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SMM quizlet

Strategic Marketing Management (Western Sydney University)

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CHAP 2

1. Which of the following strategy components address issues such as the time frame in which
each target should be attained and the target level of performance to be achieved on each
dimension?

A. Scope and mission

B. Development strategy
C. Objectives
D. Sources of synergy

2. The principles of _____ involve meeting humanity's needs without harming future
generations.

A. sustainability( phát triển bền vững)

B. reversibility
C. specificity
D. adaptability

3. What is the expansion for the acronym SMART used in specifying corporate objectives?

A. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound

B. Structured, Manageable, Acceptable, Related, and Theoretical
C. Standardized, Manageable, Accountable, Relevant, and Targeted
D. Structured, Marketable, Accountable, Reusable, and Targeted

4. Which of the following indexes is used to measure the profitability criterion?

A. Percentage change in sales

B. Return on net assets
C. Price/earnings ratio
D. Percentage cost savings from new processes

5. Which of the following performance criteria is assessed using the measures of market share,
brand awareness, and brand preference?

A. Profitability
B. Contribution to owners
C. Competitive strength
D. Growth

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6. In expressing corporate objectives aimed at enhancing shareholder value, a firm combining

its debt and market value of its stock, and then subtracting the capital invested in the company,
is using the _____ approach.

A. return on capital
B. economies of scale
C. economic value added
D. cash conversion cycle

7. The calculated market value added (MVA) for Triptych Inc. is positive. Which of the following
is indicated by this result?

A. The amount of wealth the company has created

B. The amount of debt the company has accumulated
C. The total amount of resources available to the company
D. The success of the company's efforts at sustainability

8. A customer feedback survey conducted by an auto dealer found that about 75 percent of
customers reported satisfaction with the order processing, delivery, and post-sale services. This
indicates that:

A. customer satisfaction increases due to the product-oriented approach.

B. spending more on emphasizing product features creates a sustainable competitive
advantage.
C. customer satisfaction is influenced by factors other than the product itself.
D. customer intimacy is the least important factor in determining customer satisfaction.

9. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be used by a company that is trying to
increase its market share for its current products in the current market?

A. Diversification
B. Market penetration ( hiểu rõ tt)
C. Market development
D. Product development

10. In order to expand, Medio.com (an e-tailer) pursued a combination of actions such as
making service improvements, cutting costs as well as forming alliances with Web portals to
expand its share of Web shoppers. This is an example of expansion by:

A. diversifying.
B. offshoring.
C. developing new products for current customers.
D. increasing market penetration of current product.

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11. A corporate growth strategy that focuses on developing new products for current markets is
called:

A. a market penetration strategy.

B. a product development strategy.
C. a market development strategy.
D. a product positioning strategy.

12. Stepan Cleansers Inc. successfully introduced a variety of detergents for washing clothes,
dishes, and carpets. Each variety of detergent capitalized on the use of baking soda as an
effective deodorizer. The new detergents were promoted in existing markets where consumers
had a high level of recognition of the brand. This example illustrates the use of a:

A. market penetration strategy.

B. diversification strategy.
C. product development strategy.
D. market development strategy.

13. Theaters, orchestras, and other performing arts organizations often reach audiences outside
major metropolitan areas by promoting matinee performances at lower prices and free
transportation to attract senior citizens and students. Identify the strategy being employed in this
case.

A. Expansion by diversifying
B. Expansion by selling existing products to new segments
C. Expansion by developing new products for current customers
D. Expansion by increasing penetration of current product-markets

14. A processed-meat manufacturer is moving downstream in terms of product flow by

launching a chain of retail outlets. Which diversification strategy is being used by the company?

A. Forward vertical integration

B. Related diversification
C. Backward integration
D. Unrelated diversification

15. Faced with a decline in its current business, a generic drug manufacturer is planning a foray
into the design and manufacture of re-locatable structures. Which diversification strategy is
being employed by the company?

A. Related diversification
B. Backward integration
C. Forward vertical integration
D. Unrelated diversification

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16. Cash cows are:

A. businesses with a high relative share of low-growth markets.

B. low-share businesses in low-growth markets.
C. market leaders in a high-growth industry.
D. businesses in high-growth industries with low relative market shares.

17. Low-share businesses in low-growth markets are called _____ because although they may
throw off some cash, they typically generate low profits, or losses.

A. stars
B. question marks
C. cash cows
D. dogs

18. Which of the following is a limitation of the growth-share matrix?

A. Since the matrix uses multiple variables as a basis for categorizing a firm's business, it is
complex to understand.
B. Outcomes of this analysis are highly sensitive to variations in how growth and share are
measured.
C. It fails to analyze the impact of investing resources in different businesses on the firm's future
earnings.
D. The model fails to consider that firms can generate cash from businesses with strong
competitive positions in mature markets.

19. Which of the following provides a basis for comparing the economic returns to be gained
from investing in different businesses pursuing different strategies or from alternative strategies
that might be adopted by a given business unit?

A. Value-based planning
B. BCG growth matrix
C. Corporate mission statement
D. Backward integration

20. Identify a limitation of value-based planning.

A. It attempts to assess the economic value a given strategy is likely to generate by relying on
distorted accounting measures.
B. It is typically a tool for evaluating strategy alternatives identified and developed through
managers' judgments.
C. It fails to assess the shareholder value a given strategy is likely to generate.
D. It fails to provide a basis for comparing the economic returns to be gained from investing in
different businesses pursuing different strategies.

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21. Which of the following is typically a part of using customer equity to estimate the value of
alternative marketing actions?

A. Forecasting the costs incurred in promoting products

B. Calculating the lifetime values of each of its customers
C. Assessing the shareholder value of each marketing action
D. Discouraging customer intimacy

CHAP 3

1. Strategic business units refer to:

A. a set of managers in a firm that deal with market audits.

B. in-house departments of a firm that are engaged in strategic planning.
C. components of a firm engaged in multiple industries or businesses.
D. exclusive units of businesses that perform SWOT analyses for the company.

2. Which of the following is an ideal characteristic of SBUs?

A. Control over those factors necessary for successful performance

B. A common set of product-markets
C. Non-accountability for their own profits
D. A heterogenous set of markets to serve with a limited number of related technologies

3. No two SBUs within a firm compete for the same customers with similar products. Which SBU
characteristic is being emphasized here?

A. A heterogeneous set of markets

B. Responsibility for their own profitability
C. Control over factors necessary for successful performance
D. A unique set of product-markets

4. A business avoids direct confrontation with its major competitors by concentrating on narrowly
defined market niches. According to Michael Porter, which of the following competitive
strategies does this exemplify?

A. Maintaining cost leadership in a specific market segment

B. Using market penetration strategies to gain a foothold in a saturated market
C. Focusing on an elite customer segment
D. Differentiating between competitors' products

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5. A business pursuing a prospector strategy:

A. operates within a broad product-market domain that undergoes periodic redefinition.

B. values being a second or third entrant in product-markets related to its existing market
base.
C. responds primarily when it is forced to by environmental pressures.
D. attempts to locate and maintain a secure position in relatively stable product or service areas.

6. A(n) _____ strategy tries to protect its domain by offering lower prices, higher quality, or
better service than competitors.

A. prospector
B. analyzer
C. defender
D. reactor

7. Which of the following statements is true of a reactor strategy?

A. It competes primarily by stimulating and meeting new market opportunities.

B. It responds rapidly to early signals concerning areas of opportunity.
C. It is more aggressive in marketing established products than its competitors.
D. It lacks any well-defined competitive strategy.

8. In a(n) _____ strategy, a business attempts to maintain a strong position in its core
product-market but also seeks to expand into new—usually closely related—product-markets.

A. reactor
B. analyzer
C. prospector
D. defender

9. _____ businesses have an intermediary type of business strategy that makes fewer and
slower product market changes than _____ businesses but are less committed to stability and
efficiency than _____ businesses.

A. Prospector; defender; reactor

B. Prospector; reactor; defender
C. Defender; analyzer; reactor
D. Analyzer; prospector; defender

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10. _____ businesses usually operate in broad, dynamic domains where neither technology nor
customer segments are well established.

A. Prospector
B. Differentiated defender
C. Low-cost defender
D. Analyzer

11. Which of the following businesses tends to operate in a stable domain where both the
product technology and the customer segments are mature?

A. Prospector
B. Reactor
C. Low-cost defender
D. Analyzer

12. Identify the performance dimension that is commonly measured in terms of sales growth
relative to competitors or changes in market share.

A. Adaptability
B. Effectiveness
C. Synergy
D. Efficiency

13. Which performance dimension is measured in terms of profitability as a percent of sales and
return on investment?

A. Synergy
B. Effectiveness
C. Efficiency
D. Adaptability

14. FirstEnergy Corp. combined several autonomous business units that worked together to
make different electrical and energy products. The units shared the production facilities,
marketing activities, and had a common sales force. By sharing, the group was able to reduce
the costs of both per-unit production and marketing. Which dimension does FirstEnergy
exemplify in this scenario?

A. Synergy of operating facilities ( cơ sở hoạt động)

B. Scope of strategic domain
C. Resource deployment
D. Goals and objectives

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15. Which of the following environmental factors is favorable to a prospector strategy?

A. An industry in late growth stage

B. An established customer segment
C. A large number of competitors
D. An industry in early growth stage

16. An SBU has no outstanding strength in R&D or product engineering in _____ businesses.

A. prospector
B. analyzer
C. differentiated defender
D. low-cost defender

17. A defender strategy is most useful for:

A. business units with a profitable share of one or more major segments in a relatively mature
and stable industry.
B. unstable, rapidly changing environments resulting from new technology, shifting customer
needs, or both.
C. industry structures that are still evolving with one or more competitors holding large shares in
major segments.
D. business units with strong research and development, product engineering, and marketing
capabilities.

18. A _____ policy relates to the breadth or diversity of product lines, their level of technical
sophistication, and the target level of product quality relative to competitors.

A. pricing
B. product
C. promotion
D. distribution

19. Which of the following businesses seldom adheres to a policy of low competitive prices?

A. Reactor
B. Prospector
C. Low-cost defender
D. Analyzer

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20. Which of the following statements is true of distribution policies?

A. Prospectors rely more heavily on independent channel members than defenders to distribute
their products.
B. Maintaining tight control over the behavior of channel members is an appropriate policy for
prospectors.
C. Defender businesses are likely to devote a larger percentage of sales to trade promotions
than prospector businesses.
D. Defenders rely on trade promotion tools and other incentives to induce support from their
independent channel members.

21. High advertising and sales promotion expenditures have a negative impact on ROI for
_____ businesses.

A. prospector
B. differentiated defender
C. low-cost defender
D. analyzer

CHAP 4

17. Which of the following increases a buyer's bargaining power?

A. Higher switching costs D. Backward integration by suppliers

B. Low buyer profitability
C. Higher importance of the product to the
buyer

21. A(n) _____ is used to assess the impact and the timing of an environmental event in a firm.

A. BCG matrix C. activity network diagram

B. affinity diagram D. opportunity/threat matrix

1. A(n) _____ is defined as being composed of individuals and organizations who are interested
in and willing to buy a good or service to obtain benefits that will satisfy a particular need.

A. sector C. posse
B. channel D. market

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2. A group of firms that offer a product or class of products that are similar and are close
substitutes for one another is referred to as a(n) _____.

A. sector C. industry
B. channel D. concern

3. Identify the demographic trend that influences market attractiveness.

A. Fitness and nutrition C. Corporate social responsibility

B. Immigration increase D. Economic recession

4. Marketers of consumer services such as health care and life insurance are capitalizing on the
general trend of an aging population, thereby developing and implementing marketing strategies
accordingly. Which macroenvironmental trend is acting as a catalyst here?

A. Technological C. Sociocultural
B. Economic D. Demographic

5. Which of the following represents a sociocultural trend?

A. Fitness and nutrition patterns C. Economic recession

B. Immigration increase D. Growing middle class

6. Which of the following is a factor of the economic environment?

A. Fitness and nutrition patterns C. Rise and fall in interest rates

B. Corporate social responsibility D. Aging population

7. Each macro environmental trend has a distinct impact on the consumer and industrial market.
Identify the situation where industries such as check-cashing outlets and pawn shops will face a
tough time staying in business.

A. Increased immigration C. Economic recession

B. Robust economy D. Aging population

8. Which of the following is true of overregulation?

A. It protects inefficiencies. C. It avoids inflationary pressures.

B. It does not promote trade barriers. D. It allows easy entry for new competitors.

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9. Marketing services have been made easy by advertisements on the web or via e-mail, social
networks, and online stores. Which macro environmental trend does this signify?

A. Natural environment C. Technological environment

B. Economic environment D. Regulatory environment

10. A rise in the production of hybrid gas-electric vehicles, high-efficiency LED bulbs,
phosphate-free detergents, and recycled paper indicates the impact of which of the following
macro environmental forces?

A. The natural environment C. The regulatory environment

B. The sociocultural environment D. The demographic environment

11. According to Porter's Five Competitive Forces, which of the following is the key force in the
fast-food industry?

A. Threat of new entrants C. Bargaining power of suppliers

B. Threat posed by substitute products D. Bargaining power of buyers

12. Which of the following forces increases industry attractiveness?

A. Higher threat of substitute products C. Greater bargaining power for suppliers

B. Lesser threat of new entrants D. Lower buying power for customers

13. According to Porter, rivalry among competitors is greater:

A. when low investment intensity exists in D. when strong product differentiation exists
businesses. among current players.
B. when dominant firms exist in an industry.
C. when low switching costs exist for the
buyers.

14. The threat of new entrants to an industry is less:

A. when the economies of scale are strong. D. when it is particularly easy to gain
B. when the industry has low capital distribution.
requirements.
C. when little product differentiation exists
among current players.

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15. A distribution agency was using facsimile machines to send and receive long-distance
messages. This was replaced with an all-in-one printer that could scan, copy, and fax. The cost
of the new printer was almost the same as the facsimile machine. For the manufacturer of
facsimile machines, this example exemplifies:

A. the entry barrier for new entrants. C. the threat of substitute products.
B. the bargaining power of buyers. D. the bargaining power of suppliers.

16. The bargaining power of suppliers increases:

A. if the cost of switching suppliers is low. C. if the suppliers can realistically threaten
B. if the prices of substitutes are not high. backward integration.
D. if the supplier's product is not a large part
of the buyer's value added.

18. Opportunities are attractive at the micro level on the market side when:

A. the target market is unlikely to grow. C. the market offering does not provide
B. the source of customer pain and its customer benefits that other solutions do.
resolution is unknown. D. the company has other segments for
which the currently targeted segment may
provide a
springboard.

19. For an industry, attractive opportunities are available at the micro level when:

A. the business has inferior organizational C. the company's business model is

processes or resources. economically viable.
B. the company possesses something D. the source of customer pain and its
proprietary that is easily duplicable. resolution is unknown.

20. Which of the following is considered a critical success factor in retailing?

A. Price C. Promotion
B. Location D. Product

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CHAP 5

1. In a _____ approach, a central person or persons take the responsibility for forecasting and
prepare an overall sales forecast.

A. top-down
B. linear
C. nonlinear
D. bottom-up

2. Which of the following approaches is used to prepare a sales forecast in decentralized firms?

A. A top-down approach
B. A linear approach
C. A non-linear approach
D. A bottom-up approach

3. Which of the following is true of a statistical forecasting method?

A. It directly observes what real consumers do in the product-market.

B. It is a good technique to forecast sales for new products.
C. It generally assumes that the future will look very much like the past.
D. It surveys suppliers and consumers to estimate market potential.

4. RobustTires is an established tire manufacturer in Topeka. Every major brand of car uses its
tires. It plans to open a branch in Buffalo City for which it intends to use time series analysis to
forecast sales and the market potential. Which of the following methods is exemplified by
RobustTires?

A. Analogy method
B. Statistical method
C. Observation method
D. Survey method

5. Which of the following is true of surveys?

A. A survey of buyer's intention helps in forecasting sales of a prototype.

B. A survey of sales force opinion is conducted for buyers to forecast sales.
C. A survey method is superior to a statistical or observational method.
D. A survey has the limitation that whoever is surveyed is knowledgeable.

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6. HoneyDew, a well-known confectionery, plans to introduce a walnut fudge candy. It asks

some of its regular customers to sample the candy and offer their opinions. This way the
management hopes to estimate the likely number of buyers for the product, if introduced in its
store. Which of the following techniques did HoneyDew use to forecast sales?

A. Observation
B. Statistical technique
C. Survey
D. Analogy

7. Which of the following methods is best suited to forecast sales of new products?

A. Statistical method
B. Survey
C. Observation
D. Analogy

8. When major television manufacturers introduced high-definition televisions, they had to

account for characteristics like picture quality, the levels of which were unprecedented. They
used data collected from the introduction of color television when only black and white television
was prevalent. Which of the following methods of forecasting was used here?

A. Survey
B. Analogy
C. Observation
D. Judgment

9. Which of the following is true of an analogy forecasting method?

A. It is a useful approach for entrepreneurs to forecast sales of a new business.

B. It is best suited to forecast sales of established products than that of new products.
C. It is purely based on observations on what people actually do.
D. It conducts surveys to estimate market potential or forecast sales.

10. Which of the following is true of a live test market?

A. It does not protect a firm from competitors who use marketing tactics that mislead the
company conducting the tests.
B. It is the cheapest method to forecast sales.
C. It is more prevalent than experimental test markets.
D. It does not let a firm's competitors to buy the checkout scanner data without bearing test
marketing expenses.

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11. _____ is an example of a mathematically-driven approach to forecast sales.

A. Observation
B. Conjoint analysis
C. Judgment
D. Focus group

12. Which of the following statements is true of an adoption process?

A. Social media hardly influences the speed of the adoption process.

B. Legitimacy of the new product is irrelevant to the adoption process.
C. The speed of the adoption process depends on the relative simplicity of a new product.
D. The adoption process always resembles an inverted V-curve when plotted on a cumulative
basis.

13. Which of the following adopters forms the smallest group in the diffusion of innovation
curve?

A. Innovators
B. Laggards
C. Early adopters
D. Late majority

14. Which of the following characteristics is true of adopter groups?

A. Innovators are not receptive to new ideas and tend to adopt a product late.
B. Laggards are more venturesome than later adopters.
C. Late majority adopt a new product for either economic or social reasons.
D. Early adopters want to be sure that a new product will prove successful before adoption.

15. Which of the following statements is true of forecasting?

A. Forecasts are not immune to anchoring biases.

B. Capacity constraints can never be misinterpreted as forecasts.
C. A good forecasting technique encourages implicit assumptions.
D. The technique of sandbagging aids in effective forecasting.

16. BizWear Inc. is a retail chain specializing in business wear for women. A detailed report on
the fastest-selling and the slowest-moving items of the previous week is prepared by every
BizWear outlet. It includes sales information about garments sold in terms of style, color, store,
location and region, and various time periods. This helps BizWear to keep pace with daily
developments. Which of the following market knowledge systems is employed by the retail
chain?

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A. Marketing databases
B. Competitive intelligence systems
C. Internal records systems
D. Client contact systems

17. Which of the following ways of collecting information best illustrates a marketing database?

A. "Cookies" or electronic signatures placed at a customer's personal computer

B. Detailed sales and inventory about the fastest-selling items in a particular store
C. Companies' annual and financial reports and government documents
D. Customer information captured from salespersons

18. A(n) _____ refers to the margins that a buyer generates over a lifetime less the cost of
serving the customer.

A. product lifetime value

B. inventory index
C. customer lifetime value
D. chain ratio
19. Which of the following is true of competitive intelligence systems?

A. It is an outlawed approach of analyzing information about competitors' activities.

B. It involves analyzing the inventory and detailed sales reports of stores.
C. It uses online databases and government documents as its source of information.
D. It allows the effective capture of customer intelligence from salespeople.

20. The design, collection, analysis, and reporting of study intended to gather data pertinent to a
particular marketing challenge or situation is referred to as _____.

A. benchmarking
B. marketing research
C. marketing myopia
D. marketing mix

21. What is the first step in the marketing research process?

A. Reporting results to the decision maker

B. Identifying managerial problem and establishing research objectives
C. Collecting and analyzing data
D. Determining data sources, types of data, and research approaches required

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CHAP 1
1. Which of the following is a component of strategy that involves detailing the desired levels of
accomplishment on one or more performance dimensions over specified time periods for the
organization as a whole?

A. Scope of an organization
B. Resource deployments
C. Identifying a sustainable competitive advantage
D. Goals and objectives

2. Decisions about the organization's scope and resource deployments across its divisions or
businesses are the primary focus of _____ strategy.

A. business
B. corporate
C. marketing
D. functional

3. In which of the following levels of strategy is sustainable competitive advantage a major

component?

A. Functional strategy
B. Corporate strategy
C. Marketing strategy
D. Business strategy

4. Which of the following falls within the scope of corporate strategy?

A. Target market definition

B. Vertical integration
C. Branding policies
D. Line extension

5. Business-level strategies allocate resources:

A. among businesses in the corporate portfolio.

B. across functions shared by multiple businesses.
C. among product-market entries in the business unit.
D. across components of the marketing plan for a specific product-market entry.

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6. The primary focus of marketing strategy is to:

A. manage and coordinate the organization's scope and resource deployments across divisions.
B. allocate and coordinate resources and activities to accomplish the firm's objectives within a
specific product-market.
C. decide about which competitive advantage best matches the needs and wants of the
customers in the target segment.
D. develop and maintain distinctive competencies at the corporate level.

7. Which of the following statements about market-oriented firms is true?

A. They are characterized by a consistent focus on customers' needs by personnel in all

departments.
B. They pay attention to customer research only after the product has been in the market for a
few years.
C. They are slower and less willing to adapt products and functional programs to fit
environmental changes.
D. They refrain from using cross-functional teams during the development of new products.

8. The tendency for firms to automatically continue strategies that were successful in the past,
even though current market conditions are changing, is referred to as:

A. marketing myopia.
B. strategic inertia.( nhất quán chiến lược)
C. adverse possession.
D. product facelift.

9. Which of the following is the reason why early entrants into newly emerging industries,
particularly industries based on new technologies, are especially likely to be internally focused
and not very market-oriented?

A. Due to strong competition during the formative years

B. Due to rapid growth in demand for the new product
C. Due to customer demand being less than available supply
D. Due to constraints in resources rarely being an immediate threat to survival

10. Product-oriented firms differ from market-oriented firms in that product-oriented firms:

A. use promotion to emphasize product benefits and its ability to satisfy customers' needs.
B. base their pricing on production and distribution costs.
C. have broad product lines.
D. consider credit as customer service and a tool to attract customers.

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11. Which of the following is a feature of a production-oriented organization?

A. It bases its pricing on perceived benefits provided by the product to its customer.
B. It uses promotional tactics that emphasize on product benefits and ability to solve customers'
problems.
C. It centers its research on identifying new opportunities and applying new technology to satisfy
customer needs.
D. Its primary focus when offering a product is on the product's functional performance and cost.

12. Market-oriented organizations differ from product-oriented organizations in that

market-oriented organizations:

A. have narrower product lines.

B. make product packaging for the customer's convenience.
C. focus technical research on cost cutting in the production process.
D. use promotional tactics to emphasize product features, quality, and price.

13. Which of the following statements is true of a market-oriented strategy?

A. Pricing is based on production and distribution costs.

B. Pricing is based on perceived benefits the product provides.
C. Credit is considered a necessary evil.
D. Promotion primarily emphasizes product features.

14. A product-oriented organization differs from a market-oriented organization in that a

product-oriented organization:

A. focuses technical research on product improvement and cost-cutting in production.

B. views credit as a form of customer service.
C. does not view credit as a necessary evil that can be used to minimize major debt losses.
D. extensively uses packaging as a promotional tool.

15. Which of the following statements about services is true?

A. In most developed economies, the service sector has shown the slowest growth.
B. Services are always tied to a physical product.
C. Good services are mostly tangible in nature.
D. Good services improve customer loyalty over the long term.

16. E-tailers such as Amazon and iTunes are examples of _____ category of e-commerce.

A. business-to-business C. business-to-consumer
B. consumer-to-business D. consumer-to-consumer

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17. PriceTag.com is a site that enables users to bid on unsold airline tickets and other goods
and services. PriceTag.com is an example of _____ type of e-commerce.

A. business-to-consumer
B. consumer-to-business
C. consumer-to-consumer
D. business-to-business

18. Out of the 4Cs of a market analysis, _____ would be considered under "characteristics of
customers."

A. benchmarking
B. initial public offering
C. market segmentation
D. equity capital

19. A distinct subset of people with similar needs, circumstances, and characteristics that lead
them to respond in a similar way to a particular product or service offering is known as a _____.

A. market segment
B. set-aside
C. penetrated market
D. market mix

20. Which of the following contents of a marketing plan specifically presents the expected
financial payoff from the plan ?

A. Objectives
B. Projected profit-and-loss statement
C. Current situation and trends
D. Executive summary

21. Which of the following contents of a marketing plan specifies the goals to be accomplished
in terms of sales volume, market share, and profit?

A. Key issues
B. Marketing strategy
C. Objectives
D. Action plans

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