Paper 1 All in One 7

REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 7
FLIGHT DISPATCH: CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1
Preparation Test 7 (PT7)
Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery
test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the
CAA Flight Dispatch paper 1 Examination
References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 7, PT7 and the
answer sheet.
Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against
you as an exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and
someone will attend to you.
DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 1

1-By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
a. lift and airspeed, but not drag
b. lift, gross weight and drag
c. lift, airspeed and drag
d. lift and drag, but not airspeed
2-If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up
b. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down
c. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down
d. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up
3-The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is:

a. to bring the aircraft into balance
b. to prevent flutter of the flying control surface
c. to reduce the control load to zero
d. to make it easier for the pilot to move the control surface in flight
4-A fixed trim tab on an aileron should:

a. be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve laterally level flight
b. not be adjusted once it has been set by the manufacturer
c. be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight
d. be adjusted from the cockpit to achieve laterally level flight
5-The purpose of a trim tab is:

a. to assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls
b. to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required
c. to provide feel to the controls at high speed
d. to increase the effectiveness of the controls
6-Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

A) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
B) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
C) is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
D) exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
7-Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?

A) High pressure and low temperature.
B) Low pressure and low temperature.
C) High pressure and high temperature.
D) Low pressure and high temperature.

8-Which of the following statements regarding the density of the air is correct?
A) Density decreases when the temperature is constant and the air pressure falls.
B) Density increases when the temperature rises and the air pressure falls.
C) Density decreases when the temperature is constant and the air pressure increases.
D) Density decreases when the temperature falls and the air pressure is constant.
9-What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
B) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
C) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
D) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
10-Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

A) CI
B) CU
C) SC
D) AS
11-A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

A. is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.
B. is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.
C. becomes stable by lifting it.
D. is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.
12-Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate

A. exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
B. exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
C. is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
D. is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
13-The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
A. reduced to sea level
B. at flight level
C. at height of observatory
D. at a determined density altitude
14-Convective clouds are formed;

A. in unstable atmosphere
B. in stable atmosphere
C. in summer during the day only
D. in mid-latitudes only

15-What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A. Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
B. Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
C. Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
D. Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
16-In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most
likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
A. 0° - 7°N.
B. 3° - 8°S.
C. 8° - 12°S.
D. 7° - 12°N.
17-Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?
A. In the vicinity of Dakar
B. Near the Canary Islands
C. At the latitudes of Gibraltar
D. At the latitudes of Algeria
18-On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a) Centrifugal pumps
b) Diaphragm pumps
c) Piston pumps
d) Gear type pumps
19-A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

a. In an air mass with cold mass properties
b. Behind of a stationary front
c. Ahead of a cold front
d. At an occluded front
20-Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the aircraft about its:

a) Longitudinal axis
b) Lateral axis
c) Centre of pressure
d) Vertical axis
21-A n Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a
serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
A) less than 10° .
B) 10° or more.
C) 2.5 or more
D) 1.5° or more.

22-What is the ILS Localizer frequency on the sample approach plate provided?
A) 332.5 MHz
B) 111.3 KHz
C) 111.3 MHz
D) 332.5 KHz
23-Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

A) 109.15 MHz.
B) 108.25 MHz.
C) 112.10 MHz.
D) 110.20 MHz.
24-What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
A) white - amber - blue.
B) blue - amber - white.
C) amber - white - green.
D) blue - green - white.
25-The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases
which compose the mixture corresponds to:
a) Dalton´s law
b) Boyle Mariotte´s law
c) Graham´s law
d) Henry`s law
26-Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?

a) White blood cells
b) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells
c) Plasma
d) Blood fat
27-Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by:

a) increased atmospheric pressure
b) accelerations
c) disorientation
d) decreased atmospheric pressure
28-The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

a) trim the aeroplane during normal flight
b) reduce or to cancel control forces
c) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed
d) lower manoeuvring control forces

29-When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch
propeller:
A) reduces
B) stays constant
C) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM
D) increases
30-On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
c) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
31-When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter
shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
b) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
32-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 3 mean?

A) Readable but with difficulty.
B) No problem to understand.
C) Loud and clear.
D) Unreadable.

A) Perfectly readable.
B) Unreadable.
C) Problem to understand.
D) Readable but with difficulty.
34-Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:

A) idling
B) full throttle
C) take-off
D) cruising speed
35-In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and
electrical circuits may be minimised by:
a) positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
b) using a vertically mounted gyroscope
c) the use of repeater cards
d) mounting the detector unit in the wingtip

36-The centre of gravity moving aft will:

a) decrease the elevator up effectiveness
b) increase the elevator up effectiveness
c) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location
d) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness
37-What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?

a) An increased static lateral stability
b) An increased static directional stability
c) A forward movement of the centre of gravity
d) An increased anhedral
38-Dutch roll occurs when:

a) lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability
b) Directional and lateral stability is equal
c) Directional stability is too great compared to lateral stability
d) Directional stability is compensated by ailerons
39-On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 11 000 ft
b) 13 000 ft
c) 12 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
40-A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

a) a runway visual range of at least 50 m
b) a runway visual range of at least 200 m
c) a runway visual range of at least 350 m
d) no runway visual range limits
41-A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

a) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft
b) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft
c) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft
d) no decision height
42-A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:
a) 100m
b) 250m
c) 50m
d) 200m

43-A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a
a) 250 m
b) 75 m
c) 200 m
d) 150 m
44-A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

a) a decision height of at least 200 ft
b) a decision height of at least 100 ft
c) a decision height of at least 50 ft
45-Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

a) Journey logbook
b) Operation manual
c) Flight manual
d) Operational flight plan
46-For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an
alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
a) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
b) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
c) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
b) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
c) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
48-On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of
fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a) 45 minutes at cruising speed
b) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed
49-On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
c) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
b) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine

B) No problem to understand.
C) Loud and clear.
D) Unreadable.

A) Perfectly readable.
B) Unreadable.
C) Problem to understand.
D) Readable but with difficulty.
53-What is the meaning of CHECK in radiotelephony?

a) Confirm your last transmission.
b) Examine a system or procedure.
c) Read back my last instruction.
d) I understand your message.
54-What does the word "cancel" mean?

a) Consider that transmission as not sent.
b) A change has been made to your last clearance.
c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
d) Wait and I will call you.
55-What does the word "acknowledge" mean?

a) Repeat all of your last transmission.
b) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
c) Pass me the following information.
d) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
56-What does the word "negative" mean?

a) Proposed action granted.
b) Consider that transmission as not sent.
c) Disregard last instruction.
d) Permission not granted.

57-What does the word "negative" mean?

a) I say again.
b) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
c) That is not correct.
d) Consider that transmission as not sent.
58-An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:

1. Mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention
2. Resignation, frustration, rage
3. Deterioration in motor coordination
4. High pitch voice and fast speaking
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

b) 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
59-A pilot is skilled when he: -

1: Trains or practices regularly
2: Knows how to manage himself/herself
3: Possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft
4: Knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2, 3,4
d) 1,2
60-Drag is in the direction of --- and lift is perpendicular to the:

a) longitudinal axis
b) horizon
c) chord line
d) relative wind/airflow
61-The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is
a) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift
b) the average chord of the actual aeroplane
c) the chord of a large rectangular wing
d) the wing area divided by the wing span
62-How do air masses move at a warm front?

a. Cold air over rides a warm air mass
b. Warm air over rides a cold air mass
c. Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
d. Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

63-A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

a. In an air mass with cold mass properties
b. Behind of a stationary front
c. Ahead of a cold front
d. At an occluded front
64-If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into
service and thereafter
a) at regular annual intervals
b) at intervals of 9 years
c) only if major modifications have taken place
d) at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place
65-An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and if
changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
a) 9 years for each aeroplane
b) whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed
c) 4 years for each aeroplane
d) whenever a major modification is carried out
66-What is the purpose of a control tabs?

a. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
b. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to a move a primary flight control.
c. Modify the downwash tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight control pressures.
67-In mass and balance calculations the “index” is:

A. an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken
B. the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly
C. is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment
D. a location is the aeroplane identified by a number
68-What is the readability scale of number 2?

A) Readable now and then
B) Unreadable
C) Readable but with difficulty
D) None of above

B) Readable.
C) Perfectly readable.
D) Unreadable.

70-During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
a) Mature stage
b) Tornado stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) Initial stage
71-Which region of the atmosphere is referred to as the boundary layer?

a. Layer between Tropopause and Mesopause
b. Layer between ground surface and one kilometer above
c. Layer between mean sea level and flight altitude
d. Layer between ground surface and ten metres above
72-The amount of water vapour which air can hold depends on the.
a. Air temperature
b. Stability of the air
c. Dew point
d. Relative humidity
73-Which of the parameters is measured in OKTAS?

a. Humidity
b. Cloud
c. Temperature
d. Pressure
74-A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at
the same time is?
a. An isobar
b. An isotherm
c. An isollabar
d. A contour
75-Generally as altitude increases:

a. Temperature, pressure and density decreases
b. Temperature decreases and density increases
c. Temperature and pressure increases and density decreases
d. Temperature increases and pressure and density decreases
76-Which of the following statement is not true of the definition of Temperature?

a. Temperature is the measure of the movement of molecules in a substance.
b. Temperature is defined as the degree of hotness or coldness of an object
c. The hotter the substance, the greater the movement of the molecules and the lower the temperature.
d. The cooler the substance, the slower the movement of the molecules and the lower the temperature

77-In which direction is wind reported.

a. The direction it is from
b. The direction it is heading
c. The direction it will change to
d. A constant direction
78-Which of the following air masses is the most dense?

a. cold and moist
b. Warm and moist
c. Cold and dry
d. Warm and dry
79-Which of the following is known as thunderstorm clouds?

a. Cirrocumulus
b. Altocumulus
c. Stratocumulus
d. Cumulonimbus
80-In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

a. Left by Coriolis force
b. Right by surface friction
c. Left by Pressure gradient
d. Right by Coriolis force
81-The density of the air has a significant effect on the aircraft's capability as the air becomes less
dense except
a. It reduces power because engine takes in less air.
b. It reduces thrust because the propeller is less efficient in thin air.
c. It reduces lift because thin air exerts less force on the aero foil.
d. It will require more fuel for take-off on a cold day because low temperature implies low density
82-The greater the pressure gradient the

a) closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
b) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
c) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
d) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
83-Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?

a) Stratocumulus
b) Cirrocumulus
c) Altocumulus lenticularis
d) Nimbostratus
84-After blood donation, a crew member must wait for at least how many hours before flying.
a. 12hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours.

85-Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

a) Pitching and rolling
b) Pitching and adverse yaw
c) Rolling and yawing
d) Pitching and yawing
86-One method to compensate adverse yaw is a

a) balance tab
b) differential aileron
c) antibalance tab
d) balance panel
87-Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct?
a) The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab
b) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller
c) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection
d) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind
88-The centre of gravity moving aft will:

a) decrease the elevator up effectiveness
b) increase the elevator up effectiveness
c) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location
d) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness
89-What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?

a) An increased static lateral stability
b) An increased static directional stability
c) A forward movement of the centre of gravity
d) An increased anhedral
90-Dutch roll occurs when:

a) lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability
b) Directional and lateral stability is equal
c) Directional stability is too great compared to lateral stability
d) Directional stability is compensated by ailerons
91-On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 11 000 ft
b) 13 000 ft
c) 12 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft

92-A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

a) a runway visual range of at least 50 m
b) a runway visual range of at least 200 m
c) a runway visual range of at least 350 m
d) no runway visual range limits
93-A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

a) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft
b) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft
c) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft
94-A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a
a) 100m
b) 250m
c) 50m
d) 200m
95-A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a
a) 250 m
b) 75 m
c) 200 m
d) 150 m
96-A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

a) a decision height of at least 200 ft
b) a decision height of at least 100 ft
c) a decision height of at least 50 ft
97-Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

a) journey logbook
b) operation manual
c) flight manual
d) operational flight plan
98-For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an
alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
a) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
b) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
c) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable

shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
b) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
c) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
100-On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of
fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a) 45 minutes at cruising speed
b) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed
END

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REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 7

FLIGHT DISPATCH: CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1

Preparation Test 7 (PT7)

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 1

2-If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

3-The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is:

4-A fixed trim tab on an aileron should:

5-The purpose of a trim tab is:

6-Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

7-Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 2

9-What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

10-Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?

11-A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

12-Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate

14-Convective clouds are formed;

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 3

15-What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

19-A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

20-Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the aircraft about its:

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 4

23-Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

26-Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?

27-Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by:

28-The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 5

32-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 3 mean?

33-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 5 mean?

34-Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 6

36-The centre of gravity moving aft will:

37-What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?

38-Dutch roll occurs when:

40-A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

41-A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 7

44-A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

45-Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 8

51-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 3 mean?

52-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 5 mean?

53-What is the meaning of CHECK in radiotelephony?

54-What does the word "cancel" mean?

55-What does the word "acknowledge" mean?

56-What does the word "negative" mean?

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 9

57-What does the word "negative" mean?

58-An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

59-A pilot is skilled when he: -

60-Drag is in the direction of --- and lift is perpendicular to the:

62-How do air masses move at a warm front?

DATS CAA PREPARATION Test # 7 Page 10

63-A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

66-What is the purpose of a control tabs?

67-In mass and balance calculations the “index” is:

68-What is the readability scale of number 2?