FIM Revision 2
FIM Revision 2
Short selling is the sale of a financial product that the seller does not own.
The term ‘medium of exchange' for money refers to its use as something that is widely
accepted as payment for goods and services.
The role of money as a store of value refers to the fact that money allows worth to be
stored readily.
Financial markets have developed to facilitate the exchange of money between savers
and borrowers.claim to future cash flows is NOT a function of money
Buyers of financial claims lend their excess funds because they want surplus funds in
the future.
Sellers of financial claims promise to pay back borrowed funds based on their
expectation of having surplus funds in the future.
The process of facilitating the flow of funds between borrowers and lenders performed
by the financial system increases the rate of economic growth of a country.
Both real and financial assets have four principal attributes that are significant factors
in the investment decision process. These are: I. liquidity II. capital gain III. risk IV.
return or yield V. time pattern of future cash flows VI. price and cash flow volatility I,
III, IV, V
Which of the following is NOT associated with characteristics of shares A fixed interest
payment
A financial institution that obtains most of its funds from deposits is a/an commercial
bank.
Institutions that specialise in off-balance-sheet advisory services are called investment
banks.
A financial intermediary that receives premium payments which are used to purchase
assets to cover future possible payments is a life insurance office.
1.2 Financial system and financial institutions
Financial institutions whose liabilities specify that, in return for the payment of periodic
funds to the institution, the institution will make payments in the future (if and when a
specified event occurs) are contractual savings institutions.
Financial institutions that raise the majority of their funds by selling securities in the
money markets are finance companies.
Financial institutions that are formed under a trust deed and attract funds by inviting
the public to buy units are unit trusts.
When a borrower issues a debt instrument with collateral specified in its contract this
debt instrument is called secured.
Debt instruments that can be easily sold and transferred in the financial markets are
called negotiable.
Their prices do not fluctuate as much as shares is NOT a feature of a debt instrument
The contract price is settled at the end of the contract is NOT a feature of futures
contracts
Forward contracts are closed out by trading an opposite contract is NOT a feature of
forward contracts
The right to buy is called a put option is NOT a feature of option contracts
Interest rate swaps exchange principal at the beginning and the end is NOT a feature
of swaps
The key reason for the existence of markets of financial assets is that holders of
shares generally want to f them for bonds and other financial instruments.
The most important function of a financial market is to facilitate the flow of funds
between lenders and borrowers.
Financial markets issue claims on future cash flows of individual borrowers directly to
lenders.
A primary financial market is one tahat involves the sale of financial assets for the first
time.
1.3 Financial instruments
A secondary financial market is one that involves the sale of existing financial assets.
When a security is sold in the financial markets for the first time funds flow from the
saver to the issuer.
The market where existing securities are sold is the secondary market.
When a large company issues a financial instrument into the financial markets it sells a
financial claim.
The flow of funds through financial markets increases the volume of savings and
investment by providing savers with a variety of ways to lend to borrowers.
Financial markets generally deal only with the purchase and sale of government
securities.
has a selection of financial assets with similar timings of cash flow is NOT true—a well-
functioning financial market
Financial markets involve both primary and secondary transactions.
Direct finance reduces search and transactions costs is NOT a major advantage of
direct finance
Financial intermediaries act as a third party by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing
claims based on them to savers.
The flow of funds between lenders and borrowers is channelled indirectly through
financial intermediaries.
‘Intermediaries, by managing the deposits they receive, are able to make long-term
loans while satisfying savers' preferences for liquid claims.' This statement is referring
to which important attribute of financial intermediation Maturity transformation
The main role of financial intermediaries is to borrow funds from surplus units and lend
them to borrowers.
Financial intermediaries pool the funds of many small savers and make loans to many
borrowers.
Small savers prefer to use financial intermediaries rather than lending directly to
borrowers because financial intermediaries offer the savers a wide portfolio of financial
instruments.
Financial intermediaries can engage in credit risk transformation because they develop
expertise in lending and diversifying loans.
When a financial intermediary collects together deposits and lends them out as loans
to companies, it is engaging in asset transformation.
Liquidity’ in financial terms is the ease with which an asset can be sold at the
published market price.
When an individual has immediate access to their funds from an account with a
financial intermediary, the intermediary is engaging in liquidity management.
When a financial intermediary can repeatedly use standardised documents, it is
engaging in: economies of scale.
According to the textbook, all of the following are financial intermediaries except a/an
share broking firm.
An example of a financial intermediary is an insurance company.
The main participants in the financial system are individuals, corporations and
governments. Individuals are generally suppliers of funds and corporations are net
users of funds.
The Commonwealth Government would pay the lowest interest rate on debts of equal
maturity
The money market is created by a financial connection between providers and users
of short-term funds.
Unsecured notes is NOT usually a short-term discount security
It only operates as a market in which new security issues are created and marketed is
NOT a feature of the money market
The market that involves the buying and selling of short-term securities is the money
market.
A large company with a temporary surplus of funds is most likely to buy bank bills.
A company that issues promissory notes into the short-term debt markets is
conducting a transaction in the commercial paper market.
A company with a high credit rating can issue commercial paper directly into the
money markets
The market that generally involves the buying and selling of discount securities is the
money market.
A source of short-term liquidity funding for banks is the issue of certificates of deposit.
The market that includes individuals, companies and governments in the buying and
selling of long term debt and equity securities is the capital market.
From the viewpoint of a corporation, which source of long-term funding does not have
to be repaid Equity
For additional funding, a company decides to issue $15 million in corporate bonds. The
securities will be issued into the capital markets.
The major financial assets traded in the capital market are shares and bonds.
Compared with Treasury bonds, Treasury notes generally are discount securities.
If you purchase an Australian government bond, that bond is an asset to you but a
liability for the Australian government.
When government borrowing reduces the amount of funds available for lending to
businesses, this is called crowding out.
All of the following are key financial services provided by the financial system except
profitability.
Generally, financial instruments are divided into three broad categories of equity, debt
and derivatives. Which of the following are usually issued by a company to raise new
funds? i. Unsecured notes ii. Ordinary shares iii. Debentures iv. Bills of exchange v.
Futures contracts vi. Preference shares (i, ii, iii, iv )
The movement of funds between the four sectors of a domestic economy and the rest
of the world is called flow of funds.
The flow of funds between the sectors of a nation-state relates to all of the given
answers.
Deregulation of the banking sector throughout the late 1970s and the 1980s sought to
reduce the discrimination against banks owing to direct controls on them only.
The changes to the regulations for the banking industry under deregulation in the mid
1980s have resulted in increasing the growth of bank sector
The Australian Reserve Bank monitors capital adequacy requirements for banks.
Unlike most other businesses, a bank's balance sheet is made up mainly of financial
assets and liabilities.
The level of banks' share of assets of all Australian financial institutions from the 1950s
onwards first _______, then in the 1980s _______ and recently has _______ owing to
banks forming consolidated corporate entities (decreased; increased; decreased )
The market structure of the banking sector has changed since deregulation of the
financial system during the 1980s. . Major banks maintain the highest percentage of
branches and share of total assets most closely reflects the current structure of the
banking sector in Australia
For banks, liability management refers banks ensuring they have sufficient funds by
managing their deposit base.
When a bank raises funds in the international markets to fund new lending growth, it is
involved in liability management.
Off-balance-sheet business for a bank refers to a bank's contingent liabilities.
Each of the following balance sheet portfolio items are liabilities of a bank, except
overdrafts.
2.2 Sources of funds
Each of the following balance sheet portfolio items are sources of funds for a bank,
except overdrafts.
Current accounts form an increasingly important type of asset for banks statements
about banks' current accounts is incorrect
They are generally negotiable instruments statements is NOT true of term deposits
As a depositor shifts funds from current deposits to term deposits in a bank, generally
the depositor’s liquidity decreases and interest income increases.
Both bank bills and certificates of deposit are liquid instruments is generally a highly
liquid instrument
The term ‘negotiable' in relation to a security means it can be sold easily.
The rate of interest on a CD can be adjusted quickly regarding certificates of deposit
(CDs) is correct
The advantage of a CD to a bank is/are its rate of interest may be adjusted quickly/ it
can be sold quickly in the money market for cash/ it is a negotiable instrument.
CDs are issued by large, creditworthy companies following about CDs is incorrect
With regard to bank bills, the bill is sold at a discount because the difference between
the initial price and the final sale price is the return to the holder.
With regard to bank bills, the expression ‘the issuer sells the bill at the best discount’
means the issuer is selling the bill into the market at the lowest yield.
With regard to bank bills, the actual role of the acceptor is to pay the face value of the
funds to the holder at maturity.
An issuer will seek to sell the bill in the market at the highest yield is incorrect in
relation to bill financing
For a bank, an advantage of bill financing is: the bank earns income from accepting
bills/the bank doesn't necessarily have to use its own funds/interest rates on bill
funding can be adjusted rapidly
If interest rates change before a bank bill matures, the bank can change the interest
rate on it is incorrect
Commercial banks take part in the money markets as both lenders and borrowers of
funds.
Alternatives to the usual source of long-term bank funds that have the characteristics
of both debt and equity are called subordinated notes.
The following balance sheet portfolio items are all assets of a bank, except certificates
of deposit.
Australian banks occasionally issue debt securities into the international markets to
raise sums ranging from $20 million to $50 million following statements regarding the
foreign currency liabilities of a bank is incorrect
All of the following financial securities are considered ‘uses of funds' by banks except
certificates of deposit.
If you take out a mortgage from a bank, the mortgage is a/an liability to you and an
asset to the bank.
The interest rate BBSW refers to the average mid-point of the bid and offer rates in the
bank bill market.
Banks invest in government securities because they can be used as security against
banks' borrowing.
Typically, term loans are for maturities ranging from 5 to 15 years following statements
about commercial lending is incorrect
Banks invest in T notes because they provide short-term income streams following
about bank lending to government is incorrect
Off-balance-sheet business for a bank refers to transactions that are currently only a
contingent liability.
In recent times, there had been a substantial expansion in fee-related income for
banks. this Increased off-sheet business (OBS) for banks is the principal reason for
They form a small part of banks' OBS business following statements about market-
rate-related items such as forward-rate agreements is incorrect
(Interest rate swaps) following categories represents the most significant proportion
of total market-rate related off-balance-sheet business of the banks?
The bank provides funding to a third party instead of the client providing the funding:
following statements about direct credit substitutes provided by a commercial bank is
incorrect
Off-balance-sheet business is usually divided into four major categories Direct credit
substitutes, trade and performance-related items, commitments and market-related
transactions.
The excess return on assets that banks have been making in recent years is NOT an
argument for some form of government regulation of the banking system
Lowering the cost of funds is NOT associated with the purpose of regulating financial
institutions
Within the context of the Corporations Law in Australia, the supervision of financial
market integrity and consumer protection is done by ASIC
The requirement and observation of standards designed to ensure the stability and
soundness of a financial system is called prudential supervision.
The Basel capital adequacy requirements apply to all banks registered with APRA and
some other financial institutions.
Some of the elements in assessing capital adequacy requirements for banks under the
Basel II capital accord are credit risk, market risk and type of capital held.
According to the textbook, the Basel II approach to capital adequacy for banks
involves six main elements.
Tier 2 capital includes general reserves for doubtful debts, asset revaluation reserves
of premises, other preference shares, mandatory convertible notes, cumulative
redeemable preference shares and perpetual subordinated debt following statements
about regulatory capital is false
The Pillar 1 approach of Basel II capital adequacy incorporates the following three risk
components credit risk, market risk and operational risk.
Eligible Tier 1 capital must constitute at least 70% of a bank's capital base
statements regarding capital adequacy requirements is incorrect
Under the capital adequacy requirement for banks, in order to fund a $100 000 loan for
a multinational corporate client with a Standard & Poor's rating of AA, a bank will
assign a risk-weighting of 20% for the balance.
In the Basel II standardised approach to external rating grades, the asset counterparty
weights for capital adequacy guidelines are 20%, 50%, 100% and 150%.
The Basel II risk weighting factor for a bank loan to an Australian company with a
Moody's Investors Service rating of C is 150%.
Under Pillar 1 of the Basel II framework, the risk weight for a residential housing loan is
determined by the amount borrowed./ level of mortgage insurance./house valuation
A bank provides a loan of $1 million to a company that has an A rating. Calculate the
dollar value of capital required under the capital adequacy requirements to support the
facility($40 000 )
A large commercial bank operating in the international markets will generally apply to
the banks' supervisor to use the risk advanced internal ratings-based approach to
credit
Definition of capital
Under Basel II capital accord, the approach to credit risk that requires a bank to assign
risk weights given by the prudential supervisor is called a standardised approach.
The risk that arises from chance of loss as a result of inadequate internal bank
processes is called operational risk.
Banks hold a fixed allocation of funds between various balance sheet assets and off-
balance-sheet business following statements about recently adopted guidelines
covering capital requirements for market risk that banks are required to perform is
false
For a commercial bank operating in foreign exchange, interest rate and equity
markets, the capital adequacy guidelines for the market risk it is exposed to fall under
Pillar 1.
For a commercial bank's normal day-to-day business, the capital adequacy guidelines
for the operational risk it is exposed to fall under: Pillar 1.
Under Pillar 2 of Basel II, bank supervisors should review and evaluate banks' internal
capital adequacy assessments.
In relation to a bank, liquidity management means the bank's ability to quickly convert
deposits into loans.
Unlike most other businesses, a bank's balance sheet is made up mainly of financial
assets and liabilities
For a commercial bank s market discipline, the capital adequacy guidelines for its
disclosure and transparency requirements fall under: Pillar 3
The level of banks share of assets of all Australian financial institutions from the 1950s onwards
first decrease, then in the 1980s increase, and recently has decreased owing to banks forming
consolidated corporate entities
2.7 Basel II and Basel III
key Concepts Misunderstanding
The financial institution that is a specialist provider of financial and advisory services to
companies is a/an investment bank.
Money market corporations are generally referred to as investment banks.
The task of the investment bank in a public issue of new shares is to provide advice in
designing and pricing a share issue.
Investment banks are not required to comply with minimum capital adequacy
requirements like commercial banks are required to.
A company may hire a/an investment banker to advise on and underwrite its new
share issue
According to the text, the principal source of income for investment banks is off-
balance sheet business.
Most corporations will seek advice from a/an investment banker on possible mergers
and acquisitions.
The process of due diligence involves detailed analysis of a firm's financial statements.
When an investment bank guarantees a certain price for a company issuing new
shares, it is acting as a/an underwriter.
When an investment bank helps a company sell large parcels of shares directly to
institutional investors, this is called placement.
The takeover company is the company in a merger transaction that tries to merge with
or acquire another company
Venture capital is funding provided for a new start-up business by a group of investors.
3.2 Explain the structure, roles and operation of managed funds and identify
factors for their rapid growth
The target company is the company in a merger transaction that is being pursued as a
takeover possibility.
If a car manufacturer were to purchase one of the companies listed below, A rival car
manufacturer would be called a horizontal takeover
The financial institution that pools funds for individuals and then invests them in both
the money and capital markets is amanaged fund.
. For Australia, recent figures show that the statutory funds of life offices have the
largest amounts of assets under management following statements about managed
funds is incorrect
Superannuation funds that aim at delivering a longer term income stream and capital
appreciation by acquiring a diversified asset portfolio across a wider risk spectrum are
classified as balanced growth funds.
An investor who wishes to save for their retirement in 20 years' time and who has a
high propensity for taking risk is likely to invest in a managed fund which invests in
government securities and foreign equities.
Managed fund managers: invest funds according to their fund's trust deed./generally
reinvest income and any capital gains in the fund/ will usually maintain a diversified
portfolio of assets within the asset classes
Funds under management by managed funds in 2010 have a value of $1666 b.
3.3 Discuss purpose and operation of cash management and public unit trusts
A mutual investment fund that specialises in short-term debt instruments and managed
by a financial intermediary is called a cash management trust.
The main feature of cash management trusts is: they allow individuals to access the
money markets. / they provide liquidity and access to funds/ that many are associated
with stockbrokers and the electronic purchasing and selling of securities by investors.
The largest proportion of funds held by cash management funds in Australia is in cash
and deposits.
Unlisted unit trusts are generally highly liquid as they can accept money from investors
at any time. following statements is NOT a feature of unit trusts
Since the early 1990s, public unit trusts have seen the largest growth in assets in
equities and units in trusts.
The majority of securities owned by unlisted public unit trusts are capital market
securities.
Property trusts are generally unlisted as they need notice to sell their physical assets
following statements is NOT a feature of public unit trusts
The main advantage of a listed trust over an unlisted unit trust is that a listed trust can
be sold at any time by the unit holder in the marketplace.
In Australia, listed property trusts dominate over the proportion of unlisted property unit
trusts because listed shares can be more advantageous in terms of liquidity.
Recent figures about superannuation assets in Australia show that the largest amounts
of assets are in the self-managed superannuation fund
Superannuation funds, because of the long -term nature of their liabilities, prefer to
hold long -term assets.
3.4 Describe nature and roles of superannuation funds. LO 3.5 Define life
insurance and general insurance offices and explain main types of insurance
policies
The superannuation fund that involves the amount of benefit paid out on retirement
being calculated by a formula based at the time when a person joined the fund is
called a defined benefit fund.
The superannuation fund where the amount of funds available at retirement consists of
past contributions plus earnings less taxes and expenses is called an accumulation
fund.
The superannuation fund where the employer must make good a shortfall in the fund
when the benefit is to be paid up is a/an defined benefit fund.
When an employee makes regular contributions equal to 7% of their salary and their
employer also contributes the equivalent of 14% of salary to a superannuation fund
that is an accumulation scheme: the final payout depends upon the investment
performance of the fund.
All of the following Acts or Bills are relevant to the operation of the Australian
superannuation industry except the Superannuation (Agents and Brokers) Act 1984.
The vast majority of retirement savings are invested in superannuation funds.is NOT
an important result of the compulsory guarantee charge implemented in July 1992
Recent figures show the largest proportion of assets held by life insurance companies
is equities and units in trusts.
Life insurance companies are more likely to acquire long-term assets because their
liabilities are long term in nature following statements with regard to life insurance
companies is true
In Australia there has been a substantial expansion of assets in the life insurance
industry. . Growth in superannuation funds following factors is one of the primary
reasons for this? B
3.8 Outline roles and relative importance of building societies and credit unions
and analyse changes in the sector
Life insurance companies attract a large proportion of their funds through regular
premiums from policy holders. In regard to the matching principle, Money market
securities would an insurance company hold the smallest proportions of
A life insurance company that sells a large number of one-year renewable term
policies will need a large portion of liquid assets to match the liabilities
General insurance companies hold a greater number of short-term assets than life
insurance companies.
General insurance companies hold more liquid assets than life insurance companies
because events such as fires and earthquakes are difficult to predict.
Premiums reduce over time owing to accumulated bonuses following does NOT apply
to a whole-of-life insurance policy
For motor vehicle insurance, a third party policy means the policy covers damage or
loss to a third party or property only.
A fund that aims to achieve high investment returns by using exotic financial products
is called a hedge fund.
A hedge fund that takes a long position in the Australian foreign exchange market is
forecasting Australian foreign currency will increase.
A hedge fund that takes a short position in equity markets will sell forward shares.
Since deregulation of the financial markets in the 1980s, finance companies have seen
the largest growth in their assets in loans to businesses.
Finance companies use their funds to provide: loans to individuals/ instalment credit to
finance retail sales to retail stores/ lease financing
By the end of the 1990s, there had been a substantial contraction in the building
society sector. Conversion of building societies to banks principal reason for this
contraction in building societies
Now currently the building society sector holds 2 per cent of the total assets of the
Australian financial system following statement about building societies in Australia is
incorrect
Under deregulation, building societies lost market share to other financial institutions.
Their response included: mergers with other building societies/ expenditure on
technology / expanding their range of products
A credit union differs from most other financial institutions because: it accepts deposits
mainly from members. / its assets are mainly loans to members./ there are stringent
requirements to hold prime liquid assets.
An important source of funds for credit unions is loan interest.
The uses of funds for credit unions are mainly mortgages.
Credit unions, while representing a very small proportion of total financial assets, have
strong numerical representation throughout Australia. They derive this numerical
strength from a common bond of association among society members.
Building societies holds the smallest percentage of total assets of financial institutions:
finance companies, credit unions, managed funds and permanent building societies
The form of financing for large tourist resorts, property developments, heavy industry
and processing plant developments is called Project finance.
The main difference between project finance and other forms of lending is lenders
base their participation on expected future cash flows and assets of the project.
A portfolio manager for a general insurance company who expects a downturn in the
market is likely to shift more of the company’s portfolio into: short-term securities.
merge.
The financial institution that pools funds for individuals and then invests them in both
By the end of the 1990s, there had been a substantial contraction in the building society sector.
Conversion of building societies to banks
If a car manufacturer were to purchase one of the companies listed below - a vertical takeover -
An electronic components supplier
+. In relation to Australian managed funds, +Unlike commercial banks, investment banks only
superannuation funds currently have the largest accept deposits from large corporations -Investment
amount of funds under management - Since the banks are specialist providers of financial and advisory
introduction of compulsory superannuation, services to corporations, high-net-worth individuals and
superannuation funds have achieved significant governments.
growth.
+ As investment banks have increased their
+. A managed growth fund is designed to underwriting activities in recent years, the number of
maximise the return from appreciation in the financial assets held by them has similarly increased. -
value of assets in its portfolio- The proportion of The number of financial assets held by them has
equity is generally larger than for a balanced decreased as they are focused on advisory services.
growth fund and the equity part of the fund
includes a greater range of risk securities than + In the context of a merger, the process of due
a balanced growth fund. These offer the diligence involves valuing the target company shares -
Due diligence is detailed analysis of the financial and
possibility of potentially higher returns. operational condition of the target company.
+ On average, the value of a balanced growth + In relation to Australian managed funds, cash
fund is subject to less market fluctuation than management trusts currently have the largest amount
that of a capital growth fund -The proportion of of funds under management - Superannuation trusts
equity is lower and so a balanced growth fund
have the largest amount of funds under management.
has generally lower volatility.
Chapter 4
4.1 The nature of a corporation
• Share market
– A formal exchange facilitating the issue, buying and selling of equity securities. •
Publicly listed corporation
– A company whose shares are quoted and traded on a formal stock exchange. •
Ordinary share
– The principal form of equity issued by a corporation, which bestows a claim to
residual cash flows and ownership and voting rights.
• The corporation differs from other business forms
– Ownership claims are widespread and easily transferable.
– Owners (shareholders) do not affect the day-to-day affairs of the company. –
Shareholders’ liability is limited to:
• the issue price of shares of a limited liability company
• any partly paid portion of shares of a no-liability company.
• Advantages of the corporate form
– Can obtain large amounts of finance at a relatively cheap cost
– The liquidity of securities facilitates investor diversification and encourages
investment in corporate securities
– Separation of ownership and control facilitates:
• appointment of specialised management
• greater effectiveness in the planning and implementation of strategic decisions
– ‘Perpetual succession’—the corporate form is unaffected by changes in
management or ownership
– The corporate form is suited to large-scale operations
• Disadvantages of the corporate form
– Factors moderating conflict of interest between owners and managers • Investors’
ability to sell shares in a corporation, causing the share price to fall
• Dismissal from the board at AGM by shareholders
• Threat of takeover and loss of employment
• Use of performance incentives, such as share options
• More rigorous corporate governance
– Market turnover
• The listing, quotation and trading of typically longer term debt instruments on a stock exchange
– Straight corporate bonds
– Floating rate notes (FRNs)
– Convertible notes
– Preference shares
• This role adds value to a debt issue owing to:
– transparency
• information about price, yield, maturity, credit rating of debt instruments – ease of entry
• electronic trading system facilitates buy and sell orders at minimum cost and time delay at
current market prices
– liquidity
• quotation on a stock exchange provides access to a wider market
Information role
• Investor confidence in the ASX relies on informational efficiency
– The current share prices should reflect all information available in the market, determined by:
• The ASX has a critical role in facilitating the flow of information to the market. • Corporations Act
2001 (Cwlth) requires information materially affecting the share price of a listed company to be
immediately given to the ASX.
• Listing rules are stock exchange rules with which a listed entity must comply. • Examples of
information disclosures required by ASX listing rules
– A change in a company’s financial forecasts
– Appointment of a liquidator
– Declaration of a dividend
– Notice of a takeover bid
– Disclosure of directors’ interests
Regulatory role
• The aim of regulation is to ensure market participants have confidence in the integrity of market
operations.
• Two main supervisors in Australia
– Australian Securities Exchange (ASX)
– Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC)
• ASX
– Ensures listed companies meet specified limited levels of performance and standards of
information disclosure so investors can make informed decisions • Continuous disclosure
– Prescribes appropriate behaviour of broker participants on the exchange • Sanctions include
discipline, penalties, loss of licence
– Electronic surveillance systems to monitor trading behaviour of market participants
• Detect trades that fall outside certain limits
• Cross-references all trades against information on the relevant
company, directors and associated parties
• ASIC
– Responsible for the supervision of Corporations Law and markets in Australia (Corporations Act
2001 (Cwlth))
– Responsible for market integrity and consumer protection across the financial system, covering
investment, insurance and superannuation products – Supervises the ASX, addressing potential
conflicts of interest as a publicly listed corporation
- Every time a listed company's shares are bought or sold, the company receives
funding statements about share markets is false
4.3 The primary market role of stock exchange
- The total number of equity raisings on the Australian Securities Exchange (ASX)
primary market over the past 20 years has increased.
- The greatest number of issues of equity capital on the ASX over recent years has
involved new floats.
- The number of listed companies in the ASX is approximately 2200
- The listing of new companies on an exchange such as the ASX is known as initial
public offerings.
- Commercial paper is NOT usually listed on the ASX
- An issue of new shares to the public must have a prospectus attached.
- From a company's viewpoint, the existence of an active, liquid, well-organised market
in existing shares encourages successful primary market issues.
- An initial public share offering represents the share market's primary role
- The primary market role of a stock exchange is to ensure the sale of new-issue
securities.
- A newly issued share. would you expect to buy on the primary market
- The company process that gives the shareholders the chance to change their
dividends into additional company shares is called rights issue.
- The distribution of extra shares by a company to all existing shareholders is called a
rights issue
- The selling of new shares to a selected number of institutional investors is called a/an
share placement.
- Compared with other forms of equity raisings, share placements can be quicker and
often cheaper.
- The basic role of a company underwriter about to list a new share issue on a stock
exchange is to purchase any unsold shares on issue.
- If the depth and liquidity of a share market is high, it means corporations may raise
funds at lower costs.
- The document drawn up by a company stating the terms and conditions of a public
share issue is called a prospectus.
4.5 The managed product and derivative product roles of a stock exchange
- If a stock exchange provides a market for the trade of specific share market-related
derivative products, the derivative products remove the share price volatility of stocks listed
on the stock exchange is generally incorrect
- Compared with an exchange-traded derivative product, over-the-counter derivative
products are discussed and agreed upon by the parties involved.
- Compared with an over-the-counter derivative product, exchange-traded derivative
products are standardised, involve margin calls, are not negotiated between the buyer and
seller of the contract.
- To protect their portfolio of shares from a possible share price fall, an investor could
buy a put option.
- The strategy of lowering risk exposure by holding a number of investments in a
portfolio is called diversification.
- In options markets, option premiums are paid by option buyers to sellers.
- The units of a listed REIT purchases property are generally illiquid is incorrect
- An investor holding an investment portfolio who purchases a put option is expecting
share prices to fall in the short term.
- The writer of a put option expects the share price to increase.
- If an investor buys a put option on shares he owns and then the price of the shares
rises, the investor has no obligation to exercise the option.
- A holder of a call index warrants benefits when the underlying index price increases
- A futures contract is a contract that provides a specified commodity or instrument to
be bought at a future date at a price decided today.
- The corporate entity means that if a major - Shareholders of a public corporation have the
shareholder is declared bankrupt it does not right to participate in the profits and receive
necessarily impact on the firm's operations annual dividends
- When a shareholder first sells their shares on a stock - The shareholders of a public corporation do not
exchange this involves the secondary role of the participate directly in the day-to-day operation of
share market a company but appoint the executive
- A common measure of market liquidity is the ratio of management group to do so at the shareholders'
turnover to market capitalisation. general meeting
- The price of an equity-related derivative is directly - For a limited liability company the liability is
related to the price of the corresponding security on restricted to the debt holders of the company and
the stock exchange not the shareholders
- A growth maximisation strategy by
management always results in wealth
maximisation for the shareholders
- An active and well-organised secondary market
in existing shares benefits a company because it
receives an additional payment from the share
market
Chapter 5
5.1 The investment decision
• The objective of financial management is to maximise shareholder value. • Four
main aspects of financial management
1. Investment decision (capital budgeting)
2. Financing decision (capital structure)
3. Liquidity (working capital) management
4. Dividend policy decision
• The difference between the present value of cash flows associated with an
investment and the cost of the investment.
• The NPV decision rule
– Accept an investment that has a positive NPV; i.e. reject an investment with a
negative NPV.
• NPV (and IRR) influences:
– the accuracy of the forecasted cash flows
– the discount rate (required rate of return).
• The financing decision concerns the capital structure used to fund the firm’s business
activities.
• The financial objective of a corporation is to maximise return, subject to an
acceptable level of risk.
• Returns are generated from the net cash flows of the business.
• Risk is the uncertainty or variability of expected cash flows derived from: – business
risk
– financial risk.
• Business risk
– The level of business risk depends upon the type of operations of the business, i.e.:
• industry sector that influences the level of fixed versus variable
operating costs.
– Also affected by:
• sectoral growth rates
• market share
• aggressiveness of competitors
• competence of management and workforce.
• Financial risk
– Exposure to factors that impact on the value of assets, liabilities and cash flows.
– The level of financial risk of a company is borne by the security holders (debt and
equity).
– Financial risk categories
• Interest rate risk
• Risk of adverse movements in interest rates
• Foreign exchange risk
• Risk of adverse movements in exchange rates.
• Financial risk (cont.)
– Financial risk categories
• Interest rate risk
• Risk of adverse movements in interest rates
• Foreign exchange risk
• Risk of adverse movements in exchange rates
• Liquidity risk
• Risk of insufficient cash in the short term
• Credit risk
• Risk of default or untimely payments by debtors
• Capital risk
• Risk of insufficient shareholder funds to meet capital growth
needs or absorb abnormal losses
• Country risk
• Risk of financial loss owing to currency devaluation or
inconvertibility.
risk of insolvency.
• What is the appropriate D/E ratio?
– Although there is no agreed ideal D/E ratio, factors influencing the D/E ratio in
practice are:
estrictions placed on a
borrower specified in a loan contract
• Initial public offering (IPO) is an offer to investors of ordinary shares in a newly listed
company on a stock exchange
– New share issuer must meet ASX listing requirements.
– The promoter appoints advisers (stockbroker, merchant bank, other specialists) and
possibly underwriters.
– Underwriters
he issue
allocation of securities.
• Initial public offering (IPO) is an offer to investors of ordinary shares in a newly
listed company on a stock exchange (cont.)
– Prospectus lodged with ASIC
share.
specified amount at a future date, a fully paid share is issued in
place of instalment receipt.
– Shareholders’ liability is limited to the price of fully paid shares.
– Partly-paid shareholders have a contractual obligation to pay the remaining amount
when it is called or due.
• Ordinary shares: no-liability companies
– Used for highly speculative ventures
– Shares issued as partly paid
– Shareholders may decide not to meet future calls, in which case they forfeit the
partly paid shares
• A company seeking to have its securities quoted on a stock exchange (i.e. to join the
official list) must comply with listing rules, which are additional to the corporations’
legislation obligations.
• A non-complying listed company can be suspended from quotation or delisted. •
Listing rule principles embrace the interests of listed entities, maintain investor
protection, and maintain the reputation and integrity of the market. Main principles of a
stock exchange’s listing rules include the following:
• minimum standards on quality, size, operations and disclosure
• sufficient investor interest required to warrant listing
• security issues must be fair to both new and existing holders
• rights and obligations attached to securities must be fair to both new and existing
holders.
• Main principles of a stock exchange’s listing rules include the following (cont.): •
prescribed information must be provided to the exchange on a timely basis • material
information that may affect security prices or investment decisions must be disclosed
immediately to the exchange
• disclosure of relevant information of a sufficiently high standard to investors • highest
standards of behaviour on the part of company officers.
– Preference shares
– Quasi-equity
Rights issue
• Issue of ordinary shares to existing shareholders
• Issued pro rata, e.g. 1:5 or 1 for 5
• Factors influencing the issue price
– Company’s cash flow requirements
– Projected earnings flows from the new investments funded by the rights issue – Cost
of alternative funding sources
• Two types
– Renounceable—shareholder may sell their right
– Non-renounceable—right may not be sold
• Rights issued at a discount to current share price
Placements
• Additional new ordinary shares issued directly to selected investors (institutions and
individuals) deemed to be clients of brokers
• Not required to register a prospectus but a memorandum of information must be
prepared
• Minimum subscription $500 000 to not more than 20 participants
• Market price discount cannot be excessive
• Allows smaller discount and shorter time frame than rights issue
• Dilutes holding of non-participating shareholder
Takeover issues
• Acquiring company issues additional ordinary shares to owners of target company in
settlement of the transaction.
• Alleviates need for owners of acquiring company to inject cash for the purchase of
the company.
Dividend reinvestment schemes
• Shareholders have the option of reinvesting dividends in additional ordinary shares. •
Usually issued at a discount between 0% and 5%
• No brokerage or stamp duty payable
• In growth periods it allows companies to pay dividends and pass on tax credits, while
increasing equity.
• Schemes may be suspended in low growth periods.
Preference shares
• Classed as hybrid securities; i.e. they have characteristics of both debt and equity •
Fixed dividend rates are set at issue date.
• Rank ahead of ordinary shareholders in the payment of dividends and liquidation •
Include combinations of the following features:
cumulative or non-cumulative
redeemable or non-redeemable
convertible or non-convertible
participating or non-participating
issued with different rankings
• Advantages of preference shares
Fixed interest borrowings but they are an equity finance instrument
Assist in maintaining debt to equity ratio
Widen a company’s equity base, which allows further debt to be raised Dividends may
be deferred on cumulative shares and not paid on non-cumulative shares, while
interest on debt must be paid
Convertible notes
• Classed as a hybrid instrument, issued for a fixed term at a stated rate of interest,
either by direct placement or pro rata to shareholders
• Holder has right to convert the note into ordinary shares at a specified future date
and at a predetermined price.
• The option to convert to equity has value.
• If share price subsequently rises, then a gain is made.
• If share price falls, holder may not exercise conversion option and take the notes’
cash value.
• Interest paid on notes is usually lower than straight debt interest.
• Interest payments are tax deductible to the company.
• Notes are often issued for longer periods than is possible with straight debt
borrowings.
Company-issued options
• Provide the right, but not the obligation, to purchase shares at a stated price and date
• Allow companies to raise further equity funds at planned future dates (providing
holders exercise the option)
• Typically offered in conjunction with a rights issue or placement
• Issued free or sold at a price
• Generally have value and may be traded
• The option will be exercised if the exercise price is less than the market price of the
share at the exercise date.
- A placement occurs where a company offers - The investment decision for a corporation
additional shares to select institutional investors involves the types of securities it is going to issue
- Limited liability shares are generally sold to or invest in
investors on a fully paid basis - In consultation with a company, the promoter
- A pro-rata offer of rights to existing (an investment bank) will seek flotation of the
shareholders must be accompanied by a company shares
prospectus - Financial risk refers to risks arising from the
- If the calculated IRR on an investment different types of debt securities issued by a
proposal is greater than the required rate of company
return, the company should proceed with the - A low debt-to-equity ratio for a company
project means that a rise in interest rates will not affect the
- The main objective of a business variable rate debt issued by the company
corporation is the maximisation of shareholder - Business risk is determined in part by a
value corporation's choice of business activity and the
- If a listed company violates the listing rules manner in which it has financed those activities
of the stock exchange, the company is likely to - A principal objective of a business
be delisted organisation is the maximisation of its profits
- A company's debt-to-equity ratio is
determined in practice with reference to four
main criteria and not by finance theory
Chapter 6
6.1 Share-market investment
• Investors buy shares to receive returns from dividends and capital gains (losses). • Other factors
encouraging investment in securities quoted on a stock exchange (SX) – Depth of the market
ations listed on an SX
– Liquidity of the market
international shares.
• Asset allocation may be:
Taxation
Capital structure
Liquidity
Profitability
• Wide variation in the measurement of profitability
– Earnings before interest and tax (EBIT) to total funds ratio
– Earnings per share (EPS)
• Represents investors’ view of the present value of future net cash flows of a firm •
Share price performance indicators
–
– Price to earnings ratio (P/E)
Risk
• Share price is mainly a function of supply and demand for a share – Supply and
demand are influenced mainly by information.
– Share price is considered to be the present value of future dividend payments to
shareholders.
– New information that changes investors’ expectations about future dividends will
result in a change in the share price.
• Cum-dividend and ex-dividend
– Dividends are payments made to shareholders, expressed as cents per share. –
Dividends are declared at one date and paid at a later, specified date. – During the
period between the two dates, the shares have the future dividend entitlement
attached, i.e. cum-dividend.
– Once the dividend is paid the shares are traded ex-dividend.
– Theoretically, the share price will fall on the ex-dividend date by the size of the
dividend
Example:
Share price cum-dividend $1.00
Dividend paid 0.07
Theoretical ex-dividend price 0.93
• Share splits
– Involves division of the number of shares on issue
– Involves no fundamental change in the structure or asset value of the company
– Theoretically, the share price will fall in the proportion of the split
Example—5 for 1 split:
Pre-split share price $50.00
Theoretical ex-split share price $10.00
– Example—market price cum-rights $1.00, with 1:5 rights issue priced at $0.88:
Cum-rights share price $1.00
Market value of 5 cum-rights shares 5.00
Plus new funds from 1:5 issue 0.88
Market value of 6 ex-rights shares 5.88
Theoretical ex-rights share price (5.88/6) 0.98
• Stock-market indices
–
Performance benchmark index
• Measures overall share-market performance based on
capitalisation and liquidity
• A narrow index used as the basis for pricing certain derivative
products
• Measure of overall share-market performance
• Market indicator indices
– Price-weighted, e.g. Dow Jones
– Capitalisation-weighted, e.g. S&P/ASX All Ords
6.3 Taxation
- There are two forms of tax system, a conventional and an imputation system.
Dividend imputation is best described as Encouraging investment and growth in the share
market.
- In relation to dividend imputation, a shareholder whose marginal tax is lower than the
company tax rate will pay their marginal tax on the dividend received is NOT correct
- Consider the following five statements:
i. The expected return of a portfolio of shares is the weighted average of the expected
returns for each share.
ii. All other things being equal, a cum-dividend share price should fall by the amount of a
dividend that is paid.
iii. One of the effects of dividend imputation is the removal of ‘double taxation' of company
profits that are distributed as dividends.
iv. For a shareholder with a marginal tax rate that is lower than the company tax rate, no
tax will be payable on the fully franked dividend received, and the excess credit can be
applied against other assessable income.
v. In a one-for-nine bonus issue, if the cum-bonus price was $10, then the theoretical
exbonus price would be $9.
I, ii, iii, iv statements are true and v is false
- Consider the following five statements:
i. The expected return of a portfolio of shares is the weighted average of the expected
returns for each share.
ii. All other things being equal, a cum-dividend share price should fall be the amount of a
dividend that is paid.
iii. One of the effects of dividend imputation is the removal of ‘double taxation' of company
profits that are distributed as dividends.
iv. For a shareholder with a marginal tax rate that is lower than the company tax rate, no
tax will be payable on the fully franked dividend received, and the excess credit can be
applied against other assessable income.
v. In a one-for-nine bonus issue, if the cum-bonus price was $10, then the theoretical
exbonus price would be $9.
i, ii, iii and iv are true and v is false
Australian personal income taxation exhibits: increasing marginal tax rates as income
increases and the elimination of double taxation of dividends.
- Company shares are priced at $13.45. The company announces a share split of 3 for
2. The new share price should be $8.97.
A firm has recently paid dividend per share of $1.20. The dividend is expected to grow at the
rate of 5 per cent per annum. If the minimum rate of return required by an investor for that
share is 10 per cent, the real value of the stock is $25.20.
An analyst estimates that the Seraphim Company will be able to increase its dividends at a
2.5 per cent rate indefinitely. The current annual dividend is $3, and the required rate of
return is 12 per cent. $32.37 is the value of a share using the dividend growth model
- One of the major objectives of continuous - Efficient price discovery means that share
disclosure for listed companies under ASIC’s information is disclosed at the lowest possible
guideline is to ensure that companies take transactions cost
practical steps to improve investors’ access to - If investors alter the mix of shares in their
companies’ information. portfolios as the share market suddenly falls they
- A change in foreign exchange rates are using a strategic asset allocation approach to
is a systematic risk that affects the bulk of investing
shares listed on a stock exchange - Historically, Australian banks have
- The level of beta indicates how had low EPS ratios compared with the
sensitive a share return is to changes in retail sector because of the amount of
overall market movement. lending they do.
- If two assets are negatively - Continuous disclosure rules of a stock
correlated this means their prices move exchange mean that listed companies must
in opposite directions disclose any material information continuously
- A company's ability to meet short- every hour.
term financial obligations is an important - Passive investment involves building an
financial performance indicator for an investment portfolio based on shares that are less
investor. risky than the overall share market.
- A share that has a beta of 0.5 is half as - When a share is trading cum-dividend, this
risky as the average share listed on the share means the seller of the share will receive the
market. dividend payment.
Chapter 8
8.1 Simple interest
• Introduction
– Focus is on the mathematical techniques for calculating the cost of
borrowing and the return earned on an investment.
– Table 8.1 defines the symbols of various formulae.
– Although symbols vary between textbooks, formulae are consistent
• Simple interest is interest paid on the original principal amount borrowed or invested.
– The principal is the initial, or outstanding, amount borrowed or invested. – With
simple interest, interest is not paid on previous interest.
where:
• A is the principal
• d is the duration of the loan, expressed as the number of
interest payment periods (usually one year)
• i is the interest rate, expressed as a decimal
• Example 1: If $10 000 is borrowed for one year, and simple interest of 8% per annum
is charged, the total amount of interest paid on the loan would be:
I=A d i
= 10 0
= $800
• Example 2: Had the same loan been for two years the total amount of interest paid
would be:
I
= $1600
I
= $197.26
• The final amount payable (S) on the borrowing is the sum of the principal plus the
interest amount.
• Alternatively, the final amount payable can be calculated in a single equation:
S=A+I
= A + (A n i)
S = A[1 + (n i)]
• The present value is the current value of a future cash flow, or series of cash
flows, discounted by the required rate of return.
• Alternatively, the present value of an amount of money is the necessary
amount invested today to yield a particular value in the future.
– The yield is the effective rate of return received.
• In the previous examples, the return on the instrument or yield was given. •
However, in other situations it is necessary to calculate the yield on an instrument
(or cost of borrowing).
i = 365 x I
dA
• Example 7: What is the yield (rate of return) earned on a deposit of $50 000 with a
maturity value of $50 975 in 93 days? That is, this potential investment has a
principal (A) of $50 000, interest (I) of $975 and an interest period (d) of 93 days.
i = 365 x $975
93 $50 000
= 0.07653
= 7.65%
• HPY is the yield on securities sold in the secondary market prior to maturity –
Short-term money market securities (e.g. T-notes) may be sold prior to maturity
because:
-term management of surplus cash held by
investor
• HPY is the yield on securities sold in the secondary market prior to maturity (cont.)
– The yield to maturity is the yield obtained by holding the security to maturity. –
The HPY is likely to be different from the yield to maturity.
y pays no interest but is sold today for less than its face value,
which is payable at maturity, e.g. T-note.
• On many investments and loans, interest will accumulate more frequently than
once a year; e.g. daily, monthly, quarterly
– Thus, it is necessary to recognise the effect of the compounding frequency on
the inputs i and n in Equation 8.6.
– If interest had accumulated monthly on the previous loan, then:
i = 0.15/12 = 0.0125 and n 12 = 36
• The present value of a future amount is the future value divided by the interest
factor (referred to as the discount factor) and is expressed in equation form as: A =
S
(1 + i)n
A = S(1 + i)-n
• Annuity due—cash flows occur at the beginning of each period (Equation 8.9) A =
C [ 1 – (1 + i) -n ] (1 + i)
i
Present value of a Treasury bond
• Equation 8.10 is used to calculate the price (or present value) of a corporate bond A = C [ 1 – (1 +
i) -n ] + S(1 + i)-n
i
• The nominal rate of interest is the annual rate of interest, which does not take into account the
frequency of compounding.
• The effective rate of interest is the rate of interest after taking into account the frequency of
compounding.
• The formula for converting a nominal rate into an effective rate is: ie = (1 + i/m ) m –
1
- When a company obtains an interest-only business - The principal of a six-month bank deposit is the
bank loan and is required to make annual interest amount you receive at the end of its term.
payments on the principal borrowed and repay the full - The euromarkets, unlike those of the US, follow
principal at the maturity date, the type of interest is the market convention that a per-annum rate
called simple interest. relates to a 365-day year
- Accumulation of final amounts under simple interest - The amount that an investor puts up initially for a
happens at a slower rate than with compounding commercial bill is called the principal.
interest - If a commercial bill is sold into a market in which
- When a company issues a commercial bill it is said to its yield works out higher than the yield that
discount it prevailed at the original purchase date, a capital
- When a holder of a commercial bill sells it before its gain would have been made.
maturity date the return to the holder is called the - If an investor purchases a commercial bill with a
holding period return. face value of $100 000 with a yield of 7.00% per
annum and then, in 60 days, sells it at a yield of
6.70% per annum, the investor will make a capital
loss on the sale of the bill
- If an investor purchases a commercial bill with a
face value of $100 000 with a yield of 7.00% per
annum and then, in 60 days, sells it at a yield of
7.50% per annum, the investor will make a capital
gain on the sale of the bill.
- The amount that an investor receives at maturity
for a commercial bill is called the principal.
Chapter 09
LO 9.1
Short-term debt is a financing arrangement for a period of less than one year with various
characteristics to suit borrowers’ particular needs – Timing of repayment, risk, interest rate
structures (variable or fixed) and the source of funds.
• Matching principle
– Short-term assets should be funded with short-term liabilities. – The importance of
this principle was highlighted by the GFC.
According to the text, short-term debt arrangements means loans and instruments with maturity up to
a year.
LO 9.2
Interest rates negotiated with bank at a margin above an indicator rate, reflecting the
borrower’s credit risk
• Financial performance and future cash flows
• Length of mismatch between cash inflows and outflows
• Adequacy of collateral
• Indicator rate typically a floating rate based on a published market rate, e.g. BBSW • In
some countries overdraft borrower may be required to hold a credit average balance or
compensating credit balance.
When a company provides goods to a purchaser with payment at the end of the month, this is called
trade credit.
A facility offered by many suppliers of goods that provide for the purchase of goods with a specified
period before the account must be paid for is called trade credit.
A 2/15, n/30 date of invoice translates as a 2% cash discount may be taken if paid in 15 days; if no
cash discount is taken, the balance is due 30 days after the invoice date.
The annual cost of forgoing a cash discount under the terms of sale 2/30 n/90, assuming a 365- day
year is 12.4%
A company is offered credit terms of 2/10 n/40, but decides to forgo the cash discount and pay on
the 45th day 21.28% is the company's cost of forgoing the cash discount
A supplier who changes its trade credit from 3/10 n/30 to 4/15 n/40 is likely to find its
accounts receivable increase.
LO 9.3
A bill of exchange is a discount security issued with a face value payable at a future date.
• A commercial bill is a bill of exchange issued to raise funds for general business purposes.
• A bank-accepted bill is a bill that is issued by a corporation and incorporates the name of a
bank as acceptor.
Features of commercial bills—parties involved (bank-accepted bill)
– Drawer
– Acceptor
When a business wants to smooth out the timing of its monthly mismatch between cash inflows
and outflows and day-to-day working capital requirements, it usually arranges a bank overdraft
facility.
When a company has a deal with a bank lender that allows access to short-term funds, this is
called a credit facility.
Which of the following statements about an overdraft facility Generally, the agreed interest rate on
an overdraft is calculated by the bank on the balance at the end of the month. is NOT correct
The prime rate is the benchmark rate of interest charged on loans to a business borrower by a bank.
The benchmark or prime rate of interest for overdrafts varies directly with
varying demand and supply for funds in the short-term markets.
The basic feature of a/an compensating balance required by some banks is that it effectively raises
the interest cost to the borrower for an overdraft facility.
LO 9.4
Calculations considered
– Calculating price—yield known
– Calculating face value—issue price and yield known
– Calculating yield
– Calculating price—discount rate known
– Calculating discount rate
If a company has a good credit standing with a bank, it will be charged a lower interest rate margin
than/as a company without an established record.
The interest rate on a bank bill is generally lower than the yield on a Treasury note is NOT correct
If a company wishes to finance a printing press with a two-year life, it would be advisable to
finance it through its bill rollover facility.
A company is likely to issue a bank bill if it wants short-term financing.
LIBOR serves as a reference interest rate in the United Kingdom
A bank bill is a bill of exchange either accepted or endorsed by a bank called
The discounter is the party that borrows the funds statements about the issuing of a
commercial bill is incorrect
The discounter is the party that lends the funds in a commercial bill transaction.
The discounter is the party that repays the acceptor at maturity statements about bank bills is
incorrect
The process of discounting a commercial bill means a buyer for the bill will provide the financing.
For a commercial bill, the interest rate is quoted as a/an annual percentage rate.
With a bank as an acceptor, it makes it easier to sell the bill at a higher yield about bank bills is incorrect
In relation to a commercial bill, the acceptance fee is the fee for taking the liability for paying the holder
at maturity.
Once a bill has been discounted into the marketplace, the cost of funds will vary for the issuer.
statements about bills is incorrect?
When a party endorses a bank bill, it creates a liability for payment of the bill.
In relation to a bank bill, endorsement means the endorser has a contingent liability when the bill
matures.
Upon maturity, the final holder of the bill approaches the acceptor for payment.
A major advantage of a bill financing facility is that it allows businesses to access financing at a lower
cost than overdrafts.
The bank agrees to discount bills up to the agreed amounts with a fixed yield over the life of the rollover
facility. about bank bill financing facility is incorrect
With regard to a rollover bill financing facility none of the given answers are correct.
Compared to other forms of business finance such as term loans, bill financing offers the advantages of
lower costs for the bank not having to fund the bill on its balance sheet.
A company issues a 90-day bill with a face value of $100 000, yielding 7.65% per annum. $98 148.62
would the company raise on the issue?
LO 9.5
Also called P-notes or commercial paper, they are discount securities, issued in the money
market with a face value payable at maturity but sold today by the issuer for less than
face value.
• Typically available to companies with an excellent credit reputation because: – there is no
acceptor or endorser
– they are unsecured instruments.
A holder of a 180-day bill with 60 days left to maturity and a face value of $100 000 chooses to sell it
into the market. If 60-day bills are currently yielding 6.8% per annum, $98 894.55
A company has decided to issue a 120-day bank-accepted bill to raise additional funding of $250 000 to
buy equipment. If the bank has agreed to discount the bill at a yield of 7.65% per annum, $256 287.67
will be the face value of the bill
A company wants to invest some surplus short-term funds and plans to buy a 180-day bank bill with a
face value of $100 000. 12.41% is the yield on the bill if its price is currently $94 23445.
14.50% is the discount rate of a 120-day bank bill with a face value of $100 000 and currently selling for
$95 234, with a full 120 days to run
A bill of exchange differs from a promissory note in that there is generally an issuer and an acceptor for
a bill of exchange, whereas there is no acceptor involved for a promissory note.
LO 9.6
• Short-term discount security issued by banks to manage their liabilities and liquidity •
Maturities range up to 180 days
• Issued to institutional investors in the wholesale money market
• The short-term money market has an active secondary market in CDs • Calculations—use
discount securities formulae
Promissory notes have a decided advantage over bills in that an issuer of a promissory note does not
incur a contingent liability.
Commercial paper is a short-term, unsecured discount note issued by corporate borrowers of high
credit standing. The major banks generally issue these notes on their behalf.
P-notes have no acceptor, only an endorser statements about promissory notes is incorrect
Compared with bill financing, commercial paper financing offers a large creditworthy company lower
costs owing to no contingent liability when sold on.
When compared with bank bills, commercial paper has the advantagethat a holder of commercial paper
has no contingent liability when selling in the money markets.
The term 'discount security' in relation to a bank bill means when the bank bill is issued, it is less than
the principal amount to be repaid at maturity . the interest on a bank bill is less than other money market
securities.
When issuing commercial paper, it is important for a company to have a well-established reputation in
the markets.
When underwriting a commercial paper issue, an investment bank's fee will usually be 0.1% per annum.
A commercial paper issue where dealers bid competitively for the paper is a/an tender.
The typical P-note issue program is a revolving facility with the dealer having the right to cancel, subject
to providing the issuer with the required notice following about a P-note issue program is incorrect
Where a company wants to guarantee all of its issue of commercial paper, it can arrange for it to be
underwritten.
The most important function of an underwriter for a promissory note issue is tobuy the issue of
securities from the corporation and resell it to investors.
One of the advantages to the corporation of an underwriting syndicate for the issue of promissory notes
is the underwriting commitment gives the corporation access to a line of credit extending beyond the life
of the promissory note.
A company has directly placed an issue of commercial paper that has a maturity of 90 days, with a face
value of $100 000 yielding 8.25% per annum. $98 006.31 would the company raise on the issue
As an alternative to issuing a commercial bill for short-term financing, corporations with an excellent
credit standing may issue commercial paper.
A revolving facility for a promissory note issue usually has a lead manager to organise the issuance.
A P-note issuer to guarantee all the funds may arrange for all of the given choices/an underwriter/ a
supporting guarantee/collateral fỏ the issue.
The role of a lead manager for a promissory note issuance program is to act as an arranger of the debt
issue.
The interest rate charged on an unsecured short-term P-note to a company is generally higher than
the interest rate on a secured loan.
When an issuer of commercial paper issue fails to raise the funds, this most likely means the under writer
must purchase unsold notes.
The credit rating of a P-note issuer needs to be investment grade following about P-notes is incorrect
When a bank needs funds for day-to-day operational liquidity requirements it may issue
CDs.
As an alternative to issuing a commercial bill for short-term funds, a corporation may use the
overdraft facility of investment bank.
The major banks lend unsecured short-term funds in the following basic ways overdraft and bill
financing.
LO 9.7
• Inventory finance f
– Most common form is ‘floor plan finance’.
– Particularly designed for the needs of motor vehicle dealers to finance their inventory of vehicles
—finance company holds title to dealership’s stock. – Dealer is expected to
promote financier’s financial products.
• Factoring
– Company sells its accounts receivable to a factoring company
– Factoring provides
immediate cash to the vendor; plus it removes administration costs of accounts receivable.
– Main providers of factor finance are the finance companies.
– Factor is responsible for collection of receivables.
• Factoring (cont.)
– Notification basis: vendor is required to notify its (accounts receivables) customers that payment
is to be made to the factor.
Negotiable certificates of deposit are short-term securities, issued by banks for financing purposes.
A negotiable certificate of deposit is all of the given answers/ is a term deposit because it has a specified
maturity date/ can be issued by banks to meet their operational liquidity/ is a short-term discount security.
If a company wished to invest funds in the short term, it could buy a promissory note.
A source of short-term funds available to smaller firms (for example, finance provided to a car dealership for
car funding) is floor plan finance.
Most agreements involving factoring of accounts receivable are made on a notification basis.
The cost of financing is relatively high is NOT an advantage of factoring
Some banks and bank subsidiaries may provide factoring following statements regarding factoring is correct
Under a non-recourse arrangement the factoring company has no claim against the seller of the accounts.
When the factoring company can make a claim against the firm that sold them the accounts this is called a
recourse factoring arrangement
When a finance company provides a loan to a business against the security of the business's accounts
receivable this is called accounts receivable financing.
When a financier provides a business with finance by buying its business's accounts receivable this is called
factoring.
Term loan
– A loan advanced for a specific period (three to 15 years), usually for a known purpose; e.g.
purchasing land, premises, plant and equipment.
– Securd by mortgage over asset purchased or other assets of the firm. • Fully drawn
advance
nthly or quarterly) and form of the repayment (e.g. amortised or interest-only
loan)
Loan covenants
– Negative covenant
tructure of borrower; e.g.
maximum D/E ratio, minimum working-capital ratio, unaudited periodic financial statements
• Breach of covenant results in default of the loan contract, entitling lender to act Calculating the
In relation to long-term financing, a fully drawn advance is a A term loan where the full amount is provided at
the start of the loan, usually for a specified purpose.
If a company wishes to finance a printing press with a five-year life, it would be advisable to finance it with
a/an fully drawn advance.
If a company wished to structure its financing so it repaid funds borrowed only when a project begins to have
positive cash flows, it would choose a/an deferred payment loan.
Long-term debt can be categorised as financing with an initial maturity over 1 year.
In relation to long-term financing, an amortised loan involves periodic equal repayments of interest and
principal throughout the term.
A fully amortised term loan has periodic repayments, including interest and principal reduction following
statements best describes a fully amortised term loan
Term loans where each periodic loan payment consists of interest payments and then the principal is repaid in
full at maturity are interest-only loans.
The fees that represent bank costs in considering loan applications and document preparation are called
establishment fees.
The fees charged by banks onto the total amount of the loan facility and are normally payable in
advance are line fees.
Compared with an amortised loan, a deferred repayment loan involves periodic interest and
principal repayments when positive cash flows begin.
The main longer-term finance provided by financial intermediaries is/are term loans.
Term loans granted by banks generally have maturities of three to 15 years and are often made to
finance capital expenditure such as building construction and the purchase of real estate.
A bank charge on any part of a loan that has not been fully drawn down by a company is called
a/an commitment fee.
All of the following affect interest rates charged on term loans except refinancing risk.
If the interest rates on shorter term-to-maturity deposits are higher than those of longer term
deposits, it is likely that the costs for the longer term financing for a company are lower
One of the advantages of a prime rate set by a financial institution is that it is less likely to be
affected by short-term credit fluctuations.
A company can borrow from a bank at a margin to the bank's base rate. According to the text, all of
the following factors affect this margin except the term structure of interest rates.
Compared with a company with a strong financial rating, a company with a weaker rating is likely
to be charged LIBOR plus 50 basis points.
When a lender includes conditions in a loan agreement to protect its loan, these are known as loan
covenants.
When a loan agreement contains actions for a borrowing company to comply with, such as
supplying financial statements, these are called positive covenants.
Supplying the creditors with annual, audited financial statements is NOT usually an example of
restrictive debt covenants
Supplying creditors with annual audited reports is NOT an example of negative debt covenants
The company is restricted from doing mergers and acquisitions. is NOT an example of a positive
debt covenant
The purpose of debt covenants that require the firm to rank any subsequent borrowing below the
original loan is to protect the lender in their claim over pledged assets in the event of failure.
The purpose of debt covenants that ban borrowers from entering into certain types of leases is to
limit the amount of fixed-interest payments.
A breach of any specified loan covenant by the borrower generally gives the lender the right to do
all of the following, except insist the company hand over its assets.
A key difference between a positive covenant and a negative covenant is, for a positive covenant, a
company must maintain a minimum debt to gross cash flow ratio.
A minimum working capital ratio is a positive loan covenant
A term loan is provided to a business by a financial institution and has a maturity of more than one
year.
LO 10.2
• Interest rates
–
interest loans, interest rates reset every five years or less – With interest-only mortgage
loans, interest-only period is normally a maximum of five years
• Mortgagee (lender) may reduce their risk exposure to borrower default by: – requiring the
mortgagor to take out mortgage insurance up to 100% of the mortgage value.
The type of loan where a company pays periodic interest payments over its term and the principal at
maturity to a lender is called amortised.
All of the following financial institutions arrange mortgage finance for companies except
investment banks.
The lender who registers a mortgage as a security for a loan is the mortgagee.
The borrower who issues a mortgage with real property as collateral to the bank is the mortgagor.
A company borrows $75 000 from a bank, to be amortised over five years at 8.5% per annum. The
annual instalment is $19 032.43
A company borrows $125 000 from a bank at 7.2% per annum to be amortised over six years. The
monthly instalment is $2143.15
In Australia which of the following long-term debt markets are the largest? A. The corporate bond
market
The mortgage market
When illiquid assets are transformed into new asset-backed securities, the process is called
securitisation.
Many years ago, banks held most loans on their books until they were paid off.
LO 10.3
intermediaries.
The value of a bond is the present value of the coupon payments and maturity value.
The coupon interest of a bond is calculated based on its _______, and is paid periodically face
value
Which of the following types of bond generally has the lowest interest rate Treasury bonds
All of the following are examples of long-term debt instruments except promissory notes.
In relation to an issue of bonds, the method where the bond offer is made only to institutions that
deal regularly in securities is called private placement.
A debenture is a/an bond secured by a charge over the assets of the issuer.
A company issues a long-term debt security with specified interest payments and fixed charges
over unpledged assets. What type of security has been issued Debenture
When a company defaults on interest payments for a debenture, the floating charge is said to
crystallise into a fixed charge.
In the event of failure for a company that has issued a bond, the highest claims on the company's
assets generally comes from fixed-charge debenture holders.
A holder of an unsecured note has generally no charge over the issuing company's unpledged
assets.
Many securities contain an option that is included as part of a bond or preferred share, which
allows the holder to convert the security into a predetermined number of shares. This feature is
called a conversion feature.
Subordinated debentures type of financial claim is not satisfied until those of the creditors
holding certain senior debts have been fully satisfied
LO 10.4
If a bond investor pays $1030 for an annual coupon bond with a face value of $1000, it follows that
the coupon rate is higher than the current market yield.
Bond prices vary inversely with interest rates statements about bonds is correct?
The face value of a bond is also called its par value. Bonds with a current price greater than their
par value sell at a premium while bonds with a current price less than their par value sell at a
discount
What happens to the coupon rate of a $100 face value bond that pays $7 coupon annually, if market
interest rates change from 8 to 9%? The coupon rate remains at 7%.
The market price of previously issued bonds is often different from face value because the
market rate of interest has altered.
The price of a bond with a fixed coupon has a/an inverse relationship with the market interest
rates
When the coupon rate of a bond is above the current market interest rates, a bond will sell at
premium.
When the coupon rate of a bond is below the current market interest rates, a bond will sell at
discount.
When the coupon rate of a bond is equal to the current market interest rates, a bond will sell at its
original value.
A company has two outstanding bonds with the same features, apart from the maturity date. Bond
A matures in five years, while bond B matures in 10 years. If the market interest rate changes by
5%: bond B will have the greater change in price.
A company has two outstanding bonds with the same features, apart from their coupon. Bond A has
a coupon of 5%, while bond B has a coupon of 8%. If the market interest rate changes by 10%:
bond A will have the greater change in price.
Coupon rates are generally fixed when the bond is issued statements is correct.
A $1000 face value bond, with coupon rate of 8% paid annually, has five years to maturity. If bonds
of similar risk are currently earning 6%, $1084.25 is the current price of the bond
A $1000 face value bond, with coupon rate of 9% paid annually, has six years to maturity. If bonds
of similar risk are currently earning 11%, $915.39 is the current price of the bond
All of the following features of a bond are fixed except the price
A $1000 face value bond, with a 7.5% coupon rate paid semi-annually and maturing in five years,
is currently yielding 6.4% in the market. $1046.44 is the current price of the bond?
When the market interest rates decline after a bond is issued, the market value of the bond increases.
When market interest rates increase after a bond is issued, the market value of the bond decreases.
If a bond's price is at a premium to face value, it has a yield below its coupon rate of interest.
If a bond's price is at a discount to face value, it has a yield above its coupon rate.
A bond's price will beat a premium when the coupon rate is higher than current market interest
rates; equal to the face valuewhen the coupon rate is equal to the current market interest rates; and
at a discount when the coupon rate is less than the current market interest rates.
$410 644.78 is the current price of a debenture with a $500 000 face value, a coupon rate of 9.5% pai d
semi annually, six years remaining to maturity and market interest rates increased to 14%
LO 10.5
The lessor will be responsible for the periodic maintenance of the asset statements about ‘net' finance
leases is incorrect
A/An operating lease lease is a short-term arrangement where the lessee agrees to make periodic
payments to the lessor for the right to use the asset. This arrangement usually contains only minor or no
penalties for cancellation of the lease.
The type of lease where the costs of ownership and operation are borne by the lessee, who agrees to
make a residual payment at the end of the lease period, is a/an financial lease.
When a finance company purchases assets with its own funds and leases them to a lessee for a
negotiated long-term period this is called a/an direct lease.
For A leveraged lease type of lease does the lessee borrow a large part of the funds, typically in a
multi million dollar arrangement, often with a lease manager, while one or more financial
institutions provide the remainder
A direct finance lease is best described as a/an sale and leaseback arrangement.
Compared with missing an interest payment on debt, the penalties for missing a financial lease
payment are the same.
With a net lease, costs of ownership remain with the lessee is NOT an advantage of
leasing from the lessee's viewpoint
The lessor may use the funds for other investment opportunities is NOT an advantage of leasing
from the lessor's perspective (compared with offering a straight loan)?
For An equity lease type of lease does the lessee provide a significant part of the funds to purchase
the asset, often losing the advantage of leveraged leasing, while a financial institution provides the
remainder
A term loan is referred to as a fully drawn advance The terms subordinated debt and unsecured note are
when the borrower obtains the full amount at the interchanged as they are both corporate bonds that
start of the loan have identical features.
A term loan with interest and principal repayments
that are amortised over the term are sometimes Banks often calculate a prime rate lending as they
called credit foncier loans. can adjust it more quickly than other reference
A long-term loan will generally attract a higher rate money market rates.
of interest than a short-term loan. Apart from an interest charge on funds advanced to
a borrower, a bank will charge a service fee for
A positive loan covenant can state that a company considering the loan application and loan
must maintain a minimum level of working capital. preparation
A bond is a long-term debt instrument issued The inclusion of covenants in a term loan is
directly into the capital markets. designed to protect the borrower from taking on too
much debt.
Chapter 15
LO 15.1
• Each country or monetary union responsible for determining own exchange rate regime.
• Exchange rate is value of one currency relative to that of another currency. • Major
currencies like USD, GBP, JPY, EUR and AUD adopt floating exchange rate (free float)
regime
– Where exchange rate determined by supply and demand factors in the FX markets.
The value of FX daily transactions in the global FX markets is estimated to be USD 5400 billion.
Most foreign exchange transactions are conducted in the FX over-the-counter markets.
The foreign exchange market is where different currencies are bought and sold.
The institutions that transact between the foreign exchange (FX) dealers in banks and act as
principals in the FX market are called the foreign-exchange brokers.
A large international organisation representing the central banks of the major developed countries
is called Bank for International Settlements.
Financial institutions active in the FX markets include all of the given answers/ commercial
banks/commodity traders/ insurance companies.
.
Currently, the largest FX centre is in:
London.
All of the following are primary centres of foreign exchange trading except Munich.
New York is the largest FX market about global FX markets is NOT correct?
l OM oARc PSD|12 70 5 29 4
If the value of a currency is determined by market forces, this is regarded as a floating rate regime.
If the value of a currency moves within a defined band, relative to another major currency this is a
managed floating regime.
An exchange rate regime that allows the currency to appreciate gradually over time but within a
specified limited band set by government is a crawling peg regime.
The exchange rate where the value of the pegged currency is tied into the value of another currency
or basket of currencies is a inked exchange rate regime
A managed float exchange rate regime is one which limits exchange rate movements within a band
that is set by the central bank.
LO 15.2
FX markets
– Comprise all financial transactions denominated in foreign currency, currently estimated
to be over USD54 trillion per day.
– Facilitate exchange of value from one currency to another.
– Internationally adopted FX market conventions to improve market functionality.
A floating exchange rate regime is one exchange rate for a currency is allowed to move as factors
of supply and demand dictate.
Foreign exchange brokers seek out the best exchange rates and deal mostly with FX dealers.
The foreign exchange participant who quotes prices at which they are prepared to buy and sell
foreign currencies is a foreign exchange dealer.
Foreign exchange market participants who seek out the best FX rates in the markets and match the
buy and sell orders for a fee are called FX brokers.
The financial institutions that quote buy and sell prices and act as principals in the FX markets are
called FX dealers.
Foreign exchange dealers quote two-way prices at which they are prepared to deal in foreign
currency.
The dealer quotes of a buy and a sell price on an FX currency are called two-way prices.
Arbitrageurs market participants tend to keep exchange rates the same in all the world markets
The FX party that conducts buy and sell transactions in two or more markets simultaneously to
take advantage of price differentials is called a/an FX arbitrageur.
The central bank resources made up of foreign currencies, gold and international drawing rights
are called official reserve assets.
If the value of a currency is influenced by a central bank that intervenes from time to time in the foreign
exchange market, this is regarded as a dirty float.
If a FX dealer buys USD from a client and holds USD on its own account on the expectation of the USD
rising in value in the near future, it is taking a long position in the USD.
If a FX speculator sells USD that the speculator currently does not hold the speculator has entered
into a short position in the USD.
The holding of foreign currency in the hope of a future sale is called a/an long
position.
An Australian company has received USD in payment for goods exported. At the time of receiving the
USD, the exchange rate is quoted as AUD/USD 0.5650. Rather than immediately converting the USD
into AUD, the company decides to ‘speculate' on a favourable movement in the exchange rate. In ‘today
+ n days' the exchange rate is AUD/USD 0.5750. All of the given answers are correct/ The company has
taken a ‘long' position in the USD./ The exporter company has made a loss on its FX position/ The
opportunity cost of interest forgone will affect the profitability of the FX position.
For a floating exchange rate, if a central bank does not intervene to influence the currency this is
called a clean float.
Most foreign-exchange trading takes place in London. following statements about the foreign exchange
markets is incorrect
If the Australian central bank wished to cause the AUD to appreciate, it would buy AUD and sell
foreign currency.
If the Australian central bank wished to cause the AUD to depreciate, it would sell AUD and buy foreign
currency
A/An short position is when an FX dealer enters into a forward contract to sell FX that is not held at that
time.
If differences occur for FX rates between three or more currencies, FX dealers may perform triangular
arbitrage.
LO 15.3
The FX market:
– is a global market, operating 24 hours a day according to business hours across the time
zones
– involves larger FX dealers like commercial and investment banks providing the FX function as
part of their overall Treasury operations within which they establish an FX dealing room.
Given the following rates, 5.882 cents arbitrage profit may be made with respect to the Australian dollar
The main trading floor of the Australian FX market is located in Sydney, with subsidiary branches in other
main cities statements in relation to the operation of the FX market is NOT correct
LO 15.4
entered into •
Used, for example, if Australian importer has to pay a USD
liability in two months, and covers or hedges against an
appreciation of the USD.
• Dealers may also provide short-dated transactions if necessary
– ‘Tod’ value transactions—same-day settlement
– ‘Tom’ value transactions—settlement tomorrow
The exchange rate between AUD and a foreign currency is the price at which Australian dollars can be
converted into another currency
For currency transactions, the spot exchange rate is the rate on that date, and the forward
exchange rate is the rate at some specified future date
In the FX markets, the spot exchange rate can be defined as the exchange rate that is settled within two
business days
In the FX markets a forward transaction refers to the exchange rate that is specified now, but with
delivery and payment at some predetermined future date.
It is Tuesday, 27 March 201X, and an Australian importing company has to pay a US exporter USD 75
000 within thenext six weeks. The company enters into a forward exchange contract with an FX dealer
for ‘one month forward delivery' of USD. On 30 April 201X date will value settlement occur
LO 15.5
AUD/EUR0.7265–0.7270
• Calculating cross-rates
– All currencies are quoted against the USD.
– There are two ways currencies can be quoted against the USD:
—the USD is the base currency
—the USD is the terms currency and the other currency is
the base currency.
– When FX transactions occur between two currencies, usually where neither currency is the
USD, the cross-rate needs to be calculated
-rate calculation depends on whether the quote is direct
or indirect.
• Calculating cross-rates
A difference arises between the bid and offer rates of foreign currency because foreign exchange dealers
need to earn income
In general, high value transactions narrow the foreign exchange dealer's bid-offer spread.
In general, the foreign exchange dealer's bid ask spread narrows as liquidity in dealers market
improves
In general, the foreign exchange dealer's bid-offer spread widens with increased volatility of FX.
If a British car sells for £20 000 and the British pound is worth A$2.75, the Australian dollar price of
the car is $55 000.
For spot transactions, the FX contract value date is two business days from the day of the transaction.
The convention in the FX markets is that the second-named currency in a FX quote that is used to
express the value is terms currency
The convention in the FX markets is the first-named currency in a FX quote is unit of the quotation.
The convention in the FX markets is the currency on the left-hand side of a quote is base currency.
The convention in the FX markets is for the first currency mentioned in a FX quote is unit of the
quotation
An Australian export company wishes to sell its euro receipts, EUR 500 000, through an FX dealer and
receives the following quote: ‘Aussie mark spot is one-twenty-two fifty-five to sixty- five'. $407 664.09
is the value of the export receipt
A company treasurer has received the following foreign exchange quote from an FX dealer: AUD/USD
0.5655-60. For the financial report to the board of directors, the treasurer is required to ensure the USD
is the unit of the quotation. USD/AUD 1.7668-83 exchange rate quotation will the treasurer include in
the report
The bid quote is the number of units of foreign currency an Australian FX dealer is willing to
give, in order to buy the unit of the quotation, that of AUD 1.
The offer quote is the number of units of foreign currency an Australian FX dealer is willing to
take, in order to buy the unit of the quotation, that of AUD 1
In the FX markets a/an direct quote is where the USD is the base currency.
Generally foreign currencies are quoted against USD. In relation to direct, indirect and cross-
quotation quotations,For an indirect quote, the foreign currency is the term currency and the USD is
the base currency statements is NOT correct
The ask or offer is the price at which a dealer will sell another currency statement is correct for a bid and
ask quote
In the FX markets a/an indirect quote is where the USD is the terms currency and the other
currency is the unit of the quotation.
An indirect exchange rate can be converted to a direct exchange rate by transposing the indirect rate.
If it takes 1.25 euros to buy 1 US dollar, the direct quote for the exchange rate is USD/EURO 1.25
A student researching the AUD/USD exchange rate on a particular day is confused to replace the
following two quotations:
i. AUD/USD 0.5825-30
USD/AUD 1.7152-67
Quote i is the convention adopted in Australia and is an indirect quote statements is correct
For the Aussie/euro spot rate (AUD/EUR 1.8088-1.8098), the percentage spread is 5.5
When a smaller amount of a foreign currency is required to buy the Australian dollar, the currency
is said to have appreciated with respect to the dollar.
LO 15.6
The difference between the spot rate and the forward rate quotation is the forward points
The theory that the annual percentage differential in the forward market for a currency quoted in
terms of another currency is equal to the approximate difference in the interest rates between two
countries is known as
interest rate parity
The principle of interest rate parity asserts that the relativity between spot and forward exchange rates
reflects the interest rate differentials between countries.
If interest rate parity holds, the currency of the country with the relatively low interest rates will
trade at a forward premium to the country with the relatively high interest rate.
If interest rate parity holds, the currency of the country with the relatively high interest rates will
trade at a forward discount to the country with the relatively low interest rate.
An importer will be required to purchase USD in approximately six months to pay for a consignment
of goods. The company is concerned that the AUD may depreciate before the due date and therefore
decides to enter into a forward exchange contract to protect its position. The company receives the
following quote: ‘the Aussie is fifty-eight forty-five to fifty-three, sixty- two to sixty-six'.
Calculate the forward exchange rate: AUD/USD 0.5907-19
If the spot rate is AUD/USD 0.5510-0.5515, and the six-month forward points are 48 to 53, the six-
month outright forward rate would be AUD/USD 0.5558-0.5568
If the spot rate is AUD/USD 0.5526-0.5531 and the 90-day forward rate is AUD/USD 0.5578-
0.5588, the AUD is trading at a/an premium.
An Australian company has received USD in payment for goods exported. At the time of
receiving the USD, the exchange rate is quoted as AUD/USD 0.5650. Rather than immediately
converting the USD into AUD, the company decides to 'speculate' on a favourable movement
in the exchange rate. In today + n days' the exchange rate is AUD/USD 0.5750. All are correct
The foreign exchange participant who quotes prices at which they are prepared to buy and sell
foreign currencies is a: foreign exchange dealer
If the forward exchange rate is priced higher than the spot rate the currency is said to be trading
at a premium.
If the forward points are falling at a specific date, the base currency is at a forward discount
Given the 3-month forward rate exchange between the USA and Switzerland is USD/CHF 1.1589
this suggests that interest rates in the USA are lower than in Switzerland.
A currency with a higher interest rate will sell at a forward discount statements is correct
Interest rate parity principles refers to the circumstance that interest rates in different countries provide
equal returns, taking into account the spot and forward exchange rates between the two countries
A bank has been asked to provide a three-month forward AUD/USD ‘buy' quote for a
corporate client. The following information is available to the FX dealer at the bank: Spot rate:
AUD/USD 0.7654–0.7659 US interest rates: 7.73% per annum Australian interest rates: 8.64%
per annum Estimate the three-month forward ‘buy' rate. 0.7637
All of the following are considered ‘hard' or major currencies, except the Mexican peso.
The financial institution responsible for monetary policy in the European Union is called the European
Central Bank
The foreign exchange quotation, EUR/AUD1.4112–20, means that a bank is willing to pay
AUD1.4112 for one euro and to sell a euro for AUD1.4120.
The forward rate is only determined by volatility of spot rates. statements about forward exchange rates
is NOT correct
From the quotation AUD/USD.7458–68, 25–30 we know that the AUD is selling at a forward
premium to the USD and that the forward rate is AUD/USD.7483–98
An importer who must pay in three months would hedge by buying the foreign currency forward.
The importer is concerned with an appreciation of the foreign currency
With a forward contract the parties enter into a contract today and pay or receive the foreign currency
at the forward date.
The spread in foreign exchange markets for commonly traded currenciestends to be smaller
Suppose the interest rate in Inland is higher than the interest rate in Outland. The Inland currency
will be at a forward discount . This relationship occurs because of arbitrage
Key Misunderstanding
- Derivatives are the financial instruments that are financial assets that derive their value
from underlying assets.
+ Risk exposures that may impact on the normal day-to-day running of a business
are called operational.
+ When an oil company suffers severe damage to one of its oil drilling platforms,
this is an example of operational risk.
- Major financial risk exposures for corporations include all of the given choices; a change
in interest rates, foreign currency appreciating, company with insufficient funds to pay
wages.
- An investment company with an investment portfolio that matches its investment horizon
are most exposed to interest rate risk
- A local currency decreases for an exporter is NOT an example of financial risk exposure
for a company.
+ The risk exposure when a corporation appears to have insufficient funds to meet
day-to day commitments as they fall due is known as liquidity risk.
- One of the important first steps in a risk management strategy for a company is to
analyse the impact of the risk exposure.
B. Put Option
The analysis that documents each risk exposure and then tries to measure what will be the
operational and financial effect should the risk event occur is called cost-benefit analysis.
The correct order should be iii. identify operational and financial risk exposures; ii. Analyse the
impact of the risk exposures; i. Assess the attitude of the organisation to each identified risk
exposure
After identification of all of its risk exposure an organisation must seek to remove all these risks
is incorrect
In relation to futures markets, the following regarding initial margins is false the initial margin will
be higher for low market volatility.
If a client investor is holding a large number of listed shares on the ASX, intends to sell in three
months' time and wishes to protect the value of the share portfolio, they may sell a futures
contract based on the S&P/ASX.
In Australia futures contracts are traded electronically by the ASX Trade 24.
The following statement relating to the use of futures contracts is incorrect: futures contracts are
generally closed out by delivery of the physical market product.
In the futures markets, if a futures contract is marked-to-market, this refers to the settlement of
gains and losses on futures contracts on a daily basis.
In the futures markets, a maintenance margin call refers to funds paid to the clearing house by
each trader to cover losses.
In the futures markets, when the initial margin of a futures account is topped up daily to cover
adverse futures price movements, this is called maintenance margin call.
In the futures markets, the funds that represent 2 to 10 per cent of the futures contract that a
client pays to the futures exchange clearing house are called initial margin.
A company, worried that the cost of funds might rise during the term of their short-term
borrowing, can hedge this rise by selling futures contracts on bank-accepted bills.
In the futures markets, the price of a derivative contract for gold is based on price of gold in the
spot markets.
If a company intends to borrow in three months' time, it can lock in its borrowing costs by selling
futures contracts.
If an FRA dealer quotes ‘6Mv9M 7.25 to 20', this means that the dealer is prepared to lend
three-month money at 7.25% per annum.
The advantage of using a forward rate agreement FRA over a futures contract is The terms and
conditions of a FRA can be negotiated.
When a company contacts a bank and asks for a 3-month forward rate and is quoted by the
bank's FX dealer AUD/USD0.9560-65 14.20, then the three month forward rate is
AUD/USD0.9574-85
An option buyer has a greater insurance benefit than the purchaser of a futures contract.
An option that gives the option buyer the right to buy the commodity or financial instrument
specified in the contact at the exercise price is called a call option.
An option that gives the option buyer the right to sell the commodity or financial instrument
specified in the contact at the exercise price is called a put option.
For a call option, the writer is committed to handing over the specified asset if the holder of the
call exercises the option.
In a put option, the buyer has the option to sell the specified asset at a specified time.
The holder of an American call option has the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise
price on or before the expiration date.
The European call option gives the option buyer the right to exercise the option only on the
expiration date.
In the option markets, the price specified in the contract at which the buyer of the option can
buy or sell the specified commodity or financial instrument is called the exercise price.
For the writer of a put option, if the underlying share price moves above the strike price, the
potential profits are limited to the premium.
In the derivative markets a swap is an agreement between two or more persons to exchange
cash flows over some future period.
When two parties exchange the respective interest payments associated with existing debt
borrowed in the capital markets, this is called a/an swap.
An agreement between two parties to exchange a series of cash flows similar to those resulting
from an exchange of different types of bonds is called a/an interest rate swap.
The growth of the swaps market has been due to firms wanting to do all of the given choices;
lower the cost of funds., hedge interest rate risk, lock in profit margins.
D. Note
- The interest rate futures contracts, the FRA, are traded on the larger exchanges is
incorrect.
+ The Chicago Board of trade (CBOT) introduced the world's first financial (interest
rate) futures contract in 1975
- In Australia the Sydney Futures Exchange (SFE) that is now merged with the ASX
introduced the 90- day bank-accepted bills futures contract in 1979
- At the end of six months for a wheat farmer who sold previously a 6 month wheat futures
contract, he may: can sell the wheat via the spot grain market and at the same time buy
a futures contract identical to the contract originally taken
- Future contract holders will either buy or sell an opposite contract on or before expiry
date to close out the contract is correct
+ An orange grower who is concerned that the price of oranges will fall before
harvest and sale can sell an orange futures contract today.
+ At the present time the convention for quoting the prices of futures contracts
varies between exchanges around the world.
- In the futures markets the buyer of a financial futures contract takes the long position.
+ In the futures markets, the buyer of a financial futures contract has the obligation
to receive the underlying financial asset at the specified future date.
+ In the futures markets, the seller of a futures contract has the obligation to deliver
the underlying financial asset at the specified future date.
+ In the futures markets, the seller of a futures contract takes the short position.
- In futures markets, the terms of a futures contract, for instance the quality and quantity of
the commodity and the delivery date, are specified by the futures exchange.
- The orders are put into the trading system on the basis of size details and any price
restrictions. is incorrect
- Any Australian Treasury bond futures contract for a yield of 7.50 per cent per annum is
quoted on the futures exchange as: 92.500
- If a dealer buys a futures bond contract at 92.750 and sells at 93.500, she makes a profit
is not correct
- If an investor buys a three-year Commonwealth Treasury bond futures contract at 7 per
cent and on the delivery date the interest rate of Treasury bonds is lower than they
expected at 6 per cent, they will have gained money on their long position.
- A company has sold a three-year Commonwealth Treasury bond futures contract, and
now wishes to close out its open position on maturity date. Statements relating to the
closing out of a futures position is incorrect The company may choose to deliver the
physical market Treasury bonds in settlement.
- In the futures market, the instruction to a futures broker to buy or sell at the current
market price is a market order.
+ An investor holds a long oil futures contract that expires in June. To close out her
position in oil futures before the delivery date, she must sell one July oil futures
contract.
+ The maintenance margin is the value of the margin account below which the
holder receives a margin call is correct
- A futures exchange imposes an initial margin to ensure brokers and traders are able to
pay for any losses incurred over the life of the futures contract.
+ As part of futures trading, exchanges have traders place an initial margin with its clearing
house because as it acts like a performance bond to support the value of the futures
contract.
+ When Australian financial futures still in existence at trading close are settled with the
clearing house, final settlement in the form of standard delivery means the contract is
settled by delivery of the actual underlying financial asset.
+ They are quoted on the basis of their clean price relating to Commonwealth Treasury
bond futures is incorrect
- On the ASX Trade 24, financial futures contracts are currently traded on all the following
securities, except corporate bonds.
- The price of a short-term interest rate risk contract is generally derived from: the money
market instruments
- In futures markets investors who expect to purchase future bonds can reduce the risk of
price fluctuations by taking a/an: long position on futures contracts.
- In futures markets investors who expect to purchase future bonds may hedge against
the effects of falling interest rates by buying bond futures contracts.
- An orange grower who wishes to protect his future orange crop from price fluctuations
can hedge by taking a/an short position on an orange futures contract.
+ A wheat grower who wishes to protect his future wheat crop from price
fluctuations can sell a wheat futures contract.
+ In futures markets investors who expect to purchase future bonds may hedge
against the effects of falling interest rates by: buying bond futures contracts
- A company who intends to borrow in 3 months can hedge and lock in the cost of
borrowing by selling an interest rate futures contract.
- A futures trader who has a short position in oil futures wants the price of oil fall in the
future.
- A futures trader who has a long position in oil futures wants the price of oil to increase in
the future.
- A steel manufacturing company that expects a future iron price rise can hedge and take
a/an long position on iron futures contracts.
- An Australian importer with FX payable in 3 months can hedge and lock in the price of
the required foreign currency by selling AUD futures.
- An Australian exporter with FX receivable in 3 months can hedge and lock in the price of
the required foreign currency by buying AUD futures.
- In the futures markets, hedgers are mainly interested in reducing their exposure to risk of
price changes.
- In the futures markets speculators are mainly interested in attempting to make a profit by
betting on expected price changes.
- In the futures markets, arbitrageurs are mainly interested in attempting to make a profit
by taking advantage of price differentials between different markets.
- In the futures markets, speculators take on extra risk in futures markets as a result of the
actions of hedgers.
- Arbitrageurs try to make a profit by taking advantage of price differentials between the
futures markets or different markets.
- In the futures markets, price differences between the futures and the underlying assets
are reduced by the actions of arbitrageurs.
- In the futures markets, profits from speculation primarily arise because of the difference
in expectations among market participants about future prices of a commodity or
financial asset.
- They aid hedgers by adding to the liquidity in the markets is the following statements
about speculators in futures markets is correct
+ In the futures markets, speculators who strongly believe that interest rates will
rise are likely to sell futures contracts on Treasury bonds.
+ In the futures markets, speculators who strongly believe that prices of treasury
bonds will fall are likely to sell futures contracts on Treasury bonds.
+ In the futures markets, speculators who strongly believe that interest rates will fall
are likely to go long and buy futures contracts on Treasury bonds.
+ Buying a futures contract for one delivery date and selling an identical futures
contract with a different delivery date is called a straddle.
- Buying a September bank bill futures contract and simultaneously selling a June bank
bill futures contract is a/an example of a straddle
- Buying a September bank bill futures contract and simultaneously selling a June
Commonwealth Treasury bond futures contract is a/an example of a spread.
- A lender, worried that the value of their loan might fall during the term of the loan, can
hedge this fall by buying futures contracts on Treasury bonds
- An Australian bank must pay US$10 million in 90 days. It wishes to hedge the risk in the
futures market. To do so, the bank should: buy USD 10 million in US dollar futures.
- A company has identified an exposure to movements in interest rates on its existing debt
facilities. The company is considering selling futures contracts to manage that risk and is
unsure S&P/ASX 200 Index not be used for managing interest rate risk exposures.
- The market value of a bank bill futures contract with a face value of $1 000 000, a
reported price of $93.75 and 90 days to maturity $984 822.93
- A futures trader who enters into a 90-day bank bill futures contract on 20 September with
a reported price of $93.25 will need to pay on settlement date (30 September), if the face
value of the underlying bill is $1 000 000. $983 628.65
- A company has an existing $900 000 promissory note facility, which it will roll over in 90
days. It is concerned that interest rates will rise before the roll-over date and enters into
a 90-day bank-accepted bill futures contract at 92.50. Three months later, the company
closed out its futures position at 91.75. Using the following data, calculate the profit or
loss position of the futures transactions. (Disregard margin calls and transaction costs.)
$1 779.54 profit
+ Basis risk refers to the risk from a change in the spread between the price on the
commodity or financial security in the physical market and the price of the related
futures contract.
+ One of the problems of hedging with a futures contract compared with a forward
contract is basis risk.
- The variability of changing prices and costs associated with buying and selling futures
contracts best describes the risks associated with futures contracts?
- When prices of 3-year Treasury bond futures vary over time with the prices of long-term
debentures this is called spread-commodity hedging the following about hedging is
incorrect.
- In using futures contracts for hedging, All of the given choices is an important
consideration; The standard contract size, The margin payment, The basis risk
- In comparing forwards and futures, futures are typically All of the given choices; riskier
than forwards, more liquid than forwards, traded on an organised exchange.
- Futures contracts are traded on a formal, organised exchange, and forward contracts
are not traded on a formal, organised exchange.
- The terms of futures contracts are standardised and the terms of forward contracts
Are not standardised.
+ A key characteristic of forward contracts that recommends their use over futures
contracts is all of the given answers; forwards are not traded on exchanges and
marked-to-market, forward contracts allow flexibility with respect to contract
period, forwards are not standardised instruments with regard to the amount of
each contract.
+ The over-the-counter derivative product used to manage interest rate risk is a/an
forward rate agreement.
- If a FRA covers six-month interest rates but will begin its cover in three months it will be
written 3Mv9M.
- If a borrower has entered into a FRA and its interest cover is specified as 3Mv9M, this
means six-month interest rates beginning in three-months.
- A key characteristic of futures contracts that recommends their use over forwards
contracts is all of the given answers; futures are traded on exchanges and marked-to-
market, futures contracts allow flexibility in delivery dates, futures are traded in liquid
markets and allow netting of positions.
- For hedging interest rates the advantages of a FRA are all of the given choices; it is not
standardised like a futures contract, it does not have associated margin payments, it is
flexible with regard to contract period and amount
- A company will need to ‘roll over' its existing $500 000 funding arrangement in two
months' time for a further 90 days. It is concerned that interest rates in the short-term
debt market may rise in the meantime, and decides to manage the risk exposure by
entering into a forward rate agreement with its bank. The bank quotes a price (2Mv5M)
of 9.45 to 30. In two months' time the reference rate (BBSW) is 10.20% per annum.
$881.43.
- A company has entered into a forward rate agreement with a corporate borrower. The
following terms and conditions apply to the contract:
Notional principal: $350 000 Contract rate: 12.65% per annum Reference rate: 13.10% per
annum FRA period: 180 days
The bank will be responsible for payment of the settlement amount
A bond trader who buys a Treasury bond A futures contract can be defined as a
futures contract at a yield of 6.25% per contract which provides something to be
annum and then sells it at 5.5% per annum bought or sold at a future date at a price
makes a profit on the contract decided upon at the expiry of the contract
. If a futures contract holder fails to meet a The process of marking to market is when
margin call, the futures exchange clearing the clearing house demands funds from
house will routinely close out the open every futures trader that incurs a loss
position
If you buy a bank-accepted futures contract
If someone enters into a futures contract and on delivery date the interest rate on
with the intention of taking delivery of a bank- accepted bills is lower than you
commodity or financial instrument specified expected you will have gained money on
in the futures contract for a price that was your long position
determined before delivery, they are likely to
be a hedger. In the futures markets a speculator who
believes strongly that interest rates will fall
Large companies often prefer futures to in the near future would be likely to buy
FRAs because they are generally easy to futures contracts on Treasury bonds.
close out compared with a forward contract.
When a lender uses a 10-year Treasury
bond futures contract to hedge an issue of
an unsecured note, this type of hedging is
called intersection-commodity hedging.
- An options contract gives the right to buy or sell an underlying asset at a predetermined
price by a specified time.
- In the option markets, the option that gives the buyer the right to buy the specified
commodity or financial instrument is a/an call option.
- In the options market the option that gives the buyer the right to sell the specified
commodity or financial instrument is put option.
- In the options market, the right to buy an underlying asset lies with call buyers.
+ In the options markets for a call option, the seller is committed to handing over
the specified asset at a specified time.
+ In the options markets, for a call option, the seller is committed to deliver the
specified asset at a specified time.
+ In the options markets for a put option, the seller is committed to receiving the
underlying asset at a specified time.
+ In a put option, the buyer will exercise the option if the price of the underlying
asset has fallen below the exercise price.
- In options markets an American call option lets the buyer buy the underlying asset at the
exercise price on or before the expiration date.
- In options markets, an American put option lets the buyer sell the underlying asset at the
exercise price on or before the expiration date.
- In the options markets, an American call option should have a higher premium than the
comparable European call option because it gives more flexibility to the holder.
- For the buyer of an option, the premium paid for the contract represents the largest
potential loss.
- In the options markets, an American put option can be exercised at any time up to the
expiration date.
- In options markets, options that give the option buyer the right to exercise the option only
on the maturity date are European-type options.
+ In options markets, options that give the option buyer the right to exercise the
option at any time up to the maturity date are American-type options.
+ If an option buyer wanted to decide only at the expiration date whether or not to
exercise the option then and the price locked into that date, they would buy
European-type options
- The advantages of using an American type option compared to a European type option
can be exercised at any time up to maturity.
- In option markets the price specified in the option contracts for calls and puts is called
the strike price
- In options markets the strike price is the price specified in an options contract at which
the buyer can buy or sell the underlying asset.
- In an options contract, the strike price is also known as the exercise price.
+ In options markets, the price paid by an option buyer to the writer of the option is
the premium
- Options are generally issued by companies is the statements about calls and puts is
incorrect
- They both result in new equity capital for the company is not true of calls and puts
- In options markets the fee charged by a seller of an option is called the option premium.
- The decision between selecting a future or an option reflects a trade-off between the
higher cost of using options and the extra insurance benefits that options provide.
- In options markets, the maximum loss a buyer of a share call option can undergo is
equal to the call premium.
- In options markets, the maximum loss a buyer of a share put option can undergo
is equal to the put premium.
+ Call option will an option buyer purchase if they believe a share price will rise
- Put option will an option buyer buy if they believe a share price will fall
- On the expiration date for a call option with strike price of $10.00, premium $1.50 and
the current spot price of $9.00, the holder will let the option contract lapse.
- On the expiration date for a call option with strike price of $10.00, premium $1.50 and
the current spot price of $14.00, the holder will let the option contract lapse.
+ On the expiration date for a put option with strike price of $10.00, premium $1.50
and the current spot price of $14.00, the holder will let the option contract lapse.
+ On the expiration date for a put option with strike price of $10.00, premium $1.50
and the current spot price of $8.00, the holder will exercise the option
- The seller of a call option loses if the spot price, plus the premium, is below the exercise
price when the option is exercised is statements about option contracts is incorrect
- The profile depicts the short call position of the option seller is the following statements
best reflects the following profit profile of an option contract
+ The profile depicts the long call position of the buyer of the option best reflects
the following profit profile of an option contract
+ The profile depicts the short put position of the option seller statements best
reflects the following profit profile of an option contract.
- The profile depicts the long put position of the buyer of the option.
- The profile depicts the long put position of the buyer of the option statements best
reflects the following profit profile of an option contract
- Buyers of put options expect the value of the underlying asset to decrease, and the
sellers of call options expect the value of the underlying asset to decrease.
- An investor holds long call options that may be exercised at any time over the next
month. The spot price of the underlying asset is $12.75; the strike price of the option is
$15.10; and the premium paid was $2.35. -$2.35 is the value of the option to the holder
- The value of a long call if the exercise price is $10.00, the premium is $1.50 and the spot
price is $8.00, given V = max(S-X, 0) – P, -$1.50
- The value of a short call if the strike price is $10.00, the premium is $1.50 and the spot
price is $8.00, given V = P - max(S-X, 0). $1.50
- The value of a long put if the exercise price is $10.00, the premium is $1.50 and the spot
price is $8.00, given V=max(X-S, 0) – P. $0.50
- The value of a short put if the exercise price is $10.00, the premium is $1.50 and the
spot price is $8.00, given V = P - max(X-S, 0). -$0.50
- In the futures markets, price differences between the futures and the underlying assets
are reduced by the actions of arbitrageurs
- The main feature of the potential profit and loss profile for a long put party may be best
described as profits are made from exercising an option when the spot price falls below
the exercise price adjusted for the premium
+ The most important benefit of an options contract strategy for a hedger is Risk of
loss from unfavourable price movements is limited.
+ The following best reflects the exposure position of a writer of a put option are All
of the given answers; A loss is made when the spot price is below the exercise
price adjusted by the premium, The extent of the loss potential is limited to a zero
spot price less the premium paid, The maximum profit to the writer is limited to
the extent of the premium paid.
+ A covered call position is the purchase of a share at the same time as selling a
call on that share.
- A hedge fund has written a call option on shares of a company with an exercise price of
$17.45, and simultaneously also buys a call option on the same share with an exercise price of
$16.95. The hedge fund is considered to have written a/an covered call option
- In options markets, where a call writer holds the underlying assets, this is called a
covered call.
- The loss for a writer of a naked call option on a share is potentially and so currently
short-selling is banned in Australia unlimited
- When we contrast futures with options contracts, we can say that in a futures contract
the buyer and seller have symmetric rights, whereas in an options contract the buyer
and writer have asymmetric rights.
- A long call option buyer must meet the deposit and margin calls of the clearing house
whereas the writer does not have to is not a condition applied to call options listed on the
Australian Securities Exchange (ASX Trade) on leading ordinary shares
- The highly geared option contract on individual stocks on the ASX with an exercise price
of between one and ten cents is a/an LEPO
- In the Australian options markets the warrant that has an upper limit applied to the
upside profit available for the holder is a/an capped warrant.
- The option that is a highly leveraged option on individual stocks, with an exercise price
of between one and ten cents, traded on the ASX Trade, with a European-type expiry, is
a LEPO.
+ A lender, concerned that its cost of funds might rise during the term of a loan it
has made, can hedge this rise without forgoing the chance to profit by a decline
in the cost of funds. This is done by buying put options on Treasury bills.
- When interest rates are forecasted to rise, a company approaches its bank before the
next roll- over date of its current debt facilities, and buys an interest rate cap option.
However, the company is concerned at the cost of the cap premium and decides to
simultaneously sell an interest rate floor option of the same maturity. The company has
obtained cover with a collar option strategy is correct
- A shares are selling for $10 per share and you own a call option to buy Maxima shares
at $7.50. The intrinsic value of your option is $2.50
- The intrinsic value of an option is the amount the option is actually worth if it is
immediately exercised.
+ In the options markets a put option is said to be in-the-money if the exercise price
is greater than the share price.
+ In the options markets a put option is said to be out-of-the money if the exercise
price is less than the share price.
- In the options markets for a covered option, the seller owns the underlying asset.
- In the options markets a put option is regarded as being in-the-money if The price of the
underlying asset is currently less than the strike price.
- The option is far off its expiration date is the following factors would tend to increase the
size of the premium on an options contract
- The value of a put option rises when the underlying asset experiences price falls.
- Following variables affect the value of options: i. Difficulty of interest rates ii. Time to
maturity of the option iii. Share price volatility iv. Dividend yield on the underlying share
+ The elapsed time since the start of the option is following factors is not generally
regarded as a major determinant of the price of an option
- All of the following factors affect the price of a share option except the expected rate of
return on the share.
- In relation to options when interest rates increase, the price of put options generally falls.
- In relation to options when interest rates decrease, the price of put options generally
increases.
+ The strategy whereby a company buys an interest rate option that puts a
maximum level on the interest rate for its borrowing is a cap option.
- The strategy whereby a company sells an interest rate option that puts a minimum level
on how low an interest rate may fall is a floor option
- The option that is a combination of a cap option and a floor option is a collar option
- If a risk manager wants to put on an upper limit on an interest rate payable on a future
borrowing by buying an option and at the same time he wants an option that puts a
minimum limit on how low interest rate payable may fall, this combination is called a
collar
- An investor purchased a call option and wrote a put option at an exercise price lower
than that of the long call option. The strategy is known as a: vertical bull spread
- An investor purchased a call option and wrote a call option at an exercise price higher
than that of the long call option. The strategy is known as a call bull spread
- An investor purchased a put option and wrote a call option at an exercise price higher
than that of the long put option. The strategy is known as a: vertical bear spread.
- An investor purchased a put option and at the same time wrote a put option at an
exercise price lower than that of the long put option. The strategy is known as a: put
bear spread
- If a share investor with quite a bearish outlook but also wants to hedge against a price
rise, then they could undertake a: put a bear straddle.
- An investor with a very bearish attitude can limit their attitude by vertical bull spread.
- In expectation of increased price volatility, an investor purchased a call option and at the
same time bought a put option with common exercise prices. The strategy is known as a
long straddle.
- If an investor with a somewhat bearish attitude owns some shares but does not as yet
want to sell, then they can limit their downside exposure to a price fall by writing a call
option on the shares
- In expectation of increased price volatility, an investor purchased a call option and at the
same time bought a put option, both with out-of-the-money exercise prices on the same
underlying asset. The strategy is known as a long strangle.
- In expectation of increased price stability, an investor sells a call option and at the same
time sells a put option with common exercise prices on the same underlying asset. The
strategy is known as a short straddle.
• The seller of an option has the • Options are contracts that give the
obligation to buy or sell the underlying asset purchaser the obligation to buy or sell an
underlying asset.
• If a buyer of a particular share • A put option gives the owner the
purchased a call option on it at a strike price obligation to sell the underlying security.
of $15 and the share is selling for $12 on • In the options market the short-call
the expiration date, the call option is worth party has the right to sell shares at a
$0 specified price.
• A long-call party would exercise a call
• The value of a put option rises when option with an exercise price of $9.00 and a
the underlying asset experiences price premium of $1.50 if the current price of the
declines. underlying physical market asset is $8.00.
• If interest rates increase the value of a • A short-call party to a call option with
put option declines an exercise price of $10.00 and a premium
of $1.00, if the current price of the
underlying asset is $8.00 on the exercise
date, would make a loss of $1.00