1

PHYSICS SECTION-A L
pendulum is T = 2π√g. The measured value of L,
1. Find the approximate change in volume of a
cube on changing its side from 600.000 metre to is 10.0 cm with an instrument having least count
600.125 metre. 1 mm and time of 100 oscillations of the
(1) 125000 m3 pendulum is measured to be 125 s using a stop
(2) 145000 m³ watch of least count 1 second. The maximum
(3) 115000 m³ percentage error in the determination of g is:
(4) 135000 m³ (1) 1.4%
(2) 2.6%
2. Out of the following quantities which one of (3) 2%
the following pairs have same dimensions (4) 3%
I. Power, Energy
II. Work, Energy 6. Using mass (M), Length (L), Time (T), and
III. Stress, Pressure current (A) as fundamental quantities, the
IV. Work, Power dimension of permittivity is:
(1) I only (1) [ML-2T2A]
(2) II only (2) [M-1L-3T4A2]
(3) II and III (3) [MLT2A]
(4) I and IV (4) [ML2T-1A2]

3. Assertion (A): Light year and astronomical 7. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m
unit, both measure time. suspended from a spring of spring constant k is
Reason (R): Both light-year and astronomical given by relation of the type f=cmx ky, where c is
units are very small units. a dimensionless constant. The values of x and y
In the light of the above statement choose the are:
correct option. (1) ½, ½
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the (2) -½, -½
reason is the correct explanation of the (3) ½, -½
assertion (4) -½, ½
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
8. Dimensional formula for water equivalent is:
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) [ML2T-2]
assertion
(2) [ML0T0]
(3) Assertion is a true statement but Reason is
(3) [M0L0T0]
false
(4) [ML2T-2K-1]
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 9. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
in the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s,
4. If the velocity of light is c, gravitational
2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average
constant G and Planck’s constant h be taken as
absolute error is:
fundamental units, the dimension of mass in the
(1) 0.1 s
new system will be:
(2) 0.11 s
(1) [c1/2h1/2G1/2]
(3) 0.01 s
(2) [c1/2h1/2G-1/2]
(4) 1.0 s
(3) [c-3/2h1/2G1/2]
(4) [c-5/2h1/2G1/2]
10. If 1 g cm s-1 = x newton-second, then the
5. The time period of oscillation of a simple number x is equal to:

2
 2
(1) 1×10-1 ( )
A3 B 3
15. Find the relative error in X, if X = :
(2) 3.6 × 10-3 3
C2 D2
1 ΔA 2 ΔB 1 ΔC 3 ΔD
(3) 1×10-5 (1) 3 ( A ) + 3 ( B ) + 2 ( C ) + 2 ( D )
(4) 6×10-6 ΔA 2 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
(2) 3 ( A ) + 3 ( B ) + 2 ( C ) + 2 ( D )
ΔA 2 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
11. If asin𝜃 =√3 and 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 1 ,then value of ‘a’ (3) 3 ( A ) + 3 ( B ) – 2 ( C ) − 2 ( D )
is ΔA 3 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
(4) 3 ( A ) + 2 ( B ) + 2 ( C ) + 2 ( D )
1
(1) 2
(2) √3 16. Assertion (A): The method of dimensional
(3) 2 analysis cannot validate the exact relationship
(4) −1 between physical quantities in any equations.
Reason (R): It does not distinguish between the
12. A body of mass 20.00 g has volume 5.0 cm³,
physical quantities having the same dimensions.
the maximum possible error in the measurement
(1) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is true;
of mass and volume respectively are 0.01 g and
Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
0.1 cm³. The maximum percentage error in the
Assertion (A).
density will be nearest to
(2) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is true;
(1) 1%
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
(2) 2%
Assertion (A).
(3) 11%
(3) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
(4) 25%
(4) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.
13. How many significant figures are there in
17. Curve of y = 3x2 can be:
30.00?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1 (I)

14. Some physical quantities are given in Column-

I while their dimensions are given in Column-II.
Match the correct entries in Column-I with (2)
corresponding correct entries in Column-II.

(3)

(4)

18. If force [F], acceleration [A], and time [T] are

chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Find the dimensions of energy.
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) [𝐹𝐴−1 𝑇]
(2) [𝐹𝐴𝑇]
(4) a(iv),b(i),c(iii),d(ii)
3
(3) [𝐹𝐴𝑇 2 ] 24. Find the gradient of line 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 − 2 = 0?
(4) [𝐹𝐴𝑇 −1 ] 3
(1) -5
5
(2) − 3
19. A physical quantity y depends on quantities x (3) -3
and z as y = Ax + B sin (Cz) where A, B and C (4) 5
are constants. Which of the following have the
same dimensions? 25. If a = (20 ± 0.2) cm and b = (80 ± 0.4) cm,
(1) Y and Ax then the maximum percentage error in the
a3
(2) Y and B quantity b4 is:
(3) C and Z⁻¹ (I) 5%
(4) All of these (2) 3%
(3) 1%
20. If in an experiment three quantities a, b and c
(4) 2%
are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, and
3% respectively. The maximum percentage error 1
26. Find ∫−2(5z² − 7z + 3)dz = ?
in P, if quantity P =ab2/c, will be:
(1) 69
(1) 10% 69
(2) − 2
(2) 8% 69
(3) 2% (3) 2
89
(4) 6% (4) 2

21. Two forces (25±0.2) & (18±0.3) dyne are 27. In equation y = Acos2(ωt-kx), where t is time
acting simultaneously on an object. What will be and x is distance. Dimensional formula of ω/k
the value of resultants if a) they are working in should be:
same direction b)They are working in opposite (1) [LT −1]
direction. (2) [L−1 T]
(3) [LT]
(1) (43 ± 0.5) and (7 ± 0.5)
(4) [L0T 0 ]
(2) (43 ± 0.1) and (7 ± 0.5)
(3) (43 ± 0.5) and (7 ± 0.1)
28. A satellite is revolving around the Earth in an
(4) (43 ± 0.1) and (7 ± 0.1)
orbit of radius with time period T. If the satellite
22. Approximate value of sin 30.250 - sin 300 is is revolving around the earth in an orbit of radius
√3π r+ Δr ( Δr<<r) with time period T+ ΔT
(1) 1440 ( ΔT<<T) then (ΔT)/T:
√3π
(2) (1)
ΔT 2 Δr
= ( )
720 T 3 r
π
(3) ΔT Δr
1440 (2) = ( )
π T r
(4) ΔT 3 Δr
720 (3) = 2( r )
T
ΔT Δr
23. If velocity (v), acceleration (a) and force (f) (4) = −( r )
T
are taken as fundamental quantities, then moment
of momentum about the rotational axis will have 29. Mass of an object is 2400 g. After measuring
the dimensional formula the mass of the object, we found the mass of the
(1) [fv3a-2] object to be greater than 2399 but lesser than
(2) [f²v²a-2] 2401. Then the significant figures of the mass of
(3) [fv²a-2] the object is,
(4) [f²va] (1) 2
(2) 3
4
(3) 4 temperature constant. The dimensional formula
a
(4) (4)1 of (b) is,
(I) [LT3K2]
30. A metal wire has mass (0.4±0.002) g, radius
(2) [L3K]
(0.3±0.001) mm and length (5±0.02) cm. The
(3) [ML3K]
maximum possible percentage error in the
(4) [L3K2]
measurement of density will nearly be:
(1) 1.3% SECTION-B
(2) 1.6% 36. A new system of units is chosen in which the
(3) 1.4% unit of mass is taken 10 kg, unit of length is taken
(4) 1.2% 100 m and the unit of time is taken 100 s. The
speed of light in this new system of units will be:
31. Find the acceleration of a particle if the
(I) 3×10⁶ unit
position of particle is given as 𝑥 = (3𝑡² − 2) m?
(2) 3×10⁸ unit
(1) a = 6 m/s²
(3) 3×10¹⁰unit
(2) a = 3 m/s²
(4) 3×10⁴unit
(3) a = 6t m/s²
(4) None of these 37. A force F is given by F = at + bt², where t is
time. What are the dimensions of a and b?
32. If x= (20 + 0.02) cm and y = (80 + 0.04) cm,
(I) [MLT-3] and [ML2T4]
then the maximum percentage error in the
(2) [MLT-4 and [MLT1]
quantity xy
(3) [MLT-3 and [MLT-4]
(I) 6%
(4) [MLT-1] and [MLT0]
(2) 4%
(3) 5% 38. A body of mass (20.00+0.01) gm has volume
(4) 3% (5.0+0.02) cc. The maximum possible error in the
measurement of m2/v
33. If percentage error in the measurement of
(1) 3%
length of a simple pendulum is 2%, then the
(2) 4%
maximum percentage error in measurement of its
(3) 10%
time period will be:
(4) 15%
(I) 1%
(2) 2% 39. y = 2𝑥³ - 15 𝑥² + 36 𝑥 +10 maxima of y is at:
(3) 4% (I) x = 3
(4) 0.5% (2) x = 2
(3) x = 1
34. The dimensions of b if F represents the force
(4) x = 4
and x represents the position in the given relation
b
F = a log [ x] is: 40. The heat produced in a long wire is
(1) [M0L0T0] characterised by resistance, current and time
(2) [M0L1T0] through which the Current passes If the errors in
(3) [MLT-2] measuring these quantities are respectively 1%.
(4) [MLT-3] 2% and 1%, then total error in calculating the
energy produced is
35. The equation of state of gas (hypothetical (1) 4 %
P+a bθ
system) is given by ( V2 ) = where P is the (2) 6 %
V
4
pressure, V is the volume, θ is absolute (3) %
3
5
(4) 8 % (4) Decreases by 0.75%

41. A wave is represented by y = asin(At − 47. A force defined by F =𝛂t2+ 𝞫t acts on a

Bx + C) where A, B, C are constants. The particle at a given time t. The factor which is
Dimensions of A, B, C are: dimensionless, if α and β are constants, is:
(1) [T-1], [L], [M0L0T0] (1) 𝛼𝛽𝑡
αβ
(2) [T-1], [L-1], [M0L0T0] (2)
t
βt
(3) [T], [L], [M] (3)
α
(4) [T-1], [L-1], [M-1] (4)
αt
β
dy
42. Find the value of dx at x = 2, y = ln(x2):
48. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of
(I) 2 length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding
(2) 1 off the value for correct significant digits is:
2
(3) (1) 138 × 10¹
x
(4) None of these (2) 1382
(3) 1382.5
43. A wire of resistance R0 is stretched by 0.3%, (4) 14 × 10²
its new resistance will be increased by
(I) 0.3% 49. The force F is given by expression, F =
(2) 0.6% Acos(Bx) + Csin(Dt), where x is displacement
D
(3) 1.5% and t is time. Then dimension of are same as
B
(4) 0.9% the of:
(1) Velocity [LT-1]
44. Find out the slope of the line which is passing (2) Angular velocity [T-1]
through the points (5,0) & (-2,6)? (3) Angular momentum [ML2T-1]
6
(I) (4) Velocity gradient [T-1]
7
6
(2) − 7
(3) 6 50. In an experiment, the percentage of error
(4) -6 occurring in the measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2 %, 3 %, and 4
P+a
45. In Van Der Waals equation [ ] (V − b) = % respectively. Then the maximum percentage of
V2
RT. Where a, b are constants and rest of the error in the measurement X, where , will be:
physical quantities are the same as present in the (1) 16%
universal gas equation. Deduce the dimension of (2) -10%
a
. (3) 10%
b 3
(1) [MLT-2] (4) ( )%
13
(2) [ML2T-2]
(3) [ML0T-2] CHEMISTRY SECTION-A
(4) [ML-1T-2] 51. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g mL-1, the
mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant figures is ......
46. The separation between a point source of (1) 4.7 g
light and a screen is increased by 1.5%. The (2) 4680 ×10-3 g
percentage change in the intensity is, (3) 4.680 g
(1) Increases by 3% (4) 46.80 g
(2) Decreases by 3%
(3) Increases by 0.75%
6
52 Which one of the following has the minimum Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the
number of atoms? simplest whole-number ratio of various atoms
(1) 1 g of Mg (s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] present in a compound.
(2) 1 g of O2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16] (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) 1 g of Li (s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] explanation of A.
(4) 1 g of Ag (s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] (2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
53. The number of moles of nitrogen molecules (4) Both A and R are false
required to produce 50 moles of ammonia
through Haber’s process is: 58.Number of urea molecules present in 200 mL
(1) 15 of 1 M aqueous solution of urea is
(2) 20 (1) 1.2 × 1026
(3) 30 (2) 1.2 × 1024
(4) 25 (3) 6.0 × 1021
(4) 1.2 × 1023
54. An organic compound contains 87% (by wt.)
carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. 59. Molarity of a solution obtained after mixing 9g
The right option for the empirical formula of this of glucose in its 250 ml of solution is -
compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
(1) C2H2 (I) 0.2 M
(2) (2) CH3 (2) 0.5M
(3) CH4 (3) 2M
(4) CH (4) 1.5M

55.What will be the molality of the solution if its 60.A solution contains 64g of methyl alcohol and
mole fraction is 0.2. 36g of H2O. The mole fraction of methyl alcohol
(1) 13.88 in the solution is:
(2) 1.388 (1) 0.7
(3) 0.138 (2) 0.5
(4) 0.0138 (3) 0.9
(4) 0.2
56. 3.01 x 1021 molecules of glucose are present
in 150 mL of its solution. What is the 61.The density of 1M solution of a compound X
concentration of the solution? is 1.5 g ml-1. The correct option for the molality
(1) 0.005 M of solution is (Molar mass of compound X=100g)
(2) 0.2 M (1) 165 m
(3) 0.02 M (2) 0.858m
(4) 0.1 M (3) 0.714 m
(4) 1.208 m
57.In the following questions a statement of
Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason 62. Reaction of calcium with water is
(R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the represented by the equation:
choices given below each question.
Assertion (A): The empirical mass of ethene is half what volume of hydrogen, measured at STP,
of its molecular mass. would be liberated when 8 grams of calcium
completely react with water (atomic mass of Ca
is 40)?

7
(1) 4480 cm3 (2) 71.40 g
(2) 2240 cm3 (3) 91.4 g
(3) 1120 cm3 (4) 81 g
(4) 0.2 cm3
69.Which of the following rules regarding the
63. Mass of CaCO3 required to react with 400 significant figures and their calculations is
mL of 1.5 M HCl solution is incorrect?
(1) 30 g (1) The result of an addition or subtraction is
(2) 15 g reported to the same number of decimal
(3) 45 g places as present in number with least decimal
(4) 60 g places
(2) Result of multiplication or division should have
64. Volume of CO2(g) obtained at STP by burning
same number of significant figures as present in
32 g of CH4 with 64 g of oxygen is
most precise figure
(1) 5.6 L
(3) The result of multiplication or division should
(2) 11.2 L
be rounded off to same number of significant
(3) 22.4 L
figures as present in least precise figure
(4) 44.8 L
(4) The non-significant figures in the
65.How many grams of concentrated nitric acid measurements are rounded-off
solution should be used to prepare 800 mL of 1.6
70.Which of the following statements is correct
M HNO3? (The concentrated HNO3 is 70%
about the reaction given below?
(w/w) HNO3)
4Fe(s) + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3(g)
(1) 175.5 g
(1) Total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants =
(2) 115.2 g
Total mass of iron and oxygen in product,
(3) 225.8 g
therefore it follows law of conservation of
(4) 80 g
mass
(2) Total mass of reactants = Total mass of
66.Total number of electrons present in 27 g of
product, therefore law of multiple proportions
Al3+ ions is,
is followed
(1) 1NA
(3) Amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by taking
(2) 10NA
anyone of the reactants (iron or oxygen) in
(3) 13NA
excess
(4) 27NA
(4) Amount of Fe2O3 produced will decrease if the
amount of any one of the reactants (iron or
67.If the density of 4M solution of NaOH is 1.25
oxygen) is taken in excess.
g mL-1 then the (w/w) % of NaOH in the solution
will be
71.The law of definite proportions is not
(1) 25.4%
applicable to nitrogen oxide because
(2) 32.4%
(1) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
(3) 12.8%
(2) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(4) 20%
(3) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
(4) Oxygen atomic weight is variable
68. 81.4 g sample of ethyl alcohol contains 0.002
g of water. The Amount of pure ethyl alcohol to
72.Match the Column I with Column II and choose
the proper number of significant figures is
the correct option from the codes given below.
(I) 81.398 g
8
 (3) law of reciprocal proportion
(4) Dalton’s law of partial pressure

77.Consider the following statements.

(i) Atoms of H, O, N and C have identical
properties but different mass.
(ii) Matter is divisible into atoms which are further
indivisible.
(iii) The ratio of N:H in NH3 is 1:3 and N:O in
nitric oxide is 2:1.
(iv) Dalton’s atomic theory supports the law of
A B C D conservation of mass.
(1) II 1 IV III Which of the following pairs of statements is true
(2) 1 II III IV according to Dalton’s atomic theory?
(3) IV III 1 II (1) (i) and (ii)
(4) IV III II 1 (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
73. For the following reaction, the mass of water (4) (i) and (iv)
produced from 445 g of C57 H110 O6 is :
C57H110O6(s)+163O2(g)→114CO2(g)+110H2O(l) 78. Which of the following reactions is not
(I) 490 g correct according to the law of conservation of
(2) 495 g mass?
(3) 445 g (I) 2Mg (s) + O2 (g)→ 2MgO (s)
(4) 890 g (2) C3H8 (g) + O2 (g)→CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
(3) P4 (s) + 5O2 (g) → P4O10 (s)
74.25 g of an unknown hydrocarbon upon (4) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)→CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
burning produces 88 g of CO2 and 9g of H2O.
This unknown hydrocarbon contains 79. If NA is Avogadro’s number, then number of
(1) 20 g of carbon and 5 g of hydrogen valence electrons in 4.2g of nitride ions (N 3–) is
(2) 22 g of carbon and 3 g of hydrogen (1) 2.4 NA
(3) 24 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen (2) 4.2 NA
(4) 18 g of carbon and 7 g of hydrogen (3) 1.6 NA
(4) 3.2 NA
75. Which one of the following is the lightest?
(1) 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas 80. The right option for the mass of CO2
(2) 6.023 × 1022 molecules of nitrogen produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone
(3) 0.1 g of silver is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)
(4) 0.1 mole of oxygen gas
(I) 1.76 g
76.In compound A, 1.00g of nitrogen unites with
(2) 2.64 g
0.57g of oxygen. In compound B, 2.00g of
(3) 1.32 g
nitrogen combines with 2.24g of oxygen. In (4) 1.12 g
compound C, 3.00g of nitrogen combines with
5.11g of oxygen. These results obey the following 81. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
law required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
(1) law of constant proportion Haber’s process is
(2) law of multiple proportion (I) 10
9
(2) 20 87.One mole of oxygen atom weighs 16 g, the
(3) 30 number of atoms in it is equal to. (Mass of oxygen
(4) 40 is 2.66 ×10−23g)
(I) 6.022 × 1022
82. A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B (2) 12 × 1022
and the remaining percentage of C. Then, the (3) 6.022 × 1023,
empirical formula of X is: (Given atomic of A= 64, (4) 12 × 1023
B = 40 , C = 32 u)
(I) AB2C2 88. Three compounds are formed from X & Y, A
(2) ABC4 fixed mass of X combines with a different mass of
(3) A2BC2 Y which is in the ratio of 1:3:5 in compounds A, B
(4) ABC3 & C. Calculate the parts by mass of Y which will
combine with 8 parts by mass of X in compound
83.What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be C. It is given that 16 parts by mass of x combines
required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 42 parts by mass of Y in b and the atomic
solution according to the following reaction? weight of X & Y is 18 & 16, respectively.
CaCO3(s)+2HCl(aq)⟶CaCl2(aq)+CO2(g) + (1) 5 parts by mass of Y
2H2O(𝑙) [Calculate upto the second place of (2) 30 parts by mass of Y
decimal point] (3) 35 parts by mass of Y
(1) 1.25 g (4) 50 parts by mass of Y
(2) 1.32 g
(3) 3.65 g 89. If 1 gram of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is
(4) 9.50 g treated with 25 mL of 0.50 M hydrochloric acid
(HCl) solution, the mass of potassium hydroxide
84. The density of 1 M solution of a compound left unreacted is equal to:
'X' is 1.25 g mL-1. The correct option for the (1) Zero mg
molality of a solution is (Molar mass of compound (2) 300 mg
X = 85 g): (3) 500
(1) 0.705 m (4) 150 mg
(2) 1.208 m
(3) 1.165 m 90. Carbon has the following three isotopes with
(4) 0.858 m relative abundances and masses (amu) shown in
the table.
85. What is the number of significant figures in
0.3015 × 103?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

SECTION - B
On the basis of the above data, the average atomic
86.The highest number of Chlorine atoms is
mass of carbon will be
(1) 35.5 g of Chlorine
(1) 2.000 u
(2) 2. 271098 L of Chlorine at STP
(2) 12.011 u
(3) 4 mol of Chlorine
(3) 12.015 u
(4) 4 u of Chlorine
(4) 13.000 u

10
91. Which of the following compounds has the (3) 5.125
highest oxygen percentage? (4) 4.612
(1) Sodium carbonate
(2) Potassium permanganate 98. If 1020 molecules of H2O are removed from
(3) Calcium oxide 18 mg of H2O, then moles of H2O left
(4) Sodium chlorate approximately is
(1) 7.2 × 10-3
92. Which has the highest number of molecules? (2) 8.3 × 10-4
(1) 7 g CO2 (3) 2.67 × 10-3
(2) 2 g NH3 (4) 1.66 × 10-4
(3) 16 g CH4
(4) 16 g H2O 99. If the mole fraction of urea in aqueous
solution is 0.08 then the molality of urea in the
93. What is the molality of 30.0 grams of NaCl solution will be
dissolved in 500.0 mL of pure water? (1) 6.4 m
(1) 4.026 mol/kg (2) 4.8 m
(2) 2.026 mol/kg (3) 2.6 m
(3) 3.026 mol/kg (4) 3.5 m
(4) 1.026 mol/kg
100. 18.72 g of a substance X occupies 1.81 cm3.
94. The approximate number of atoms in 6.75 g What will be its density measured in correct
of H2O is closest to which of the following significant figures?
options? (1) 10.3 g/cm3
(1) 4 x 1023 (2) 10.34 g/cm3
(2) 2 x 1023 (3) 10.4 g/cm3
(3) 1 x 1023 (4) 10.3425 g/cm3
(4) 6 x 1023 BIOLOGY-I
SECTION-A
95. 14g of hydrogen and 96 g of oxygen were 101. Mark the incorrect option regarding the
filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of scientific name of mango.
water produced in this reaction will be: (1) Mangifera represents the genus while indica is
(1) 4 mol a particular species
(2) 3 mol (2) It is in Latin language
(3) 1 mol (3) It is binomial name
(4) 2 mol (4) It should be underlined whether handwritten
or printed
96. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that
contains 20% hydrogen is 102. The scientific names of mango and brinjal are
(1) C2H3 based on agreed principles and criteria which are
(2) CH4 provided in
(3) CH3 (1) ICZN
(4) CH (2) ICNB
(3) ICBN
97. If mass percentage of glucose in aqueous
(4) ICVCN
solution is 36% then the molality of the solution
is 103. There is a need to standardise the naming of
(1) 2.250 living organisms such that a particular organism is
(2) 3.125
11
known by the same name all over the world. This (2) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii, E-ii
process is called (3) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-i, E-iv
(1) Systematics (4) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii, E-iii
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Cytotaxonomy 108. Assertion: Cats and dogs have some
(4) Taxonomy similarities.
Reason: Cats and dogs belong to the same family
104. Which of the following arrangement of Canidae.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
taxonomic categories of housefly is correct in reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
descending order? (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) Animalia → Arthropoda → Insecta → reason is not the correct explanation of
Diptera→ Muscidae → Musca assertion.
(2) Arthropoda → Animalia → Diptera → (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Insecta→ Muscidae → Musca (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(3) Animalia → Insecta → Arthropoda →
Diptera→ Muscidae → Musca 109. Assertion: Order is a taxonomic category
(4) Animalia → Diptera → Insecta → that includes one or more genera.
Arthropoda→ Muscidae → Musca Reason: All the genera in an order have some
similarly features and correlated characters.
105. In which among the following taxonomic
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
categories, organisms share less number of
common characters than that of order? reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Family (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) Species reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) Class assertion.
(4) Genus (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
106. Assertion: In binomial nomenclature, both
words are separately underlined. 110. Study the four statements (I-IV) given below
Reason: Underlining indicates their Latin origin. & select the two correct ones out of them:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and I. Definition of biological species was given by
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Ernst Mayr
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but II. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction
reason is not the correct explanation of in plants
assertion. III. Binomial nomenclature system was given
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. by RH Whittaker
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. IV. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is
synonymous with growth.
107. Match the following columns and select the The two correct statements are
correct option. (1) II & III
(2) III & IV
(3) I & IV
(4) I & II

111. Match the following and choose the correct

option.
(1) A-ii, B-v, C-i, D-iii, E-iv
12
 IV. Generic and specific names should be
written starting with small letters.
(1) i, ii and iii only
(2) i, iii and iv only
(3) i, ii, iii and iv
(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-E, iv-B, v-A (4) i, ii and iv only
(2) i-E, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A, v-C
(3) i-D, ii-E, iii-B, iv-A, v-C 115. Select the correctly written scientific name of
(4) i-E, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A, v-D Wheat:
(1) triticum aestivum
112. Which of the following statement/s is /are (2) Triticum aestivum
true? (3) Triticum Aestivum
1. Growth cannot be taken as a defining (4) triticum Aestivum
property of living organisms.
2. Panthera pardus is a scientific name of 116.Assertion: In binomial nomenclature, each
Leopard in which Panthera represents name has two components.
specific epithet. Reason: Each name has two components – the
3. In binomial nomenclature, biological names Generic name and the specific epithet.
are derived from Latin irrespective of their (1) If both Assertion and reason are true and the
origin. reason is the correct explanation o the
4. In plants, Orders with few similar characters assertion.
are assigned to Division. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) All are true reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) Only 1 and 3 are true assertion.
(3) Only 1 and 4 are true (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Only 2 and 3 are true (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

113. Which of the following combinations is 117. Which of the following not correctly match
correct for wheat? for Mangifera indica.
(1) Genus: Triticum, Family: Anacardiaceae, (1) Biological name - Mangifera indica
Order: Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae (2) Family - Anacardiaceae
(2) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order: (3) Class - Angiospermae
Poales, Class: Dicotyledonae (4) Order - Sapindales
(3) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order:
118. Which of the following is not a result of cell
Sapindales, Class: Monocotyledonae
division?
(4) Genus: Triticum, Family: Poaceae, Order:
Poales, Class: Monocotyledonae (1) Growth
(2) Repair
114. Which of the following are the
(3) Metabolism
rules of ICBN?
(4) Reproduction
I. Handwritten scientific names should be
underlined.
119. Taxonomy deals with
II. Every species should have a generic name
(1) Development of zoological parks
and a specific epithet.
(2) Study of kinds and diversity of
III. Scientific names are in Latin and should be
microorganisms only
italicised when printed.
(3) Evolutionary relationships between organisms

13
(4) Classification of diverse organisms in different (1) Genera Plantarum
taxa (2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Described nearly ten thousand plants and
120. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. animal species
Species? (4) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien
(1) A group of individual organisms with
fundamental similarities 126. Given organisms belongs to how many
(2) Two different species breed together to genera?
produce fertile offsprings Wheat, Brinjal, Potato, Lion, Dog, Tiger
(3) Human beings belong to the species sapiens (1) Three
(4) Panthera has many specific epithets as tigris, (2) Two
leo and pardus (3) Four
(4) Five
121. ______ is the assemblage of families which
exhibit a few similar characters. 127. Rice, cereals, monocots and plant represent
(1) Class (1) Different taxa at different level
(2) Genus (2) Same taxa of different category
(3) Species (3) Different category of same taxa
(4) Order (4) Same category for different taxa

122. Three different genera Solanum, Petunia and 128. All given are suffixes used for category class,
Datura are placed in the family except
(1) Poaceae (1) -phyta
(2) Anacardiaceae (2) -opsida
(3) Hominidae (3) -phyceae
(4) Solanaceae (4) -ae

123. In which of the following pair of category, 129. Assertion: Archaebacteria are able to
greater is the difficulty of determining the survive in harsh habitats.
relationship to other taxa at the same level, thus Reason: Presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
the problem of classification becomes more helps archaebacteria to survive in extreme
complex? conditions.
(1) Genus and species (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(2) Tribe and genus reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Division and phylum (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(4) Species and family reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
124. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
following group of taxa will have less number of (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
similarities as compared to other?
(1) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae 130. Assertion: Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances.
(3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa Reason: Energy released during oxidation is used
(4) Leopard, tiger and lion in ATP production.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
125. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
because of one of his contributions

14
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but 134. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
reason is not the correct explanation of eubacteria as a group
assertion. (1) They exhibit maximum metabolic diversity
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen,
phosphorus, iron, and sulphur.
131. Assertion: Two kingdom classification was (3) Heterotrophic bacteria are the most
insufficient. abundant in nature.
Reason: The majority of organisms did not fall (4) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission but
into either of the categories in the two kingdom sometimes under favourable conditions, they
classification. produce spores.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 135. Given figure is of filamentous blue-green
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but alga Nostoc. Identify the parts marked as A and B
reason is not the correct explanation of and select the correct option
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

132. Which of the following characters serve as

the criteria for the five-kingdom system of
classification as used by R. H. Whittaker?
(1) Cell structure and thallus organization
(1) A-Heterocyst; B-Mucilaginous sheath
(2) Mode of nutrition and reproduction
(2) A-Vegetative cell; B-Mucilaginous sheath
(3) Phylogenetic relationships
(3) A-Trichomes; B-Cell wall
(4) All of these
(4) A-Mucilaginous sheath; B-Heterocyst

133. Recognise the figure and find out the

SECTION B
correct match.
136. X’ and ‘Y’ are the components of Binomial
nomenclature. This naming system was proposed
by ‘Z’
(1) X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z -
Carolus Linnaeus
(2) X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z -
R.H Whittaker
(3) X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z -
Carolus Linnaeus
(4) X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z -
R.H Whittaker

137. Select the correctly written scientific name

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv of Mango which was first described by Carolus
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii Linnaeus:
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica
15
(4) Mangifera Indica (1) I, II, III
(2) I, III, IV
138. Assertion: Methanogens are present in the (3) II, III, IV
gut of several ruminant animals. (4) I, II, III, IV
Reason: Methanogens help in the production of
methane from dung of ruminants. 142. Deuteromycetes are called ‘fungi imperfecti’
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and because they have
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (1) Aseptate mycelium
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) Autotrophic nutrition
reason is not the correct explanation of (3) Only asexual stages
assertion. (4) Zygote does not undergo cleavage
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. 143. The given fungus belongs to which class

139. Match the columns I and II, and choose the

correct combination from the options given

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) Deuteromycetes
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 144. How many of the following statements
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i regarding fungi are true?
I. Asexual reproduction is common by the
140. Which of the following combinations of
formation of spores.
characters is true for slime moulds?
II. Their bodies consist of hyphae that may be
(1) Parasitic, plasmodium with true walls, spores
interconnected to form mycelium.
dispersed by air currents
III. They secrete digestive enzymes onto organic
(2) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls,
matter and then absorb the products of the
spores dispersed by water
digestion.
(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores
IV. Fungi can break down almost any carbon
dispersed by water
containing product.
(4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls,
V. Fungi do not enter into symbiotic
spores dispersed by air currents
relationships.
141. Dinoflagellates, (1) 2
I. Are mostly marine and photosynthetic (2) 3
II. Have a cell wall that has stiff cellulose plates on (3) 4
the outer surface. (4) 5
III. Have two flagella
IV. Have chloroplasts bound by three 145. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
membranes. correct combination from the options given.
The correct statements are
16
 148. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
the correct option from the codes given below.

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C - (iv) D - (i) E - (V)
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C - (iv) D - (i) E - (V)
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C - (i) D - (iv) E - (V)
(4) A-(ii), B - (v) C - (i) D - (iv) E-(iii)
146. Assertion: In lichens, mycobiont and
phycobiont are symbiotically associated in which 149. Which one of the following are
algae is predominant and fungi is a subordinate criterion for classification of fungi?
partner. 1. Mode of spore formation
Reason: The fungus provides food and alga 2. Fruiting body
protects the fungus from unfavourable conditions. 3. Morphology of mycelium
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and 4. Mode of nutrition
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (1) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) 1, 3 and 4 only
reason is not the correct explanation of (3) 2, 3 and 4 only
assertion. (4) 1, 2 and 4 only
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
150. Mad cow disease in cattle due to
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
infection by
(1) Prion
147. Recognise the figure and find suitable
(2) Bacterium
matching.
(3) Virus
(4) Viroid

BIOLOGY II
SECTION-A
151. Identify the asexual reproductive
structure associated with Sponges
1. 'a' attacks on a eukaryotic organism while 'b'
(1) Gemmules
attacks on a prokaryotic organism
(2) Buds
2. 'a' has ssRNA as genetic material while 'b' has
(3) Zoospores
dsDNA as genetic material
(4) Conidia
3. 'a' belongs to Protista and 'b' belongs to
Monera 152. Which of the following is correct
4. Both 'a' and 'b' are acellular organisms about viroids
Among these correct statements are
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat
(1) 1 and 2 (2) They have DNA with protein coat
(2) 1, 3 and 4 (3) They have free DNA without protein coat
(3) 2 and 4 (4) They have no RNA
(4) 1, 2 and 4
17
 158. Which one of the following set of
153. Select the correct combination of the organisms have no position in five kingdom
statements. system?
(A) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which (1) Virus, Viroids and Lichens
produce methane in marshy areas (2) TMV, PPLO and Bacteria
(B) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green algae (3) Prions, Lichens and BGA
which fixes atmospheric nitrogen (4) BGA, PPLO and Sac-fungi
(C) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
synthesize cellulose from glucose 159. In members of which kingdom, nuclear
(D) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive membrane is absent?
without oxygen. (1) Monera
The correct statements are (2) Protista
(1) (B), (C) (3) Fungi
(2) (A), (B), (C) (4) Plantae
(3) (B), (C), (D)
160. According to five kingdom system,
(4) (A), (B), (D)
gymnosperms and angiosperms are grouped
154. Which of the following statement is correct: under the kingdom
(1) Mycoplasma cannot pass through less than 1 (1) Monera
micron filter size. (2) Protista
(2) Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. (3) Fungi
(3) Mycoplasma lack cell wall. (4) Plantae
(4) Mycoplasma needs oxygen.
161. Select the correct statement.
(1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known
155. What is true for archaebacteria?
diseases caused by viruses
(1) All halophiles
(2) Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds
(2) All photosynthetic
are placed under kingdom Monera
(3) All fossils
(3) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily
(4) Oldest living beings
aquatic
156. Which of the following spores are (4) Dinoflagellates are the chief ‘producers’ in the
produced endogenously? oceans
(1) Zoospores and Conidia
162. Primitive bacteria living in salty areas are
(2) Conidia and aplanospores
called as
(3) Aplanospores and zoospores
(1) Methanogens
(4) Aplanospore, zoospores and conidia
(2) Thermoacidophiles
157. Select the incorrect statement. (3) Heliophytes
(1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocyst’s for (4) Halophiles
nitrogen fixation
163._______ are saprophytic protists, whose
(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted
body moves along decaying twigs and leaves
water bodies
engulfing organic
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in
material.
nature
(1) Euglenoids
(4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made up of
(2) Dinoflagellates
chitin
(3) Chrysophytes

18
(4) Slime moulds (3) Ascomycetes
(4) All of these
164. Being photosynthetic, which organism in
absence of sunlight behave like heterotrophs? 170. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which
(1) Slime moulds _________ division occurs, leading to formation
(2) Euglenoids of _________ spores.
(3) Sporozoans (1) Mitotic, diploid
(4) Ciliated protozoans (2) Reduction, haploid
(3) Mitotic, haploid
165. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which (4) Reduction, diploid
substance?
(1) Phosphorus 171. Select the incorrect match.
(2) Calcium Class Member
(3) Silicon (1) Phycomycetes – Albugo
(4) Copper (2) Basidiomycetes – Claviceps
(3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium
166.Statement-1: Yeast is a multicellular fungus. (4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma
Statement-2: Penicillium is a unicellular fungus.
Statement-3: Albugo is a parasitic fungus on 172. Coenocytic mycelium is found in
mustard. (1) Deuteromycetes
(1) Only statement-1 and statement-2 are correct (2) Phycomycetes
(2) All the above statements are incorrect (3) Ascomycetes
(3) Only statement-3 is correct (4) All of these
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-3 are correct
173. Which of the following is mainly produced
167. Mark the correct statement. by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
(1) Phycomycetes include mushrooms, bracket (1) Marsh gas
fungi or puff balls (2) Laughing gas
(2) The mycelium of basidiomycetes is branched (3) Propane
and septate (4) Mustard gas
(3) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical
and genetic work, it belongs to group 174. Viruses that infect bacteria are termed as
basidiomycetes (1) Cyanophages
(4) Morels and truffles are non-edible (2) Bacteriophages
(3) Mycophages
168. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose (4) Both (1) & (2)
the correct sequence of events.
(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis 175. Who demonstrated that the extract of the
(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis healthy plants
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy (1) Pasteur
(2) M.W. Beijerinek
169. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy (3) D.J. Ivanowsky
is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or (4) W.M. Stanley
somatic cells of different genotypes. It is the
feature of 176. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genetic
(1) Phycomycetes material.
(2) Basidiomycetes (1) Herpes virus – ssDNA
19
(2) Bacteriophage – dsDNA (1) They reproduce asexually and sexually
(3) TMV – ssRNA (2) They show a great diversity in structure and
(4) Influenza virus – ssRNA habitat
(3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of
177. 70S ribosomes, chromatophores and nutrition
circular DNA, are found in (4) They do not reproduce by zoospores
(1) All eukaryotes
(2) All prokaryotes 184. Which of the following is correct?
(3) Some prokaryotes (1) All slime moulds are haploid
(4) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes (2) Protozoans lack cell wall
(3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile
178. There is no alternation of generation in (4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena
Escherichia coli because of the absence of
(1) Syngamy 185. Mark the odd one w.r.t. cell wall.
(2) Reduction division (1) Halophiles
(3) Conjugation (2) Methanogens
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Cyanobacteria
179. Viruses possess all the following properties,
except SECTION B
(1) They are non-cellular organisms 186. Assertion: Cyanobacteria are
(2) Possess both DNA and RNA photosynthetic autotrophs.
(3) Capsid protects nucleic acid Reason: Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a
(4) Have inert crystalline structure outside living and b similar to green plants.
cells (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
180. Select the incorrect statement. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples assertion.
of insectivorous plants. (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) Plantae includes algae, bryophytes, (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) The mode of nutrition in plants is holozoic 187. Who for the first-time classified organisms
on the basis of scientific approach?
181. Which one is correctly matched? (1) Aristotle
(1) Agaricus - Smut (2) Linnaeus
(2) Ustilago - Mushroom (3) Whittaker
(3) Puccinia - Insectivorous plant (4) Pasteur
(4) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi
188. The position of bacteria in the kingdom
182. The members of which group are commonly system of classification proposed by Linnaeus is
known as sac fungi? (1) Monera
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Protista
(2) Deuteromycetes (3) Plantae
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Animalia
(4) Ascomycetes
189. Match the organisms in Column-I with
183. Mark the odd one w.r.t. kingdom fungi. habitats Column-II
20
 (1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
Choose the right match from the options given
below 194. Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii through less than 1 micron filter size.
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i cell walls.
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
190. Identify the asexual reproductive structure below:
associated with Penicillium (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) Gemmules (2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
(2) Buds (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Zoospores incorrect
(4) Conidia (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is
correct
191. Which of the following statements is
correct?
195. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Some of organisms can fix atmospheric
(1) The infective constituent in viruses is the
nitrogen in specialised cells called sheath cells
protein coat
(2) The Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
(2) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
(3) The Fusion of protoplasm between two motile
(3) Viroids lack a protein coat
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
(4) Viruses are obligate parasites
(4) Organisms that depend on living plants are
called saprophytes
196. In five kingdom classifications, the kingdom
192. Which of the following statements is that includes the blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing
incorrect? bacteria and
(1) Conidia are produced exogenously and methanogenic archaebacteria, is
ascospores endogenously (1) Monera
(2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long (2) Protista
thread-like hyphae (3) Fungi
(3) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies (4) Plantae
(4) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD
197. Which one of the following is not the basis
193. Match Column-I with Column-II of five five-kingdom classification?
(1) Cell structure
(2) Body organisation
(3) Reproduction
(4) Reserve food material

198. During favourable conditions bacteria mainly

reproduce by
Choose the right match from the options given (1) Budding
below (2) Fragmentation

21
(3) Sporulation Reason: Mycoplasmas lack a cell wall and can
(4) Fission survive without oxygen.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
199. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
common in (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) Agaricus reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Saccharomyces assertion.
(3) Euglena (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Gonyaulax (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

200. Assertion: Mycoplasmas are pathogenic in

animals and plants.

22