Updates in FRS - Midterm Exam With Solution
Updates in FRS - Midterm Exam With Solution
Which of the following is not a duty of the International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS)
interpretations Committee?
a. To interpret the application of IFRS
b. To work directly with national standard setters to bring about convergence with IFRS
c. To provide guidance on financial reporting issues not specifically addressed in IFRSs
d. To publish draft interpretations for public comment
2. The process for developing an IFRS involves a number of stages. Following receipt and review of
comments on a Discussion Paper, what will be the next step undertaken by the IASB?
a. Publication of an Exposure Draft
b. Establishment of an Advisory Committee
c. Consultation with the Advisory Committee
d. Issue a final IFRS
3. Which one of the following would be recognized as an investment property under IAS40 in the
consolidated financial statements of ReyesCo?
a. A property intended for sale in the ordinary course of business
b. A property being constructed for a customer
c. A property held by ReyesCo as a right-of-use asset and leased out under a six-month lease
d. A property owned by ReyesCo and leased out to a subsidiary
4. ReyesCo is developing a new product and expects to be able to capitalize the costs. Which one of
the following would preclude capitalization of the costs?
a. Development of the product is not yet complete
b. No patent has yet been registered in respect of the product
c. No sales contracts have yet been signed in relation to the product
d. It has not been possible to reliably allocate costs to development of the product
7. The amendments to IAS 1 are effective for reporting periods beginning on or after:
a. January 1, 2021
b. January 1, 2022
c. January 1, 2023
d. January 1, 2024
11. What exception is provided in IFRS 16 regarding the recognition of assets and liabilities for
leases?
a. If the underlying asset has a high value
b. If the lease term is more than 12 months
c. If the underlying asset has a low value
d. None of the above
15. The IASB has deferred the effective date of IFRS 17 to:
a. January 1, 2019
b. January 1, 2020
c. January 1, 2021
d. January 1, 2022
19. The IASB has also published an amendment to defer the fixed expiry date of IFRS 9 to:
a. January 1, 2021
b. January 1, 2022
c. January 1, 2023
d. January 1, 2024
23. IFRS 16's amendments are effective for annual reporting periods beginning on or after:
a. January 1, 2019
b. January 1, 2020
c. January 1, 2023
d. January 1, 2024
24. Which standard sets out the overall requirements for financial statements?
a. IFRS 16
b. IFRS 17
c. IAS 1
d. IAS 8
26. Which financial statements are required as part of a complete set of financial statements under
IAS 1?
a. Statement of profit or loss and statement of cash flows
b. Statement of cash flows and statement of changes in equity
c. Statement of financial position and statement of profit or loss
d. Statement of changes in equity and statement of comprehensive income
27. When must an entity present a statement of financial position at the beginning of the earliest
comparative period?
a. Only when reclassifying items in financial statements
b. When making a retrospective restatement of items
c. When applying accounting policies retrospectively
d. In all financial statements
28. Which of the following reports is outside the scope of IFRSs according to IAS 1?
a. Financial reviews by management
b. Environmental reports
c. Value added statements
d. All of the above
29. How should an entity describe the level of rounding used in its financial statements?
a. In a separate section within the notes
b. In the statement of profit or loss
c. In the statement of changes in equity
d. On the face of the statement of financial position
31. According to IAS 1, when should an entity depart from an IFRS requirement, and what
disclosures are required in such cases?
a. Only in extremely rare circumstances; detailed disclosure of nature and reasons
b. In all cases where it conflicts with the Framework; no disclosure required
c. When it results in a net loss; general disclosure of departure
d. When requested by an external auditor; no disclosure required
32. Under the Conceptual Framework, how are financial statements normally prepared?
a. Assuming the entity is a going concern
b. Assuming the entity is in financial distress
c. Assuming the entity will liquidate its assets
d. Assuming the entity will merge with another entity
33. What basis of accounting does IAS 1 require for the preparation of financial statements?
a. Accrual basis
b. Cash basis
c. Modified accrual basis
d. Hybrid basis
34. According to IAS 1, when can assets and liabilities be offset in financial statements?
a. Always, as long as it improves presentation
b. Only when required by an IFRS
c. Only when permitted by an IFRS
d. Never, under any circumstances
35. What is the presumption regarding the frequency of preparing financial statements under IAS 1?
a. Biennially
b. Quarterly
c. Annually
d. Whenever the entity chooses
36. How does IAS 1 require an entity to classify assets and liabilities in the statement of financial
position?
a. Based on their market value
b. Based on their historical cost
c. Based on their liquidity
d. Based on their age
38. When is a long-term debt classified as non-current, even if it would otherwise be due within 12
months?
a. When it is not expected to be refinanced
b. When it is expected to be refinanced under an existing loan facility
c. When it is due to be settled within the normal operating cycle
d. When it is due to be settled within 6 months
39. Which of the following is a line item that must be included on the face of the statement of
financial position according to IAS 1?
a. R&D expenses
b. Goodwill
c. Operating income
d. Non-controlling interests
40. How should subtotals be presented in the financial statements according to IAS 1?
a. In an unclear and confusing manner
b. Consistently from period to period
c. Without any labels
d. With more prominence than required subtotals and totals
43. What information is required regarding share capital and reserves under IAS 1?
a. Description of the entity's customers
b. Description of employee benefits
c. Description of related party transactions
d. Description of rights, preferences, and restrictions
44. When may an entity use a net asset presentation in its financial statements according to IAS 1?
a. Always, as it is the preferred presentation method
b. Only when presenting financial statements to creditors
c. When the entity has no liabilities
d. When the entity chooses to do so
45. What method of accounting for income taxes is implemented by IAS 12?
a. Direct payment method
b. Comprehensive income statement method
c. Comprehensive balance sheet method
d. Deferred accounting method
48. What is the effective date for the application of the reissued IAS 12?
a. 1 January 1979
b. 1 January 1989
c. 1 January 1998
d. 1 January 2000
52. How is 'current tax' for the current and prior periods recognized?
a. As an asset only
b. As a liability to the extent it has not yet been settled
c. As both an asset and a liability
d. Neither as an asset nor as a liability
55. What is the tax base of an asset that has no tax consequences upon recovery?
a. Equal to the carrying amount
b. Nil
c. Equal to half the carrying amount
d. Determined by tax authorities
56. When was the IFRIC 23 Uncertainty over Income Tax Treatments issued?
a. 7 June 2017
b. 12 December 2017
c. 10 September 2010
d. 31 March 2009
57. What is the main objective of IAS 12?
a. To determine tax rates globally
b. To prescribe the accounting treatment for income taxes
c. To define tax-related terms and methods
d. To provide guidance on the calculation of tax payable
58. According to IAS 12, when should an entity account for the tax consequences of transactions?
a. Only at year-end
b. In the same way it accounts for the transactions themselves
c. As separate items in the balance sheet
d. Only when the tax rate changes
59. What is the formula for calculating 'deferred tax asset or liability'?
a. Temporary difference x Carrying amount
b. Carrying amount - Tax base
c. Temporary difference x Tax rate
d. Carrying amount x Tax rate
61. Which of the following is an exception to the recognition of deferred tax liabilities?
a. Liabilities arising from future predictions
b. Liabilities arising from initial recognition of goodwill
c. Liabilities arising from recognized assets
d. Liabilities from standard business operations
62. When is a deferred tax asset recognized for deductible temporary differences?
a. Always
b. Only when it's not related to a business combination
c. When it's probable that taxable profit will be available against which they can be utilized
d. Only in consolidated financial statements
64. In the context of IAS 12, what does 'current tax' refer to?
a. Tax payable or receivable in the current year
b. Tax payable in the coming year
c. Tax based on current assets
d. Tax recognized in the current financial statement
65. When was the amendment regarding "Deferred Tax related to Assets and Liabilities arising from
a Single Transaction" effective?
a. 1 January 2017
b. 1 January 2019
c. 1 January 2021
d. 1 January 2023
68. What is the treatment for the benefit of a tax loss which can be carried back to recover current
tax of a prior period?
a. Recognized as an asset
b. Recognized as a liability
c. Ignored for accounting purposes
d. Only considered if it exceeds a certain threshold
69. How are deferred tax assets and deferred tax liabilities primarily calculated?
a. Based on future tax rates
b. Using the formula: Carrying amount - Tax base
c. Using the tax rates/laws that have been enacted by the balance sheet date
d. At historical cost
70. If an item has a tax base but isn't recognized in the statement of financial position, what's its
carrying amount?
a. Equal to the tax base
b. Nil
c. Estimated based on future expectations
d. Recognized at fair value