1 The amount of electricity consumed by a 100 Wa s fan running for 5

hours is

a) 0.1 kWh
b) 0.5 kWh
c) 1.0 kWh
d) 10 kWh

2 The condition at which the maximum temperature of flat plate

collector attains is
a) Useful heat gain is zero
b) Total heat loss is zero
c) Re-radiation and convection loss is zero
d) Heat flux received by the absorber is zero

3 In a combined cycle power plant, one gas turbine and one steam
turbine are combined to produce electricity. The efficiencies of the gas
and steam turbine are 40% and 50%, respectively. The combined cycle
efficiency is a) 58%
b) 62%
c) 70%
d) 55%

4 The rated power of a wind power plant is 5 MW. The annual capacity
factor of the plant is 0.31 and the efficiency is 36%. The annual
electricity generation is a) 4852.5 MWh
b) 4888.1 MWh
c) 4875.2 MWh
d) 4755.2 MWh

5 Which of the following is not a concentra ng type solar collector

a) Parabolic dish collector

b) Cylindrical parabolic concentrator
c) Liquid flat plate collector
d) Linear Fresnel collector

6 To generate power from concentrating

collectors a) Only beam radiation is used
b) Only diffuse radiation is used
 c) Both beam and diffuse radiations are used
d) Solar radiation is not used

7 Most of the solar radiation received on earth’s surface lies within the
range of
______
a) 0.2 to 0.4 microns
b) 0.38 to 0.78 microns
c) 0 to 0.38 microns
d) 0.5 to 0.8 microns
8
Which of the following best describes the working of central receiver
thermal power system?
a) Sunlight → heliostats absorb solar flux → central receiver →
turbine system
→ electricity
b) Sunlight → heliostats reflect solar flux → central receiver →
turbine system →electricity
c) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → turbine system →
central receiver
→ electricity
d) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → central receiver →
turbine system → electricity
9 The operating temperature of central receiver thermal power
system is a) 10 – 100 °C
b) 200 – 350 °C
c) 400 – 800 °C
d) above 1000 °C
10 Use of booster mirrors with flat plate
collector a) increases the reflaction to
atmosphere
b) decreases the reflaction to atmosphere
c) increases the diffuse radiation component on absorber
d) increases the beam radiation component on absorber

11 Rankine cycle efficiency of Concentrating Solar Thermal Power plant

is a) (ℎ3−ℎ4′) −(ℎ2′−ℎ1) / (ℎ3−ℎ2′)
b) (ℎ3−ℎ4′) −(ℎ3−ℎ2′) / (ℎ2′−ℎ1)
c) (ℎ3−ℎ2′) −(ℎ2′−ℎ1) / (ℎ3−ℎ4′)
d) (ℎ3−ℎ4′) −(ℎ1−ℎ2′) / (ℎ3−ℎ2′)

12 The value of heat removal factor of a flat plate collector lies in the
range a) 0 to 0.5
b) 0 to 1
c) 0.9 to 0.95
d) 05 to 0.6
13 In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine cycle
increases with _______
a) decrease in temperature of heat exchanger
b) increase in temperature of heat exchanger
c) the amount of heat supplied to the evaporator
d) the amount of cold air released from the system

14

The magnitude of current and voltage generation in a PV cell

depends on a) cell size
b) solar radiation intensity
c) cell material
d) All the above

15
Fill factor of a solar cell with the following characteristics is
VOC = 0.21 V, ISC = -5.5 mA, Vmax = 0.125 V, Imax = -3mA.
a) 0.452
b) 0.324
c) 0.534
d) 0.385

16
Amorphous solar cells are
a) Crystalline solar cells
b) Non-crystalline solar cells
c) Dye-sensitized solar cells
d) Organic thin layer solar cells

17 Maximum conversion efficiency Ƞmax of a solar cell is

a) (𝐹𝐹×𝑉𝑂𝐶×𝐼𝑆𝐶) / (𝐼𝑇×𝐴𝐶)
b) (𝐹𝐹×𝑉𝑂𝐶×𝐴𝐶) / (𝐼𝑇×𝐼𝑆𝐶)
c) (𝐹𝐹×𝐼𝑇×𝐴𝐶) / (𝑉𝑂𝐶×𝐼𝑆𝐶)
d) (𝐼𝑇×𝐴𝐶) / (𝐹𝐹×𝑉𝑂𝐶×𝐼𝑆𝐶)
18 In a solar cell, with the increase in cell
temperature a) The cell performance increases
b) The reverse saturation current decreases
c) The reverse saturation current increases
d) Packing factor decreases
19 solar cells having open circuit voltage of 5 V and short circuit current of
0.5A connected in series. The resultant voltage and current are a) 5 V,
2.5 A
b) 25 V, 0.5 A
c) 25 V, 2.5 A
d) 5 V, 0.5 A

20 PV source is supplying power to a load whose load line intersects the I-V
characteristics at 9 Volt and 5 Ampere. The maximum current and
voltage measured are 5 Amperes and 23 Volts. If the MPPT
(efficiency=95%) is interposed between the source and the load, the
additional power (Watt) gain
3will be

a) 48.5
b) 64.2
c) 56.8
d) 74.9

21 In a series string of mismatched solar cell

a) Full voltage and current capability can be attained and losses are
less b) Losses are less
c) Full current capability cannot be attained and losses are more
d) Full voltage capability cannot be attained and losses are more

22 The capacity utilization factor of a solar photovoltaic power plant is

defined as
a) The actual yearly energy yield from the system to the ideal
energy output of the array
b) The ideal energy output of the array to the actual yearly energy
yield from the system
c) The actual annual energy generated by the PV system to the
amount of energy the PV system would generate at full rated power
annually
d) The amount of annual energy the PV system would generate at
full rated power to the actual annual energy generated by the PV system

23 In deep discharge batteries, the allowed DoD

is a) 5%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 80%
24 A PV system of 12 V has two DC appliances A and B requiring 25 and
30 watts respectively. The average operational time per day is 6 hours
for device A and 3 hours for device B. The total daily energy
requirement (in Amperehour) for the devices will be a) 15
b) 8
c) 20
d) 25

25
Yawing mechanism is employed in a wind energy conversion system
to a) Control wind speed
b) Stop the wind rotor
c) Control the electricity generation

d) Keep the rotor in the wind direc on

26
80% of Betz limit is equivalent to ________, energy recovered from
wind energy
a) 47%
b) 57%
c) 59%
d) 41%
27 Tip speed ratio is defined as the
a) Ratio of the speed of the wind to the speed of the rotor tip
b) Ratio of the speed of the blade to the speed of the wind
c) Ratio of the speed of the rotor tip to the speed of wind
d) Ra o of speed of the blade to the speed of rotor p
28 The wind velocity at a height of 90 m from the ground is 9 m/s. For the
value of the power law index 0.3, the wind resource available at a
height of 140 m from the ground is ________. a) 9.21 m/s
b) 10.27 m/s
c) 14.56 m/s
d) 15.45 m/s

29 Based on the type of rotor, the turbine used for vertical axis wind
turbine is a) Savonius type
b) Wound rotor type
c) Propeller type
d) Mul ple blade type
30 Fixed speed Wind energy conversion systems are equipped with
________ generators.
a) squirrel-cage induction
b) squirrel induction
c) induction squirrel
d) doubly-fed induc on
31 A three-bladed wind turbine produces maximum power when the tip
speed ratio is equal to a) ᴫ
b) 0.75 ᴫ
c) 1.33 ᴫ
d) 0.5 ᴫ

32
The expected power output from a micro hydel system for a water
height of 18m and volume flow rate of 6.5 m3 /s is _______ kW. Assume
the turbine and generator efficiency as 0.95 and 0.72, respectively. a)785
b) 880
c)960
d) 1185

33
In India, small hydro power plant ranges
from a) Upto 100 kW
b) 101 kW to 2 MW
c) 2 MW to 25 MW
d) 2 MW to 10 MW

34 The discharge collected (m3/day) in a catchment area of 2 km2 at a rate

of 5.5 m3/s for 1 day is a) 135000
b) 196500
c) 264700
d) 475200

35 The function of the weir is

a) to store the water for peak-hour electricity generation
b) to regulate the flow of water for stable operation
c) to maintain the constant pressure inside the penstock
d) to maintain the speed of the turbine according to the demand

36 Cavitation occurs when

a) the water in the turbine leaks due to pressure difference
b) the pressure of the turbine is higher than the atmospheric pressure
c) the pressure of water falls below its vapour pressure in the turbine
d) the water in the turbine gets condensed

37 The function of ELC is

a) To supply constant electrical load from the generator of the
hydroelectric plant
b) To utilize the waste heat generated by the turbo generator in the
powerhouse
c) To adjust the frequency of electricity generation
d) To supply constant input power to the generator
38 The function of the draft tube is
a) To transform the kinetic energy of water into higher-pressure flow
for discharge into the tailrace
b) To prevent cavitation in the turbine blades
c) To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy at the turbine
runner exit
d) To increase the velocity of the flow of water through the
converging section

39 The speed governor is used

a) to regulate the quantity of water flowing through the runner in
proportion to the load
b) to control the speed of the turbine when demand is high
c) to control the speed of the rotating blades in reaction turbine
d) to control the discharge in the penstock

40 Which of the following reactions represents water-gas shift

reaction? a) 𝐶𝑂2+𝐻2𝑂→𝐶𝑂+𝐻2+𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
b) 𝐶𝑂+𝐻2𝑂→𝐶𝑂2+𝐻2+𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
c) 𝐶𝑂2+𝐻2𝑂+𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡→𝐶𝑂+𝐻2
d) 𝐶𝑂+𝐻2𝑂+𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡→𝐶𝑂2+𝐻2

41 1 mole of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion, gives 4 moles of CO2

and 5 moles of H2O vapour at STP. The hydrocarbon is: a) C4H6
b) C4H8
c) C8H10
d) C4H10

42 The optimum temperature range in Mesophilic zone

is a) 65-80°C
b) 45-60°C
c) 35-40°C
d) 20-25°C

43 Which of the following best indicates the steps inside an anaerobic

digester? a) Hydrolysis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis →
acidogenesis
b) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis
c) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → methanogenesis
d) Methanogenesis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → hydrolysis
44 The optimum C/N ratio for maximum biogas production is
________? a) 30:1
b) 15:1
c) 45:1
d) 60:1

45 Which among the following is a renewable method of hydrogen

production?
a) Methane steam reforming
b) Coal gasification
c) Thermal decomposition of water through solar energy d) All of
the above
46 In which method of hydrogen storage, adsorption/desorption of gas is
used? a) Compressed gas storage
b) Liquid storage
c) Solid state storage
d) Cryogenic storage
47 Which among the following fuel cells is insensitive to carbon
dioxide? a) PAFC
b) MCFC
c) AFC
d) SOFC
48 The optimum operating temperature range of SOFC is
____? a) 70-100 °C
b) 500-700 °C
c) 150-400 °C
d) 800-1000 °C

49 Alkaline fuel cells (AFC) are not used for terrestrial applications, as
KOH electrolyte used in
AFCs readily reacts with CO2 to form K2CO3 which limits the cell
life. a) True
b) False
50 The optimum operating temperature range of Phosphoric acid
fuel cell (PAFC) is 160-2100C a) True
b) False

51 Which of the following method is used to produce hydrogen from

fossil fuels?
a) Partial oxidation of Methane
b) Electrolysis
c) Evaporation
d) Biomass Gasification
52 Which of the following are advantages of fuel
cell? a) Higher volumetric and gravimetric
efficiency
b) Low thermal emissions
 c) Modularity
d) All of the above
53 If the closed circuit voltage (Vc) is given as 0.75 V and open circuit
voltage (Vo) is given as
1.12 V. Find the voltage efficiency of the fuel cell.
a) 66.96%
b) 33.04%
c) 16%
d) 49.33%
54
The continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust because
a) Continental crust consists of different layers compared to the
oceanic crust
b) Continental crust is richer in low-density material compared to
the denser, basaltic oceanic crust formed at mid-ocean ridges
c) Continental crust is denser due to its basaltic composition, while
oceanic crust is less dense due to its granitic composition
d) The ocean water effects the thickness of the crust over the
geological time
55
Geopressured systems are trapped under the pressure
range of a) More than 100 bar
b) More than 250 bar
c) More than 500 bar
d) More than 1000 bar

56 The geo-pressured system is saturated with mostly (1

point) a) CH4
b) CO2
c) CO
d) H2O

57 In a geothermal heat pump system, the compression cycle increases

the enthalpy of the gas from 600 kJ/kg to 680 kJ/kg. The heat
delivered to the building is 290 kJ/kg. The COP of the heat pump
system is a) 3.6
b) 0.27
c) 4.6
d) 0.42

58 The efficiency of the regenerative Stirling cycle

is a) Greater than the efficiency Carnot cycle
b) Half the efficiency of the Carnot cycle
c) Equal to the efficiency of the Carnot cycle
d) Less than the efficiency of the Carnot cycle
59 The energies that can be extracted from geo-pressurized system
are a) Thermal, mechanical, and chemical
b) Thermal, nuclear, and chemical
c) Electrical, thermal, and mechanical
d) Electrical, electromagnetic, and thermal

60 In a binary cycle geothermal power plant, the working fluid used to

transfer heat from the geothermal source to the power generation
unit is a) Water
b) Steam
c) Hydrogen
d) Organic Rankine fluid
61 OTEC plant is independent of
______. a) Weather variations
b) Temperature at a depth of 7 km from the ocean surface
c) Wind induced wave
d) All of the above
62 Which one of the following power generation system provides
steady power output without fluctuations?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Wave energy
d) OTEC energy

63 The minimum temperature difference required between the ocean

surface and deep water to operate an ocean thermal energy
conversion is _____. a) 20 oC
b) 10 oC
c) More than 30 oC
d) More than 40 oC

64 Which of the following cycles is mostly used cycle for

OTEC? a) Stirling cycle
b) Brayton cycle
c) Rankine cycle

d) Otto cycle
65 Which region is referred to as the best location for setting up an
OTEC plant?
a) Tropical region
b) Sub-tropical region
c) Equatorial region
d) None of the above
66 Which type of OTEC plant is built on top of a continental
shelf? a) Land-based OTEC plant
b) Floating OTEC plant
c) Shelf-based OTEC plant
d) None of the above
67 Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed-cycle
OTEC systems? a) Water
b) Thermic oil
c) Hydrogen
d) Refrigerants

68 Which characteristic is required in the working fluid of a closed-

cycle OTEC system?
a) High boiling point
b) Low boiling point
c) High viscosity
d) Low viscosity
69 To generate low-pressure steam warm seawater is pumped
through________.
a) Heat exchanger
b) Generator
c) Turbine
d) Condenser

70 “Filling period - Wai ng period – Genera on period – Wai ng period –

Filling period”. The following given cycle of opera on is for which type
of dal plant. a) Single basin single effect
b) Single basin double effect
c) Two basin with linked basin operation
d) None of the above
71 Looking at Indian conditions, which wave energy technology is found to be most
suitable?
a) Heaving float type
b) Heaving and pitching float type
c) Oscillating water column type
d) None of the above
72 Calculate the wavelength and wave velocity of a progressive sea wave with a
wave width of 100 m and time period of 5 s. a) 39 m, 7.8 m/s
b) 25 m, 6.4 m/s
c) 46 m, 8.6 m/s
d) 57 m, 5.9 m/s

73 Which factors determine the strength of an individual wave? a)

Speed of wind
b) Time of wind
c) Distance of wind
d) All of the above
74 crossflow tidal turbine can generate power from _____? a)
Incoming tides only
b) Outgoing tides only
c) Both incoming and outgoing tides
 d) Neap tides
75 The time difference between consecutive high tides and low tides is ____. a) 6
hours 10.5 minutes
b) 6 hours 12.5 minutes
c) 5 hours 10.5 minutes
d) 5 hours 12.5 minutes
76 Which of the following is a cause for the reduction of actual tidal power? a)
Friction losses of the fluid
b) Conversion efficiency of the turbine and generator
c) The turbine needs to be stopped when the head falls below a minimum
value d) All of the above
77 The wave velocity is independent of the ____. a)
Amplitude
b) Time period
c) Wavelength
d) None of the above
78
The most important criteria for selecting sensible heat storage
is a) Volume of the material
b) Volumetric heat capacity of the material
c) Heat of fusion of the material
d) Melting and solidification temperature of the material

79
Steam accumulators are employed to
a) To produce steam during high demand in a power plant
b) To convert steam into water and recirculate the water for the
next cycle
c) To Inject the excess boiler steam to raise the accumulator
pressure; released when plant steam demand rises
d) To act as an external heat source for the boiler when the steam
requirement is high

80 In the case of thermochemical storage, thermal energy storage is done

by a) Endothermic reaction of different reactants
b) Exothermic reaction of different reactants
c) Either endothermic or exothermic reaction based on the materials
d) Exothermic breakage reaction of products

81 The thermal turnaround efficiency of sensible heat storage of a power

plant depends on
a) Specific heat of saturated steam
b) Mass of the saturated water

c) Overall Heat transfer coefficient of the accumulator

d) Ambient temperature
82 Calculate the power in MW generated by a pumped hydro system
with a potential hydraulic height differential between reservoirs of
100 m and a volumetric flow rate of 1000 m3/s through a hydraulic
turbine with an efficiency of 0.8. a) 564.7
b) 784.8
c) 1039.4
d) 1435.6

83 What is the electrolyte in Na-S batteries?

a) Lithium salt
b) Alkaline solution
c) Sulphuric acid
d) Molten salt

84 The primary chemical reaction that occurs in a lead-acid battery during

discharge is
a) Oxidation of lead-to-lead sulfate at the cathode
b) Reduction of lead dioxide to lead at the anode
c) Oxidation of lead dioxide to lead sulfate at the anode
d) Reduction of lead dioxide to lead sulfate at the cathode

85 Which of the following represents the present value of building and operating a
plant over an assumed lifetime?
a) LCOE
b) IRR
c) NPV
d) None of the above
86 Which of the following energy source has the highest net energy ratio? a)
Oil
b) Coal
c) Hydropower
d) Nuclear
87 Which of the following option is an example of total energy approach? a)
Cogeneration of power plant and heat
b) Multi fluid coupled cycle
c) Continuous running of plants at maximum load
d) All of the above
88 Cogeneration is defined as the combined production of power and useful thermal
energy by the sequential use of fuel or fuels. a) True
b) False

89 Net cash flow = Receipt – Disbursement a)

True
b) False
90 The condition for feasibility of cogeneration is ____. a)
ηco > ηc
b) ηco < ηc
c) ηco = ηc
d) None of the above
91 The condition for the project to be accepted.
 a) NPV > 0
b) NPV < 0
c) NPV = 0
d) All of the above
92 Which of the following statements correctly explains the concept of "life cycle
analysis"?
a) A way of figuring out the overall impact that a particular product has on
the environment in its entire existence.
b) A way of figuring out the impact that a particular product has on the
environment while it is being used by the consumer.
c) A way of figuring out what impact a product had on the environment
while being manufactured.
d) None of the above