1)-Which statement about CDB architecture is true?

a) Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.

b) A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
c) Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
d) A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.
e) You can create common users in PDBs.

2)-As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these
commands:
Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin
srvctl stop database -d myDb
chopt enable dm
srvctl start database -d myDb
What does this do?

a) It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
b) It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
c) It generates Client Static Library.
d) It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
e) It configures Oracle Net Services.
f) It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

3)-Which three statements are true about terminating a session?

a) Without any error, you can terminate the active session by executing:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSIOU ‘7, 15’;
b) You can terminate the active session by executing:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSIOM “7, 15′;
But you also get the error message:
ORA-00028: your session has been killed
c) You cannot terminate the active session. You have to wait until that session
becomes inactive.
d) Without any error, you can terminate the inactive session by executing:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ’12, 63′;
e) When an inactive session is killed, the status of that session remains visible in
VSSESSION with status KILLED. The rowf the terminated session is removed
from VSSESSION after the user attempts to use the session again.
f) You cannot terminate the inactive session. You have to wait until that session
becomes active again.

4)-Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?

a) No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.

b) User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
c) Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
d) Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
e) Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.
5)-Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?

a) Hosts and databases

b) Hosts, databases, and application servers
c) Application servers and web applications
d) Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management
Repository (OMR)
e) Databases, application servers, and web applications
f) Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

6)-Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?

a) It has commands for performing database administration operations.

b) It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.
c) It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.
d) Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command
prompt.

7)-Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?

a) PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.

b) During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.
c) PMON performs listener registration.
d) PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.
e) PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

8)-Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of
SQL*Loader?

a) Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.

b) Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are
checked,
c) No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are
performed.
d) Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to
the data files.
e) INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled
at the end of the load.

9)-Identify three key properties of a transaction in Oracle Database 12c.

a) durability
b) consistency
c) concurrency
d) isolation
e) scalability
f) manageability
10)-Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files,
and control files for a pluggable database?

a) Automatic Storage Management (ASM)

b) OS file system
c) logical volume (LVM)
d) clustered file system
e) RAW

11)-Which two statements about ADDM are true?

a) Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.

b) Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.
c) Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than
regular ADDM.
d) Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

12)-Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?

a) undo data
b) isolation level
c) lock mechanism
d) serializability

13)-You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is
true?

a) You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle
home from a different release.
b) A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases
(PDBs) with different character sets.
c) Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the
installation.
d) Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle
Database Installations.
e) You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database
running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.

14)-Which logical storage relationship is correct?

a) Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

b) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace
c) Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock
d) Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock
15)-Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?

a) Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple
sets of database files.
b) Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior
of non-CDBs.
c) A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to
retrieve lost data
from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.
d) It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than
individual nonCDB databases.
e) It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs
than to hundreds
of non-CDB databases.

16)-Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for

database consolidation?

a) You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production
CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.
b) You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a
single CDB.
c) Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching
individual databases.
d) Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of
storage allocation.
e) In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from
a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.

17)-Which statement about the Oracle Advanced Security Data Redaction feature is
true?

a) It transparently encrypts data at rest in Oracle databases.

b) It securely manages encryption keys.
c) It protects against theft or loss of disks and backups.
d) It prevents OS users from inspecting tablespace files.
e) It limits the exposure of sensitive data in applications.
f) It alters data in caches, buffers, and persistent storage.
g) It impacts operational activities such as backup & restore, upgrade & patch, and
replication.
18)-Which three statements about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
are true?

a) It requires the database to be open.

b) It analyzes the performance of specified objects.
c) It implements all recommendations automatically.
d) It recommends solutions and quantifies expected benefits.
e) It retains snapshots in the SYSAUX tablespace until the database is restarted.
f) It analyzes the snapshots stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).

19)-Which is the default port number for Database Express?

a) 7801
b) 5500
c) 2243
d) 1521
e) 22

20)-Your customer is looking for a solution to address these downtime needs:

 Online addition and removal of disks should automatically rebalance data across
new storage configurations while storage, database, and applications remain
online.
 Dynamically add or remove clustered nodes without disrupting the database or
applications.
 Automate the sizing and distribution of shared memory.
 Add a column with a default value without disrupting the database or
applications.
Perform rolling patch upgrades.

Which four would you recommend to address those needs?

a) Automatic Storage Management (ASM)

b) Online Data and Application change
c) Global Data Services (GDS)
d) Real Application Clusters (RAC)
e) Oracle Streams
f) Online Table Redefinition
g) Oracle Database Vault
21)-Your database instance is down because there was a user-initiated shutdown. Which
option represents the actions performed, in the correct order, if you start up the
instance?

a) The control file is read.

b) Memory is allocated.
c) Background processes pre started.
d) The initialization parameter file is read.
e) Redo log files and data files are opened.

a) b, c, a
b) d, a, e
c) a, e, d, b
d) d, b, c, a, e
e) c, b, d, a, e

22)-Which three components are always part of System Global Area?

a) Database Buffer Cache

b) Undo Log Buffer
c) Shared Pool
d) Small Pool
e) Java Pool
f) Private SQL Area

23)-Which two statements about Database Express are true?

a) It uses internal infrastructure components, such as XDB and SQL*Net.

b) It can perform actions outside the database.
c) It has background tasks and processes that periodically collect information via
FTP.
d) It has two new features: Performance Hub and Composite Active Reports.
e) It is not supported on Standard Edition (SE) and Express Edition (XE).

24)-Which three operations can the PUBLIC user with the SYSOPER privilege
perform?

a) STARTUP
b) SHUTDOWN
c) CREATE DATABASE
d) DROP DATABASE
e) ALTER DATABASE RECOVER
25)-To revoke unnecessary and unused privileges, you can use Privilege Analysis.
Which sequence should you follow?

1. Start the analysis.

2. Set up the analysis policy type (database, role, context).
3. Generate the results.
4. View the results in DBA_USED_PRIVS and DBA_UNUSED_PRJVS.
5. Stop the analysis.

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
c) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, I, 5, 4
e) 1, 2, 4, 5, 2

26)-Which command do you use to create a local role while you are connected as the
local user?

a) create local role l_hr;

b) create role c##_hr container=current;
c) create role l_hr container=current;
d) create role l_hr container=all;

27)-YOU want to move all objects of the CONSULTANT user from the test database to
the DB-USER schema of the production database. Which option of IMPDP would you
use to accomplish this task?

a) FULL
b) SCHEMAS
c) TRANSFORM
d) REMAP_SCHEMA
e) REMAP_TABLESPACE

28)-For which database operation do you need the database to be in MOUNT state?

a) renaming the control files

b) re-creating the control files
c) dropping a user in your database
d) dropping a tablespace in your database
e) configuring the database instance to operate in ARCHIVELOG or
NOARCHIVELOG mode
29)-Examine the table:
Table name: PRODUCTS
Schema: SCOTT
Tablespace: USERS

Organization: Standard (Heap Organized)

This table contains 20 rows. In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column
contains only single-digit values, PROD_NAME has a maximum of five characters, and
PROD_RATE has four digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the
structure of the PRODUCTS table?

a) PROD_NAME size can be increased from five to 10 characters.

b) PROD_ID can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
c) PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER(4) to NUMBER(6, 2).
d) New columns can be added only if they have a NOT NULL constraint.
e) None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

30)-A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?

a) Users can access the data in the database.

b) Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
c) Only background and user processes are running.
d) Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.

31)-Real-Time ADDM detects a high-load performance issue within the database.

Which condition
triggered it?

a) The average active sessions were more than three times the number of CPU
cores.
b) Active sessions were more than 10% of total load and CPU utilization was more
than 50%.
c) Memory allocations were more than 95% of physical memory.
d) Hung sessions were more than 10% of total sessions.
e) A deadlock was detected.
f) The session limit was close to 100%.

32)-Which command do you use to check for block corruption by validating the
database?

a) RMAN> VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL

b) RMAN> VALIDATE BACKUP
c) RMAN> VALIDATE CORRUPT BLOCKS
d) RMAN> VALIDATE DATABASE
33)-Which tool is recommended for moving a PDB to a non-CDB?

a) RMAN
b) Cold Backup
c) Traditional Export / Import
d) Data Pump
e) SQL*Plus

34)-Which two statements describe data dictionary views?

a) They are stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.

b) They are based on virtual tables.
c) They are owned by the SYS user.
d) They speed up query and data manipulation language (DML) operations.
e) The VSFIXED_TABLE view can be queried to list the names of these views.

35)-Which two statements about this policy are true?

a) It replaces the first four digits of the value from the SALARY column with the
number 9.
b) It replaces the first digit of the value from the SALARY column with the
number 4.
c) It replaces the first digit of the value from the COMMISSION_PCT column
with 9.
d) It replaces the first nine digits of the value from the COMMISSION_PCT
column with 1.
e) It uses the full data redaction method.
f) It uses the random redaction method.
36)-Which option represents a function of Global Data Services (GDS)?

a) performs data replication

b) performs database failovers
c) replaces the functionality of Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC
d) coordinates site failovers
e) works seamlessly with Oracle Site Guard

37)-Which two statements represent where Oracle Net must reside?

a) Only on the client for traditional client/server applications

b) Only on the database server for web-based applications
c) On both the web server and database server for web-based applications
d) On both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

38)-When you start up a CDB, which operations are performed automatically and in
what order?

a) The instance is started.

b) Control files are opened.
c) The root container is opened (redo logs and root data files).
d) Seed pluggable database is in READ ONLY mode.
e) Other PDBs are still in MOUNTED mode.
f) Triggers may fire if they exist to open other PDBs.

a) a, b, c, d, e, f
b) b, c, a, d, e, f
c) c, b, a, d, f, e
d) a, b, c, d
e) b, c, a, d

39)-Which new process was introduced as of Oracle Database 12c?

a) Result Cache Background process (RCBG)

b) AQ Coordinator process (QMNC)
c) Change Tracking Writer process (CTWR)
d) Listener Registration process (LREG)
40)-Which two statements are true about this common user?

a) SQL> conn c##usr/pwd@pdb1

You are connected to PDB1 successfully.
b) SQL> conn c##usr/pwd@pdb2
You are connected to PDB2 successfully.
c) SQL> conn c##usr/pwd@pdb2
You are unable to create a connection. You first need to sync PDB2 by
executing:
SQL> conn / as sysdba
SQL>exec DBMS_PDB.SYNC_PDB;
d) SQL> conn c##usr/pwd@pdb2
You are unable to create a connection. You need to create the common user c#
#usr explicitly in
PDB2 by executing:
SQL>conn system/pwd@pdb2
SQL> CREATE USER c##usrIDENTIFIED BYpwd
CONTAINER=CURRENT;
Now you are able to connect as common user c##usr to PDB2.

41)-Which two statements are true regarding undo data records?

a) They are required to support Flashback features.

b) They are not required if Flashback features are enabled.
c) They are retained until the session making the changes ends.
d) Undo records contain copies of data as it appears after a change is made.
e) Undo records contain copies of data as it appears before a change is made.
42)-Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You
are asked to create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production
PDB (salesprd). Which two options would accomplish this?

a) You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the
development CDB and execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm
IDENTIFIED by password;
b) You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start
cloning the source database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
c) You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink “PRD” that connects to the
root of the source CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
d) Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ‘
/tmp/salesprd-xml’ ; Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the
target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING’
/tmp/salesprd.xml’;

43)-Your database is down. You log in as the SYS user and issue this command:
SQL> STARTUP
What happens after the instance is started?

a) Nothing else happens.

b) The database is mounted but not opened.
c) The database is mounted and finally opened.
d) The database is opened and finally mounted.

44)-Which option represents the steps to add a multiplexed copy of the current control
file or to rename a control file in Oracle Database 12c?

a) Shut down the database.

b) Restart the database.
c) Copy an existing control file to a new location by using operating system
commands.
d) Edit the CONTROL_FILES parameter in the database initialization parameter
file to add the new control file name, or to change the existing control file name.

a) b, c, d
b) a, c, d, b
c) a, d, b, c
d) c, d, b
45)-Your database is open and the listener is running. The DBA stops the listener by
using the command:
LSNRCTL> STOP
What happens to the sessions that are currently connected to the database instance?

a) They can perform only queries.

b) They are not affected and continue to function normally.
c) They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
d) They are not allowed to perform any operations till the listener is started.

46)-Your customer wants all email addresses from the database displayed as
[hidden]@company.com. What method of data redaction must you use?

a) full redaction
b) partial redaction
c) regular expressions
d) random redaction
e) no redaction

47)-Your customer is looking for a solution that meets these four needs:
1 – Replicate data from source to target for reporting purposes.
2 -Replicate data from one source to multiple targets.
3 – Replicate data between two databases for instant failover.
4 – Replicate data from multiple sources to a single target for a data warehouse.
Which GoldenGate-supported topology would you recommended?

a) Uni-directional for 1
Peer-to-peer for 2
Bi-directional for 3
Consolidation for 4
b) Peer-to-peer for 1
Broadcast for 2
Bi-directional for 3
Consolidation for 4
c) Uni-directional for 1
Broadcast for 2
Bi-directional for 3
Consolidation for 4
d) Peer-to-peer for 1
Consolidation for 2
Broadcast for 3
Cascading for 4
48)-You execute some DML commands, followed by a COMMIT statement which
option correctly describes how the log writer (LGWR) process takes part in the
transaction commit?

a) LGWR writes the commit record to disk.

2. LGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
b) 1. LGWR writes only the transaction’s redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.

2. LGWR writes the commit record to disk.

c) 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2. IGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
d) 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2. If the activity is high, LGWR waits three seconds for other transactions to
commit.
3. LGWR writes all redo log entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
e) 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2. LGWR signals the database writer (DBW) process to write dirty blocks to disk.
3. LGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.

49)-Which two statements about PDBs and CDBs are true?

a) There is only one SYSTEM tablespace per CDB.

b) There is only one instance per PDB.
c) There is a set of redo log files per PDB.
d) There is only one UNDO tablespace per CDB.
e) There is one SYSAUX tablespace per PDB.

50)-You went to create a new CDB for your customer. Which two statements are true
about the seed pluggable database that will reside in the new CDB?

a) You have to copy the seed data files yourself,

b) You can use the new SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause in the
CREATE DATABASE statement.
c) The seed pluggable database is not required.
d) The seed pluggable database does not require data files.
e) The seed pluggable database is always kept in READ ONLY mode.
f) The seed pluggable database is not a container.
g) The seed pluggable database can be dropped.

51)-You want to clone PDB1 and PDB2 into the same CDB. Which statement is
correct?

a) You cannot do this, because you can only clone PDBs into another CDB.
b) You can clone only one PDB (either PDB1 or PDB2) into the same CDB.
c) Cloning a PDB can use the source files copy method to the target PDB files.
d) Cloning a PDB can use the NOCOPY clause if the target PDB files use the
source files.
52)-Consider 10 scenarios that result in database downtime. Which five of them are
considered as planned downtime?

a) addition or removal of nodes, memory, or disks

b) changing configuration parameters, upgrading, or patching Oracle software
c) file deletion
d) migrating to cluster architecture
e) dropped database object
f) table definition changes
g) runaway processes that consume system resources
h) adding table partitioning
i) operating system or storage device / driver failure
j) database or application deadlocks

53)-What happens if you execute these SQL statements?

SQL> show con_name
CON_NAME
——————————–CDB$ROOT
SQL> create user 1_freed identified by y container=current;

a) A common user is created in the root container.

b) A local user is created in the root container.
c) A local user is created in all the PDBs.
d) The second SQL statement fails because a local user cannot be created in the
root container.

54)-A standby database is in mounted state and you are required to perform a failover to
the physical standby. Which solution is best suited for this scenario?

a) ALTER DATABASE RECOVER MANAGED STANDBY DATABASE

statement with the FINISH keyword
b) ALTER DATABASE PREPARE TO SWITCHOVER and ALTER
DATABASE COMMIT TO SWITCHOVER statements
c) ALTER DATABASE RECOVER TO STANDBY DATABASE statement with
the FINISH keyword
d) D) ALTER DATABASE PREPARE SWITCHOVER and ALTER DATABASE
COMMIT TO SWITCHOVER Statements

55)-Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?

a) Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.

b) A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
c) Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.
d) If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo
segments to store undo data.
56)-Which two statements about Data Recovery Advisor are true?

a) Data Recovery Advisor can be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in
non-CDBs.
b) Data Recovery Advisor cannot be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions
in the root of a CDB.
c) Data Recovery Advisor can be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in
PDBs.
d) You can use the ADVISE FAILURE command to display repair options after
running LIST FAILURE in an RMAN session.

57)-You are installing OracleDatabase 12c on a machine. When you run the installer;
Oracle Universal installer (OUI) shows a message that says one of the product-specific
prerequisite checks has failed:
Checking available swap space requirements…
Expected result: 1512MB
Actual Result: 1018MB
Check complete. The overall result of this check is: failed ««
Problem: The system does not have the required swap space.
What happens to the installation in this situation?

a) It can be continued.
b) It resizes the swap space automatically when you proceed further.
c) It can be continued, but the instance cannot be started without increasing swap
space.
d) It shows a message saying one or more prerequisite checks have failed and the
installation aborts.

58)-Examine the command below:

LSNRCTL> SERVICES LISTENER2
Connecting to (DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS= (PROTOCOL=TCP) (HOST=estb. us.
abc.com)
(PORT=1525)))
Services Summary. . .
Service “orcl.oracle.com” has 1 instance(s).

Instance “oracle”, status UNKNOWN, has 1 handler(s) for this service… Handler(s):
“DEDICATED” established:2 refused:0 LOCAL SERVER The command completed
successfully
Which two statements are true about LISTENER2?

a) The ORCL instance is registered dynamically with the listener.

b) The ORCL instance is registered statically in the listener.ora file.
c) The number of current client connections handled by the service handler is two.
d) The total number of client connections handled so far by the service handler is
two.
59)-Which three statements are true about a database instance that has mounted a
database but has not opened it?

a) System administrators and users with the CREATE SESSION system privilege
may connect to the instance.
b) Data files are open in read-only mode.
c) A control file is open.
d) System Global Area (SGA) is allocated and background processes are started.
e) An alert log and trace files are open.
f) Instance recovery is performed for the database.

60)-View the current parameter settings shown in the output below.

NAMETYPEVALUE
db_file_multiblock_read_count
integer107

ddl_lock_timeout
integer 60
Distributed_lock_timeout
integer 60
dml_locks
integer 748
lock_sga
boolean
FALSE
enab1e_dd1_1ogging
boolean
FALSE
resumable_timeout
integer 0
A user logs in to the hrschema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp
(empno NUMBER(3),
enamo VARCHAR2(20),
sal NUMBER (8, 2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp (empno, ename) VALUES(1, ‘JAMES’);
At this moment, a second user also logs in to the hrschema and issues the following
command:

SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY salNUMBER(10, 2);

What happens in this scenario?

a) The second user’s session immediately produces a “resource busy” error.

b) The second user’s command executes successfully.
c) The second user’s session waits for a time before producing a “resource busy”
error.
d) A deadlock is created.
61)-Your customer wants to migrate their production database from Oracle Database
10g on AIX to Oracle Database 12c on Solaris, and is concerned about the downtime.
Which Oracle solution would you recommend?

a) Active Data Guard

b) Oracle GoldenGate
c) Oracle Real Application Clusters
d) Oracle Transportable Tablespaces
e) Oracle Cloud Platform as a Service

62)-An Oracle instance is a combination of______.

a) database files and parameter file (initialization parameter file or server parameter
file)
b) System Global Area (SGA) and background processes
c) a listener process, server processes, and background processes
d) System Global Area (SGA), server processes, and background processes
e) database files, System Global Area (SGA), and background processes

63)-You have two database servers EMP and EXP. A user of the database from the EXP
server wants to extract some information from the database in the EMP server for cross-
verification. Which schema object enables the user to access the information from the
remote database?

a) cluster
b) database link
c) mapping table
d) materialized view

64)-Which two are client-side components of Oracle Data Guard Broker?

a) Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control

b) Oracle Data Guard monitor
c) Oracle Data Guard command-line interface (DGMGRL)
d) Oracle Data Guard Broker Manager

65)-Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to

database services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the
database server, due to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your
customer use?

a) Oracle Data Guard

b) Oracle Streams
c) Oracle Real Application Clusters
d) Oracle GoldenGate
66)-Your customer has three data centers in three different locations, location A has
their production database running on Oracle Database 12c. They want to replicate the
data from location A to location B. which is 50 miles away and is used for disaster
protection and database rolling upgrades. They also want to create a replica database at
location C, which must be open in readwrite mode, while synchronizing with the
primary database.
Which two solutions would you recommend to your customer?

a) Oracle GoldenGate
b) Oracle Advanced Replication
c) Oracle Active Data Guard
d) Oracle Streams

67)-Your database instance is running. db01 is a net service name. You issue a
connection request by using the command:
SQL> CONNECT scott/tiger@db01
Which component receives the request and establishes the appropriate connection?

a) listener
b) user process
c) service name
d) server process

68)-Which statement about Online Move Data file is true?

a) Moving a data file online prevents DML operations on segments stored in the
data file.
b) Flashing back a database to a point in time before a data file had been renamed
online retains the new name.
c) Moving a data file online can be performed if the data file is in OFFLINE mode.
d) Moving a data file online cannot be performed if the data file is under BEGIN
BACKUP.

69)-You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER USER skd ACCOUNT LOCK;
Which two statements are correct?

a) The SKD user cannot log in to the database instance.

b) The objects owned by the SKD user are not accessible to any user.
c) Other users can access objects owned by the SKD user, to which they have
access.
d) The SKD user’s password expires and the user is forced to change the password
at the next login.
Examine the statements:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE MYTBS DATAFILE ‘/disk1/mytbs_l.dbf ‘ SIZE
10M;
SQL> CREATE TABLE mytab (id NUMBER, descr VARCHAR2 (100) )
PARTITION BY RANGE(id) (
partition pi values loss than (100000) tablespacemytbs storage (initial lm),
partition p2 values less than (MAXVALUE) tablespacemytbs storage (initial 1m)
);
When inserting data, you get the error:
ORA-01688: unable to extend table SYS.MYTAB partition P2 by 128 in tablespace
MYTBS

70)-Which three operations would allow you to insert data without getting the error
message?

a) Extend the logical volume by 10 MB where the data files are stored;
# lvextend -L+10M /diskl
b) Add a data file:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE MYTBS ADD DATAFILE ‘ /disk1/mytbs_2 .dbf
SIZE 10M;
c) Move a partition to another tablespace:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE ADDITIONAL_TBS DATAFILE
‘/disk1/additional_tbs_1 .dbf’ SIZE
10M;
SQL> ALTER TABLE MYTAB MOVE PARTITION P2 TABLESPACE
ADDlTIONAL_TBS;
d) Resize the existing data file:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE DATAFILE ‘/diskl/mytbs_l .dbf’ RESIZE 20M;
e) Remove a data file:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE MYTBS DROP DATAFILE ‘/diskl/mytbs_l –
dbf’;

71)-Which two statements about Automatic Data Optimization (ADO) are true?

a) ADO policies can automatically compress data when it qualifies.

b) ADO policies can automatically move segments when necessary.
c) ADO is not dependent on Heat Map, and works even if Heat Map is disabled.
d) You cannot compress at block level, but you can compress at segment level.
e) You can compress at row level only for QUERY LOW.
72)-Which statement about Oracle patches is false?

a) Interim patches, also known as “one-off” patches, are created to provide a

specific fix between the releases of patch sets.
b) Security Patch Update (SPU) is the primary means of releasing security fixes for
Oracle products. SPUs are cumulative with respect to prior SPUs and generally
contain only security fixes.
c) Patch Set Update (PSU) is a collection of proactive, stabilizing, cumulative
patches for a particular product version (base release or patch set). PSUs are
cumulative and include all the security fixes from CPU patches, plus additional
fixes.
d) Patch Set is the main way in which Oracle provides bug fixes in between
releases. Oracle bundles a number of fixes, tests them thoroughly together, and
packages, then together for easy download and installation.
e) Terminal Patch Set is an unsupported patch set by Oracle Lifetime Support
policies.

73)-Which three statements represent the difference between a container database

(CDB) and a non-container database?

a) A container database has exactly one seed PDB, and a non-container database
has no seed PDB.
b) In a newly created non-CDB that does not yet contain user data, the data
dictionary contains only system metadata. When application users create their
own objects, this metadata is mixed with the system metadata. In a CDB, the
data dictionary metadata is split between the root and the PDBs. The data
dictionary in the PDB contains pointers to the data dictionary in the root.
c) New views are introduced. Next to DBA_views, AIL_-views, and USER_-
views, there are CDB_-views. Both CDB and non-CDB databases can access
this information.
d) You are allowed to create only a single HR user in a non-CDB database. This
restriction is identical for a CDB database.
e) Every PDB in a CDB has its own control file. A non-CDB, which has no
containers, needs only one control file.
74)-The session of user SCOTT receives the following error after executing an
UPDATE command on the EMP table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-00060: deadlock detected while waiting for resource
You find out that a session opened by user JIM has a transaction that caused the
deadlock. Which two statements are true about SCOTT’s session in this scenario?

a) The session is terminated after receiving the error and JIM can continue with his
transaction.
b) SCOTT should perform a COMMIT or ROLLBACK to allow JIM to continue
with his transaction.
c) The session is rolled back after receiving the error and JIM can continue with his
transaction.
d) SCOTT has to re-execute the last command in the transaction after he commits
the transaction.

75)-Examine the command:

SQL> CREATE TABLE orders(oid NUMBER (6) PRIMARY KEY, odato DATE,
ccode NUMBER
(6), oamt NUMBER (10, 2)) TABLESPACE users ;
Which two statements are true about the execution of the command?

a) A CHECK constraint is created on the OID column.

b) A NOT NULL constraint is created on the OID column.
c) The ORDERS table is the only object created in the USERS tablespace.
d) The ORDERS table and a unique index are created in the USERS tablespace.
e) The ORDERS table is created in the USERS tablespace and a unique index is
created on the OIDcolumn in the SYSTEM tablespace.

76)-Which three options correctly match environment variables with their specific
functionality?

a) ORACLE_SID specifies the instance name.

b) ORACLE_SID specifies the global database name.
c) ORACLE_BASE specifies the root of the Oracle Database directory tree in all
platforms.
d) ORACLE_BASE specifies the root of the Oracle Database directory tree only in
UNIX and Linux platforms.
e) ORACLE_HOME specifies the directory containing the Oracle software
executables and network files.
f) ORACLE_HOME specifies the directory containing only the Oracle software
executables, but not the network files.

77)-Identify the correct order of consolidation density, from worst to best.

a) multitenant, schema consolidation, dedicated database, VMs

b) schema consolidation, VMs, dedicated databases, multitenant
c) dedicated databases, VMs, schema consolidation, multitenant
d) VMs, dedicated databases, schema consolidation, multitenant
78)-Examine the commands:

SQL> CONNECT sys@CDBl AS SYSDBA

$QL>STARTUP MOUNT
SQL> ALTER DATABASE cdbl MOUNT;
Which four options represent what happens when these commands are executed?

a) The instance is started.

b) The CDB control files are opened for the instance.
c) The root is mounted.
d) The root is opened.
e) The PDBs are mounted.
f) The PDBs are mounted, and the seed is opened in READ ONLY mode.
g) The PDBs are mounted, and opened in READ WRITE mode, while the seed is
opened In READ ONLY mode.

79)-Which two statements about switchover and failover are true?

a) A snapshot standby can be the target of a switchover or fast-start failover

operation.
b) Neither a switchover nor a failover is possible to a far sync instance.
c) For fast-start failover, you must preselect the target standby database that will be
used.
d) You can activate a standby database to test whether it is being updated correctly.

80)-Identify three types of important statistics collection that you can disable in Oracle
Database 12c by setting the STATISTIS_LEVEL parameter to BASIC.

a) Oracle Database alert.log file

b) object-level statistics
c) Automatic SGA Memory Management
d) Oracle Database Trace files
e) all server-generated alerts

81)-You need to recover a database running In NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which two

statements are true in this scenario?

a) You can perform complete recovery by using the command:

RESTORE DATABASE
FROM TAG“consistent_whole_backup”;
RECOVER DATABASE;
b) You can perform incomplete recovery by using the command:
RESTORE DATABASE;
FROM TAG “consistent_whole_backup”;
RECOVER DATABASE NOREDO;
c) Only consistent backups can be used for restoring a database in
NOARCHIVELOG mode.
d) Media recovery is possible in most cases.
82)-Which statement about a server parameter file (SPFILE) is false?

a) An SPFILE is a binary file that cannot be edited by using a text editor.

b) You can create an SPFILE from an existing text initialization parameter file or
from memory.
c) You can use the SHOW PARAMETERS command to display the values of
initialization parameters in an SPFILE.
d) The instance first searches for an SPFILE named spfile ORACLE_SID.ora and,
if this is not found. It searches for spfile.ora.

83)-Which statement about the Queryable Patch inventory feature is false?

a) It is used to retrieve installed patch information from a SQL prompt.

b) It uses the PREPROCESSOR feature, which allows users to preprocess input
data before it is sent to the access drivers.
c) DBMS_QOPATCH provides a PL/SQL or SQL interface to view the database
patches installed.
d) It works in an Oracle database instance that is mounted. Therefore, it works in
ASM instances and DG instances.

84)-Which three statements are true about managing shared servers?

a) Option A
b) Option B
c) Option C
d) Option D
e) Option E
85- Identify two types of solutions in which you would need to use Active Data Guard
and Golden Gate together.

a) a solution that provides zero-data-loss protection at any distance without

impacting database
performance
b) a solution for disaster protection and database rolling upgrades for a mission-
critical OLTP database, where you also want to extract data from a data guard
primary database for ETL update o’ an enterprise data warehouse
c) a solution requiring minimal planned downtime and risk, using standby first
patching, database rolling upgrades, and select platform migrations
d) a solution that helps with integrated automatic database and client failover
between source and
target, where you also need to establish advanced replication (such as multi
master and
bidirectional replication and data transformations)

86)-You create a CDB with four containers: the root, the seed, and two pluggable
databases PDB1 and PDB2. Which four items can reside In PDB1, but not in the root?

a) shared UNDO and default database temporary tablespace

b) Oracle-supplied metadata
c) shared Oracle-supplied data
d) CDB views providing information across PDBs
e) application tablespaces
f) local temporary tablespaces
g) local users and local roles
h) non-shared local metadata

87)-Which two statements are true when you execute an invoker’s rights procedure?

a) The owner must have the INHERIT PRIVILEGES object privilege on the
invoking user, or the INHERIT ANY PRIVILEGES privilege.
b) Invoking users can control who can access their privileges when they run an
invoker’s rights procedure.
c) The calling user must be granted the INHERIT PRIVILEGES object privilege
on the user owner of the procedure.
d) The calling user must grant the INHERIT PRIVILEGES object privilege on the
user owner of the procedure.

88)-Which parameter can be changed by explicitly re-creating the control file or by

using the DBNEWID utility?

a) db_name
b) maxdatafiles
c) control_files
d) instance_name
89)-Several tables are accidentally deleted from a PDB. Which database would you
immediately connect to, and as which user, to recover these tables?

a) the CDB as the ROOT user

b) the CDB as the CDBADMIN user
c) the PDB as the ROOT user
d) the PDB as the PDB Admin user

90)-Identify two solutions that Oracle provides for patch conflict.

a) merge patch
b) combine patch
c) overlay patch
d) dual patch
e) super patch

91)-You are in the middle of transaction, updating a table. The machine on which the
database is running reboots because of a power outage. This causes a database instance
failure.
Which statement is true in this situation?

a) The online redo log files and archived redo log files are required to accomplish a
recovery.
b) The uncommitted transaction is committed at the next startup of the database
instance.
c) The uncommitted transaction is rolled back automatically at the next opening of
the database.
d) The DBA has to perform a recovery on the database to recover the uncommitted
transaction.

92)-Which three options best describe Patch Set Updates (PSUs) in Oracle Database
12c?

a) non-cumulative
b) multi-version
c) proactive
d) stabilizing
e) cumulative

93)-For which use case would you use a rolling upgrade with the Oracle Active Data
Guard feature?

a) when upgrading from Oracle Database 12c to the first patch set of Oracle
Database 12c
b) when upgrading from Oracle Database 10gto Oracle Database 12c
c) when upgrading from Oracle Database 11gto Oracle Database 12c
d) when upgrading from any previous version of Oracle Database to Oracle
Database 12c
94)-Which two statements about multi section backup are true?

a) It is available only for full backups.

b) It supports incremental backups and image copies.
c) Backup for each data file is divided into sections and is backed up in parallel.
However, for image copies, sections are backed up sequentially.
d) For image copies, sections are backed up in parallel and recomposed at the end.

95)-Which tablespace contains the data dictionary, being automatically created at

database creation?

a) USERS
b) TEMP
c) SYSAUX
d) SYSTEM
e) EXAMPLE

96)-Which three tasks can you perform in Database Express?

a) View performance and status information about the database instance.

b) Start up the database.
c) Shut down the database.
d) Create database structures.
e) Manage users and security.

97)-Which two statements are true about the B-tree Index?

a) The leaf blocks in the index are doubly linked.

b) The leaf node stores a bitmap for each key value.
c) Rows with a NULL value in key columns also have entries in the Index.
d) The deletion of a row from the table causes a logical deletion in the index leaf
block and the space becomes available for a new leaf entry.

98)-Which two statements are true about listeners?

a) Listeners use only the TCP/IP protocol.

b) Multiple listener processes can run simultaneously on a host.
c) Multiple database instances can be registered with a single listener,
d) Listener-related errors can be traced only at the administrative level.
e) Only one database instance can be registered with a single listener at any time.
99)-You want to start a global service on your database. Which three conditions must be
met?

a) The database is open and registered with a global service manager.

b) The service has been disabled on that database.
c) The database role is different from the role attribute of the service.
d) The replication lag on the database does not exceed the maximum value
specified for the service.
e) The service has reached its cardinality defined by the number of preferred
databases.
f) No other database in the pool is a better candidate for starting the service.

100)-What must you do to an application for it to take advantage of partitioning?

a) recompile it
b) rewrite its SQL queries
c) relink
d) rework the applications schema
e) nothing; it is transparent

101)-Which three statements about common and local roles are true?

a) When a role is granted to a user, the privileges in the role are limited to the
context of the PDB.
b) Local roles can be granted only to local users.
c) Common roles can be granted to both local and common users.
d) A user can create common roles if the user has the CREATE ROLE privilege,
and SET CONTAINER for all PDBs
e) Common roles can be created in the root and PDBs.

102)-Which statement regarding Oracle Active Data Guard 12c is false?

a) Any application compatible with a read-only database can run on an Oracle

Active Data Guard standby.
b) It provides new support for DML to global temporary tables and the use of
sequences in the standby database.
c) It repairs block corruptions detected in the primary or standby database.
d) It supports different software patch levels between a primary database and its
physical standby database for the purpose of applying and validating Oracle
patches in a rolling fashion.
e) It supports multi master and bidirectional replication architectures where there
are multiple databases that all contain the same data, even if they are not
synchronized.
103)-Examine the command:

sqlplus /nolog
In which scenario would this command execute successfully?

a) only from the server, if the database instance is not up

b) from either a client or server, even if the database instance is not up
c) from either a client or server, only if the database instance is up, and the
command connects the session to the instance
d) from either a client or server, only if the database instance is up, but the
command does not connect the session to the instance

104)-John is a CDB administrator, and Mike and Tim are PDB administrators of their
respective databases- John takes a complete CDB backup by using RMAN>Backup
Database. Mike and Tim may need point-in-time recovery of their PDBs. Which
statement is true?

a) Recovery of individual PDBs is not possible, because John did not back up by
using
RMAN>Backup Pluggable database pdb1 pdb2. However, complete CDB
recovery is still possible.
b) Mike and Tim need to individually take backups of their respective PDBs,
because CDB-level
backup does not include PDB data dictionary objects.
c) Mike and Tim do not need to worry, because recovery of individual PDBs is
possible.
d) Recovery of individual PDBs is not possible at all.

105)-In this SQL statement, what is the partitioning criteria?

CREATE TABLE books_part
PARTITION BY RANGE (cell_id) (
PARTITION p0l VALUES LESS THAN (2),

PARTITION p02 VALUES LESS THAN (3) ,

...
PARTITION pl4 VALUES LESS THAN (15),
PARTITION pl5 VALUES LESS THAN (16),
PARTITION pl6 VALUES LESS THAN (MAXVALUE)
)
AS SELECT * FROM books;

a) books
b) pxx
c) MAXVALUE
d) cell_id
e) There is no partitioning criteria.
106)-Which four statements about users in Oracle Database 12c are correct?

a) A common user cannot have the same name as any local user across all PDBs.
b) A common user can be created only in the root container.
c) A local user with the proper privileges can also create a common user.
d) If a PDB is closed, the common and local users of the PDB are not visible.
e) A common user with the proper privileges can create a common user by using
the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause.
f) A common user is one that has the same username and authentication credentials
across multiple PDBs.

107)-Which three DBA operations can be performed by using Oracle SQL Developer?

a) database backup and recovery using RMAN

b) performance tuning operations such as generation of AWR, ADDM, and ASH
reports
c) storage configuration for archive logs and control files
d) storage configuration for data files and redo log groups
e) database status view and Data Pump export and import jobs

108)-Consider an application in which memory required for each session is 400 KB and
memory required for each server process is 4 MB. The pool size is 100 and the number
of shared servers used is 100. If there are 5000 client connections, what is the amount of
memory used by a dedicated server?

a) 615 MB
b) 2.5 GB
c) 4 GB
d) 12 GB
e) 22 GB

109)-When executing shutdown abort in a pluggable database (PDB), you

____________.

a) shut down abort the CDB

b) shut down abort the PDB
c) shut down immediate the PDB
d) shut down immediate the CDB

110)-Which is the default isolation level in Oracle Database 12c?

a) serializable
b) read-only
c) read committed
d) read uncommitted
111)-Your customer is planning for a maximum-availability architecture at their data
center to address their planned downtime, unplanned downtime, and replication needs.
Consider these options:
– Instance, site recovery, and heterogeneous setup
– Inter-region and intra-region load balancing across replicated databases
– Fine-grained error investigation of incorrect results
– Integrated client and application failover
– Fastest and simplest database replication
Which four options would you recommend?

a) Oracle GoldenGate
b) Global Data Services
c) Oracle Data Guard
d) Data Recovery Advisor
e) Oracle Flashback technology
f) Oracle Advanced Queuing

112)-Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump?

a) EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
b) DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independently of Data
Pump clients.
c) Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users
with the SYSDBA privilege.
d) Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in
Original Export Release 9.x.
e) EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to
execute export and import commands.

113)-Which two statements correctly distinguish between undo and redo data?

a) Undo reverses a change, whereas redo re-creates a change.

b) Redo reverses a change, whereas undo re-creates a change.
c) Undo protects against inconsistent reads, whereas redo protects against data loss.
d) Redo protects against inconsistent reads, whereas undo protects against data
loss.

114)-After a ___________ statement is issued, a transaction ends.

a) COMMIT
b) ROLLBACK
c) SAVEPOINT
d) SELECT
e) CREATE
115)-Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?

a) It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your

database without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the
snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
b) It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must
be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
c) It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database
doesn’t have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover
all or part of the
database.
d) It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your
database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover
all or part of the
database.

116)-There are two listeners, LISTENER1 arid LISTENER2, and one service name
ORCL available for your database. The database is running and currently, only
LISIENER1 is started. You issue thecommand:
lsnrctl start listener2 What would be the outcome?

a) It starts the second listener without affecting current sessions.

b) It starts the second listener and terminates all current sessions.
c) It gives an error because multiple listeners cannot run simultaneously.
d) It gives an error because multiple listeners can run simultaneously only if there
are multiple net service names.

117)-You add the following code in the tnsnames.ora file on a client PC:
sales=
(DESCRIPTION=
(ADDRESS= (PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=sales data) (PORT=1521) )
(CONNECT_DATA=
(SERVICE_NAME=sales.acme)))
Which statement is true about the code with respect to creating a new connect
identifier?

a) It is created for the SALES database in the network domain ACME on the
SALESDATA server.
b) It is created for the SALESDATA database on the SALES server in the network
domain called
ACME.
c) It generates an error because the connect identifier name cannot be a part of
SERVICE_NAME.
d) It generates an error because the server configuration mode (dedicated or shared)
is not
specified.
118)-Which three statements are true about database storage structures?

a) A data file can span across tablespaces.

b) An extent contains one or more segments.
c) Tablespaces contain one or more data files.
d) Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces.
e) Segments can span across data files within a tablespace.

119)-You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is

incorrect?

a) You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the
patch.
b) You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database,
and configuration files.
c) You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
d) You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the
Patch Set Update (PSU) is applied successfully.
e) You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is
being patched.

120)-Which type of information is included in dynamic performance views?

1 – System and session parameters
2 – Memory usage and allocation
3 – File states (including RMAN backup files)
4 – Progress of jobs and tasks
5 – SQL execution
6 – Statistics and metrics

a) 3, 4, and 5
b) 1, 2, 5, and 6
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 2, 3, 5, and 6
e) 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
f) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

121)-Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?

a) SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a
single server.
b) Each server process has its own SGA.
c) SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
d) SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data,
information about database objects, and query results
e) SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
f) SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
122)- Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE
statements are issued on a table that has an associated bitmap index?

a) The DML operations re-create the bitmap index blocks.

b) The bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation.
c) The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment.
d) Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the bitmap index alter a
DML operation.

123)-Which two options can you use to list Oracle Database 12c patches by using
Queryable Patch Inventory?

a) select patch from vSoption where opatch_data=’ 333333′ ;

b) select xmltransform(dbms_qopatch.get_opatch_data(3333333),
dbms_qopatch.GET_OPATCH_XSLT()) from dual
c) select opatch from vSpatchsets where opatch_number = ‘333333’;
d) opatchlsinventory -xml

124)-What new role in Oracle Database 12c encompasses the administrative privileges
required for backup and recovery?

a) SYSBKP
b) SYSBKPRMAN
c) SYSRMAN
d) SYSBACKUP

125)-Which statement is true about Enhanced Real-Time ADDM in Oracle Database

12c?

a) The analyzed result is lost when the database instance is restarted.

b) It runs every 1 hour automatically.
c) It is shipped only with Oracle Enterprise Manager 12c.
d) It analyzes high CPU trend and identifies problems before they can threaten
application performance.

126)-Examine the error:

GSM-45054: GSM error or NET-40006: unable to start GSH
What is the cause of this error, and what troubleshooting steps should you perform?

a) The GDS catalog database of its listener may be down. Verify that the GDS
catalog database and its local listener are running.
b) The GDS pool database may be down. Make sure that the GDS pool databases
are up and the service is enabled and started.
c) The GDS pool database’s local listener may be down. Make sure that it is
running.
d) The global service may be down. Verify that the pool databases are up and the
service is started.
e) The global service may be disabled. Make sure that the pool databases are up
and the service is enabled and started.
127)-Which three events signal a database writer (DWR) to write buffers to disk?

a) The database advances a checkpoint.

b) A client process commits a transaction.
c) The redo log buffer becomes full.
d) A server process cannot find non-dirty blocks after scanning a threshold number
of buffers.
e) A tablespace is changed to read-only status.
f) The database is shut down in immediate mode.

128)-Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started

with a minimally configured Initialization parameter file?

a) Process Monitor Process (PMON)

b) Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
c) Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
d) Recoverer process (RECO)
e) Listener Registration process (LREG)
f) Checkpoint process (CKPT)

129)- Oracle Database 12c provides new task-specific privileges (SYSBACKUP,

SYSDG, and SYSKM) to handle standard administration duties. Which two statements
about these standard administration privileges are true?

a) These administrative privileges enable you to connect to the database only if the
database is open.
b) After connecting with these privileges, you are connected under a predefined
user whose name is the privilege name.
c) These administrative privileges allow a user to view DBA_xxx, GV$, VS, and
SELECT on application tables.
d) Without being a member of OSBACKUP. OSDG, and OSKM OS groups, users
cannot connect as administrative users by using OS authentication.

130)- Examine the output:

SQL> SELECT index_name, status FROM dba_indexes
WHEREstatus=’UNUSABLE’;
INDEX_NAME STATUS
——————— —————–EINDUNUSABLE
Which two statements about this index are true?

a) It is ignored by the query optimizer.

b) It is not used while the index is being rebuilt.
c) The index cannot be rebuilt, and has to be re-created.
d) The index is automatically rebuilt when used the next time.
131)-All database users are currently connected to the database instance and are
working. The HR user opens three database sessions and executes this command in one
of the sessions:
SQL> UPDATE persons SET ccode=’U031′ WHERE ccode=’U029′;
123 rows updated.
SQL> DELETE FROM persons WHERE exp=’Y’;
3 rows deleted.
The SYS user opens a new session after HR executes the preceding commands. Which
option represents the sessions that can see the effect of the UPDATE and DELETE
commands?

a) all sessions of the HR user

b) all sessions of the HR user and the SYS user
c) the session of the HR user that executed the commands
d) all sessions for which database users have access privileges to the PERSONS
table

132)-Which three statements about replication options are true?

a) The Oracle Streams information flow consists of three components: capture,

redo transfer, arid consumption.
b) Oracle Streams is deprecated in Oracle Database 12c Release 1.
c) Oracle Database Advanced Replication is deprecated in Oracle Database 12c
Release 1, including multimaster replication, updatable materialized views,
multitier materialized views, and deployment templates.
d) Oracle Database Advanced Queuing is independent of Oracle Streams.
e) The Oracle GoldenGate software architecture is composed of three primary
components: capture, propagate, and trail files.

133)-Identify three outcomes of using the Oracle Multitenant option in Oracle Database
12c.

a) less instance overhead

b) increased storage cost
c) minor application changes
d) fast and easy provisioning
e) same time needed for patching and upgrade as in the previous release
f) isolation
134)-Which statement is true regarding this connect string?
(DESCRIPTION
(FAILOVER=on)
(ADDRESS_LIST=
(LOAD_BALANCE=ON)
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-east1) (port=1522) )
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-east2)(port=1522))
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-east3) (port=1522) ))
(ADDRESS_LIST=

(LOAD_BALANCE=ON)
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-west1) (port=1522) )
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-west2) (port=JS22))
(ADDRESS=(host=sales-west3) (port=lS22) ) )
(CONNECT_DATA=
(SERVICE_NAME=sales)
(REGION=east)))

a) It contains three global service managers in the client’s local region (east).
b) Client-side load balancing has been enabled only for the global service managers
within the client’s buddy (west).
c) Connect-time failover between regions has not been enabled.
d) The REGION parameter is optional.

135)-You connect to a database instance and execute a DML command that changes
one data block.
The block is read from the buffer cache, modified, and modified, and marked as dirty.
You commit the transaction. What must take place before the block can be written to
disk?

a) The buffer must be written to flash cache.

b) A log writer (LGWR) must write all redo entries that have been copied into the
buffer since the last time it wrote.
c) The modified data block must be moved from the LRU list to the write queue.
d) The database must advance the checkpoint.

136)-In Oracle Database 12c, when does a transaction begin?

a) when a transaction ID is allocated for it.

b) when a user explicitly issues a “begin” statement
c) when a transaction is assigned to an available undo data segment to record undo
entries for the new transaction
d) when the first executable SQL statement is encountered
137)-Your customer is looking for zero-data-loss failover with maximum data
protection and high availability for their primary database. Which two solutions would
you recommend to the customer if the distance between the primary and the standby
location is more than 300 miles?

a) Asynchronous redo transport with Data Guard

b) Synchronous redo transport with Data Guard
c) Active Data Guard Fat Sync
d) Data Guard SQL Apply

138)-Which database feature can be used for organizing data when there is a very large
amount of data?

a) Index
b) Partitioning
c) Triggers
d) Row-level security
e) Database vault

139)-Which four items exist in the root of a CDB, but not in the PDBs?

a) shared UNDO and default database temporary tablespace

b) Oracle-supplied metadata
c) shared Oracle-supplied data
d) CDB views providing information across PDBs
e) application tablespaces
f) local temporary tablespaces
g) local users and local roles
h) non-shared local metadata
140)-

What do the regexp_pattern and regexp_replace_string parameters accomplish?

a) They find a pattern of nine digits; break the digits into three groups that contain
the first three, the next two and then the last four digits; and replace all digits
with XXXXX concatenated with the last four digits.
b) They find a pattern of six digits; break the digits into two groups that contain the
first five, and then the last digit; and replace all digits with XXXXX
concatenated with the last digit.
c) They find a pattern of nine digits and display the digits as XXXXX XX XXXX.
d) They find a pattern of nine digits and display the first five digits as XXXXX and
the last four digits as 3333.

141)-Which normalization level is adopted in real-world database systems?

a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) BCNF

142)-What happens when you execute these SQL statements?

ALTER SYSTEM SET SGA_TARGET = 992M;
ALTER SYSTEM SET SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 0;
ALTER SYSTEM SET LARGE_POOL_SIZE = 0;
ALTER SYSTEM SET JAVA_POOL_SIZE = 0;
ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 0;
ALTER SYSTEM SET STREAMS POOL SIZE = 0;

a) The database stops (shutdown abort).

b) B) The database Stops (shutdown immediate).
c) You activate Automatic Shared Memory Management.
d) You get an error message.
143)-Which two statements about Global Data Services (GDS) are correct?

a) GDS allows scaling replication-aware application workloads beyond the cluster

(that is, across replicated clusters).
b) GDS helps in performing data replication.
c) GDS works seamlessly with any combination of Oracle RAC databases, single-
instance databases, Oracle Data Guard, Oracle Active Data Guard, and Oracle
Golden Gate.
d) GDS helps to perform database failovers, and does not require Data Guard
Broker.
e) The GDSMGRL utility is a command-line interface for configuring and
managing the Global Data Services framework.

144)-Which three are initialization parameters for backup and recovery?

a) CLONEDB
b) FILESYSTEMIO_OPTIONS
c) DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST
d) RECYCLEBIN
e) TAPE_ASYNCH_IO

145)-In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?

a) when multiple databases are to be registered with the listener

b) when DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
c) when users need to connect the database instance by using the host naming
method
d) when the database instance to be registered with the listener is configured in
shared server mode

146)-YOUR database crashes after a user accidentally kills a background process. What
are threepossible ways to restart your database?

a) S sqlplus / as sysdba
SQL> restart;
b) S sqlplus / as sysdba
SQL> startup immediate;
c) S rman target /
RMAN> Startup
d) S sqlplus / as sysdba
SQL> startup open recover;
e) S srvctlstart database -db SORACLE_SID
147)-Which two statements are true about a buffer cache?

a) When a buffer is read from a buffer cache, it may be inconsistent and require
undo data to make it consistent.
b) A buffer cache stores copies of data blocks from all files of the database.
c) Buffer access is kept efficient by maintaining a least recently used (LRU) list for
dirty and clean buffers.
d) A buffer cache always resides completely in System Global Area (SGA).
e) A buffer cache contains exactly three pools: default, keep, and recycle pool.

148)-You want to drop a pluggable database from a multitenant container database that
is used for development, which two statements are true?

a) You can drop the PDB only if it is closed.

b) You can drop the seed PDB, but you cannot create any other PDB within the
CDB.
c) You can drop the PDB and keep the data files to be reused by another PDB.
d) When you drop the PDB, the data files and redo log files are automatically
removed from the storage file system.

149)-Which process is responsible for writing the contents of database buffers to data
files?

a) Process Monitor process (PMON)

b) Listener Registration process (LREG)
c) System Monitor process (SMON)
d) Database Writer process (DBW)
e) Log Writer process (LGWR)
f) Checkpoint process (CKPT)