TIẾNG ANH 6 RIGHT ON – SEMESTER 1 TEST

UNITS VOCABULARY GRAMMAR

Unit Hello - Countries & Nationalities - can
- Sports - Subject personal pronouns
- Family members - Possessive adjectives
- Appearance/ Character - The verb to be and have got
- Cardinal numbers (1-100) - Possessive case (‘s – of the)
- Greetings - Adjectives
- Introducing yourself to others - a/an – the
- Classroom language - Imperative
Unit 1 - Rooms/ Places of a house - Plurals
HOME & PLACES - Furniture & Appliances - this/ these – that/ those
- House features - there is – there are
- Ordinal numbers - a/an – some – any
- Places in a town - Prepositions of place
- Possessive case (‘s’)
Unit 2 - Daily routine/ Free-time activities - Linkers (first, then, after, next)
EVERY DAY - The time - Present Simple
- School subjects - Prepositions of time (at, on, in)
- Pronunciation: /ɑː/, /ɔː/ - Adverbs of frequency
- Question words
Unit 3 - Food & Drinks - love, like, hate + -ing form
ALL ABOUT - Food preparation - Countable/ Uncountable nouns
FOOD - Cooking tools - Partitives
- Pronunciation: -s ending third - Quantifiers
person singular; /θ/, /ð/ - Comparisons

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 UBND QUẬN _________ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Năm học 20__ - 20__
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Trường: ______________________________ Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên

Họ tên: ______________________________
Lớp: _________

TIẾNG ANH 6 RIGHT ON – SEMESTER 1 TEST

Time allotted: 60 minutes
I. Listening:
Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (1 point)
1. Laura usually has cereal for breakfast. __________
2. Her hobbies are doing crafts and cooking. __________
3. To make an omelette, you need two eggs, two potatoes and some butter. __________
4. Laura needs a frying pan to fry the omelette. __________
II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress. (0.5 points)
5. A. breakfast B. salad C. saucepan D. dessert
6. A. balcony B. museum C. library D. cinema
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
7. I usually ________ out with my friends at the park.
A. live B. talk C. hang D. play
8. I want to send a letter to my friend in American. Where is the ________?
A. post office B. department store C. bookshop D. supermarket
9. This is ________ burger in this restaurant.
A. more tasty B. the most tasty C. the tastiest D. tastier
10. Maria can’t eat dairy products like cheese and ________.
A. flour B. yogurt C. eggs D. cereal
11. Would you like ________ bread for breakfast?
A. any B. a C. a lot D. some
12. The theatre is on the right and the museum is on the left. They are ________ each other.
A. next to B. opposite C. in front of D. behind
13. Student A: “How long do you bake the cake?”
Student B: “________”

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 A. For one cake. C. It’s easy to make.
B. About 200 grammes. D. For one hour.
14. Student A: “Let’s go to the mall tomorrow.”
Student B: “________”
A. Of course you can go. C. No, thank you.
B. Sure, I’d love to. D. I’m fine, thanks.
15. What does the sign mean?
A. There is a little water here.
B. You can drink this water.
C. Put your water here.
D. Don’t forget to drink water.

16. What does the sign mean?

A. There aren’t any hamburgers here.
B. You can eat hamburgers here.
C. You cannot eat and drink here.
D. Please put your food and drink here.

IV. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)
My name is Pablo. I’m eleven years old and I live in the capital of Colombia. I’ve got one
brother. My brother is fourteen and he goes to the same school as me. I get up at 6 o’clock in the
morning. I don’t eat breakfast because I haven’t got time. I just drink a glass of milk. I leave my house
at 6:30 because school starts at 7:30. We study in the morning and break time is at 9:30. I often eat a
sandwich at break time. School finishes at 11:30, so I come home and have lunch at 1 p.m. We often
have soup with corn bread and fish or meat. We have mango juice, too – my favourite. Sometimes my
mum makes paisa for dinner. Paisa is a special dish with rice, beef, beans and sausages. It’s very tasty.
* Decide whether the statements that follow are True (T) or False (F). (1 point)
True or False
17. Pablo and his brother study at the same school. ________________
18. Pablo is older than his brother. ________________
19. Pablo usually eats breakfast. ________________
20. Pablo likes drinking mango juice. ________________
* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (0.5 points)
21. Pablo has lunch _______.
A. at school B. at 11:30 C. at break time D. at home
22. Pablo has _______ for lunch.
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 A. paisa with juice B. sandwich with milk C. soup with corn bread D. beef with rice

V. Cloze test
Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
LUNCHES AROUND THE WORLD
Simon (England): “I take a packed lunch to school. In my lunch box, (23) __________ usually
two sandwiches, some fruit and a carton of juice. My favourite sandwich is ham and cheese. When I’m
hungry, I will eat a chocolate bar (24) __________ break time.”
Juliette (France): “I have a hot lunch in the school canteen. I am a vegetarian so I don’t eat (25)
__________ meat. I usually have vegetable soup and a salad. Sometimes I (26) __________ pepper to
my soup to make it spicy. For dessert, I have some ice cream or some fruit.”
Kanzu (Japan): “My mother makes a Bento Box for me. In it I usually have some rice,
vegetables and fish or meat. My mum says vegetables have got (27) __________ vitamins. And I love
eating snacks. There is always a (28) __________ of crisps in my bag.”
23. A. there is B. there are C. there have D. it is
24. A. for B. on C. in D. at
25. A. some B. many C. any D. much
26. A. add B. grate C. mix D. chop
27. A. a lot B. lots of C. a little D. few
28. A. bar B. carton C. packet D. loaf

VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
29. There _________ (not/be) any milk in the fridge.
30. My mother _________ (tidy) the house every morning.
31. _________ Sandra and her sister_________ (help) a charity for children at weekends?
32. In my free time, I like _________ (chat) online.
VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)
33. are/ late/ for/ they/ sometimes/ school/.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
34. is/ sugary/ than/ drinks/ water/ healthier/.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

35. Paul’s lessons finish at 3:00.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
36. Bob goes swimming twice a week.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
37. I need 120 grammes of butter to make the cake.

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 ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)
38. Beat the eggs with a whisk.
→ We use a whisk …………………………………………….…………………………………
39. I love playing board games and listening to music.
→ My hobbies ….……………………………………..……………………………...
40. My house has got a chimney on the roof.
→ There ………..……………………………………..………………………

 THE END 

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 EXTRA QUESTIONS
Pronunciation:
Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation. (0.25 points)
1. A. three B. thank C. there D. think
2. A. apple B. carrot C. salad D. salt

Cloze test:
Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My name is Maria. I live in London with my parents. In my family, we have three (1)
__________ a day. Breakfast is at seven o’clock. For breakfast, we usually eat toast or eggs or cereal
with milk, but I think toast is (2) __________. My parents drink tea or coffee, and I have a carton of
fruit juice. On weekdays, I eat lunch at school. I (3) __________ have a sandwich, but not every day. I
like cheese sandwiches, and then an apple. My mum says water is very important, so I drink about five
or six (4) __________ of water every day. And I don’t drink (5) __________ soda. It’s not good for my
health. Dinner is always early – at 6 o’clock. We have a big dinner with meat or fish, vegetables and
potatoes. We never have pizza at home – my father and mother (6) __________ it, so I eat it with my
friends in restaurants.
1. A. food B. meals C. dish D. recipes
2. A. best B. better C. the best D. more than
3. A. always B. never C. like D. usually
4. A. bottles B. can C. glass D. bowls
5. A. a lot B. much C. little D. many
6. A. aren’t like B. doesn’t like C. don’t like D. likes
Jumbled words:
Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)
1. I/ on/ often/ toppings/ put/ ketchup/ my/ burgers/ like/ onions/ or/.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)
1. Jack’s house is more expensive than our flat.
Our flat is ………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

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 TA6 RIGHT ON – SEMESTER 1 TEST
ANSWER KEY
Time allotted: 60 minutes
I. Listening:
Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (1 point)
1. Laura usually has cereal for breakfast. False______
2. Her hobbies are doing crafts and cooking. True______
3. To make an omelette, you need two eggs, two potatoes and some butter. False______
4. Laura needs a frying pan to fry the omelette. True______
II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress. (0.5 points)
5. A. breakfast B. salad C. saucepan D. dessert
6. A. balcony B. museum C. library D. cinema
III. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
7. I usually ________ out with my friends at the park.
A. live B. talk C. hang D. play
8. I want to send a letter to my friend in American. Where is the ________?
A. post office B. department store C. bookshop D. supermarket
9. This is ________ burger in this restaurant.
A. more tasty B. the most tasty C. the tastiest D. tastier
10. Maria can’t eat dairy products like cheese and ________.
A. flour B. yogurt C. eggs D. cereal
11. Would you like ________ bread for breakfast?
A. any B. a C. a lot D. some
12. The theatre is on the right and the museum is on the left. They are ________ each other.
A. next to B. opposite C. in front of D. behind
13. Student A: “How long do you bake the cake?”
Student B: “________”
A. For one cake. C. It’s easy to make.
B. About 200 grammes. D. For one hour.
14. Student A: “Let’s go to the mall tomorrow.”
Student B: “________”
A. Of course you can go. C. No, thank you.
B. Sure, I’d love to. D. I’m fine, thanks.
15. What does the sign mean?
A. There is a little water here.
B. You can drink this water.
C. Put your water here.
D. Don’t forget to drink water.

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16. What does the sign mean?
A. There aren’t any hamburgers here.
B. You can eat hamburgers here.
C. You cannot eat and drink here.
D. Please put your food and drink here.

IV. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)
My name is Pablo. I’m eleven years old and I live in the capital of Colombia. I’ve got one
brother. My brother is fourteen and he goes to the same school as me. I get up at 6 o’ clock in the
morning. I don’t eat breakfast because I haven’t got time. I just drink a glass of milk. I leave my house
at 6:30 because school starts at 7:30. We study in the morning and break time is at 9:30. I often eat a
sandwich at break time. School finishes at 11:30 so I come home and have lunch at 1 p.m. We often
have soup with corn bread and fish or meat. We have mango juice, too – my favourite. Sometimes my
mum makes paisa for dinner. Paisa is a special dish with rice, beef, beans and sausages. It’s very tasty.

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True (T) or False (F) (1 point)
True or False
17. Pablo and his brother study at the same school. True____________
18. Pablo is older than his brother. False____________
19. Pablo usually eats breakfast. False____________
20. Pablo likes drinking mango juice. True____________

* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (0.5 points)
21. Pablo has lunch _______.
A. at school B. at 11:30 C. at break time D. at home
22. Pablo has _______ for lunch.
A. paisa B. sandwich with milk C. soup with corn bread D. beef with rice
V. Cloze test
Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
LUNCHES AROUND THE WORLD
Simon (England): “I take a packed lunch to school. In my lunch box, (23) __________ usually
two sandwiches, some fruit and a carton of juice. My favourite sandwich is ham and cheese. When I’m
hungry, I will eat a chocolate bar (24) __________ break time.”
Juliette (France): “I have a hot lunch in the school canteen. I am a vegetarian so I don’t eat (25)
__________ meat. I usually have vegetable soup and a salad. Sometimes I (26) __________ pepper to
my soup to make it spicy. For dessert, I have some ice cream or some fruit.”
Kanzu (Japan): “My mother makes a Bento Box for me. In it I usually have some rice,
vegetables and fish or meat. My mum says vegetables have got (27) __________ vitamins. And I love
eating snacks. There is always a (28) __________ of crisps in my bag.”
23. A. there is B. there are C. there have D. it is
24. A. for B. on C. in D. at
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25. A. some B. many C. any D. much
26. A. add B. grate C. mix D. chop
27. A. a lot B. lots of C. a little D. few
28. A. bar B. carton C. packet D. loaf
VI. Verb forms and verb tenses
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
29. There ___isn’t/ is not______ (not/be) any milk in the fridge.
30. My mother __tidies_______ (tidy) the house every morning.
31. __Do_______ Sandra and her sister ____help_____ (help) a charity for children at weekends?
32. In my free time, I like __chatting_______ (chat) online.
VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)
33. are/ late/ for/ they/ sometimes/ school/.
They are sometimes late for school./Sometimes they are late for school./They are late for school
sometimes.
34. is/ sugary/ than/ drinks/ water/ healthier/.
Water is healthier than sugary drinks.
VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)
35. Paul’s lessons finish at 3:00.
What time do Paul’s lessons finish?/When do Paul’s lessons finish?
36. Bob goes swimming twice a week.
How often does Bob go swimming?
37. I need 120 grammes of butter to make the cake.
How much butter do you need to make the cake?/How many grammes of butter do you need to make
the cake?
IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)
38. Beat the eggs with a whisk.
→ We use a whisk to beat the eggs.
39. I love playing board games and listening to music.
→ My hobbies are playing board games and listening to music.
40. My house has got a chimney on the roof.
→ There is a chimney on the roof of my house.

 THE END 
Tapescripts:

Interviewer: What time do you get up, Laura?

Laura: I get up early at 6 o’ clock. I have a shower, get dressed and then have breakfast.
Interviewer: What have you got for breakfast?
Laura: I usually have a sandwich and a glass of milk. Sometimes I eat a bowl of cereal. Then I walk to
school. School starts at 8:00 and finishes at 4:00.
Interviewer: What’s your favourite subject?

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Laura: My favourite subject is art. I love doing crafts. And I love cooking, too.
Interviewer: Really? What can you cook?
Laura: My special dish is omellete. On Sundays, I often make an omelette for breakfast.
Interviewer: That’s great. What do you need to make an omelette?
Laura: For an omelette, you just need four eggs, two potatoes and some butter.
Interviewer: Is it easy to make?
Laura: Yes. First, boil the potatoes for 5 minutes. After that, slice the potatoes with a knife. Beat the
eggs. Then, use a spoon to mix the potatoes and eggs together. Put some butter into the frying pan.
When it’s hot, pour the mixture into the pan. Fry the omelette on both sides. And that’s it – your
omelette is ready.
Interviewer: Wow, that sounds simple. Thank you for your recipe, Laura. I’ll try it when I have time.

EXTRA QUESTIONS
Pronunciation:
Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation. (0.25 points)
1. A. three B. thank C. there D. think
2. A. apple B. carrot C. salad D. salt

Cloze test:
Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My name is Maria. I live in London with my parents. In my family, we have three (1)
__________ a day. Breakfast is at seven o’clock. For breakfast, we usually eat toast or eggs or cereal
with milk, but I think toast is (2) __________. My parents drink tea or coffee, and I have a carton of
fruit juice. On weekdays, I eat lunch at school. I (3) __________ have a sandwich, but not every day. I
like cheese sandwiches, and then an apple. My mum says water is very important so I drink about five
or six (4) __________ of water every day. And I don’t drink (5) __________ soda. It’s not good for my
health. Dinner is always early – at 6 o’clock. We have a big dinner with meat or fish, vegetables and
potatoes. We never have pizza at home – my father and mother (6) __________ it, so I eat it with my
friends in restaurants.
1. A. food B. meals C. dish D. recipes
2. A. best B. better C. the best D. more than
3. A. always B. never C. like D. usually
4. A. bottles B. can C. glass D. bowls
5. A. a lot B. much C. little D. many
6. A. aren’t like B. doesn’t like C. don’t like D. likes
Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)
1. I/ on/ often/ toppings/ put/ ketchup/ my/ burgers/ like/ onions/ or/.
I often put toppings like ketchup or onions on my burgers.
I often put toppings like onions or ketchup on my burgers.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)
1. Jack’s house is more expensive than our flat.
Our flat is cheaper than Jack’s house.
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