Form 4 Mid-Term 1 Examination 2024 Set 1

FORM 4 MID-TERM 1 EXAMINATION 2024 SET 1
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3. EXAMS ,SYLLABUS ,MOCKS AND PREDICTIONS
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
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MID-TERM EXAM
TERM ONE FORM FOUR
AGRICULTURE
TIME: 2 HOURS
SECTION A: (30 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. State four advantages of artificial incubation. (2 marks)
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2.Give two uses of a gear box in a tractor. (1 mark)
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3. Name four tractor drawn implements that are attached to the three-point hitch. (2mark)
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4. Give four ways of stimulating milk let down in a dairy cow . (2marks)
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5. List two advantages of Biogas. ( 1mark)
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6. Name three temperate dairy goat breed and three light breed of poultry (3 marks)
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7. Distinguish between land subdivision and land fragmentation (1mark)

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8. List two operational differences between a disc and a mouldboard plough(2marks)

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9. State four factors affecting maintenance requirement of an animal.(2 marks)

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10. Mention four methods of breaking seed dormancy. (2marks)
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11. Give four possible observations during for egg candling. (2marks)
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12. State four qualities of healthy and clean milking man should have. (2 marks)
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13. List four characteristics of clean and quality milk.(2marks)
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14. Give four conditions necessary for artificial incubation.(2marks)

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15. Name four bacterial diseases affecting cattle.(2marks)

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16. State the precautions a farmer should take when using the workshop tools. (2marks).
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SECTION B (20MARKS)
Answer all the question in this section in the spaces provided
17. The diagram below represents an egg. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
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a. Name the part labeled B and D. (2 marks)
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b. State two qualities of the part labeled A that should be considered when selecting
eggs for incubation. (2 marks)
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c. What is the function of the part labeled D in a fertilized egg? (1 mark)
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18. A farmer wants to prepare a ration for layers containing 18% DCP using maize germ 20%
DCP and wheat bran 10% DCP.
(a) Calculate using Pearson’s square method the amount of each feed-stuff needed in order to
prepare 100kg of feed (5marks)
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(b) Name one other method the farmer can use to compute the ratio (1mark)
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19. Below is a diagram of a farm implement
E B D
(a) Identify the implement (1 mark)
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(b) Label the parts marked A,B, and C (3 makes)
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State the functions of the parts labeled E and D (2marks)
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(c)
20. The diagrams below illustrate a four stroke cycle engine system. Study it and answer the
questions that follow
(a) State the four stages of the

four stroke cycle engine G,H,I and J (2marks)
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(b) Mention one disadvantages of a four stroke engine (1mark)
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SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer only two questions in this section.
21. a) Outline six function of a manager in a farm (6marks)

b) Name four factors of production involved in agriculture. (4marks)
c) Discuss the differences between four stroke cycle and two stroke cycle (10 marks)
22. a) Name five condition that influence egg eating in poultry (5 marks)
b) What are factors that cause stress in poultry (5 marks)
a) What are the advantages of a battery cage system 10marks)
23. a) outline four rules to be observed during milking. (4 marks)
b) State six materials necessary during milking (6 marks)
c) . Describe ten general methods of disease control in cattle. (10 marks)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
231/2
BIOLOGY PAPER 2
FORM 4
2 Hours
FORM 4 MID TERM 1 – 2024 EXAMINATION

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and admission Number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
• All workings must be clearly shown where necessary.
Section A
answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. The photograph below shows red blood cells that have been put in different solutions.
Examine them and answer the questions that follow.
a) i)Identify the type of solution in which F was placed. (1mk)
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ii)State the process which the red blood cells underwent in illustration G. (1mk)
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b) Account for the appearance the red blood cells underwent in illustration E. (3mks)
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c) Explain what would happen if plant cells are placed in the solution in which the cells
in G were immersed. (3mks)
2. Study illustration below.
a. Identify the ecosystem. (1 mark)
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b. i. Which organism has the least biomass in the food web? (1 mark)
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ii. Explain your answer in b (i) above. (1 mark)
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c. Name the trophic level occupied by the following organisms.

i. Insects (1 mark)
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ii. Leopards. (1 mark)
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d. Construct a food chain in which the vulture is a quaternary consumer. (1 mark)
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e. i. Name one group of organisms not shown in the food web but play an important role
in the ecosystem. (1 mark)
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ii. What is the role of the organisms you named in d (i) above? (1 mark)
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3. An experiment was set up as show below.
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(a) A student blew air in and out through point X. Using arrows indicate how air gets in and
out of the set up (2mks)
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(b) [i] In which of the tube would lime water form white precipitate first. (1mk)
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ii] Give a reason. (1mk)
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(c) What is the effect of lactic acid in the thigh muscle of an athlete after a short fast race(2mks)
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(d) Identify the type of muscle in human being where the formation and effect of lactic acid is
not felt.
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(1mk)
(e) What is the biological significance of boiling milk. [1mk]
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4. Study the diagram of a seed below and then answer the questions that follow.
(a) (i) Name the scar labeled Q. (1mk)
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(ii) State the functions of a microscopic pore labeled R during germination (3mks)
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b)(ii) Define the term Germination . (1mk)

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(ii) Under what conditions does the above process in (b) (i) occur? (3mks)
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5. (a) A pig is an omnivore with all the four types of teeth. State two differences between a
canine and a molar tooth. (2mks)
canine Molar
(b) Distinguish between autotrophism and Heterotrophism mode of nutrition. (2mks)
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(c) How is lamina of a banana leaf adapted to is function. (4mks)
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SECTION B
Answer question 6 and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of
reaction catalyzed by an enzyme. The results are shown in the table below.
Temperature 0c Rate of reaction in mg of

product per unit time
5 0.2
10 0.5
15 0.8
20 1.1
25 1.5
30 2.1
35 3.0
40 3.7
45 3.4
50 2.8
55 2.1
60 1.1
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(a) On the grid provided draw a graph of rate of reaction against temperature. ( 6 mks)
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(b) When was the rate of reaction 2.6 mg of product per unit time? ( 2 mks)
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(c) Account for the shape of the graph between
(i) 50 C and 400 C ( 2 mks)
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(ii) 450 C and 600C ( 3 mks)
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(d) Other than temperature name two ways in which the rate of reaction between 50C and 400C
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(e) (i) Name one digestive enzymes in the human body which works best in acidic condition
( 1 mk)
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(ii) How is the acidic condition for the enzyme named in (e) (i) above attained? ( 2 mks)
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(f) The acidic conditions in (e) (ii) above is later neutralized

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(i) Where does the neutralization take place? ( 1 mk)
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(ii) Name the substance responsible for neutralization ( 1 mk)
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7. Describe the role of the female hormones in the menstrual cycle. (20mks)
8. a) After a meal of carbohydrate, the glucose level in the blood rose to 150mg/ cm3
.Explain the role of the liver in bringing the sugar level down back to normal.
(8mks)
b) Explain six importance’s of plants excretory products. (12mks)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
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BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 2 2024
FORM 4
TIME: 2½ HOURS
MID TERM 1 2024 EXAMINATION.
INSTRUCTIONS TO ALL CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer any FIVE questions.
4. All questions carry equal marks
1. a) Explain five benefits of an open plan office to an organization. (10 marks)
b) Explain five problems which consumers may face where warehouses are not available.
(10 marks)
2. a) Describe five channels that may be used for distributing imported goods. (10 marks)
b) Explain five importance of communication to a business. (10 marks)
3. a) Using a well labeled diagram, explain the effects of increase in demand for a
commodity on market equilibrium when its supply remains constant. (10 marks)
b) Explain five services that retailers offers to consumers. (10 marks)
4. a) Explain five negative implications of a young population in a country. (10 marks)
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b) Explain five differences between cooperatives and public limited companies. (10
marks)
5. a) The following information relates to Jua Kali traders as at 1st December 2018.
KSHS
Premises 190,000
Debtors 25,000
Cash at bank 15,000
Capital 230,000
Creditors 30,000
Stock 30,000
The following transactions took place in the month of December 2018
Dec 5th: bought goods by cheque kshs 5,000.
Dec 8th: Recovered from debtors’ kshs 10,000 cash.
Dec 15th: Paid creditors kshs 8,000 cash.
Dec 31st: Brought into the business kshs 20,000 cash from personal savings.
Required: Prepare the balance sheet as at 31st December 2018. (10 marks)
b) Explain the procedure followed when making an insurance claim. (10 marks)
6. a) Explain five reasons why a business would adopt ethical practices while conducting
its operations. (10 marks)
b) Explain five features of monopolistic competition. (10 marks)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
CHEMISTRY
FORM 4
MID TERM 1
EXAM 2024
1. Write your name and index no in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of exam in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided after each.
4. All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
5. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and that no
questions are missing.
6. All answers should be written in English.
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1. The table below gives information about some elements. The letters do not represent the
actual symbols of the elements. Study the information and answer the questions that
follow.
Element Atomic radius(nm) Ionic radius (nm) Formula of oxide Melting
point(0c)
M 0.364 0.421 M2 O -119
K 0.830 0.711 KO2 837
P 0.592 0.485 P2 O3 1466
R 0.381 0.446 R2O3 242
Q 0.762 0.676 QO 1054
a) Identify two elements that are non-metals. Give a reason. (2mk)
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b) I) State the valency of elements Q and R. (1mk)
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II)Write a formula of a compound formed when Q combines with M. (1mk)
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III) What type of bond exists between Q and K. (1mk)
c) The melting point of the oxide of R is lower than that of the oxide of P. Explain. (2mks)
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d) Identify two elements that would react with each other most vigorously. Give a reason(2mks)
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e) Element P would be suitable for making utensils for boiling water. State two properties that
make the element suitable for the use. (2mks)
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2. In order to find the portion by volume of one of the main constituents of air, a sample of air
was passed through two wash bottles; the first containing aqueous sodium hydroxide and the
second containing concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid and was then collected in a gas syringe.
a) Suggest a reason for passing air through:
i. Aqueous sodium hydroxide. (1mk)
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ii. Concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid. (1mk)
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b) The volume of the gas collected in the syringe was 80cm3 . This was passed several times over
hot copper powder until no further contraction of volume took place. After cooling to the
original temperature, the volume was found to be reduced to 63.2cm3 .
i. Explain the change in appearance of copper powder as the experiment progressed. (2mks)
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ii. Calculate the percentage of the air used up. (2mks)
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iii. Name the main gas remaining in the syringe. (1mk)
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iv. Explain the purity of the main gas remaining in the syringe. (2mks)
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c) A piece of sodium metal was exposed to air for some time. Write an equation for any one
reaction that occurred. (1mk
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3. The set-up below was used to prepare dry sample of hydrogen Sulphide gas
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(a) (i) Complete the diagram to show how the gas was collected. (1mk)
(ii) Identify the following: - (2mks)
I. Solid K
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II. Solution L.
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(iii) State and explain the observations made in the flask(1mk)
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(b) When hydrogen Sulphide gas was passed through a solution of Iron (III) chloride, the
following observations were made: -
(i) The colour of the solution changed from reddish-brown to green and a yellow solid was
deposited. Explain the observations. (2mks)
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(c) In the manufacture of Sulphuric (VI) acid by contact process Sulphur (IV) oxide is made to
react with air to form Sulphur (VI) oxide as shown: -
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3(g)
(i) Name the catalyst currently being used in this reaction. (1mk)
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ii) Give the two reasons why this catalyst is most preferred. (2mks)
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III. Explain why sulphur (VI) oxide gas is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid before
dilution. (1mk)
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4. Study the flow chart below then answer the questions that follow.
a) i)Draw and name two isomers of substance A (2mks)
ii)Name(3mks)
process W
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process X
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reagent C
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b)Draw two repeated units of polymer D(2mks)
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c) Ethyne is a hydrocarbon belonging to the alkyne homologous family .
i) Identify two reagents used to prepare ethyne in the laboratory (1mk)
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ii)Name the third member of this family (1mk)
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iii)DESCRIBE a chemical tests that can be used to distinguish between C2H6 and C2H4 . (2mks)
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5. Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.
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(a)State the sources of the substance X and Y. (2mk)
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(b)Identify the catalyst used in step I and how it is made to be effective. (2mk)
Catalyst-
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Effecting-
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(c)Name the substance A, B, C and E. (2mks)
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(d)Write the chemical equations that shows
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(i) The formation of substance C. (1mk)
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(ii) The reaction between substance C and copper metal. (1mk)
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(e) Describe a chemical test for gas E. (1mk)
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(f) (i)State one economic use of substance F. (1mk)
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(ii)Name the optimum conditions for the production of ammonia gas. (1mk)
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6. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name liquid:
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(ii) P(1mk)
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M(1mks)
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(ii) What is the function of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid in the set-up? (1mk)
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(iii) Suggest a suitable reagent that can be used as solid W. (1mk)
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(iv) State the role of solid W in the set-up. (1mk)
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(v) Explain why solid Q collect further away from heated aluminium metal. (1mk)
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(vi) In the reaction above, 0.645g of aluminium metal reacted completely with 1800cm3
of chlorine gas at room temperature. Determine the molecular formula of solid Q,
given that its relative formula mass is 267 (Al = 27.0, Cl = 35.5, molar volume of gas at
r.t.p is 24.0 litres)(3mk)
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7. a) Define the term salt?(1mk)
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b) State the name given to the following behavior of salt;(2mks)
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i) When hydrated sodium carbonate crystals are exposed for two days ,they form a
powder.
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ii) When calcium chloride crystals are left in the open ,a colourless solution is formed .
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c) Write balanced chemical equation to describe the effect of heat on the following
salts.(3mks)
i) Potassium nitrate.
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ii) Ammonium chloride.
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iii) Copper carbonate
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d) Describe how a pure and solid sample of lead sulphate can be prepared given the
following reagents; Dilute nitric (iv) ,Solid sodium sulphate , Lead oxide and
distilled water.(3mks)
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8. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
a) i)State and explain the observation(s) made in the combustion at the end of the
experiment(2mks)
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(ii) Identify a metal oxide that can be used in place of lead (II) oxide(½ mark)
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b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the
combustion tube (1mk)
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c) Describe one chemical test for liquid Q . (2mk)
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(i)Explain what would happen if magnesium oxide was used instead of lead (II)
oxide in the experiment (1½ mks)
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(ii)State two observations made when a small clean piece of sodium metal is dropped into
a trough containing liquid Q(1mks)
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e) Name any one use of Hydrogen gas. (1 mark)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
FORM 4 COMPUTER STUDIES - 2024

MID TERM 1 EXAMINATION (451/1)
TIME: 2HOURS
1. (a) A computer laboratory should be constantly kept dust and smoke free.
Specify two effects that dust would have on the operation of computers.(2
marks)
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(b) Why should you first switch on the UPS before switching on the system
unit and the monitor? (2 mark)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
2. Explain the meaning of backup. (2 marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
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3. State the following types of transcription errors.

(2 marks)
(a) 3455 instead of 3456
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(b) Smith instead of simth
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4. (a) State three ways used to represent a negative number. (3 marks)
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(b) Perform the following binary arithmetic giving the answer in decimal
notation.
1110.0111 + 1101001.011 (2 marks)
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_________________________________________------________________________________________
5. Distinguish between data privacy and data integrity as used in computing. (2

marks)
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6. Differentiate between a primary key and a foreign key while designing a

database.
(2 marks)
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7. Distinguish between ‘count’ and ‘count if’ functions as used in spreadsheets. (2

marks)
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8. Explain the impact of Information Technology on organization in each of the

following
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areas. (2 marks)
(a) Competition.
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(b) Pace of growth.

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9. List two roles performed by system analyst. (2 marks)
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10. Explain the following internet related terms. (4 marks)
Sign IN
_____________________________________________________________________________________
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Search engine
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Surf
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Sign up
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11. In Kenya Tea Packers Company, several people are employed as record clerks,
typists and messenger. The company intends to introduce a computerized
system in all the departments. Suggest three reasons that would make workers
unhappy with the new system. (3 marks)
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12. State two magnetic Storage devices. (2 marks)
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13. State three functions of Central Processing Unit. (3 marks)
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14. Explain two ways of protecting data and information in a database against unauthorized access
(2marks)
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15. a) Name two ways in which data can be input into a computer, and state the device that can be
used in each case. (2mks)
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b) Explain why a buffer is used in the output of data to a line printer (1mk)
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SECTION B
(Answer question 16 and any other three questions from this section)
16. (a) List two programming language translators. (2mks)

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(b) State three advantages of using low level programming languages. (3mks)
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(c) Give two methods you would use in error detection during program testing. (2mks)
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(d) i) Study the flowchart below and write a pseudo-code for the flowchart.
(7mks)
Start
Input A, B, C
Sum = A+B+C
Sum >
200
Sum = sum +20 Sum = sum - 30
Display sum
Start
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(ii) Name the control structures used in the flow chart above. (1mks)
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17. a) Explain any THREE functions of system software in a computer (3mks)

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b) As a computer student you have been asked to assist in buying an input device. State any
four factors to consider when buying input devices. (4mks)
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c) Explain three problems associated with using e-mail technology for communication. (6mks)
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d) State three advantages of integrated software as opposed to single purpose. (3mks)
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18. a) List and describe four strategies for converting from an old system to a new system. (4mks)
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(b) (i) Distinguish between private data and confidential data. (2mks)
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(ii) What can be done to stop illegal access to a computer laboratory by unauthorized people?
(3mks)
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(a) (i) List four areas that would be considered in the requirement specification. (4mks)
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(ii) Name any two areas covered in feasibility report during system analysis and design. (2mks)
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19. (a) What is the hexadecimal equivalent of 7678 (3mks)
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(b) Use one’s compliment to solve the following sum: -510 (2mks)
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(c)Compute the values of X in the following expressions
i) 24.3510 = X2
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(ii) 6A13H = X10 (2mks)
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(d) Using two’s complement compute (5mks)
3610 – 2510
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20. a) On her first day at work as a school librarian, Sera notices that book records are kept manually
using a card system. She suggests to the Principal that they use a database. State three reasons why
using a database would be helpful to the librarians (3mks)
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b) Give four examples of DBMS programs which could be used. (2mks) Lotus
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c) The manager of Pacific Company Ltd uses a database to keep records of his employees as shown
in the table below. Use this information to answer the questions that follow.
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i. Name and explain the appropriate data type for
ID: (1mk)
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Age: (1mk)
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Salary (1mk)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
ii. Write a query expression to display details of employees working in the Administration
department (3mks)
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
d) The function =AVERAGE (B2:B8) in cell B9 has been copied and pasted to cells C9 to K9 in
spreadsheet.
i. What would be the formula at cell D9 (2mks)
Page 48 of 121
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
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ii. Explain the type of cell referencing used in the above formula (2mks)
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Page 49 of 121
NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
FORM 4
PAPER ONE
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

MID TERM 1 2024
QUESTION PAPER
TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS:
• Answer any five questions
• All answers must be written in English
1a) Giving examples, outline seven human authors of the Bible.

(7mks)
b) Explain four ways which show God’s plan of salvation after Man’s fall in the Garden of Eden
(8mks)
c) With reference to the Genesis stories of creation in chapter 1 and 2 outline the attributes of God.
(5mks)
2a) Identify seven events that took place during the night of Passover. (7
marks)
b) Describe the preparations made by Israelites for the making of the Sinai covenant.
c) Give six ways through which God communicates His message to Christians today
3 a State the factors which led to division of Israel after the death of Solomon.
(7mks)
b) Outline seven ways in which God manifested Himself during the time of Prophet Elijah
(7 mks)
c) Give six ways in which Christians can deal with challenges they face in modern society.
4. a) Explain Six ways in which prophets messages were written in the Old Testament. (6
marks)
b) Identify seven events that would take place during the day of the Lord according to prophet
Amos
c) Give reasons why it is important for a Christian to repent sins
5. (a) Describe the Call of Jeremiah (Jer. 1:1-19)

(b) List the promises that the Israelites made they renewed their covenant with God during the
time of
Nehemiah.
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c). Identify seven ways in which Christians observe the day of worship. (7
marks)
6. a)Explain the significance of rituals associated with death in Traditional African

communities.(6mks)
b) Outline seven ways through which elders resolved conflicts in the Traditional African Society
(7mks)
(c) Explain seven African Moral Values that are applicable to Christians today.(7 marks)
Page 51 of 121
NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
FORM 4
2024
101/1
ENGLISH
PAPER 1
(FUNCTIONAL SKILLS)
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all the questions.

2. All your answers must be written in spaces provided.
3. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated
and no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Maximum Score
1. 20
2. 10
3. 30
Total 60
This paper consists of 7 pages
Page 52 of 121
QUESTION 1: FUNCTIONAL WRITING 20 MARKS
Imagine you are the head of the Students’ Council in your school. There have been complaints
about insecurity in the school. The Principal has formed a committee of six members who include
two cooks, two teachers and two students, you being one of them. You are the secretary to that
committee. You are to write a report after the committee investigates the problem, and submit it
to the principal within a month. Write the report.
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Page 54 of 121
QUESTION 2: CLOZE TEST 10 MARKS
Fill in each of the blank spaces in the following passage with the most appropriate word.
When the Covid-19 pandemic hit the country, the government shut 1 all
learning institutions forcing them to adopt e-learning.
However, internet connectivity 2 a significant challenge. The Kenya Coast

National Polytechnic (KCNP) quickly navigated the turbulence 3 technology
and currently, the national polytechnic has embraced blended learning (physical
4 online).
Through funding 5 East African Skills and Transformation and

Regional Integration Program, the national polytechnic developed a Kshs 8 million on-line
Learning Management System (LMS), supporting other 6 in the region
to embrace on-line studies.
“We are the centre and pioneer of LMS in the region; eight institutions have
7 the on-line studies anchored on our programme. 8 realised many

students come from humble backgrounds and could not 9 smart gadgets,
10 hindered us from fully operating LMS,” said the KCNP principal.
Page 55 of 121
QUESTION 3: ORAL SKILLS 30 MARKS
a) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow.
How doeth the little busy bee

Improve each shining hour
And gather honey all the day
From every opening flower
How skillfully she builds her cell!

How neat she spreads the wax!
And labours hard to store it well
With the sweet food she makes.
In works of labour or of skill

I would be busy too
For Satan finds some mischief still
For idle hands to do.
In books or works or healthful play

Let my first years be past,
That I may give for every day
Some good account to last.
QUESTIONS
i) Identify four pairs of rhyming words in the poem. (4 marks)

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ii) Give two examples of alliteration in the poem. (2 marks)
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Page 56 of 121
iii) Supply words that are pronounced the same as: (3 marks)
flower
too
past
iv) Suppose you were watching a live performance of this poem. List four things you would
do to benefit most from the listening and watching experience. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Your friend attended a job interview. After the interview, he was informed that he was
unsuccessful. Give five reasons that could have led to your friend’s failure. (5 marks)
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c) Your school has been invited for a debating activity by your neighbouring school. You are
one of the speakers to represent you school.
i) Give two things you will do as preparation for the debate. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 57 of 121
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ii) Mention two things you will do during the debate so as to be successful. (2 marks)
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d) You have visited Kakuzi Farm Limited for the first time. Below is a part of the
conversation that takes place between you and the marketing officer. Fill in the missing
parts. (8 marks)
Marketing officer: Welcome to Kakuzi Farm Limited. My name is Wairagu and I am in
charge of taking you round.
You:………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………. (3 marks)
Marketing officer: The total area of this farm is 100 acres. We rear cows and goats.
You:………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
Marketing officer: Other than learning about rearing these domestic animals, people come
here to learn about growing fruit trees such as avocados.
You:………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………. (2 marks)
Marketing officer: In deed yes. It generates a lot of revenue and we are doing very well. We
charge shs 100 entry fee per person, and shs 500 for each lesson taken.
Page 58 of 121
You:………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
Marketing officer: Thank you. Our work is to educate Kenyans about good farming practices.
You:………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Marketing officer: Most welcome.
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312
GEOGRAPHY
MID OF TERM 2024 EXAMS
GEOGRAPHY CONFIDENTIAL
1. FORM THREE: Use The Map Of KIJABE 1: 50,000 For QUESTION 6
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
312/1
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HRS 45MIN
MID TERM EXAMINATION 2024

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
312/1
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HRS 45MIN
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided at the top of the page\
2. Answer all the questions in section A.. In section B answer question 6 and any other two
questions from this section.
3. All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.
4. This paper consist of 5 printed pages.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no question is missing.
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1. a) State how the corriolis force affects the direction of wind. (2 marks)
b) Give three characteristics of cumulonimbus clouds (3 marks)
2. The table below shows the mean monthly rainfall and temperature for station
Months J F M A M J J A S O N D
Mean monthly 15 8 8 13 31 51 51 51 28 25 18 20
rainfall (mm)
Mean monthly -22 -18 -12 -1 4 10 11 11 5 -11 - -22
temperature (0C) 18
Describe the climatic characteristics represented by the mean monthly rainfall and
temperature table station X. (5 marks)
3. a) What is an earthquake (2 marks)
b) Identify the scales used to measure (2 marks)
(i) The intensity of earthquake
(ii) The magnitude of earthquake
4. a) Name two types of boundaries according to the plate tectonic theory (2 marks)
b) Give three effects of the movement of tectonic plates. (3 marks)
5. a) State three conditions that influence the process of solifluction in mass wasting .
(3 marks)
b) Give two negative effects of mass wasting on the physical environment(2 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and ANY OTHER TWO questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Kijabe 1;50, 000 (Sheet 134/3) provided and answer the following
questions.
(a) (i) What type of map is the Kijabe (1 mark)
(ii) In which hemisphere is the area covered by the Kijabe Map located?(2 marks)
(iii) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the Kijabe Map.(2 marks)
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(b) (i) Covert the linear scale of the map into a statement. (2 marks)
(ii) Give six figure grid reference of trigonometrical station 2610. (2 marks)
(c) On the graph paper provided, reduce the area enclosed by Eastings 34 to 40 and
Northings 91 to 97 by a scale factor of 2 (3 marks)
(i) On the new map, accurately mark the following;

(a) All weather road bound surface (1 mark)
(b) Forest guard post (1 mark)
(c) Githoito plantation (1 mark)
(ii) Give the new scale of the reduced map (2 marks)
(d) Describe the vegetation of the area covered by the map (4 marks)
(i) Citing evidence from the map, explain two factors influencing trade in the
area covered by the map (4 marks)
7. (a) (i) Differentiate between faulting and folding. (2 marks)

(ii) Name five features formed as a result of faulting. (5 marks)
(b) The world map below shows the location of some fold mountains. Use it to
answer question (a) (i)
(i) Identify the fold mountains marked W, X, Y and Z

(4marks)
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(ii) Citing relevant examples, explain how Fold Mountains were formed
according to the plate tectonics theory. (6 marks)
(c) Explain the effects of Fold Mountains on the following
Transport. (2 marks)
Agriculture. (2 marks)
Tourism. (2 marks)
Mining. (2 marks)
8. a) Describe the following wind erosion processes
(i) Abrasion (2 marks)
(ii) Deflation (2 marks)
b) Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.
(i) Name the feature marked A and B (2 marks)
(ii) State three significance of feature A to the human environment (3 marks)
c) Using a well-labelled diagram, explain how the following features are formed.
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(i) Canyon (6 marks)
(ii) Zeugen (6 marks)
d) State four characteristics of a barchan (4 marks)
9 a) (i) Define a coastline (2 maks)
(ii) Give three types of a coral reef (3 marks)
b) Using a well labelled diagram describe the formation of the following coastal
landforms.
(i) A Tombolo (6 marks)
(ii) Off-shore bar (6 marks)
c) (i) Give three factors that determine the size of a wave in the open sea.(3 marks)
(ii) State three uses of coral reefs (3 marks)
(iii) Students from Mombasa high school carried out a field study along the
coastline of Indian Ocean. Give the reason for carrying the following items (2 marks)
- Stop watch
- Camer
10. (a) (i) State three characteristics of a maximum thermometer. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain how a maximum thermometer is used to measure temperature

(6 marks)
b) Describe (i) How lake Victoria influences the temperature of the surrounding region.
(4 marks)
(iii) How south east trade wind. Influence temperature at the coast. (2 marks)
c) (i) Explain two ways in which vegetation adapts to hot climate. (4 marks)
(ii) Describe the characteristics of equatorial climate (6 marks)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
311/1
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
PAPER 1
FORM FOUR
TERM 1 2024
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
a)This paper consist of three sections: A, B and C
b)Answer all questions in section A, Three questions in section B, and Two questions in Section
C.
c)Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
d)Candidates should answer the questions in English.
SECTION A (25 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
1. State two ways through which archeologists obtain information on the History of Kenya.
(2mks)
2. State one similarity in the political organization of the Ameru and Abaluyha of Kenya during
the 19th century. (1mk)
3. Name two important landmarks that were built by the Portuguese along the coast of East
Africa. (2mks)
4. Give two reasons why the government may limit a person’s freedom of speech. (2mks)
5. Identify the constitutional amendment that made Kenya return to a multi party state. (1mk)
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6. State the main function of the Kenyan Bill of Rights. (1mk)
7. Give two reasons why the British used the Imperial British East Africa Company (IBEA Co)
to administer its possession in Kenya. (2mks)
8. Name the body that made laws in Kenya during the colonial period. (1mk)
9. Give the main reason why the colonial government created African Reserves in Kenya. (1mk)
10. State two grievances raised by the Asians in Kenya that were addressed by the Devonshire
white paper of 1923. (2mks)
11. Give the main Political contribution of Christian missionaries in Kenya during the struggle
for independence up to 1939. (1mk)
12. State two challenges that the independent schools faced in Kenya during the colonial period.
(2mks)
13. What was the main contribution of Joseph Thomas Mboya to the History of Kenya. (1mk)
14. Name two finance committees of Kenyan parliament. (2mks)
15. State the military power of the president in Kenya. (1mk)
16. Name two superior courts in the Kenyan Judiciary. (2mks)
17. Name one elective seat in the county government in Kenya. (1mk)
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SECTION:B (45 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
18a) State three political functions of the council of elders among the Luo in Pre-Colonial
Kenya. (3mks)
b) Describe the Social Organisation of the Agikuyu during the Pre-Colonial period. (12mks)
19a) State five political roles played by the African Election Members of the Legislative council
during the struggle for independence in Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain the role of Women in the struggle for independence in Kenya. (10mks)
20a) Identify five challenges that Kenyatta encountered as president of Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain six contributions of Professor Wangari Maathai in the politics of Kenya. (10mks)
SECTION: C (30 MARKS)

ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
21a) State three reasons why parliament is Supreme in Kenya. (3mks)
b) Explain six functions of the Independent Electoral and Boundaries Commission. (12mks)
22a) List down five factors that may undermine the administration of justice in Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain five functions of the National Police Service in Kenya. (10mks)
END
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
END OF TERM 1
PP 441/1 theory
FORM 4 2024
HOMESCIENCE
FORM FOUR
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer all questions in this section
1. Suggest two ways nutrients can be lost during storage (2mks)
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2. Give two advantages of grouping clothes before storage (2mks)
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3. Mention two ways of preventing mosquito bites in a house (2mks)
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4. Suggest two uses of a door in a pit latrine (2mks)

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5. List down two points to observe when using a sewing machine (2mks)
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6. Give two conditions suitable for growth of yeast (2mks)
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7. The size of a patch pocket depends on several factors. State 4 (2mks)
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8. State two points to note on the care of ears when cleaning the face daily (2mks)
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9. Differentiate between a dart and pleat in clothing construction (2mks)
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10. State 3 disadvantages of roasting as a method of cooking food (3mks)
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11. List four problems related to teething In small children (2mks)
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12. Differentiate between bound opening and continuous wrap opening (2mks)
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13. Explain the effect of hot water on each of the following (2mks)
i. Blood stains
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ii. Grease stains
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14. What is the role of VCT in safe parenting(2mks)
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15. Give two reasons for an open and coarse texture in creamed cake mixtures (2mks)
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16. List items referred to as accessories in good grooming. Name six (3mks)
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17. What is food budget (1mk)
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18. Give 2 uses of pocket on garments (2mks)
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19. List 3 differences between brooms and brushes (3mks)
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Section B (20marks)
20. You have been left with the responsibility of taking care of the house.
a. Launder a viscose rayon blouse (7mks)
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b. Describe the procedure of weekly cleaning of a bedroom (8mks)
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c. Clean and sterilize a baby’s plastic cup (5mks)
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Section c
Answer any two questions in this section
21 After completing your cookery practical lesson you found that your white cotton apron has
the following stains.
i. Grease
ii. Coffee
a. State clearly how the stains can be removed (5mks)
i. Grease
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ii. Coffee
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b. What factors should be considered when choosing brooms and brushes (5mks)
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c. Giving reasons in each case state five basic rules in the use of refrigerator (10mks)
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21. A. Give five steps to ensure that a sewing machine gives good stitches when stitching
(5mks)
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B. A well drain house in a comfortable house to live in Give five points to support the above
statement (5mks)
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C. Suggest five reasons why a family should prepare for a baby’s arrival (5mks)
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D. Give five reasons for budgeting family income (5mks)
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22. a. Give five points to consider when buying commercial paper patterns (5mks)
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B. Give points to consider when entertaining visitors (5mks)
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C. Discuss four points to consider when buying labour saving cleaning equipment (8mks)
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D. State two reasons for using white ceramic tiles in the kitchen (2mks)
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
102 /2
Kiswahili – Lugha
Karatasi 2
𝟏
Muda : saa 2𝟐
KIDATO CHA 4
HATI YA KUHITIMU ELIMU YA SEKONDARI
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote.
d) Majibu yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTIHANI PEKEE
SWALI UPEO TUZO

1. UFAHAMU 15
2. UFUPISHO 15
3. MATUMIZI YA 40
LUGHA
4. ISIMU JAMII 10
JUMLA 80
Page 79 of 121
1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali uliyopewa.
Taifa la Kenya limekuwa na tatizo la njaa kwa muda mrefu na hili ni tatizo ambalo
hutokea mwaka baada ya mwaka. Kuna sababu kadhaa ambazo zimelifanya tatizo hili
likithiri. Wananchi wengi hutegema ukulima kujipatia pato pamoja na chakula. Jambo hili
limekuwa shida kubwa kwa vile kilimo hutegemea mvua isiyotabirika. Watabiri wa hali ya
hewa huwashauri wakulima wapande mbegu zitakazohimili jua lakini mvua nayo inakuwa
nyingi na kuharibu mimea.
Bidhaa za ukulima kama mbegu za kupanda, mbolea, dawa za kunyunyizia na zinginezo,

zimekuwa ghali. Kuna sehemu kubwa ya ardhi ambayo ni kame na haiwezi kutumika kwa
kilimo. Mazao yanayotolewa shambani hayahifadhiwi vizuri. Mengine yanaharibikia
shambani na mengine yanavamiwa na wadudu kiasi kwamba hayawezi kutumika.
Tatizo lingine ni vita vya kikabila. Kabila tofauti zinapopigana, watu huhama na kuacha
mashamba ilhali wengine huchoma maghala ya chakula. Wafanyabiashara pamoja na serikali
huwanunulia wakulima mazao yao kwa bei ya chini sana mpaka wanakosa shauku ya
kuyashughulikia mashamba yao. Siku hizi wakulima hawashughuliki tena kuzuia
mmomonyoko wa udongo. Hivyo mvua inaponyesha rotuba yote inachukuliwa. Serikali
haina sera mwafaka za kukabiliana na njaa. Hii ndiyo sababu sehemu zingine kama Turkana
na Marsabit zimekabiliwa na njaa kwa muda mrefu.
Tatizo hili linaweza kutatuliwa ikiwa wakulima wataelimishwa juu ya mbinu bora za
ukulima. Pia wakulima waishio katika sehemu ambazo hazina mvua ya kutosha wapewe
mbegu ambazo zitahimili kiangazi. Ukulima wa kunyunyuzia mimea maji unafaa
kuzingatiwa. Mazao yanayotolewa shambani yahifadhiwe vizuri kwa kuwekwa dawa za
kuwaua wadudu.
Sehemu kubwa za ardhi ambazo hazitumiwi zitolewe kwa kilimo. Ni muhimu wakulima
waelimishwe kuhusu jinsi ya kuzuia mmomonyoko wa udongo na umuhimu wake. Wakulima
wanunuliwe mazao yao kwa bei nafuu ili wajibidiishe katika kazi yao. Serikali inafaa iwe na
sera mwafaka ili iweze kutatua tatizo hilo ambalo limekuwa ni janga kuu.
MASWALI
1. Eleza mbinu tano zinazoweza kutumiwa kutatua tatizo kuu linalozungumziwa. (al 5)
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2. Fafanua matatizo mbalimbali yanayolikumba Taifa la Kenya. ( al 4)
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3. Onyesha ukulima ulivyo uti wa mgongo wa uchumi wa Taifa la Kenya (al 2)
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4. Vita vya kikabila husababisha njaa. Dhibitisha kwa mujibu wa kifungu. ( al 2)
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5. Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yaliyotumika katika kifungu. (al 2)
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i) Kukabiliana
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ii) Janga
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2. UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)
Sawia na inavyotumika katika kukuza uchumi, teknolojia haiwezi kuepukika katika malezi enzi
hizi na zijazo. Watalaamu wa malezi dijitali wanasema ingawa wazazi wanafaa kuhakikisha
watoto wao wanakingwa na hatari za mtandao, unaweza kutumiwa kukuza talanta zao.
Kulingana na mtaalamu wa malezi, wazazi wanaweza kutumia mitandao ya kijamii kukuza

vipawa vya watoto wao huku wakihakikisha usalama wao. Watoto wanaweza kutumia mitandao
kuandika blogu au kujifunza kupiga, kutangaza na kuuza picha na video. Wanaweza kunoa
vipawa vyao katika michezo pia. Hivyo basi, wazazi wanapaswa kuwahimiza waingie katika
mtandao na kuwa wabunifu.
Wataalamu wanasema wazazi wanaowaruhusu watoto wao kuanza kutalii mtandao kwa lengo la
kukuza talanta zao huwa wanawapa ufunguo wa ufanisi wa maishani. Mtaalamu mmoja kwa jina
Aluoch alieleza kuwa, kukumbatia mtandao ni njia moja ya mtoto wako kuweka rekodi ya
ufanisi wake. Iwe ni picha wakipokea zawadi, wakishiriki na kushinda mechi au wakiwa kwenye
hafla muhimu kwa maisha yao. Jambo hili linaweza kuwatia moyo kukuza talanta zinazoweza
kuwafaa katika maisha yao ya baadaye.
Hata hivyo, wazazi wanafaa kuchunguza na kupitisha chochote watoto wao wanapakia au
kuchapisha kwenye mtandao ili wasihatarishe maisha yao na ya familia zao. Ni muhimu kuwa
makini ili watoto wasiandike maelezo au kuchapisha chochote kinachoeleza wanakoishi,
wanakosemea au wanakoshinda wakicheza. Vitu vinazoweza kuepukwa ni kama sare za shule,
picha zinazoonyesha nyumba yako au anwani ya nyumba au chapisho lolote linalotangaza
watakakokuwa na wakati watakuwa hapo.
Page 82 of 121
Maswali
a) Fupisha aya tatu za kwanza. ( maneno 80-85). (alama 9, moja

ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) Fupisha aya ya nne. (maneno 35-40) (alama 4, moja

ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)
a). Andika sauti zanye sifa zifuatazo: (al 2)
i) Kipasuo, si ghuna cha ufizi
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ii) Kikwamizo, ghuna cha ufizi
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iii) Nazali, ghuna ya kaakaagumu
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iv) Irabu ya mbele, juu, tandazwa
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b) Tunga neno lenye sauti mwambatano ya ufizi. (al 1)
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c) Kwa kutoa mifano, eleza tofauti ya silabi wazi na funge. (al 2)
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d) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (al 2)
Tukipanda ndizi hizi vyema, vijiji hivi vitakuwa na vyakula vya kutosha.
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e) Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao (al 2)
KN(W+V) + KT (t+ s)
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f) Ainisha viambishi awali na tamati katika neno lifuatalo. ( al 2)
Ulijuaje
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g) Onyesha na kutoa mifano, miundo miwili ya nomino katika ngeli ya KI-VI. ( al 2)
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h) Yakinisha sentensi hii katika nafasi ya pili. ( al 1)
Wasiposoma kwa bidii hawatapita mtihani.
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i) Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo. (al 3)
tafadhali nipe maji ninywe nina kiu mkimbizi alimwambia
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j) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya udogo umoja. ( al 1)
Ngoma hizo zao zilipasuliwa na vijana wale.
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k) Tunga sentensi moja ukitumia vitenzi vifuatavyo katika kauli ya kutendua. ( al 2)
Funga
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Chomeka
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l) Unda vivumishi kutokana na vitenzi vifuatavyo kisha utunge sentensi ukitumia vivumishi
ulivyotunga. ( al 2)
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i) Cheka
Kivumishi
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Sentensi
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Pika
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Kivumishi
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Sentensi
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m) Tumia neno hadi katika sentensi kama kihusishi cha: (al 2)
i) wakati
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ii) mahali
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n) Tambua aina za vielezi katika sentensi ifuatayo: (al 2)

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Kipusa mrembo sana alitembea kitausi shuleni jana.
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o) Huba ni kwa penzi, heshima ni kwa …………………na ruhusa ni kwa ….……….(al 1)
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p) Tambua aina za vitenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (al 2)
Kijana aliyekuwa hapa ndiye mtoto wake.
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q) Tambua shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (al 3)
Vijana hawa hulipiwa karo mapema.
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r) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha jedwali. (al 2)
Zawadi nzuri niliyomtunuku mwanawe ilimpa furaha tele.
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s) Tunga sentensi mbili ukitumia neno “komaa” kama: (al 2)
Kivumishi
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Nomino
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t) Ainisha virai katika sentensi ifuatayo; (al 3)
Ndovu amelala kando ya mti.
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u) Tunga sentensi moja kudhihirisha maana tofauti za maneno; Fuma (al 1)
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4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

i) Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.
Ahabu: Likizo ilikuwa fupi tumerudi kwa vitabu sasa.
Munini: Huu ni wakati wa kipindi cha lala salama, lazima tujikaze.
Ahabu : Usemavyo ni real.
Munini: Bidii ndiyo itakayotuokoa.
Page 89 of 121
Ahabu : Ulimaliza ile assignment. Maze mimi nilishindwa.
Munini: Shsss… ndo huyo mwalimu.
Bw. Juma: Nani hao wanaongea? Nyamazeni! Tumekuja hapa kusoma sio kupiga kelele.
Maswali
a) Tambua sajili inayorejelewa katika kifungu hiki. (alama 1)
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b) Fafanua sifa nne za sajili hii kama zilivyojitokeza katika kifungu ( alama 4)
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ii) Taja nadharia tatu zinazoeleza chimbuko la lugha ya Kiswahili. ( alama 3)
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iii) Eleza istilahi zifuatazo katika isimu jamii (alama 2)
a) Usanifishaji
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b) Lafudhi
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NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
121
MATHEMATICS
FORM 4 PAPER 2
2024
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
MID TERM 1 EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
3. Answer all questions in section I and any five questions in Section II.
4. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the
spaces below each question.
5. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
6. KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.
For Examiner’s Use Only
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Grand
Total
Page 92 of 121
SECTION I (50 marks)
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in this section.
𝑑4 −ℎ𝑘
1. Make d the subject of the formulae; 𝑝𝑑 = √ (3 marks)
𝐵𝑑2
2. Use logarithm tables to evaluate (4 marks)
345.3 × 0.00697
√
0.534
3. The base and perpendicular height of a triangle are measured as 8.2cm and 6.3cm
respectively. Calculate the percentage error in calculating the area correct to 3 d.p.
(4 marks)
Page 93 of 121
4. A businesswoman borrowed Ksh. 240,000 from a financial institution that charges
compound interest of 12% p.a for five years. She used the money to purchase a piece of
land that appreciates at the rate of 15% p.a. If she sold the piece of land after five years,
determine the amount of profit she made. (3 marks)
5. Simplify (2 marks)
8
4 − 2√3
6. (i) Expand and simplify (1 − 3𝑥)5 up to the term in 𝑥 3 (1 mark)
(ii) Hence use your expansion to estimate (0.97)5 correct to 4 d.p. (2 marks)
Page 94 of 121
7. A quantity P varies partly as Q and partly as the square root of Q. When 𝑃 = −4,
𝑄 = 16 and when 𝑃 = −42, 𝑄 = 36. State the equation connecting P and Q.
(3 marks)
8. Solve for 𝑥 given that (3 marks)

𝐿𝑜𝑔 (𝑥 − 4) + 2 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔 5 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 (2𝑥 + 10)
𝟐𝒙−𝟏 𝒙+𝟏
9. Simplify = hence use the quadratic formula to find the value of 𝑥. (3 marks)
𝟔 𝟑𝒙
Page 95 of 121
10. The equation of a circle is given as 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 − 16𝑥 + 24𝑦 + 3 = 0. Find the centre of
the circle and its radius. (3 marks)
11. The region in the figure below is defined by the inequalities L1, L2, L3 and L4
Form four inequalities that satisfy the unshaded region. (4 marks)
Page 96 of 121
12. The three sides of a triangle ABC are 𝐴𝐵 = 12𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 10𝑐𝑚 and 𝐴𝐶 = 8𝑐𝑚. Using
the Hero’s formula calculate to 2 decimal places the area of the triangle. (3 marks)
1 6 −3
13. Given the column vectors 𝒂 = (−2), 𝒃 = (−3) , 𝒄 = ( 2 ) and that
1 9 3
1
𝒑 = 2𝒂 − 3 𝒃 + 𝒄.
a) Express 𝒑 as a column vector. (2 marks)
b) Determine the magnitude of p. (1 mark)
Page 97 of 121
14. In the figure below DC is tangent to the circle at D and O is centre of the circle. AOBC is
a straight line. Given that 𝐷𝐶 = 6𝑐𝑚 and 𝐵𝐶 = 4𝑐𝑚
Calculate the length AC (3 marks)
Page 98 of 121
15. The figure below shows a triangle ABC in which 𝐴𝐵 = 6𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 11𝑐𝑚 and angle
𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 110°. Calculate to 2 decimal places the length of AC. (3 marks)
5 12
16. Use tables of reciprocals only to work out 0.0396 + 0.593 (3 marks)
SECTION II (50 Marks)
Answer ONLY five questions from this section.
Page 99 of 121
17. In the figure below E is the midpoint of BC. 𝐴𝐷: 𝐷𝐶 = 3: 2 and F is the meeting point of
BD and AE. 𝐴𝐶 = 𝑐̌ and 𝐴𝐵 = 𝑏̌
a) Express the following vectors in terms of b and c

i. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝐷 (1 mark)
ii. ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐸 (2 marks)
b) If ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝐵𝐹 = 𝑡𝐵𝐷 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ , Express AF in two different ways hence find the value
𝐴𝐹 = 𝑛𝐴𝐸
of t and n (5 marks)
Page 100 of 121

c) State the ratio in which F divides
i. BD (1 mark)
ii. AE (1 mark)
18. Use a pair of compass and a ruler only for all constructions in this question.
a) Construct triangle PQR in which 𝑄𝑅 = 5𝑐𝑚 , 𝑃𝑅 = 4𝑐𝑚 and Angle 𝑃𝑅𝑄 = 105°
(3 marks)
Page 101 of 121

b) Measure line PQ. (1 mark)
c) Calculate the area of the triangle PQR. (3 marks)
d) Draw a circle passing through the vertices of the triangle. (3 marks)
19. The table below shows the income tax rates for the year 2021.
Taxable income per annum Tax rate Sh per K£
per K£
0 − 5808 2
5809 − 11 280 3
11 281 − 16 752 4
16 753 − 22 224 5
22 224 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒 6
In the year 2021, Omondi’s monthly income was as follows:

Basic salary Ksh. 22 600
House allowance Ksh. 12 000
Page 102 of 121
Medical allowance Ksh. 2 880
Transport allowance Ksh. 340
Omondi was entitled to a monthly personal relief of Ksh. 1156. Every month the
following deductions are made:
NHIF Ksh. 1 500
SACCO share contribution Ksh. 3 000
Calculate:
a) Omondi’s taxable income in Kenyan pounds. (2 marks)
b) Total tax paid per year in shillings. (6 marks)
c) Net salary for the month. (2 marks)
20. (a) Solve the equation (4 marks)

𝑥+3 1
=
24 𝑥−2
Page 103 of 121

(b) The length of a floor of a rectangular hall is 9m more than its width .If the area of the floor
is 136 𝑚2 ,
i. Calculate the perimeter of the floor (3 marks)
ii. A rectangular carpet is placed on the hall leaving an area of 64 𝑚2.If the length of the
carpet is twice its width, determine the width of the carpet. (2 marks)
21. The probability that our school will host soccer and rugby tournament this year is 0.8. If
we host, the probability of winning soccer is 0.7. If we don’t host the probability of
winning soccer is 0.4. If we win soccer the probability of winning rugby is 0.8,
otherwise if we lose the probability of winning rugby is 0.3.
Page 104 of 121
a) Draw a tree diagram to represent this information. (2 marks)
b) Use the tree diagram to find:-

i. The probability that we lose both games (2 marks)
ii. The probability that we will win only one game (3 marks)
iii. The probability that we will host and lose both games (2 marks)
iv. The probability that we win at least one game, if we host (1 mark)
22. The first, fifth and seventh terms of an Arithmetic Progression(A.P) form the first three
terms of a decreasing Geometric Progression(G.P) respectively. Given that the first term
of each progression is 64.
Page 105 of 121

a) Write two equations involving common ratio of Geometric Progression (G.P) and
find the common difference of Arithmetic Progression (A.P). (4 marks)
b) Find the sum of the first 24 terms of the Arithmetic Progression (AP) (3 marks)
c) Find the number of terms for which the sum of the Geometric Progression (G.P) is
7
127 8 . (3 marks)
Page 106 of 121

23. The figure below shows a belt passing round two wheels of centres P and Q respectively.
The radii of the pulleys are 15cm and 9cm respectively. RS and UV are tangents to the
circles. ∠𝑅𝑃𝑄 = 72° and 𝑃𝑄 = 20𝑐𝑚. (Use 𝜋 = 3.142)
Calculate
a) The length of RS (2 marks)
b) Arc length RWV (3 marks)
c) Arc length STU (3 marks)
d) The total length of the belt (2 marks)
Page 107 of 121

24. (a) Complete the table below for the equation 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 + 5 (2 marks)
𝑥 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
𝑥2 0 4 9 25
−6𝑥 0 −36
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
𝑦 5 0
(b) Draw the graph of 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 + 5 using values in the table (3 marks)
(c) Use the graph to solve the equation

i. 𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 + 5 = 0 (1 mark)
ii. 𝑥 2 = 6𝑥 – 7 (2 marks)
iii. 𝑥 2 – 6.5𝑥 + 5 = 0 (2 marks)
Page 108 of 121

NAME…………………………………………………………………….ADM…………..……
SCHOOL………………………………………………………………..STREAM……………
DATE………………………………….SIGN………………………TARGET……………….
232/2
PHYSICS Paper 2
(THEORY)
, 2024
2 hours
.
1. Write your name, index number, admission number and sign in the spaces provided
above.
2. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
3. Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
4. All workings must be clearly shown where applicable.
5. All numerical answers must be expressed in decimal form
6. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used where applicable.
For Examiner’s use only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 12
14 15
B 15 13
16 8
17 7
TOTAL 80
This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to
ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and no question is missing.
Page 109 of 121

SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the question in this section in the spaces provided
1. The figure below represents a point image formed by a mirror.
image
eye
mirror
Sketch rays to show how the image is formed and seen by the eye. (2 mks)
2. State any two ways of increasing the size of an image formed by a pinhole camera (2 mks)
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3. A form one student was investigating the brightness of bulbs when set up in circuits. He
used identical bulbs and cells.
i. State which set up had the brightest bulb (1 marks)

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Page 110 of 121

ii. Explain the answer in (i) above. (1mk)
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4. A lady holds a large concave mirror of focal length 1.8m from her face. State two
characteristics of her image in the mirror (2mks)
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5. The figure below shows two parallel thick copper conductors connected to a d.c power
supply. A rider made from a thin copper wire is placed on the conductors as shown.
rider
N
thick copper conductors
State and explain what is observed on the rider when the switch is closed. (2 mks)
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6. The figure below shows how the displacement varies with time for a certain wave.
Page 111 of 121
isplacement (m)

0.2
0.1
0
0.25 0.50 0.75 1.00 1.25
Time (s)
-0.1
-0.2
Determine the frequency of the wave. (3 mks)
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7. Two pins are hanging from a magnet S shown in diagram below.
Explain why the nails do not hang vertically downwards. (2mks)

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8. Draw diagrams to illustrate what happens when plane waves are incident on a slit. When the
width of the slit is large compared with the wavelength of the waves. (2mks)
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9. Determine the reading of the ammeter in figure below. (2mks)
Page 112 of 121

10. A ray of light is incident on a glass-oil interface as shown in fig. below. Determine the
value of r.
(Take refractive index of glass and oil as 3/2 and 8/5 respectively) (2mk)
11. Distinguish between hard and soft magnetic materials. (2 marks)
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…
12. An electric heater is found to have a resistance of 950Ω when operating normally on 240 V
mains. Find the power rating of the heater. (2 marks)
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SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
13. a) State one difference between light and sound waves (1 mk)
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Page 113 of 121
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b) State two factors that affect speed of sound in solid. (2mks)

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c) Explain how an increase in temperature affects the velocity of sound in air. (2 mks)
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d) The figure below shows a set up made by a Form 2 student to study an aspect of a wave.
Electric bell
Steam from boiling water
Water
(i) State what happens to the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled to
0°C (1 mk)
Page 114 of 121

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(ii) Explain the observation in (i) above (2 mks)

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e) A boy stands some distance from a high wall and claps his hands. He claps again each time
he hears an echo.
(i) What two measurements would need to be made in order to determine the speed of
sound? (2mks)
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ii) The boy’s friend notes that it takes 10 s to make 10 claps. Determine how far the boy is from
the wall, given that the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. (2 mks)
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14. a) State Ohm’s law. (1 mk)

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b) You are provided with connecting wires, ammeter, voltmeter, cells in a cell holder, variable
resistor, switch and a conductor. With an aid of a diagram, describe an experiment to verify
Ohm’s law for a wire. (4 mks)
Page 115 of 121

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Procedure
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c) (a) Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
Calculate the effective resistance of the circuit. (3mks)

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(i)
(ii) Find the voltmeter reading. (3mks)
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Page 116 of 121

(b) c) The graph below shows the variation of potential difference V with current I for a certain
cell.
From the graph determine

i). The internal resistance of the cell (3 marks)
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ii). The e.m.f of the cell (1 mark)
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15. a) State two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur. (2 mks)
Page 117 of 121

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b) The figure below shows the part of a ray of yellow light through a glass prism. The
speed of yellow light in the prism is 1.88 x 108 m/s.
o
60
i) Determine the refractive index of the prism material (Speed of light in air, C = 3.0 x 108
m/s) (2 mks)
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ii) Show on the figure the critical angle C, and determine its value. (3 mks)
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iii) Given that r = 21.2o, determine angle 𝜃. (2 mks)
Page 118 of 121

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c) The figureshows two rays A and B entering a semi-circular glass block which has a
critical angle of42o. The rays are incident at point O.
0 air
o
30
ss
gla
o
45
B
A
(i)Complete the path of the two rays from point O. Label A1 and B1 the corresponding rays.
(2 mks)
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(ii) Calculate the refractive index of the semicircular glass block. (2 mks)
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16. a) define the term eclipse of the moon 1 mark
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b) differentiate between umbra and penumbra shadows. 2marks
Page 119 of 121

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c ) An incident ray forms an angle of 45 degrees with the mirror at point of incidence .If The
position of the incident ray is kept constant while the mirror is rotated at an angle of 20
degrees .Find the angle through which the reflected ray is rotated 2 marks
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d) A tree 25 m high stands, 50 m in front of a pinhole camera whose screen is 30 cm behind the
pinhole. What is the height of the image of the tree formed on the screen.
3mks
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17. a) Define capacitance of a capacitor (1mk)
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b) State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor. (2mks)
Page 120 of 121

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c. The figure below shows a voltmeter connected across two charged parallel plates.
When a thin sheet of mica is inserted between the plates, the reading of the voltmeter is observed
to reduce. Explain this observation. (2 mks)
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d) Figure 2 below shows a positive charge near a plate carrying negative charge. Draw the
electric field between them. (2mks)
Page 121 of 121


Form 4 Mid-Term 1 Examination 2024 Set 1

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FORM 4 MID-TERM 1 EXAMINATION 2024 SET 1

ALL SUBJECTS CAPTURED IN THIS PDF SCROLL DOWN

ALL FORMS OPENER EXAMINATION EXAM AVAILABLE

5. List two advantages of Biogas. ( 1mark)

7. Distinguish between land subdivision and land fragmentation (1mark)

8. List two operational differences between a disc and a mouldboard plough(2marks)

9. State four factors affecting maintenance requirement of an animal.(2 marks)

13. List four characteristics of clean and quality milk.(2marks)

14. Give four conditions necessary for artificial incubation.(2marks)

15. Name four bacterial diseases affecting cattle.(2marks)

Answer all the question in this section in the spaces provided

c. What is the function of the part labeled D in a fertilized egg? (1 mark)

19. Below is a diagram of a farm implement

(a) State the four stages of the

21. a) Outline six function of a manager in a farm (6marks)

b) What are factors that cause stress in poultry (5 marks)

a) What are the advantages of a battery cage system 10marks)

23. a) outline four rules to be observed during milking. (4 marks)

b) State six materials necessary during milking (6 marks)

c) . Describe ten general methods of disease control in cattle. (10 marks)

FORM 4 MID TERM 1 – 2024 EXAMINATION

• Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.

• Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.

• All workings must be clearly shown where necessary.

answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided

a) i)Identify the type of solution in which F was placed. (1mk)

2. Study illustration below.

a. Identify the ecosystem. (1 mark)

c. Name the trophic level occupied by the following organisms.

d. Construct a food chain in which the vulture is a quaternary consumer. (1 mark)

3. An experiment was set up as show below.

ii] Give a reason. (1mk)

(e) What is the biological significance of boiling milk. [1mk]

(a) (i) Name the scar labeled Q. (1mk)

b)(ii) Define the term Germination . (1mk)

(b) Distinguish between autotrophism and Heterotrophism mode of nutrition. (2mks)

Temperature 0c Rate of reaction in mg of

(c) Account for the shape of the graph between

(i) 50 C and 400 C ( 2 mks)

(ii) 450 C and 600C ( 3 mks)

could be increased (2 mks)

(f) The acidic conditions in (e) (ii) above is later neutralized

b) Explain six importance’s of plants excretory products. (12mks)

BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 2 2024

MID TERM 1 2024 EXAMINATION.

INSTRUCTIONS TO ALL CANDIDATES

4. a) Explain five negative implications of a young population in a country. (10 marks)

a) Identify two elements that are non-metals. Give a reason. (2mk)

b) I) State the valency of elements Q and R. (1mk)

II)Write a formula of a compound formed when Q combines with M. (1mk)

III) What type of bond exists between Q and K. (1mk)

a) Suggest a reason for passing air through:

i. Aqueous sodium hydroxide. (1mk)

ii. Concentrated Sulphuric (VI) acid. (1mk)

ii. Calculate the percentage of the air used up. (2mks)

iii. Name the main gas remaining in the syringe. (1mk)

(ii) Identify the following: - (2mks)

(iii) State and explain the observations made in the flask(1mk)

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3(g)