VELAMMAL

KNOWLEDGE PARK
BODHI CAMPUS - PONNERI

MERIT
SCHOLARSHIP TEST
SAMPLE PAPER

Class : (IX – X)
 MATHEMATICS
a −b b−c c−a  1+ x  1+ y  1+ z 
1. If x = ,y= ,z = , then the value of     is
a+b b+c c+a  1− x   1− y   1− z 
a) abc b) –abc c) 1 d) -1
2. Let A ( h, k ) , B(1,1), C (2,1) be the vertices of a right angled triangle with AC as its hypotenuse.
If the area of the triangle is 1 sq. units then sum of all values of k is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 8 d) -4
3. If A(a, b) and B(0, 0) are two fixed points. M1 is the mid point of AB , M2 is the mid point of
AM1 , M 3 is the mid point of AM 2 and so on. Then M5 is
 7 a 7b   15a 15b   31a 31b   63a 63b 
a)  ,  b)  ,  c)  ,  d)  , 
 8 8   16 16   32 32   64 64 
4. If h denote the arithmetic mean, k denote the Geometric mean of the intercepts made on
axes by the lines passing through (1, 1) then (h, k) lies on
a) y2 = 2x b) y2 = 4x c) y = 2x d) x + y = 2xy
5. The points (k, 2 – 2k), (1- k, 2k) and (-4 - k, 6 – 2k) are collinear then k =
1 1 1 1
a) −1( or ) b) − ( or )1 c) -1 (or) 1 d) − ( or )
2 2 2 2
6. If A ( 3, −4 ) , B ( 7, 2 ) are the ends of a diameter of a circle and C(3, 2) is a point on the circle,
then the orthocentre of the ∆ABC is
a) (0, 0) b) (3, -4) c) (3, 2) d) (7, 2)
7. A triangle with vertices (4, 0), (-1, 1), (3, 5) is
a) Isosceles and right angled b) Isosceles but not right angled
c) Right angled but not Isosceles d) Neither right angled nor isosceles
8. If ( x1 , y1 ) , ( x2 , y2 ) , ( x3 , y3 ) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle such that
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
( x1 − 2 ) + ( y1 − 3) = ( x2 − 2 ) + ( y2 − 3 ) = ( x3 − 2 ) + ( y3 − 3) then ( x1 + x2 + x3 ) + ( y1 + y2 + y3 ) =
a) 24 b) 0 c) 117 d) 27
9. The area of the pentagon whose vertices are (4, 1), (3, 6), (-5, 1), (-3, -3) and (-3, 0) is
a) 60 Sq.units b) 30 Sq.units c) 120 Sq.units d) 75 Sq.units
10. If P(1, 2), Q(4, 6), R(5, 7), S(a, b) are vertices of a parallelogram PQRS taken in order then
a) a = 2, b = 4 b) a = 3, b = 4 c) a = 2, b = 3 d) a = 3, b = 5
0
11. If 3, 5 be the distances between the parallel sides and 30 is the angle between the adjacent
sides of a parallelogram then its area is
15 15
a) b) 15 c) 30 d)
2 4
12. Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersects at O in such a way that
area (AOD) = area(BOC) then ABCD is
a) A parallelogram b) Trapezium c) Square d) Rhombus
13. If x be the real number such that x + 4x= 8 then the value of the expression x7 + 64x2 is
3

a) 124 b) 125 c) 128 d) 132

14. The quadratic equation x2 – 1088x + 295680 = 0 has two positive integral roots whose
greatest common divisor is 16. Then the least common multiple of the two roots is
a) 18240 b) 18480 c) 18960 d) 19240
15. Let a, b, c be three real numbers such that a+ b + c = 0 and a2+b2+c2=2. Then the value of
a4+b4+c4 is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2

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Paragraph (for Q.No – 16 – 18):
If P and Q are the mid-points of the sides CA and CB respectively of a ∆ABC , right
angled at C. Then
16. 4AC2 + BC2 =
a) AQ2 b) 4AQ2 c) 4BP2 d) AB2
17. 4BP2 =
a) 4AC2 + BC2 b) AB2 c) 4BC2 + AC2 d) 4AQ2
18. AQ2+BP2 =
5 5 5
a) AB 2 b) AC 2 c) BC 2 d) 5AB2
4 4 4
Paragraph (for Q.No – 19 – 20):

Every composite number can be expressed as a product of primes and this factorization
is unique except the order in which prime factors occures.

19. The number of non-trivial divisors of 2160 is

a) 40 b) 38 c) 12 d) 108
20. The sum of odd divisors of 360 is
a) 78 b) 68 c) 58 d) 50
21. In the given figure PA, QB and RC each is perpendicular to AC such that PA = x, RC = y,
z z P
QB = z, AB = a and BC = b. Then + = R
x y Q
x y
a) 0 b) 2 z
A C
c) 1 d) -1 a B b
22. If the sum of interior angles of a polygon is 3600 then the number of sides are
0

a) 12 b) 22 c) 24 d) 16
23. Which of the following triplet can make the sides of a triangle?
a) (15, 7, 8) b) (3.5, 4.5, 5.5) c) (2, 4, 6) d) (2, 3, 5)
5α 0 7α 0 0 0
24. A quadrilateral ABCD has four angles α , 2α , and respectively. Then the
2 2
difference between maximum and minimum angles is
a) 1000 b) 400 c) 800 d) 200

25. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 15cm and 10cm. If length of one diagonal of this
parallelogram is 20cm, the length of other diagonal will be is
a) 30 10cm b) 5 10cm c) 10 10cm d) 4 10cm
26. Let p and q be real numbers such that p ≠ 0 , p 3 ≠ q and p 3 ≠ − q . If α , β are non zero real
α
numbers satisfying α + β = − p and α 3 + β 3 = q then a quadratic equation having roots
β
β
and is
α
a) (p 3
+ q ) x 2 − ( p 3 + 2q ) x + p 3 + q = 0 b)( p + q ) x − ( p − 2q ) x + p + q = 0
3 2 3 3

c) ( p 3
− q ) x 2 − ( 5 p 3 − 2q ) x + p 3 − q = 0 d) ( p − q ) x − ( 5 p + 2q ) x + p − q = 0
3 2 3 3

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 area ( ∆ABC ) area ( ∆BGC )
27. If the medians of a ∆ABC intersect at G. Then the value of + =
area ( ∆AGB ) area ( ∆ABC )
1 10
a) b) 2 c) d) 1
3 3
28. If P, Q, R, S are respectively, the mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD and DA of a parallelogram
ABCD then area (PQRS) = λ area(ABCD) then λ =
1
a) b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
2
29. ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC, side BA is produced to D such that
AD = AB then ∠BCD is
π π π π
a) b) c) d)
2 3 4 6
30. If α , β and γ are zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = px + qx +rx+s. Then match the value of
3 2

column – I with that of column – II

Column - I Column – II
A) α 2 βγ + β 2γα + γ 2αβ I) r 2 − 2qs
s2
B) α2 + β2 +γ 2 II) q
s
C) 1 1 1 III) q 2 − 2rp
+ +
α2 β2 γ2 p2
D) 1 1 1 IV) qs
+ +
αβ βγ γα p2
A B C D A B C D
a) I III IV II b) IV III I II
c) IV I III II d) III II I IV
31. Statement – I: Between two irrational numbers, there exist infinite number of irrational
numbers.
Statement – II: Between two real numbers, there exist infinite number of real numbers.
a) Both statements I and II are correct b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
32. If α , β are the zeroes of the polynomial of f ( x ) = x 2 − px − p − c then
α 2 + 2α + 1 β 2 + 2β + 1
+ =
α 2 + 2α + c β 2 + 2β + c
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0
33. If the sides BA and DC of quadrilateral ABCD are produced as shown in the given figure.
Then.
D C
y a F

b x B
a) x + y – a = -b b) x + y- a = b
c) x – y = a – b d) 2(x + y) = a + b E A

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34. Statement – I: If a sum of a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral is 1800, the
quadrilateral is cyclic.
Statement – II: A line drawn through mid point of a side of a triangle, parallel to another
side equal to third side.
Which of the following options holds good ?

a) Both statement I and statement II are true

b) Statement I is true but statement
tatement II is false
c) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
d) Both statement I and Statement II are false
35. In a ∆ABC , P, Q, R are the mid –points
points of sides BC, CA and AB respectively. If AC = 21cm,
BC = 29cm and AB = 30cm. The perimeter of the quadrilateral ARPQ Q is
a) 91cm b) 51cm c) 60cm d) 70cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
36. The value of + + + + + + + is
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 4+ 5 5+ 6 6+ 7 7+ 8 8+ 9
a) 2 b) 2 c) 4 d) 0
37. ABC is a right angled triangle such that AB = AC and bisector
b of ∠A meets BC at D. Then
a) BC : AD = 2 : 1 b) BC : AD = 1 : 2 c) BC : AD = 1 : 1 d) None
38. If x = 2 − 3 then the value of x6 – 12x5 + 48x4- 64x3 + 2019 =
a) 2017 b) 2020 c) 2018 d) 0
39. In the given figure, AB || CD. Then the value of x is
a) 189 0 A B
400
b) 2800 x O
c) 2150
C 350 D
d) 2850
40. The linear equation 2x – y + 3 = 0 cuts the x –axis at (α , β ) . Then
2 2 4 4
a) ( 2α + 3) + ( 2 β − 3) = 9 b) ( 2α + 3) + ( 2 β − 3) = 9
3 3 6 6
c) ( 2α + 3) + ( 2 β − 3) = 0 d) ( 2α + 3) + ( 2 β − 3) = 81

PHYSICS
41. If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from B to A along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in a gravitational field of point mass m,
them
a) W1 =W2 = W3
b) W1 > W2 > W3
c) W1 < W2 > W3
d) W1 < W3 < W2

42. The figure shown the motion of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun
at one focus. The shaded area SAB is twice that of SCD. If t1 and t2 are the times taken by
the planet to move from A to B and C to D respectively, then
t
a) t1 = t2
b) t2 = 2t1
c) t1 = 2t2
d) None

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 9
43. An ice cube floats on water in a beaker with th of its volume submerged under water.
10
What fraction of its volume will be submerged if the beaker of water is taken to the moon
1
where the gravity is th that on the earth?
6
9 27 2
a) b) c) d) Zero
10 50 3
44. A vessel contains oil of density 0.8gm cm–3 floating over mercury of density 13.6gm cm–3.
A homogeneous sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half
in oil. The density of the sphere in gm/cm3 is
a) 3.3 b) 6.4 c) 7.2 d) 12.8
45. A rectangular block 5m × 4m × 2m lies on a table with its largest surface in contact with the
table. The work done to keep it so that block rests on the smallest surface is, if its density
is 600Kg m-1.
a) 352800J b) Zero c) 376000J d) 240000J
−1
46. A force applied by an engine on a train of mass 2.05 × 106 kg changes its velocity from 5ms
to 25ms-1 in 5 minutes. The power of the engine is
a) 1.025MW b) 2.05MW c) 5MW d) 6MW
47. The relationship between force and position is as shown in the figure. The work done by the
force in displacing the body from x = 1cm to x = 5cm is

a) 20erg
b) 60erg dynes
c) 70erg
d) 700erg cm
48. A bullet moving with a speed of 200ms-1 strikes a bag of sand and remains in it. The
masses of bag and bullet are 4.5Kg and 500g respectively. If the sand bag is free to move,
its speed is
a) 4ms-1 b) 10ms-1 c) 20ms-1 d) 40ms-1
49. A particle of mass 1Kg moves along X – direction with a constant velocity 2ms-1. A force of
2N is applied on it along Y-direction . Velocity of the body 4 seconds after the force is
applied.
a) 34ms −1 b) 3 34ms −1 c) 4 17 ms −1 d) 2 17 ms −1
50. A bucket containing water of depth 10cm is kept in a lift which is moving vertically
1
upwards with an acceleration which is equal to 1 times acceleration due to gravity. Then
2
pressure at the bottom of the bucket in N/m2 is
−3 −4
a) 250 b) 2500 c) 25 ×10 d) 25 ×10
51. A block of mass 50kg is pulled by a rope of length 6m on a surface by a force of 106N
applied at the other end. If linear density of the rope is 0.5Kg m-1, the force acting on 50kg
mass is
a) 106N b) 53N c) 100N d) 50N
52. A 60kg man stands on a spring scale in a lift. At some instant, he finds that the scale
reading has changed from 60kg to 50kg for a while and then comes back to the original
mark . What should be conclude? The lift
a) Was in constant motion upwards b) Was in constant motion downwards
c) While in motion downwards suddenly stopped
d) While in motion upwards suddenly stopped
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53. Check up the only correct statement in the following :
a) a body has a constant speed but it possesses varying velocity
b) a body has constant velocity but it possesses varying speed
c) a body having a constant speed cannot have an acceleration
d) none of these
54. The displacement time graph of a body moving along a straight line is as shown. Which of
the following graphs represents the velocity – time graph for the motion of that body?

55. A person walks a distance of 30m towards west with a speed of 2ms-1 and 40m towards
north with a speed of 1.5ms-1. Then average speed and average velocity for his journey.
6 −1 42 −1 42 −1 6 −1
a) ms , ms b) ms , ms c) 20ms-1, 25ms-1 d) 25ms-1, 20ms-1
5 25 25 5
56. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40sec. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 min 20 seconds?
a) 7R b) 2R c) 2π R d) 7π R
57. Two particles of same mass ‘m’ go round a circle of radius r under the action of there
mutual gravitational attraction. Then speed of each particle is
Gm Gm Gm Gm
a) b) c) d)
r 2r 4r 8r
9h
58. A body dropped from a height h. It covers a distance in the last second of fall. The
25
height h is
a) 102.5m b) 112.5m c) 122.5m d) 132.5m

59. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground and a boy gazing out of the window
sees it moving up past him at 9.8 ms–1. The window is 14.7m above the ground. The time
taken by the ball to reach the maximum height above the window is
a) 1s b) 2s c) 3 s d) None
60. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?
a) h/9 metres from the ground b) 7h/9 metres from the ground
c) 8h/9 metres from the ground d) 17h/18 metres from the ground

CHEMISTRY
61. The amount of Na2CO3(MW =106) required to get 0.2mole of NaHCO3(MW=84) is ……….g
a) 10.6 b) 5.3 c) 21.2 d) 7.62
62. Number of Mg atoms present in 4.8g of Magnesium metal is …………
a) 2.4 × 10 21 b) 3.6 × 10 21 c) 1.2 × 10 23 d) 1.2 × 10 22
63. An element with mass number 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons.
Assign the atomic symbol
a) 81
34 Br b) 81
35 Br c) 81
34 Te d) 81
36 Kr
18
64. Oxygen has three isotopes O 16 ,O 17 and O . Carbon consists of C 12 and C 13 isotopes.
How many types of CO2 molecules can be formed?
a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18
7
65. Which of the following set of ions are isoelectronic species?
a) Mn +2 , Fe +2 , Ni +2 b) V +2 , Co +3 , Cu +2 c) Cr +3 , Zn +2 ,S −2 d) P −3 ,Cl − ,Ti +3
66. Which of the following curve is correct representation of vapour pressure against
temperature?

V.P V.P V.P V.P

a) b) c) d)

T T T T
67. Which of the following statements are correct?
I) The boiling point of a solution containing non volatile solute is greater than that of pure
solvent
II) The temperature where the vapour pressure of liquid becomes equals to atmospheric
pressure is called its boiling point
III) Vapour pressure of pure solvent is less than vapour pressure of solution containing non
volatile solute
a) I, II only b) II, III only c) 1, III only d) All are correct
68. The diffusion of particles in a given colloidal solution is
a) Rapid than that in true solution b) Slower than that in suspension
c) Slower than that in true solution d) Equal as in true solution
69. Which of the following constitutes irreversible colloidal system with water as dispersion
medium?
a) Clay b) Platinum c) Fe(OH)3 d) All the above
70. Blue colour of the sky is due to
a) Brownian moment b) Tyndall effect c) Electrophoresis d) Electroosmosis
71. 5.6g of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen only, gave 17.6g of CO2 on
complete combustion. Then the percentage of carbon is ………
a) 85.7% b) 42.85% c) 80% d) 92%
72. Melting point of a given substance is a measure of purity of the compound. The melting
point of a given solid is the temperature at which solid melts at:
a) 0.1 atm b) 10 atm c) 1 atm d) 0.01 atm
73. Which of the following statements is not true?
a) Sublimation occurs, when vapour pressure of solid is equal to that of atmospheric
pressure
b) HgCl2, NH4Cl and I2 can undergo sublimation
c) Sublimation is an endothermic process
d) Sublimation is a purification technic applicable, when impurities are volatile
74. Which of the following statements are true?
a) From the mixture of benzoic acid and water, benzoic acid can be separated using
benzene as a solvent.
b) For simple distillation, difference in boiling points of two liquids should be 30 – 50K
c) For fractional distillation, difference in boiling points of component liquids of a given
mixture should be 10K
d) All the above statements are true
75. Which of the following statements is not true?
a) Evaporation is an endothermic process
b) Melting of a solid is exothermic process
c) Temperature of system remains unchanged at boiling point of liquids eventhough energy
is provided to system
d) Unit of pressure in SI system is pascal.

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76. An aqueous solution contains 24 g of KCl in 168g of water. Mass percentage of solute (KCl)
present in the solution is
a) 14.3% b) 12.5% c) 25% d) 75%
77. Which of the following combination is wrong?
a) Mist – Aerosol – dispersed medium – gas
b) Face cream – Emulsion – dispersed phase – liquid
c) Pumice stone – Aerosol – dispersed medium – gas
d) Milky gas – solid sol – dispersed medium – solid
78. When a liquid is vapourised, then the temperature of the system.
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains same d) Becomes 1000C
79. Which of the following is liquid at 20 C temperature?
0

a) Copper b) Francium c) Mercury d) Thorium

80. Find the number of moles of barium phosphate which contains 3.2 × 10 −3 grams of oxygen.
−5 −4 −3 −2
a) 2.5 × 10 b) 2.5 × 10 c) 2.5 × 10 d) 2.5 × 10

BIOLOGY
81. Identify the incorrect statement in the following
a) Collenchyma is a simple, permanent living tissue provides mechanical support to plants.
b) In certain conditions permanent living tissues produce meristems by dedifferentiation
c) Phloem is unlike xylem in that materials can move in both directions.
d) Cells of cork are dead and compactly arranged without intercellular spaces they also
have a chemical called lignin in their walls.
82. The girth of the stem (or) Root increases due to
a) Shoot apical meristem b) Root Apical meristem
c) Intercalary meristem d) Lateral meristem
83. Identify micronutrient in the following
a) Copper b) Calcium c) Magnesium d) Sulphur
84. Who suggested that all cells arise from pre existing cells?
a) Robert Hooke b) Leeuwen hoek c) Virchow d) Schleiden and Schwann
85. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs
a) Lysosomes b) SER c) Golgi complex d) Vacuole
86. The cell organelle concerned with formation of complex sugars like glycoproteins and
glycolipids
a) Chloroplast b) Golgi complex c) E.R d) Lysosomes
87. Identify correct statement in the following
a) Lysosomes contain powerful digestive enzymes which are active at basic pH
b) The central vacuole of some plant cells may occupy 50-90% of the cell volume
c) Mitochondria have single membrane covering and it is deeply folded
d) Leucoplasts are important for photosynthesis in plants
88. Which of the following is called store house of the cell?
a) Vacuole b) E.R c) Golgi complex d) Mitochondria
89. Which of the following cell organelles have their own DNA and ribosomes?
I) Chloroplast II) Mitochondria III) Golgi complex IV) Nucleus
a) I & II only b) I, II and IV only c) II only d) I, II, III, IV
90. Bacterial cell wall is composed of
a) Cellulose b) Chitin c) Peptedoglycon d) Suberin
91. The protozoan organism, Leishmania, that causes Kala-azar is spread by
a) Female culex mosquito b) Female Anopheles mosquito
c) Female tse tse fly d) Female sand fly
92. A person is suffering from the severe stage of an airborne disease. His lips and finger nails
are even turned bluish in colour. Identify the disease
a) Tuberculosis b) Pneumonia c) Common cold d) Asthma
93. The infective stage of malaria parasite to man is
a) Amoeboid stage b) Sporozoite stage c) Trophozoite stage d) Ookinete

9
94. Alexander Fleming who discovered the penicillin, while he was experimenting on
a) Pencilium notatum b) Pencilium chrysogerum
c) Influenza virus d) Streptococcus bacteria
95. The type of vaccine used against the prevention of tetanus is a
a) Attenuated whole agent vaccine b) Toxoid vaccine
c) Inactivated whole agent vaccine d) Sub unit vaccine
96. The type of cartilage that shows no growth is
a) Elastic cartilage b) Hyaline cartilage
c) Fibrous cartilage d) Both a & b
97. Sahiwal is a local breed of
a) Bos bubalis, of Rajasthan b) Bos indicus of Punjab
c) Bos indicus of Rajasthan d) Bos bubalis of Haryana
98. Which among the given below is a bottom feeding carp of freshwater, in aquaculture.
a) Cirrhinus mrigala b) Labeo rohita c) Cyprinus carpio d) Ptenopharyngodon idella
99. The avascular tissue among the following:
a) Adipose connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue
c) Aerolar connective tissue d) Smooth muscle tissue
100. Hyline, and Hubbard are the
a) Varieties of European honey bees used in Apiculture
b) The hybrid layer and broiler poultry breeds in India.
c) Exotic variety of milch and draught variety in cattle
d) Fresh water and marine water prawns.

***** THE END ******

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 VELAMMAL KNOWLEDGE PARK, PONNERI
VKP MERIT SCHOLARSHIP TEST 2018
(FOR STUDENTS MOVING TO CLASS–X IN 2019)
KEY- IX

MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A

1 c 11 c 21 c 31 a 41 a 51 c 61 a 71 a 81 d 91 d

2 a 12 b 22 b 32 c 42 c 52 c 62 c 72 c 82 d 92 b

3 c 13 c 23 b 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 b 73 d 83 a 93 b

4 a 14 b 24 a 34 b 44 c 54 a 64 c 74 d 84 c 94 c

5 a 15 d 25 b 35 b 45 a 55 b 65 d 75 b 85 b 95 b

6 c 16 b 26 b 36 b 46 b 56 b 66 a 76 b 86 b 96 c

7 b 17 c 27 c 37 a 47 a 57 c 67 a 77 c 87 b 97 b

8 c 18 a 28 a 38 c 48 c 58 c 68 c 78 a 88 a 98 c

9 b 19 b 29 a 39 d 49 d 59 a 69 d 79 b 89 a 99 b

10 c 20 a 30 b 40 a 50 b 60 c 70 b 80 a 90 c 100 b

11