MOCK RJS 3

1-When does the doctrine of implied admission can be invoked under

Section 58, Indian Evidence Act?
A. it can be invoked, when a party on whom the burden lies, fails to state facts
in support of his plea
B. it can be invoked, when the facts specifically alleged by a party in support
of his plea are not denied by the other party
C. it can be invoked only against a party who is under an obligation to allege
certain facts
D. all of them

2. Which of the following must be borne in mind by the Court, with

respect to identifying witnesses, to determine whether they are worthy of
being relied on?
A. the number of wrong persons picked out by the identifying witnesses
B. the consistency of the identification made at different times
C. sufficiency of men on parade
D. all of them

3. The accused was convicted of committing an offence of murder based

on the direct eyewitness statement stating that the accused was seen
stabbing the victim deliberately with a knife. However, the accused
contended that the prosecution hadn't proved the motive of the accused
to kill the accused. Decide.
a. The conviction ought to be reversed to acquittal as motive is an important
factor while deciding the guilt of the accused.
b. The conviction ought not to be reversed as the motive becomes an
unimportant factor when there's direct evidence proving the accused guilt.
c. The lack or absence of motive on the part of the accused is inconsequential
when direct evidence establishes the crime.
d. Both (b) and (c)

4. Which of the following is true of Section 42, Indian Evidence Act?

A. judgments relating to matters of public nature are declared relevant,
whether between the same parties or not
B. it forms an exception to the general rule that no one shall be affected or
prejudiced by judgment to which he is not party or privy
C. it admits as evidence all judgment inter partes would operate as res judicata
in a second
D. all of them

5. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?
A. Section 38
B. Section 40
C. Section 45
D. Section 31

6. A police officer calls on the prosecution witness before the Police

Station a day before the recording of their statements in court. The next
day the prosecution witness deposed against the accused. The defence
objected to the prosecution's witness statement citing that the police
tutored the witnesses to depose against the accused. Decide.
a. The accused wouldn't be acquitted as there is no bar for the police to tutor
the witnesses to depose in a certain manner.
b. The accused would be acquitted as it is impermissible for the police to tutor
the prosecution to depose in a certain manner.
c. The statement deposed by the prosecution witnesses should be discarded as
there arises an adverse inference against the prosecution case.
d. Both (b) and (c)

Q 7. The accused who was a 'child in conflict of law' under the Juvenile
Justice Act was convicted in a trial as an 'adult' without the preliminary
assessment regarding his physical and mental capacity to commit the
crime. Decide.
a. The conviction cannot be sustained as the mandatory requirements under
the JJ Act were not fulfilled.
b. Because the accused was a 'child in conflict of law' when the offence was
committed, therefore the preliminary assessment needs to be carried out by the
Juvenile Justice Board to ascertain his mental and physical capacity to commit
the crime.
c. It is only after the preliminary assessment that it would be decided whether
the Juvenile needs to be held in trial as an adult or not.
d. All of the Above.

8. The principle of approbate and probate is based on the maxim:

A. allegans contraia non est audiendus
B. allegans falsum non est audiendus
C. allegans factum uno non est audiendus
D. None of them

9. The question is, whether a certain document is the will of A. Applying

Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be
relevant?
A. The facts that, not long before the date of the alleged will, A made inquiry
into matters to which the provisions of the alleged will relate
B. A consulted vakils in reference to making the will
C. A caused drafts of other wills to be prepared of which he did not approve
D. All of them

10. When can it be said that a person commits or attempts to commit a

crime?
A. When he intends to commit that particular offence
B. When he, having made preparations and with the intention to commit the
offence does an act towards the commission
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them

11. Section 32 (1), Indian Evidence Act, has been enacted by the
legislature advisedly:
A. As a matter of necessity
B. As an exception to the general rule that, “hearsay evidence” is no evidence
and the evidence
C. Which cannot be tested by cross – examination of a witness is not
admissible in the Court of law
D. All of them

12. Which of the following is true of judgment under Section 41, Indian
Evidence Act?
A. It speaks about a judgment which will become applicable only when a final
judgment is rendered
B. Rendition of a final judgment which would be binding on the whole world
being conclusive in nature, shall take a long time
C. As and when a judgment is rendered in one proceeding, subject to the
admissibility thereof keeping in view Section 43 of the Indian Evidence Act, it
may be produced in another proceeding
D. All of them

13. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given?
A. Section 60
B. Section 55
C. Section 42
D. Section 65

14. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court expanded the
definition of "Vulnerable Witnesses"?
(a) Smruti Tukaram Badade v. The State Of Maharashtra
(b) State of Punjab v. Anshika Goyal
(c) Musst Rehana Begum vs State of Assam
(d) None of the above

15. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
presumption as to dowry death?
A. Section 113-B
B. Section 101-A
C. Section 102-B
D. Section 112-B
16. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans?
A. Section 32
B. Section 16
C. Section 36
D. Section 37

17. A has been in possession of landed property for a long time. He

produces from his custody deeds relating to the land, showing his title to
it. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is
possible?
A. The custody is proper
B. The custody is improper
C. It is not sufficient to prove his title without other evidence
D. None of them

18. According to the following when is a confession relevant under

Section 24, Indian Evidence Act?
A. If it is made after the impression caused by any such inducement, threat or
promise has been fully removed (Section 28, Indian Evidence Act)
B. If it is not made to a Police Office (Section 25, Indian Evidence Act)
C. If it is made in the presence of a Magistrate when the accused is in the
custody of a police-officer (Section 26, Indian Evidence Act)
D. All of them

19. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. It is

proved that he was in possession of a particular stolen article. Applying
Section 14, Indian Evidence Act, why, the fact that, at the same time, he
was in possession of many other stolen articles is, relevant/ irrelevant?
A. It is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew each and all of the articles of
which he was in possession to be stolen
B. It is not relevant as, it does not tend to show that he knew each and all of
the articles of which he was in possession to be stolen
C. It is relevant as, it tends to show that he knew who stole the goods
D. None of them
20. Section 41, Indian Evidence Act mainly deals with:
A. Property related cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
B. Homicide cases of Indian Nationals and executed in India
C. Wills of Indian Nationals and executed in India
D. None of them

21. The provision of which of the following section of the Indian Evidence
Act is based on the cardinal rule that the best available evidence should
be brought before the Court?
A. Section 60
B. Section 64
C. Section 91
D. All of them

22. Which of the following is the general principle on which the evidence
of written or verbal statements of relevant facts are made by the person is
admitted is that?
A. They are declarations made in extremity, when the party is at the point of
death and when every hope of this world is gone
B. They are made when every motive to falsehood is silenced
C. They are made when the mind is induced by the most powerful
considerations to speak the truth
D. All of them

23. A produces deeds relating to landed property of which he is the

mortgagee. The mortgagor is in possession. Applying Section 92, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following is possible?
A. The custody is proper
B. The custody is partial
C. The custody needs to justified by other evidence
D. None of them

24. A wishes to prove a dying declaration by B. Applying Section 104,

Indian Evidence Act:
A. A does need to prove B’s death
B. A must prove B’s death
C. Either (A) and (B)
D. None of them

25. Section 15, Indian Evidence Act deals with:

A. Facts bearing on the question whether a particular act was accidental or
intentional
B. Facts whether a particular act was done with a particular knowledge or
intention
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of them

26. It is proposed to prove a fact (A) which is said to have been the cause
or effect of a fact in issue. There are several intermediate facts (B, C, and
D) which must be shown to exist before the fact (A) can be regarded as
the cause or effect of the fact in issue. Applying Section 136, Indian
Evidence Act:
A. The Court may permit A to be proved before B, C and D is proved
B. The Court may require proof of B, C and D before permitting proof of A
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them

27. The question is, whether A has been guilty of cruelty towards B, his
wife. Applying Section 14, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following
facts can be relevant?
A. Expressions of their feeling towards each other shortly before the alleged
cruelty are relevant facts
B. Expressions of their feeling towards each other shortly after the alleged
cruelty are relevant facts
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of them

28. The question is, whether A was robbed. Applying Section 8, Indian
Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?
A. The fact that, soon after the alleged robbery he made a complaint relating
to the offence, the circumstances under which the complaint was made
B. The terms in which, the complaint was made
C. Though she did not make a complaint however she said that she had been
robbed as a dying declaration
D. All of them

29. What is most important ingredient of Section 27, Indian Evidence Act,
regarding the information given to a Police Officer by accused person?
A. The person must be trial
B. The person must be in the custody of the a Police Officer
C. The police officer must be the investigating officer
D. None of them

30. Which of the following factors must be kept in mind by the Court
while considering extra-judicial confession?
A. To whom it is made
B. The time and place of making it
C. The circumstances, in which it is made
D. All of them

31. Which of the following is true of Section 10, Indian Evidence Act?
A. It applied to acts and declarations of one of body of conspirators in respect
of the common design of all
B. Everything said or done by any of the conspirators in furtherance of the
common object is evidence against each all of the parties concerned, whether
they are present or absent
C. It is intended to make evidence communication between different
conspirators, while the conspiracy is going on, with reference to the carrying
out of the conspiracy
D. All of them

32. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
the power of jury or assessors to put questions?
A. Section 156
B. Section 178
C. Section 157
D. Section 166

33. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
presumption as to genuineness of certified copies?
A. Section 75
B. Section 79
C. Section 69
D. Section 72

34. Under Section 26, Indian Evidence Act, a confession made by a person
in the custody of the police is admissible if:
A. It is made to the police officer in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
B. It is made in the custody of the police officer to a magistrate
C. It is made in the custody of the police officer in the immediate presence of
a Magistrate
D. None of them
35. Under the Indian Evidence Act, matters other than which of the
following statements of witnesses and documents produced for the
inspection of the Court, are not evidence according to the definition of the
Act?
A. A confession or a statement of an accused in a trial; statements made by the
parties when examined otherwise than as witnesses; demeanour of any witness
under examination
B. The result of local investigation or local inspection
C. Material objects other than documents such as weapons, tools stolen
properties etc
D. All of them

36. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
facts relevant when right or custom is in question?
A. Section 13
B. Section 15
C. Section 19
D. Section 20

37. A is accused of receiving stolen property knowing it to have been

stolen. It is proposed to prove that he denied the possession of the
property. Applying Section 136, Indian Evidence Act:
A. The relevancy of the denial depends on the identity of the property
B. The Court may, in its discretion, require the property to be identified before
the denial of the possession is proved
C. The Court may permit the denial of the possession, to be proved before the
property is identified
D. All of them

38-The principle that statement of facts contained in a newspaper is

merely hearsay has recently been reiterated by the Supreme Court in-
(a) Laxmi Raj Shetty v. State of T.N.
(b) Joseph M. Puthussery v. T.S. John
(c) Quamarul Ismam v. S.K. Kanta
(d) Baburao Bagaji Karemore v. Govind

39. Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor is related to

(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 13

40-A confession even consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not

necessary for the relevancy of a confession that it should be
communicated to some other person", was held in the case of:
(a) Shankaria v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Boota Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Sahoo v. State of U.P.
(d) Nishikant Jha v. State of Bihar

41. Photofit, i.e. superimposed photograph of the deceased over the

skeleton of a human body (skull) recovered from a tank to prove the fact
that the skeleton was that of the deceased was held to be admissible by the
Supreme Court of India in the case of:
(a) Ram Lochan v. State of West Bengal
(b) State of Haryana v. Hari Ram Yadav
(c) Hiralal v. State (NCT) of Delhi
(d) Mehraj Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh

42. Even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the

Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it was held by the Apex Court in—
(a) Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat
(b) Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta and Ors.
(c) Ram Prakash v. State of Punjab
(d) Nathu Singh v. State of U.P.

43. Which one of the following is a leading case on "entries in books of

account ... when relevant"?
(a) R. v. Govinda
(b) Pakla Narayan Swamy v. King Emperor
(c) Moti Singh v. State of U.P.
(d) L.K. Advani v. C.B.I.

44. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound

mind and the medical certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a
statement and not the state of mind at the crucial moment; in which of
the following cases the court said that the statement could not be relied
upon?
(a) Ravi Chander v. State of Punjab
(b) Shripatrao v. State of Maharashtra
(c) Uka Ram v. State of Rajasthan
(d) Baldev Raj v. State of H.R.

45. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act is founded upon the doctrine
laid down in which one of the following case?
(a) Banwari Lal v. Sukhdarshan
(b) Pikard v. Sears
(c) B. Coleman v. P.P. Das Gupta
(d) Vishnu Datt Sharma v. Dayasharan.

46. Section 114-A was introduced in the Indian Evidence Act after
widespread protest against which judgement?
(a) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra
(b) Moginbai v. State of Gujarat
(c) Harpal Singh Case
(d) Pramod Mehto Case

47. "Evidence obtained by undesirable means is admissible if it is

otherwise relevant." The court said so in
(a) Pushpa Devi M. Jatia v. M.L. Wadhawa
(b) Hurprashad v. Sheo Dayal
(c) Kalpnath Rai v. State of Maharashtra
(d) Rouny v. State of Maharashtra

48. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that, "where
the witness became confused in the course of his examination, the Court
could put questions to him to elicit the truth?
(a) State of Rajasthan v. Eni
(b) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar
(c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
d) Lila Dhar v. State of Rajasthan.

49-As far as the comparison between ocular evidence and the opinion of
medical experts goes, which statement is correct in this regard?
a) Medical expert opinions should always take precedence over eyewitness
accounts.
b) Ocular evidence should be considered only if it matches the medical expert
opinions.
c) Ocular evidence holds greater importance than the opinion of medical
experts.
d) The opinion of medical experts is the sole determinant of guilt in criminal
trials.
50. In which case, the Supreme Court recently held that a Certified Copy
Can Be Produced To Prove the Original Sale Deed In Trial?
a) Mina Pun v. State of U.P. 2023
b) Drakshayanamma v. Girish, 2023
c) Appaiya vs Andimuthu@ Thangapandi & Ors, 2023
d) State of Punjab v. Shika Trading Co., 2023

51. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 allows for the
admissibility of certified copies of public documents as secondary
evidence?
a) Section 65
b) Section 74
c) Section 77
d) Section 79

52. How does Section 74(2) of the Indian Evidence Act define "public
documents"?
a) Documents accessible to the general public
b) Documents created by government officials
c) Public records kept of private documents
d) Documents available for public inspection

53. What does Section 79 of the Indian Evidence Act pertain to regarding
certified copies?
a) It pertains to the admissibility of certified copies without any conditions.
b) It pertains to the genuineness of certified copies without any presumptions.
c) It pertains to the presumption as to the genuineness of certified copies
under certain conditions.
d) It pertains to the admissibility of uncertified copies in evidence.

54. In the context of Section 27 of the Evidence Act, what are the two
essential conditions that must be met for a confession made to the police
to be admissible?
a) The individual must be in police custody, and the confession must relate to
an offense.
b) The individual must be accused of an offense, and the confession must be
made to a police officer.
c) The individual must be in police custody, and the confession must be
voluntary.
d) The individual must be accused of an offense, and the confession must be
in writing.

55. The Supreme Court recently held that it's High Time To Have a Code
Of Investigation For Police So That the Guilty Don't Walk Free On
Technicalities?
a) Rajesh v the State of MP, 2023
b) Odi Jerang v. Nabajyoti Baruah, 2023
c) Ankita v. State(NCT) Delhi, 2023
d) Subhashni v. State of Jharkhand, 2023

56. It was claimed by the police that the recovery of the evidence was
done based on the statements made by the accused under Section 27 of
the Evidence Act, 1972, however, the accused pleaded that the recovery
was not done based on the Section 27 statements as the prosecution failed
to establish that nobody knew of the existence of the dead body at the
place from where it was recovered. Decide.
a. The conviction cannot be set aside merely because the prosecution knew
about the discovery of the evidence before the recovery statements made by
the accused.
b. The conviction can be set aside as no one should know about the recovery
of evidence before the accused recovery statement under Section 27.
c. The conviction can be set aside once the prosecution fails to prove that no
one knew about the discovery of the evidence before the accused S. 27
statements.
d. Both (b) and (c)

57. In which case did the Supreme Court emphasize that 'may' in Section
19(1) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act should
be read as 'shall'?
A. Chandra Pratap Singh v. State of MP 2023
B. State of Rajasthan v. Gautam s/o Mohanlal 2023
C. Ajeet Gurjar v. The State Of Madhya Pradesh, 2023
D. Naresh @ Nehru v. State of Haryana 2023

58-According to a recent Supreme Court judgment what is the nature of

a plea of alibi, and who bears the burden of proof for this plea?
a) It is part of the General Exceptions under the IPC, and the burden is on the
prosecution
b) It is part of the General Exceptions under the IPC, and the burden is on the
defense
c) It is a rule of evidence under Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, and the
burden is on the person taking the plea
d) It is a rule of evidence under Section 20 of the Indian Evidence Act, and the
burden is on the prosecution

59-In which case did the Supreme Court lay down the principles to be
followed in situations with multiple dying declarations?
a) Chain Singh v. State of Chattisgarh 2023
b)Mohamed Ibrahim v. Managing Director 2023
c) Abhishek Sharma v. State(Govt of NCT of Delhi), 2023
d) Priyanka Kumari V. Shailendra Kumar 2023

60- Punishment for exploitation of juvenile or child employee amounts to

(a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and also fine
(b) Imprisonment upto 3 years only
(c) Imprisonment upto 2 years only
(d) Imprisonment upto 1 year only.

61. The offences under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2000 are
(a) Bailable
(b) None-bailable
(c) Cognizable
(d) Non-Cognizable.
62. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2000 which authority is empowered to establish both "Children's Homes"
and "Shelter Homes"?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Governments
(c) NGOs
(d) Juvenile Justice Board.

63-Under the Juvenile Justice (care and protection of children)Act, 2015,

'heinous offences', includes the offences for which the minimum
punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law
for the time being in force is
(a) Imprisonment for five years or more
(b) Imprisonment for seven years or more
(c) Capital punishment or imprisonment for life
(d) Imprisonment for ten years or more.

64. A person born on 14.01.2001 committed an offence punishable under

Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code on 14.01.2019. Which court is
competent to deal with his case of trial?
(a) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(b) Juvenile Justice Board
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) Session court

65. Who, as per Section 2(13) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection
of Children) Act, 2015, is a 'Juvenile in Conflict with law'?
(a) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not
completed eighteen years of age as on the date of commission of such offence.
(b) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not
completed twelve years of age on the date of commission of such offence.
(c) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an office and has not
completed sixteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
d) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not
completed fourteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence.

66-How many fundamental principles are provided in Section 3 of the

Juvenile Justice (care and protection of children)Act, 2015?
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 18

67. In which of the following situations, the general principle of

presumption of innocence of a child in conflict with law shall not be
applicable?
(a) When the child is charged for the offence of murder punishable
(b) When the child is charge for the offence of gang rape punishable under
Section 376(2) (g) of IPC
(c) Where the Juvenile Justice Board has passed an order under Section 15
read with Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act that the child should be tried as an adult
(d) None of the above

68. Where, after inquiry under Section 15 of the Juvenile Justice (care
and protection of children) Act, 2015, the Juvenile Justice Board is
satisfied that a child above 16 years of age, has committed a heinous
offence and should be tried as an adult, it may.
(a) Commit the case to the Sessions Court concerned for trial of the child as
an adult.
(b) Try the child as per the procedure provided in Cr.P.C.
(c) Return the charge-sheet to the Investigating Officer for presentation in the
court concerned.
(d) Transfer the case to the Children Court for trial of the child as an adult.

69. Which of the following cannot be a ground to deny bail to person, who
is apparently a child in conflict with law
(a) When the offence alleged against such person is a heinous offence and the
child has ordered to be tried as an adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile
Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act.
(b) When there are reasonable grounds to believe that the child may come into
association with known criminal if released on bail
(c) May be exposed to moral, physical or psychological danger
(d) That the person released on bail would defeat the ends of justice

70. When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial,
is declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children Act upon crossing the age of 18 years during the
course of trial, which of the following option is available to the trial court
in such a situation?
(a) To allow the child to go home after advise or admonition
(b) To drop the proceedings and released the child from custody forthwith
(c) To direct the child to be released on probation of good conduct
(d) Send the child to a place of safety

71-Which of the following orders may not be passed by the Juvenile

Justice Board after conducting inquiry of a child in conflict with law:
(a) Direct the child to attend a school
(b) Direct the child to attend a vocational training centre.
(c) Sentence the child to imprisonment till he attains 18 years of age.
(d) Direct the child to perform community service.

72-. An accused was tried for triple murder and sentenced to life
imprisonment. The conviction was confirmed by the Supreme Court.
After serving substantial years in prison, the convict filed a petition
before the Judicial Magistrate Court raising the plea of juvenility.
Which of following is correct-
(a) The petition before the Judicial Magistrate is maintainable
(b) The petition ought to be filed before the trial court
(c) The petition should be filed before the Supreme Court which had last
confirmed the life imprisonment
(d) The petition should be filed only before the Juvenile Justice

73-The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act, 2018, seeks to give power to

the —— to issue adoption order
1- District collector
2-District Magistrate
3- High court
4- District Court

74-. Where an offence under the Juvenile Justice (care and protection of
children) Act, 2015 Punishable with imprisonment for less than three
years, then shall be:
(a) Cognizable, bailable and triable by Magistrate of the First Class
(b) Cognizable, non - bailable and triable by Magistrate of the First
(c) Non cognizable, bailable and triable by any Magistrate.
(d) Non cognizable, non bailable and triable by any Magistrate.

75-. Which statement with reference to Section 101 of the Juvenile Justice
(care and protection of children)Act, 2015, is wrong?
(a) An appeal shall lie against an order of the Board before the Children's
Court.
(b) A second appeal shall lie from any order of the Court of Sessions, passed
in appeal under Section 101(2) before the High Court.
(c) Any person aggrieved by an order of the Children's Court may file an
appeal before the High Court.
(d) No appeal shall lie from any order made by a committee inrespect of
finding that a person is not a child in need of care and protection.

76- किस किकि िो किन्दी िो राजभाषा बनाने िा कनर्णय किया गया ?

• (A) 26 जनवरी, 1950 ई०
• (B) 14 सितम्बर, 1949 ई०
• (C) 14 सितम्बर, 1950 ई०
• (D) 15 अगस्त, 1947 ई०
77-संकिधान िे अनुच्छे द 351 में किस किषय िा िर्णन िै ?
• (A) उच्चतम न्यायालय की भाषा
• (B) पत्राचार की भाषा
• (C) सिन्दी के सवकाि के सलए सनदेश
• (D) िंघ की राजभाषा
78-घ' िा उच्चारर् स्िान िौन-सा िै ?
• (A) कंठ
• (B) तालु
• (C) दत ं
• (D) मर्द् ू ाा
79- इत्याकद िा सिी सकं ध-किच्छे द िै ?
• (A) इसत + यासद
• (B) इत् + आसद
• (C) इसत + आसद
• (D) इत + यासद
80- आशीिाणद िा सिी संकध किच्छे द िै ?
• (A) आसश + वाद
• (B) आशी: + वाद
• (C) आशीर + वाद
• (D) इनमे िे कोई निीं
81-परोपिार में प्रयुक्त संकध िा नाम िै ?
• (A) गण ु
• (B) वृसर्द्
• (C) यण िंसि
• (D) सविगा
82-अिनि शब्द में प्रयक्तु उपसगण िै ?
• (A) अ
• (B) अव
• (C) अवन
• (D) नत
83-कनिाणकसि में प्रत्यय िै ?
• (A) इक
• (B) सन
• (C) इत
• (D) सित
84-कनम्न में िौन सा पद अव्ययीभाि समास िै ?
• (A) आचारकुशल
• (B) प्रसतसदन
• (C) कुमारी
 • (D) गृिागत
85- नीचे कदए गये कििल्पों में से िदभि शब्द िा चयन िीकजये ?
• (A) मि ुँु
• (B) प्रलाप
• (C) ममा
• (D) बैंक
86-What is meant by bold words in the given sentence?
Sentence – Major Karan Singh broke the ice regarding the security of the soldiers.
( a ) hid a matter
( b ) forbade
( c ) spoke
( d ) created a scene

87-She will not meet you ……… to her office.

( a ) until you go
( b ) until you don’t go
( c ) unless you don’t go
( d ) until you hardly go

88-Cautious is most dissimilar to

A. reasonable
B. careful
C. illogical
D. reckless

89-Lure is most similar to

A. tickle
B. decoy
C. resist
D. suspect

90-Mania for stealing articles

1- Hypomania
2- Kleptomania
3- Logomania
4- Stelomania
91-An office for which no salary is paid
1. Hospitable
2. Free
3. Honorary
4. Gratis

92-Choose the correct spelling :

1. Amatuer
2. Amature
3. Amateur
4. Ameteur

93- With open arms

1. Warmly
2. Cold blooded
3. Resemble
4. Coldly

94-To cry wolf

1. To refer to
2. To emphasise
3. To have no result
4. To give false alarm

95-Baker's Dozen
1. Twelve
2. Ten
3. Thirteen
4. Fifteen
96- Active and Passive Voice Questions and Answers
This problem __________ by your brother yesterday.
A.Was solved
B.Is solved
C.Will be solved
D.Solves

97-his exercise will ______________ at home.

A. Be doing
B. Have done
C. Do
D. Be done

98-I was preparing a meal yesterday.

a) A meal was prepared yesterday.
b) A meal was being prepared by me yesterday.
c) A meal has been prepared yesterday.
d) A meal had been prepared by me yesterday.

99-You are discussing something with an English-speaking colleague when they

suddenly say, "'Well, for all in tents and caravans ..." What is the most
likely explanation for what has just happened?
A. Your colleague has changed the subject to vacation plans.
B. Your colleague has gone crazy.
C. Your colleague has just made a joke based on the phrase "for all intents and purposes".
D. Your colleague and I are both secret agents, and this is our code phrase.

100-He looks upset, I think he took the criticism_____ heart.

A). to
B). about
C). in
D). of