1. Which muscle groups are typically engaged in the standing starting position?

a. Chest and shoulders

b. Quadriceps and hamstrings
c. Biceps and triceps
d. Abdominals and obliques
2. What is the advantage of having the feet shoulder-width apart in the standing starting position?
a. It increases stability and balance
b. It allows for greater flexibility in the ankles
c. It reduces strain on the lower back
d. It minimizes the risk of muscle cramps
3. What might be a potential risk of not properly instructing a patient on the standing starting
position?
a. Reduced muscle strength
b. Increased risk of falls or injuries
c. Decreased joint flexibility
d. Improved postural alignment
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of correct sitting posture?
a. Slouched position with shoulders rolled forward
b. Chin tilted upward with head extended backward
c. Feet flat on the floor, knees at hip level, and back supported
d. Crossed legs and arms folded across the chest
5. How might the sitting starting position be utilized in a rehabilitation setting?
a. To assess static balance and postural control
b. To measure maximal strength and power output
c. To evaluate dynamic movement patterns and agility
d. To monitor cardiovascular endurance and aerobic capacity
6. How does the large base in the sitting starting position contribute to its effectiveness?
a. It increases the risk of tipping over during movement initiation
b. It reduces comfort and stability for the user
c. It provides a firm foundation for support and stability
d. It limits mobility and flexibility in the lower body
7. Which factor contributes to the discomfort experienced in the kneeling starting position?
a. Reduced pressure on the joints
b. Limited blood flow to the lower extremities
c. Increased stability and support
d. Flexed position of the hips and knees
8. Which muscle group is primarily responsible for maintaining the upright posture in the kneeling starting
position?
a. Hamstrings
b. Erector spinae
c. Deltoids
d. Quadriceps
9. How does the lying starting position compare to the standing starting position in terms of joint stress?
a. It places less stress on the joints due to reduced weight-bearing.
b. It places more stress on the joints due to increased stability.
c. It has no impact on joint stress compared to the standing position.
d. It leads to joint immobilization and stiffness.
10. What is a common usage of the hanging position in strength training?
a. Improving cardiovascular endurance
b. Enhancing lower body flexibility
c. Strengthening the grip and upper body muscles
d. Increasing balance and stability
 MSK
1. What does a positive Tinel's sign at the elbow indicate?
a. Ulnar nerve compression or entrapment
b. Radial nerve compression or entrapment
c. Median nerve compression or entrapment
d. Anterior interosseous nerve compression or entrapment
2. What is the primary maneuver performed during the Cozen's test?
a. Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
b. Resisted wrist flexion with the elbow flexed
c. Resisted elbow extension with the wrist extended
d. Resisted elbow flexion with the wrist flexed
3. How is Wartenberg's sign typically elicited?
a. By tapping over the ulnar nerve at the wrist
b. By palpating the radial artery at the wrist
c. By flexing the wrist and fingers against resistance
d. By extending the fingers and observing for abduction of the little finger
4. Which joint's resting position involves full extension and full supination?
a. trochlear joint
b. Radiohumeral joint
c. Radioulnar joint
d. Humeroradial joint
5. What is the end feel of elbow extension when the olecranon process contacts the olecranon fossa?
a. Tissue approximation
b. Bone-to-bone
c. Tissue stretch
d. Empty
6. What is the capsular pattern of the radiohumeral joint?
a. Flexion, extension
b. Extension, pronation
c. Flexion, extension, supination, pronation
d. Flexion, supination
7. In Pronator Teres Syndrome, compression or irritation occurs to which nerve?
a. Radial nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
8. What is the primary purpose of mobilization techniques for the proximal radioulnar joint?
a. To improve elbow flexion range of motion
b. To stabilize the wrist joint
c. To restore pronation and supination movements
d. To strengthen the biceps and triceps muscles
9. A patient presents with restricted supination range of motion at the radioulnar joint following a traumatic
injury. Upon assessment, the therapist identifies a blockage during passive supination. Which mobilization
grade is most appropriate for this scenario?
a. Grade I mobilization
b. Grade II mobilization
c. Grade III mobilization
d. Grade IV mobilization
10. When the ulna moves on the trochlea of the humerus during elbow flexion, what type of glide occurs?
a. Posterior glide
b. Anterior glide
c. Medial glide
d. Lateral glide
 MANUAL THERAPY
1. How does the sacral dimple aid in identifying the level of the sacrum during palpation?
a. A) It corresponds to the S1-S2 vertebral level
b. B) It corresponds to the S2-S3 vertebral level
c. C) It marks the transition between the sacrum and coccyx
d. D) It indicates the location of the sacral promontory
2. The sacroiliac joint is located between which parts of the pelvis?
a. A) Sacrum and ischium
b. B) Ilium and femur
c. C) Sacrum and ilium
d. D) Pubis and sacrum
3. Which motion at the sacroiliac joint is crucial for transmitting forces between the spine and lower
extremities during weight-bearing activities?
a. A) Flexion
b. B) Extension
c. C) Rotation
d. D) Nutation and counternutation
4. Which of the following factors can contribute to dysfunction or pain in the sacroiliac joint?
a. A) Trauma or injury
b. B) Pregnancy-related changes
c. C) Arthritis
d. D) All of the above
5. In which direction does the sacrum primarily transmit forces to the lower extremities?
a. A) Longitudinal direction
b. B) Transverse direction
c. C) Lateral direction
d. D) Anterior direction
6. Which of the following tests is primarily used to evaluate sacroiliac joint dysfunction by assessing pain and
mobility in the SI joint and surrounding structures?
a. A) Fair test
b. B) Faber test
c. C) Trendelenburg test
d. D) Lachman test
7. What is the intended effect of the Sacrum Base Dorsal mobilization technique on the SI joint?
a. A) To increase SI joint compression
b. B) To decrease SI joint compression
c. C) To induce nutation
d. D) To induce counternutation
8. In what position is the patient usually placed during the Sacrum Cranial mobilization?
a. A) Prone
b. B) Supine
c. C) Side-lying
d. D) Sitting
9. During the Ilium Ventral mobilization, where is the force typically applied?
a. A) Anteriorly on the ilium
b. B) Posteriorly on the ilium
c. C) Superiorly on the ilium
d. D) Inferiorly on the ilium
10. In a rehabilitation center, a diverse group of patients with complex musculoskeletal conditions is receiving
treatment. The therapist incorporates SI joint mobilization techniques into the rehabilitation protocols for
certain individuals to address specific issues related to the SI joint. Which of the following patient
populations would likely derive the greatest benefit from it
a. A 28-year-old marathon runner with iliotibial band syndrome.
b. A 35-year-old construction worker with chronic rotator cuff tendinopathy.
c. A 45-year-old individual with ankylosing spondylitis experiencing spinal stiffness.
d. A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with osteoporosis-related vertebral fractures.