cos(a + b))
= (cos(30°) - cos(60°))/(cos(30°) + cos(60°))
= ((√3)/2 - 1/2)/((√3)/2 + 1/2)
⇒ (√3 - 1)/(√3 + 1) = (√3 - 1)/(√3 + 1) × (√3 - 1)/(√3 + 1)
= ((√3 - 1)2)/((√3)2 - 12) = (3 + 1 - 2√3)/(3 - 1)
⇒ (4 - 2√3)/2 = 2 - √3
Hence, the correct answer is 2 - √3.
129.
Given, tan A = 2/3
Let perpendicular and base be 2 and 3 units.
Now, the hypotenuse = √(22 + 32) = √13
So, sin A = (perpendicular)/(hypotenuse) = 2/√13
Hence, the correct answer is 2/√13.
75
130.
Let the length of the tree be l meters.

2πl × (18°/360°) = 44
⇒ (44l/7) × (1/20) = 44
⇒ l = 140 meters
Hence, the correct answer is 140 meters.
131.
Given:
AB = Height of the building = 1000 metres
Let the distance of the man from the building, BC be x.
From ΔABC, we get
tan 30° = AB/BC
⇒ 1/√3 = 1000/x
⇒ x = 1000√3
⇒ x = 1000 × 1.732 [because √3 = 1.732]
So, the distance of the man from the building is 1732 metres.
Hence, the correct answer is 1732 metres.
76
132.
Given, the radius of the circle = 10 cm.

Angle made by chord AB at the center of this circle = 60 degrees
OA = OB = 10 cm
OAB is an isosceles triangle
So, ∠OAB = ∠OAB = (180° - 60°)/2 = 60° by angle sum property.
Since, ∠OAB = ∠OBA = ∠AOB = 60°, OAB is an equilateral triangle.
So, OA = OB = AB = 10 cm
Hence, the correct answer is 10 cm.
133.
Given, The circumference of the two circles is 198 cm and 352 cm respectively.
Let the radii be R and r,
So, 2πR - 2πr = 352 - 198
⇒ R - r = (154 × 7)/(2 × 22)
⇒ R - r = 49/4
⇒ R - r = 24.5 cm
Hence, the correct answer is 24.5 cm.
134.
Area of the parallelogram = 28 × 12 = 336 cm2
Let the length of the altitude of the triangle be h cm.
(1/2) × h × 28 = 336
⇒ h = 12 × 2
⇒ h = 24 cm
135.
77
AB = 24 cm
And OC = 5 cm
We have to find AO.
C is the middle point of the chord.
Therefore, AC = 24/2 = 12 cm
Using Pythagoras theorem,
AO2 = AC2 + OC2
⇒ AO2 = 122 + 52
⇒ AO2 = 144 + 25
⇒ AO2 = 169
⇒ AO = 13 cm
136.
By Pythagoras theorem,
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + (BC)2
⇒ (AC)2 = (14)2 + (48)2
⇒ (AC)2 = 196 + 2304
⇒ AC = √2500
⇒ AC = 50 km
Hence, the correct answer is 50 km.
137.
Let the equal angles be x.
The sum of the three angles of a triangle is 180°.
So, x + x + 78° = 180°
⇒ 2x = 180° - 78°
⇒ 2x = 102°
⇒ x = 51°
Hence, the correct answer is 51°.
138.
Given: Sides of the triangle = 16 cm
Area of an equilateral triangle with sides a = (√3/4) × (a)2
78
= (√3/4) × 16 × 16
= 64√3
Hence, the correct answer is 64√3 cm2.
139.
Interior Angle Theorem - (Part 2) -
Theorem 5: If a transversal intersects two lines such that a pair of interior angles on the same
side of the transversal is supplementary, then the two lines are parallel.
A transversal t, cuts two lines AB and CD at E and F respectively such that ∠4 + ∠5 = 180°.
We need to prove, AB is parallel to CD.

Since ray EB stands on line t,
we have: ∠1 + ∠4 = 180° [linear pair angle]
and, ∠4 + ∠5 = 180° [given]
therefore, ∠1 + ∠4 = ∠4 + ∠5
this gives, ∠1 = ∠5
But, these are corresponding angles. So AB is parallel to CD.
From the theorem
2x + 4x = 180°
6x = 180°
x = 30°
140.
Given,
∠AOC : ∠AOD = 1:2,
Let ∠AOC = x and ∠AOD = 2x,
∠AOC + ∠AOD = 180°
x + 2x = 180°
79
3x = 180°
x = 60°
∠AOC = 60°
∠AOD = 120°
∠BOD is vertically opposite to ∠AOC
So, ∠BOD = ∠AOC = 60°
141.
We know that, in a deck,
Total no. of cards = 52
No. of kings = 4
No. of heart cards = 13
& total no. of red cards = 13 + 13 = 26
Thus, favorable outcomes = 4 + 13 + 26 – 13 – 2 = 28
Now,
Probability = no. of favorable outcomes / total no. of outcomes
= 28 / 52
= 7/13
142.
Number of successes = 5
Number of failures = 2 + 6 = 8
Numbers of ways to draw a white pearl: number of ways to draw another jewelry.
5:8
The odds are 5:8
143.
ALGORITHM ……. (given word)
Total no. of letters = 9
Thus, total no. of words = 9!
Thus, n(s) = 9!
Considering ‘GOR’ as one group –
A L GOR I T H MA
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Thus, no. of letters = 7

Now, if the GOR group remains together, then the order = 7!
Thus, n (E) = 7!
Now, we know that,
Required probability = No. of favorable outcomes/ Total no. of outcomes
= n (E) / n(S) …..[Since n! = n x (n – 1) x (n – 2)…1]
= 7! / 9!
= 7! / 9 x 8 x 7!
= 1 / 72
80
144.
Number Frequency
3 4
5 2
2 2
1 1
4 3
The value with the highest frequency is 3 and hence it is the mode.
145.
According to the above table, the maximum class frequency is 50, and the corresponding
class interval is 0-10.
The modal class for the provided data is therefore 10-20.
The lower limit of the modal class, l = 10.
Class size, h = 20-10 = 10.
Frequency of the modal class, f₁ = 50.
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class, f₀ = 25.
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class, f₂ = 20.
We know that the formula to find the mode of the grouped data is given by the formula
Mode = l + ((f₁ - f₀) / (2f₁ - f₀ - f₂)) × h
Substituting the above values in the equation we get,
Mode = 10 + ((50 - 25) / (2(50) - 25 - 20)) × 10
= 10 + (25 / (100 - 45)) × 10
= 10 + (25 / 55) × 10
= 10 + 5 / 11 × 10
= 160 / 11
≈ 14.54
146.
Let us design the cumulative frequency table
Class Interval Frequency Cumulative frequency
10-20 5 5
20-30 10 15
30-40 12 27
40-50 8 35
50-60 5 40
81
Here,
N = 40.
N / 2 = 40 / 2 = 20.
The next immediate higher frequency value of 20 is 27, and the corresponding class is the
median class.
Therefore, the median class is 30-40.
Here, L = 30,
U = 40,
CF is the cumulative frequency of the immediate lower class of the median class. Therefore,
CF = 15.
F is the frequency of the median class, F = 12.
C is the width of the class = U - L,
= 40 - 30 = 10.
The median of a class is given by the formula
Median = L + [(N / 2 - CF) × C / F].
Substituting the above values in the formula, we get
Median = 30 + [(20 - 15) × 10 / 12],
= 30 + 12.5,
= 42.5.
147.
The median, a statistic of central tendency, is used to determine the dataset's middle value.
When data are arranged in ascending order inside intervals of grouped data, the median
reflects the middle-class interval.
A) The mode represents the value that occurs most frequently. The mode is the value that
appears most frequently in a dataset.
C) The median is a measure of central tendency, not data spread. The range and standard
deviation are two ways to determine the spread.
D) The mean is the data's arithmetic average: Not the median. By adding together all the
values and dividing by the total number of values, the mean is calculated.
148.
Let the number of boys be B and the number of girls be G.
We know that the total number of students is 60,
⇒ B + G = 60 ...(1)
We also know that the average mark of all students is 62, the average mark of boys is 60, and
the average mark of girls is 65.
⇒ 60B + 65G = 62 × 60 ...(2)
We can solve these two equations to find the value of B. Multiplying equation (1) by 60,
⇒ 60B + 60G = 60 × 60
Subtracting this from equation (2),
⇒ 5G = 2 × 60
⇒ G = 24
Substituting G = 24 into equation (1),
⇒ B = 60 - 24 = 36
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149.
Given, the average weight of 5 men decreases by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is
replaced by another person.
When the average weight of 5 men decreases by 3 kg, the total sum of weight should reduce
by 5 × 3 kg = 15 kg
So, the new weight should be 15 kg less than 150 kg.
⇒ New weight = 150 kg – 15 kg = 135 kg
Hence, the correct answer is 135 kg.
150.
Given that the average of eight consecutive odd numbers is 48.
Let the eight consecutive odd numbers be x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6), (x + 8), (x + 10), (x + 12), (x
+ 14).
The average of eight consecutive odd numbers = 48
⇒ (x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) + (x + 10) + (x + 12) + (x + 14))/8 = 48
⇒ (8x + 56) = 384
⇒ 8x = 328
⇒ x = 41
Therefore, the 5th number = 41 + 8 = 49 and the 7th number = 41 + 12 = 53
⇒ Total = 49 + 53 = 102
151.
C. Supernova
Explanation: A supernova is a celestial event where a star experiences a sudden, intense
increase in brightness. This phenomenon can outshine an entire galaxy temporarily.
152.
B. Bosom
Explanation: "Bosom" is often used to describe close, intimate relationships or friendships. It
signifies a deep emotional connection and mutual trust among individuals.
153.
B. Dictatorial
Explanation: A dictatorial regime is characterized by a single ruler with absolute power, often
obtained and maintained through force. It contrasts with democratic, monarchical, or
republican forms of government.
154.
B. Eclectic
Explanation: "Eclectic" refers to a variety of elements or styles coming together. In this
context, it suggests that the archaeologist uncovered artefacts representing a diverse and
varied history of the civilisation.
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155.
D. Audibly
Explanation: The word "audibly" indicates that the children played in a way that could be heard.
It contrasts with options like inaudibly, cautiously, or emphatically, emphasizing the joyful and
audible nature of their play.
156.
The correct choice is the first option, i.e., "Check".
"Check" means to inspect or examine something to ensure it is correct, in order, or up to
standard. While it may not always involve reading as closely as "peruse". in some contexts, it
can refer to examining written or printed material.
The meanings of other options are as follows:
• Draw: To draw means to create a picture, image, or representation of something using
a pen, pencil, or other artistic medium.
• Pursue: To pursue means to follow or chase something or someone, often to achieve
a particular objective.
• Narrate: To narrate means to tell or recount a story or a series of events, often in a
spoken or written form.
157.
The third option is the correct choice.
Wisdom means the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgement; the ability
to make sound decisions. This aligns with the idea of knowledge contributing to a sweeter
and happier life.
The meanings of the other options are as follows:
• The curriculum is the set of subjects comprising a course of study in an educational
institution.
• A profession is a paid occupation, especially one that involves prolonged training and
a formal qualification.
• Superiority is the state of being superior or higher in quality.
158.
The correct choice is the third option.
Demolish means to destroy or dismantle, often applied to buildings or structures, while ruin
aligns closely by indicating the process or outcome of destruction, leading to a state of ruin
or devastation.
The meanings of other options are as follows:
• To create is to bring something into existence.
• Fabricate means to construct or manufacture, often referring to creating something
from various components.
• Shape means to form or mould into a specific structure or form.
Therefore, the correct answer is ruin.
84
159.
The correct choice is the second option.
Explanation: The term catastrophe is grammatically correct and fits well in the context of an
unexpected and severe environmental event. It conveys a sense of disaster or tragedy, which
aligns with the meaning of "environmental calamity".
• Damage: It refers to the consequences of a calamity.
• Degradation: This term refers to the process of deteriorating or breaking down.
• Stress: This term refers to psychological or physical strain.
Therefore, the right answer is catastrophe.
160.
The most appropriate synonym for the word "Predicament" is "Quandary".
A predicament is a difficult or challenging situation, often involving a dilemma or problem. A
"quandary" refers to a state of uncertainty or a difficult situation, making it a synonym for
"predicament".
• Ease means the absence of difficulty.
• Blessing means a beneficial thing for which one is grateful.
• Solution means a means of solving a problem or dealing with a difficult situation.
Therefore, the correct sentence is, "He found himself in a quandary, unsure of how to proceed."
161. A. Reviewing
Explanation: In this context, the sentence suggests an ongoing activity of reviewing the
document before the meeting. The gerund form "reviewing" is used to convey continuous or
habitual actions.
162. A. To Climb
Explanation: The sentence implies an attempt or intention to climb the high shelf. The
infinitive form "to climb" is appropriate here, indicating purpose or goal.
163. C. Completed
Explanation: The sentence discusses an action that should have been finished in the past but
hasn't been. The past participle form "completed" is used to express the fulfillment of the
assignment.
164. C. Developing
Explanation: The sentence talks about the chef spending time on an ongoing process of
creating the perfect recipe. The present participle form "developing" is suitable for describing
continuous actions.
165. C. Deliver
Explanation: The sentence indicates the purpose or goal of the orchestra members – to
deliver a flawless performance at the concert. The base form "deliver" is used in the infinitive
phrase to convey this intention.
85
166. A. Give Up
Explanation: The phrasal verb "give up" means to stop doing something, especially a habit like
smoking. In this context, it implies the decision to quit smoking.
167. B. Come Up With

Explanation: The phrasal verb "come up with" means to produce or create, usually ideas or
solutions. The sentence suggests the need for the team to generate new strategies to address
challenges.
168. A. Phase Out

Explanation: The phrasal verb "phase out" means to gradually discontinue or replace
something. Here, the company decided to eliminate the old policies and introduce more
modern ones.
169. B. Turn In
Explanation: The phrasal verb "turn in" means to submit or hand in. The manager asked the
employee to submit the report before the deadline.
170. A. Break-Off
Explanation: The phrasal verb "break off" means to end something, usually abruptly. In this
context, it indicates the need to end the meeting early due to another appointment.
171. C. At
Explanation: In this context, the sentence expresses the students' emotional response to the
opportunity, indicating a sense of thrill or excitement. "At" is the suitable preposition to convey
this feeling.
172. B. Of
Explanation: When discussing someone's skill or expertise, the preposition "of" is used to
indicate possession or association. Therefore, "mastery of" is the appropriate construction
when describing the chef's proficiency in creating desserts.
173. A. For
Explanation: The sentence suggests that the team's diligence is motivated by a goal or
purpose, making "for" the suitable preposition. It indicates the reason or motivation behind
their hard work in completing the project.
174. D. Upon
Explanation: "Pounced upon" is a phrasal verb that describes a quick and sudden action. In
this case, it appropriately conveys the cat's swift and decisive movement towards the mouse.
175. A. For
Explanation: When expressing the reason behind someone's fame or recognition, the
preposition "for" is commonly used. Therefore, "renowned for" appropriately highlights the
reason for the artist's fame – her vivid and expressive paintings.
86
176. B) Second Generation
The second generation of computers, spanning the 1950s to the 1960s, marked the transition
from vacuum tubes to transistors. This advancement significantly reduced the size and cost
of computer systems, leading to improved efficiency and reliability.
177. B) Mainframe Computers

Explanation: Mainframe computers are designed for large-scale data processing in
organizations. They excel in handling tasks such as database management and transaction
processing, making them essential for business operations.
178. B) Supercomputers
Explanation: Supercomputers are known for their exceptional performance in handling
complex scientific and engineering calculations. They are utilized for tasks such as weather
forecasting, molecular modelling, and nuclear simulations due to their high processing power.
179. C) Vacuum Tubes

Explanation: The first generation of computers, developed in the 1940s and 1950s, primarily
used vacuum tubes as electronic components. These tubes were bulky and prone to failure,
paving the way for advancements in subsequent generations.
180. B) Graphical User Interface (GUI)

Explanation: GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. It is a type of user interface that allows
users to interact with computers through graphical elements such as icons, buttons, and
windows, providing a more intuitive and visually appealing experience.
181. Correct Answer: A. Start a project quickly and energetically.

Explanation: "Hit the ground running" is an idiomatic expression that means to start a task or
project energetically and with full speed, without any delays. This phrase implies a proactive
and enthusiastic approach to initiating and carrying out a project.
182. Correct Answer: B. Generating creative and unconventional ideas.

Explanation: "Thinking outside the box" is a figurative expression that encourages individuals
to think creatively and unconventionally, often pushing beyond traditional boundaries or
established norms. It implies generating innovative and original ideas that go beyond standard
thinking.
183. Correct Answer: B. Easily achievable tasks or goals.

Explanation: "Low-hanging fruit" is a metaphor used in business to describe tasks or goals
that are easily attainable or readily achievable with minimal effort. It suggests focusing on the
most accessible and straightforward objectives first before tackling more complex
challenges.
184. Correct Answer: B. A scenario where both parties benefit.

Explanation: "Win-win situation" refers to a scenario in which all parties involved benefit or
gain something positive. It is a negotiation or business strategy aimed at creating outcomes
where both parties achieve their objectives and are satisfied with the results, fostering mutual
success.
87
185. Correct Answer: B. Revisiting or discussing a topic later.
Explanation: "Circle back" is a business expression that means to revisit or resume a
discussion on a particular topic at a later time. It suggests temporarily moving away from a
subject with the intention of returning to it for further consideration or discussion later on.
186. B) A decrease in natural spaces.

Explanation: The passage emphasizes that the COVID-19 pandemic is a consequence of the
degradation of natural areas, species loss, and exploitation. This degradation is directly linked
to a decrease in natural spaces, highlighting the urgency of restoring ecosystems.
187. C) Enhancing livelihoods and combating climate change.

Explanation: The primary goal of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration, as outlined in the
passage, is to actively participate in enhancing livelihoods and combating climate change.
This initiative aims to address the global environmental crisis through sustained action over
ten years.
188. C) The way we farm our lands without causing damage to ecosystems.
Explanation: The recommended changes for ecological balance involve transforming the way
we farm our lands without causing damage to ecosystems, as mentioned in the passage. This
emphasizes the importance of sustainable agricultural practices.
189. C) Detrimental to human and natural resources.

Explanation: The passage describes climate change as detrimental to both human and natural
resources. It emphasizes the negative impacts of climate change on various aspects of the
environment and human well-being.
190. B) Agricultural practices.

Explanation: Achieving the goal of reducing net carbon dioxide emissions by 45% by 2030
requires substantial transformations in agricultural practices, as highlighted in the passage.
This underscores the critical role of sustainable agriculture in addressing the global
environmental challenge.
191. Answer: (B) Nestled between hills and streams.

Detailed explanation: The author describes their childhood town as nestled between rolling
hills and meandering streams, indicating option B is the correct choice.
192. Answer: (B) Tight-knit and close.

Detailed explanation: The passage characterizes the local community as tight-knit and close,
making option B the accurate answer.
193. Answer: (B) Rolling hills and meandering streams.

Detailed explanation: The author's values and perspective on life are shaped by the quaint
town, nestled between rolling hills and meandering streams, supporting option B.
194. Answer: (C) Transformations and the need to adapt.

Detailed explanation: Economic shifts and changing times brought transformations to the
small town, necessitating adaptation, making option C the correct choice.
88
195. Answer: (C) Transformations necessitating adaptation.
Detailed explanation: The author characterizes the impact of economic shifts and changing
times on the small town as transformations that require adaptation, supporting option C.
196. Answer: (B) To celebrate with enthusiasm.

Explanation: In the passage, the idiom "to paint the town red" is used to describe characters'
exuberant celebration, indicating option (B) is the correct interpretation.
197. Answer: (B) Introverted.

Explanation: The synonym used to describe the protagonist's love for solitude is "introverted,"
supporting option (B) as the correct answer.
198. Answer: (C) Loquacity.

Explanation: The antonym for "reticence" in the passage is "ebullience," indicating a shift from
initial reserve to moments of enthusiasm, supporting option (C).
199. Answer: (B) Meandering through the labyrinth of self-discovery.

Explanation: The author describes the protagonist's journey as meandering through the
labyrinth of self-discovery, making option (B) the correct choice.
200. Answer: (C) The author's mastery in crafting a resonant narrative.

Explanation: The passage indicates that the juxtaposition of contrasting elements showcases
the author's mastery in crafting a narrative that resonates beyond the pages of the book,
supporting option (C) as the correct answer.
89
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& Practice Questions
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TS ICET 2024

A Note to The Student  3

About The Ebook  4

Section A: Analytical Ability  5

Section B: Mathematical Ability  21

Section C: Communication Ability 35

Other Useful Resources - 90

3. 50 Questions from Communication Ability (questions from Meanings, Synonyms and

4. Answer Key for the first evaluation

1. In which year was Priya born?

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

3. How many children does A have?

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

4. How much was the total sale of the store?

5. How many pages of book Y did Mia read on Saturday?

6. How many students in a class play basketball?

7. What is Arjun's age?

8. How much money do Alok and Rohini have together?

10. Who among X, Y, Z, W, and V is the lightest?

11. What is the shortest distance between Aville and Bville?

15. S studies in which of the schools X, Y, Z, W, and M?

17. What is the code for 'go' in the code language?

18. Among G, H, I, J, K, and L, who is the heaviest?

19. What is the numerical code for 'fire' in a certain code?

57. Directions: In a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN

69. Which country is the third-largest exporter of gemstones?

A. 250 million units

A. Apple and Samsung

77. Number of composite numbers lying between 67 and 101 is:

84. Find the LCM of 20, 30, 45 and 65.

A. 27.72 sq. cm.

115. The degree of the polynomial is

118. If a + b = 11 and ab = 35, then what is the value of (a4 + b4)?

121. The sum of 10 terms of the series 9, 99, 999, 9999, … is

122. Find the 4th term of the HP 6, 4, 3, …

144. Find the mode of the ungrouped data set: 3, 5, 2, 1, 5, 4, 4, 2, 3, 1, 4, 3, 3

Number of Siblings Frequency

146. Calculate the median of the following numerical data

158. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

159. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the underlined word.

160. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

161. She insisted on ________ the document before the meeting.

A. General User Interface

A. Start a project quickly and energetically.

A. Staying within traditional boundaries.

A. Challenging and complex tasks.

184. How is the term "Win-win situation" typically used in business?

A. A situation where one party benefits.

A. Closing a business deal.

The alarming degradation of ecosystems demands urgent attention. The current

186. The degradation of ecosystems is directly linked to:

A. A decrease in healthcare facilities.

187. The primary goal of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration is:

A. Eradicating poverty through industrialization.

188. The recommended changes for ecological balance include:

A. Exploiting coastal, marine life, and soil erosion.

189. Climate change is:

A. Space exploration technologies.

A Note to The Student 3

About The Ebook 4

Section A: Analytical Ability 5

Section B: Mathematical Ability 21