MAIN ENGINE : Questions

1. To produce power, a 4-stroke cycle engine has _

A. to complete one revolution of crankshaft
B. to complete two revolution of crankshaft
C. to complete four revolution of crankshaft
O. four cylinders and four pistons
2. A 4-stroke cycle engine uses this type of piston.
A. crosshead type
B. hypereutectic type
C. trunk type
D. opposed type
3. The type of piston used by a 2-stroke engine is _
A. crosshead type
B. hypereutectic type
C. trunk type
D. opposed type
4. Main engine pistons are made up of _
A. cast aluminium and iron
B. cast aluminium and bronze
C. cast iron and bronze
O. pure cast carbon
5. Michell bearing named after its inventor Anthony Michell is another name for _
A. steady bearing
B. journalbearing
e. thrust block
D. mono block
6. Not properly vented main engine jacket cooling water can _
A. cause scaling
B. lower main engine power
C. easily cool the engine
D. cause overheating
7. Ân engine with high exhaust temperature but low compression is dueto _
A. leaking valve
B. insufficient air
C. too much fuel oil
D. broken piston
8. The type of engine where fuel used is burned inside its cylinder is _
A. an Otto engine
B. an internai combustion engine
C. a gasoline engine
D. a v-type engine
9. Before carrying-out maintenance to the engine, one should _
A. dose the fuel oil valve
B. shut-off the jacket cooling heating
C. through a solenoid operated valve
D. engine turning gear and switch off power
10. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and pressures are normal because _
A. fuel oil injector in one cylinder is leaking
B. fuel is contaminated with water
C. turbocharger is dirty
D. lube oil pressure is low
11. Stern tube is used to- - - -
A. support and seal the propeller shaft
B. transmit the power from main engine to propeller
C. reduce vibration of engine
D. protect the engine from its axial thrust
12. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located _
A. next to the engine
B. above the engine
C. at the sarne level as the main bearing
D. at the bottom of the engine

13. Most of the 2-stroke engine are _

A. high speed
B. low speed
C. short stroke
D. medium speed
14. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good combustion is called _
A. Refining
B. Purifying
C. Honing
D. Atomizing
15. Honing is a procedure done in an engine liner or cylinder bore to _
A. measure the correct clearance of the bore
B. grind the surface with abrasive stone
C. apply metal polish to make the surface shiny
D. fixa crack surface
16. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust manifold which is part of _
A. both 4-stroke engine and 2 stroke engine
B. 4-stroke engine
C. 2-stroke engine
D. internai combustion engine
17. Which statement is true regarding 4-stroke cycle engine?
A. The power stroke is the 1st stroke
B. The power stroke is the 2"d stroke
C. The power stroke is the 3rd stroke
D. The power stroke is the 4th stroke
18. ln the 4-stroke cycle engine, compression stroke is the _
A. 1st stroke
B. 2"d stroke

e. 3rd stroke
D. 4th stroke
19. Rocker arm is directly actuated by the _
A. camshaft
B. governor
e. cam roller
D. pushrod
20. The effect of too much heating in the fuel oil of main engine is _
A. high exhaust gas temperature
B. high corrosion attack
C. stuck plunger and barrei
D. sublimation
21. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated by _
A. excessive loss of lubricating oil
B. hunting of jacket cooling water pressure
C. black smoke
D. low compression pressure
22. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the _
A. telegraph
B. fuel rack
C. governor
D. valve gear
23. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging air is called _
A. engine blower
B. turbocharger
e. scavenging valve
D. scavenging flaps
24. Stuffing box is used in 2- stroke engine to _
A. remove oil from the piston

B. collect excess fuel oil

C. provide container for dirty oil in the engine
O. prevent combustion gas from entering the crankcase
25. ln the 4-stroke engine, the intake valve is open by _
A. air pressure
B. oil pressure
e. rocker arm
o. pushrod
26. Cylinder liner of an engine is made up of _
 A. cast iron
B. cast aluminium
e. pure carbon
o. bronze
27. The component of engine used to provide pressurized fuel oil is called_ _ _ _ _
A. fuel rack
B. fuel injector
C. fuel injection pump
D. fuel oil high pressure pipe
28. High jacket cooling water temperature for all cylinders is caused by _ _ _ _ _
A. high temperature fuel oil
B. faulty turbocharger
C. lack of scavenging air
O. overload engine
29. Below are some of the causes of high exhaust gas temperature except _ _ _ _ _
A. excessive carbon deposit on the exhaust valve
B. injection of fuel is too late
C. poor quality of fuel oil
D. leaky fuel oil nozzle for injector
30. Too high exhaust gas temperature in all cylinders is cause by the following except _
A. overload engine
B. charged air pressure is too low
C. charged air temperature is too high
D. stuck-up fuel injection pump
31. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by _
A. engine overload
B. engine running too cold
C. water in a cylinder
D. too much lubricating oil in one or more cylinder
32. White exhaust gas from the engine is caused by _
A. faulty injection nozzle
B. exhaust valves are leaking
C. engine running too cold
D. engine is overload
33. The type of scavenging method where incoming air the cylinder directed upward and pushes the
exhaust gas out through the opposite side is called _
A. direct scavenging
B. uniflow scavenging
C. cross flow scavenging
D. loop scavenging
34. One of the scavenging methods used in 2 stroke engine where air enters at the lower end of the
cylinder and exhaust gas leaves at the top through an exhaust valve is called _
A. direct scavenging
B. uniflow scavenging
C. cross flow scavenging
D. loop scavenging
35. The type of scavenging method where the air passes over the piston crown then rises towards the
cylinder head and exhaust gas are forced out through port just above intake port is called _
A. direct scavenging
B. uniflow scavenging
C. cross flow scavenging
O. loop scavenging
36. Fuel oil enters the main engine through _
A. fuel oil injector
B. oil spill valve
C. fuel oil nozzle
D. plunger and barrei

37. Piston ring located at the lowest groove is called ------

A. compression ring
B. wiper ring
C. oil ring
O. distance ring
38. Piston ring located at the top groove is called ----
A. compression ring
B. wiper ring
C. oil ring
O. distance ring
39. Cylinder oil is used for _
A. 4-stroke and 2 stroke engine
B. 4-stroke engine
C. 2-stroke engine
D. gasoline engine
40. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is a closed cooling type is used to
A. prevent water leakage
B. reduce air contamination
C. allow easy release of air
O. maintain constant head in a system
41. This type of bearing used to support the crankshaft is called_ _ _ _ _
A. thrust bearing
B. main bearing
e. steady bearing
D. big end bearing
42. lf the valve tappet is set more than the correct dearance, valve will _
A. open late and dose early
B. open early and dose late
C. open but will not dose
D. not open
43. The type of fuel injection where the pressure builds-up independently and provides high pressure even at low load is called
A. jerk pump injection
B. direct system
C. common rail system
D. throttle body injection
44. Lubricating oil is supplied to the journal bearing of engine by means _
A. spray
B. splash
e. immersion
D. pressure
45. Low scavenging pressure delivered to the engine can cause _
A. white smoke
B. high exhaust temperature in one cylinder
C. high exhaust temperature in all cylinder
D. all of the above
46. The type of propeller generally use for high power ships is _
A. controllable pitch propeller
B. fixed propeller
C. self-pitching propeller
D. all of the options
47. Main engine crankcase over pressure is dueto------
A. crack cylinder liner
B. high crankcase oil level
C. piston blow by

D. leaking lube oil cooler

48. To ensure easy starting of main engine during cold weather, _
A. maintain heating of jacket cooling water
B. maintain air pressure in the reservoir
C. drain - out water from fuel oil
D. start at the emergency control stand
49. When the engine is running, a leaking air starting valve is indicated by _
A. a hissing sound from the indicator cock
B. hot pipe connected to the starting valve
C. knocking sound
D. low power develop
50. Before starting an engine, one should always check _
A. lube oil pressure
B. starting air valve condition
C. piston ring alignment
D. crankcase oil level
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCI} Engine Reviewer.
MAIN ENGINE: Answer Key
1. B
2. e
3. A
4. A
5. e
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. e
17. e
18. B
19. D
20. e
21. B
22. e
23. B
24. D
25. e

BOILER: Questions
1.What at kind of water should you use in water washing the boiler?
A. heated freshwater
B. heated saltwater
C. cold freshwater
D. cold saltwater
2.What provides boiler water circulation to the waterwall tubes?
A. downcomers
B. risers
C. water screen tubes
D. generating tubes
3.The presence of pits in a boiler tube most likely to occur when
A. the tube metais act as a cathode
B. oil is present
C. dissolved oxygen is present
D. sludge is present
4. lmproper maintenance of fuel oil burner in an auxiliary boiler can result to
A. fuel oil pump failure
8. decrease in boiler efficiency
C. increase feed water consumption
D. dissolved oil in boiler water
5. Scaling of water tubes can cause
A. overheated tubes
B. leaking tubes
C. increase boiler steam pressure
O. decrease boiler steam pressure
6. Which of the following elements gas or solid has a high concentration in boiler water?
A. Soda
B. Oxygen

e. Hydrogen
O. Salt
7. To minimize water corrosion, boiler water is kept _
A. alkaline
B. slightly acidic
C. neutral
O. pure freshwater
8. Fine adjustment to a boiler combustion control system, to bring about near perfect combustion
should be made by manually adjusting the _
A. fuel oil back pressure
B. air volume regulator
C. fuel/air ration knob
O. forced draft fan damper
9. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to _
A. provide a means of draining the boiler
B. warn the engineer of low water levei
C. cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
O. open the burners' electrical firing circuits

10. A corbel is used in a boiler furnace to-----

A. protect the expansion joints
B. reduce gas turbulence
C. direct the flow of gases
O. contain the furnace heat
11. Which of the following actions, if any, should be taken if the water gage glass on a steaming boiler
breaks?
A. reduce the firing rate
B. dose in on the feed stop-check valve
C. dose the gage glass cut-out valves
O. no action is necessary since checks in the cut-out valves automatically set to stop loss of steam and water
12. A salinity indicator cell is located in the _
A. seawater side of the main condenser
B. main condenser hotwell
C. evaporator brine suction line
D. low pressure turbine casing drain
13. Phosphates are used in the chemical treatment of boiler water to _
A. control alkalinity and neutralize vanadium
B. convert scale-forming salts to relatively harmless sludges
C. neutralize the harmful effects of hydrogen embrittlement
D. decrease dissolved oxygen content
14. When increasing the firing rate of boiler, what should be done first?
A. increase the forced draft fan air pressure
B. increase the fuel pressure
C. increase the feed water flow
D. decrease the steam pressure
15. Which boiler stack smoke condition indicates efficient combustion?
A. white haze
B. brown haze
C. yellow haze
O. black haze
16. Heavy soot accumulation in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by _
A. water in the fuel
B. excessive cycling
C. high fuel oil pressure
D. improper burner maintenance
17. A boiler forced draft fan pressure gauge indicates 6 inches of water. This corresponds to a pressure of -----
A. 0.216 psi
B. 0.288 psi
e. 0.433 psi
D. 0.688 psi
18. The natural circulation of water in a boiler is the result of -----
A. the difference in the densities of fluids in the downcomer and riser circuits
B. the fact that the specific weight of steam is greater than water
C. the velocity imparted by the feed pump to the feed water
O. the turbulence of high pressure feed water entering the steam drum
19. Which of the following precaution should be observed when adding treatment chemicals to the
boiler?
A. Cool the feedwater before it enters the tank
B. Ensure that there is no pressure in the tank before opening it
C. Raise the boiler water level before adding chemicals
D. AII of the above
20. lf the gauge glass water level remains constant in a steaming boiler while maneuvering, the most
probable cause is
_
A. broken feedwater regulator
B. restricted gauge glass line
C. properly operating feed pump
D. high water level
21. Foaming and moisture carry over in a boiler can be caused by _
A. excessive amount of dissolved solids in the boiler water
B. excessive acidity level in the boiler water
C. inadequate amount of dissolved oxygen in the boiler water
D. inadequate alkalinity content of the boiler water
22. The boiler water hardness is increased by _
A. excessive amount of dissolved solids in the boiler water
B. excessive acidity level in the boiler water
C. inadequate amount of dissolved oxygen in the boiler water
D. inadequate alkalinity content of the boiler water
23. According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR46) boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure
of 600psig must be capable of withstanding a minimum pressure of .
A. 600 psig
B. 750 psig
e. 825 psig
o. 900 psig
24. Steam baffles are installed in the steam drum of a water tube boiler to
A. direct the flow of steam to the desuperheater inlet

B. prevent water return

C. increase the velocity of steam and water mixture
D. reduce the possibilities of carryover
25. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations because .
A. soot interferes with the flow of feedwater
B. the steam drum internals will become clogged
C. the fuel oil heaters will become overloaded
D. soot insulates the boiler heating surfaces
26. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler water tubes and economizer surfaces
A. low stack temperature
B. high stack temperature
C. lower feedwater flow
D. high feedwater temperature
27. As the pH of the boiler water becomes zero, the water becomes increasingly .
A. alkaline
B. neutral
e. acidic
D. soft
28. ln testing the boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of .
A. total alkalinity in the water
B. phosphates present in the water
C. methyl orange that should be added
O. dissolved salts from sea contamination
29. The best conductor of heat in a marine boiler is
A. steel
B. water
e. steam
o. brick
30. To prevent safety valve from lifting when a boiler is being hydrostatically tested, you should .
A. tie down the hand lifting gear
B. increase the valve spring pressure
C. decrease the valve spring pressure
D. install gags on the valve
31. Dissolved and suspended solids are kept at minimum leveis by .
A. using only volatile chemicals
B. frequently blowing down the boiler
C. treating the boiler water with phosphate
D. the introduction of the oxygen scavenging chemical
32. Heavy slagging and high temperature corrosion of boiler tubes can result from using a fuel oil with
high amount of .
A. ash
B. sodium chloride salts
C. vanadium salts
D. all of the options
33. The heat exchanger used to heat the boiler feed water by means of waste gas as it passes from the boiler to the
A. Economizer
B. Close Condenser
e. Oil Heaters
D. Freshwater Heat
34. Fuel atomizer is used in boiler to ---
A. control the temperature of fuel entering the furnace
B. control the amount of air entering the furnace
 C. mix air and fuel together
D. break fuel oil into a fine spray
35. ln a propulsion boiler, diesel oil is generally supplied to the burners when .
A. heavy smoking persists
B. lighting off a cold ship
C. a heavy fuel oil must be blended
D. it is necessary to compensate for overload capacity
36. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
A. increased suction head pressure
B. decreased feed water temperature
C. pump recirculating line being open to much
D. excessive feed water temperature
37. As an operating engineer which action should you normally take during each watch when the
auxiliary boiler is operating?
A. Clean all duplex oil strainers
B. Observe general performance of the boiler
C. Lift the safety valve by hand
D. lnspect and clean burner oil solenoid valve
38. The proper use of boiler surface blow will .
A. remove most precipitated solids
B. remove floating impurities from boiler water
C. disrupt circulation in a steaming boiler
D. have no effect in boiler alkalinity
39. lf the engineer on watch is doubtful of the accuracy of water level in the boiler gauge glass, he
should
A. speed up the main feed pump
B. open the auxiliary feed line
C. blow down the gauge glass
D. start the stand by feed pump
40. Carbon dioxide gas dissolved in boiler water is dangerous because the gas .

A. forms carbonic acid which attacks watersides

B. breaks the magnetic iron oxide films inside boiler tubes
C. combines with sulphate to cause severe waterside pitting
D. combines with oxygen to cause severe waterside scaling
41. The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for

A. dissolved oxygen
B. chlorides
e. sludge
D. dissolved nitrogen
42. What corrective action is required when the boiler water test result shows low conductivity?
A. perform surface blow
B. add boiler compound
C. none
D. add disodium phosphate
43. Why should a boiler furnace be purged before the burner is lit off?
A. To control air pressure in the wind box
B. To ensure proper fuel to air ratio
C. To clear the furnace of any explosive gases
D. To make the fire easier to light
44. A boiler water pH reading equal to 7.
A. acidic
B. neutral
e. oily
D. alkaline
45. Which of the following consist of particles of water leaving the boiler together with the steam?
A. carry-over
B. superheated
C. feed water
D. condensate
46. Why should the fuel oil be re-circulated before lighting off a cold boiler?
A. To allow the fuel strainers clean the fuel oil
B. To heat the fuel enough for proper atomization
C. To ensure that water will completely remove from fuel oil
D. To allow fuel pressure to build up gradually
47. Phenolphthalein indicator is used to test boiler water for .
A. dissolved oxygen
B. alkalinity
C. chloride content
D. hardness
48. The amount of oxygen content in the boiler water can be reduced by .
A. adding hydrazine
B. bottom blow down the boiler
C. adding phosphate
D. surface blow down of the boiler
49. ln order to have an efficient operation of a boiler, what factors should be taken into
considerations?
A. warming up of boiler quickly
B. by-pass air heaters
C. proper boiler water conditioning
D. good blending of oíl
50. A boiler forced draft fan pressure gauge indicates 9 inches of water. This corresponds to a
pressure of .
A. 0.216 psig
B. 0.228 psig
e. 0.325 psig
D. 0.433 psig

Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Phi/ippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCI} Engine Reviewer.

BOILER: Answer Key

1. A 26.B
2. A 27.C
3. e 28.D
4. B 29.A
5. A 30. D
6. D 31. B
7. A 32.D
8. e 33.A
9. B 34.D
10. A 35. B
11. e 36.D
12. B 37. B
13. B 38.B
14.A 39.C
15. B 40.A
16. D 41. B
17.A 42.C
18.A 43.C
19. B 44. B
20.B 45.A
21. A 46.B
22.A 47. B
23. B 48.A
24. D 49.C
25.D 50.C
 Overheating of Compressor

Delivery air pressure low

Air receiver pressure too high

Too much water content in the

receiver

Too much oil in air receiver

when draining

Cooling water pressure too high

Cooling water pressure too low

AIR COMPRESSOR : Questions
1. What is the maximum air pressure of main air reservoir for the use of main engine
starting?
A. 20 bars
B. 30 bars
e. 40 bars
D. 50 bars
2. lf an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above normal, it usually indicates
A. hot environment
B. dirty intercooler
e. leaking valves
D. dirty lube oil
3. Main air compressor delivers high pressure air directly to the _
A. consumer
B. pneumatic tank
C. main air reservoir
D. air processing tank
4. Air compressor takes air from the - - - - -
A. atmosphere
B. air heater
C. air suction tank
D. primary tank
5. Auxiliary or working air compressor discharges a maximum air pressure of _ _ _ _ _
A. 10 bars
B. 8 bars
C. 7 bars
D. 5 bars
6. Air compressor use for cargo operation such as blowing of cargo pipes and other deck works is
known a - - - - -
A. cargo compressor
B. deck air compressor
C. emergency compressor
O. auxiliary compressor
7. This is use to protect the internai parts of air compressor from solid materiais which can be
sucked along with fresh air.
A. air deaner
B. unloader
e. paper cartridge
D. intake filter
8. Air compressor is fitted with this device for protection against over torque during starting.
A. reliever
B. unloader
C. air release device
D. solenoid
9. The function of the valve spring is _ _ _ _ _
A. to open the valve
B. to dose the valve

e. to release air
o. to keep the air
10. ln the two stage air compressor, when the 1st stage piston goes down the delivery valve is
A. open
B. admitting air
C. releasing air
O. dose

11. The spring of the safety valve is held in position by _

A. cotter pin
B. double nut
e. set screw
o. locking wire
12. When air compressor will not start, most probable cause is _
A. loose mounting bolts
8. clogged suction filter
C. broken valves
D. no power going to motor
13. lf one compressor belt is broken you should _
A. replace damaged belt
8. replace all belts
C. repair and re-use
D. interchange
14. A knocking sound heard from the running compressor, indicates _
A. restricted water flow in intercooler
8. clogged air filter
C. too much air pressure
D. broken valve plate
15. Low discharge pressure is caused by _
A. leaking safety valve
8. broken valve
C. intake filter clogged
D. any of the above
16. Air compressor is cont inuously running for a long period because _
A. pressure switch setting is high
8. pressure switch setting is low
C. intercooler water pressure is high
D. safety valve setting is low
17. ln a reciprocating air compressor, indication of worn piston is _ _ _ _ _ _
A. no build-up of air pressure
8. cooling water pressure too high
C. abnormal vibration
D. too much oil consumption

18. Multi-st age compressor is use _

A. for higher pressure application
B. for constant pressure application
C. when more volume of air is needed
D. when constant volume of air is needed
19. Air coming out from the intake air filter indicates _
A. stuck-up safety valve
B. leaking intercooler
C. broken intake valve
D. damaged piston
20. Unloader in air compressor is use _
A. to drain water from cylinder
B. release excess oil from the compressor
C. equalize first stage and second stage pressure
D. prevent excessive load on the motor during starting
21. Carbon built-up in air compressor discharge and suction valves ------
A. prolong its running time
B. can cause overheating of compressor
C. does not affect the efficiency of the compressor
D. any of the above
22. What cause the air compressor delivers air below normal pressure?
A. Discharge pressure setting is low
B. One of the v-belts is broken
C. Compressor is running continuously
D. Discharge valve is leaking
23. Dirty intercooler of an air compressor can _
A. damage the internai parts
B. cause high load to motor
C. increase lube oil consumption
D. block the discharge air passage

24. lf the air compressor is operating without the air intake filter it will cause ----
A. clogging of suction pipe
B. dirty lubricating oil
C. severe damage to valves and pistons
D. clogging of intercooler
25. Too much condensate in the piping of a control air system _ _ _ _ _
A. can clog air operated valves
B. can cool the entire system
C. does not have an effect on the system
D. can reduce the control air pressure
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Phi/ippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCJ) Engine Reviewer.
AIR COMPRESSOR - Answer Key
1. B 14.D
2.B 15.D
3.C 16.A
4.A 17. D
5.C 18.A
6.B 19.C
7.D 20.D
8. B 21. A
9.B 22.D
10.D 23.B
11. e 24.C
12.D 25. A
13. B

PURIFIERS (SEPARATORS) : Questions

1. Separator functions to separate both solid and liquid impurities of oil is known as
A. clarifier
B. purifier
e. ows
D. centrifuge
2. Clarifier is an oil separator use to remove _
A. solid and liquid contaminants
B. solid and gas contaminants
C. solid particles
D. liquid and gas contaminants
3. Purifier and clarifier are both working on the principie of _
A. Bernoulli
B. Pascal
C. centrifugai separation
D. gravity separation
4. Engineers use nomogram to get the correct _
A. size of gravity disc
B. adjustment of throughput
C. temperature
D. feeding pressure
5. Purifier is using gravity disc during oil purification to established correct _
A. purifier speed
B. temperature
C. inlet pressure
D. interface
6. The boundary of oil and water in the purifier bowl is called _
A. closed loop contrai system
B. open loop contrai system
C. praportion contrai system
D. integral contrai

7. Maximum limit of fuel density to allow efficient oil cleaning of purifier is _

A. 1000 kg/ m 3

B. 999 kg/ m 3

C. 991 kg/ m 3

D. 989 kg/ m 3

8. Oil viscosity can be reduced by _

A. heating
\
B. increasing bowl rotation
C. increasing inlet pressure
1

D. reducing feed rate

9. The inlet pipe connection_pf dirty oil in disc type centrifugai purifier is located at the _
A. botto'm of the bowl cover
B. top and bottom of bowl cover
C. side of the bowl cover
D. top of the bowl cover
10. Dirty oil is heated prior to entering the purifier bowl to _ _ _ _
A. prevent corrosion
B. reduce oil viscosity for easy handling
C. remove water
D. any of the above
11. Correct interface of oil and water is-----
A. inside the disc stack
B. dose to the center
C. outside the disc stack
D. at the center
12. lf the interface moves outside from its correct position, purified oil will _ _ _ _ _
A. come out through the water outlet
B. come out through the dirty oil inlet
C. come out through sludge port
D. come out through the clean oil outlet
13. The following factors are affecting the efficiency of the centrifugai purifier except _
A. viscosity
B. specific gravity
e. feed rate

D. alkalinity
14. ln centrifugai purifier the discharge of the sludge is done_ _ _ _ _
A. through sludge outlet pipe located on top of the bowl
B. through the water outlet pipe
C. by opening the bowl
D. all of the above option
15. The separation chamber of the purifier is called _

A. heavy liquid chamber

B. bowl
C. light liquid chamber
D. pilot valve assembly
16. Part of centrifugai disc purifier use to hold discs in place and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the
bottom then to the discs as the oil flows upward is called _ _
A. distributor
B. top disc
e. bowl
 D. main cylinder
_ _ _
17. When the centrifugai disc type purifier is in separation process, the bowl is _
A. open
B. closed
C. rotating slowly
D. half the speed of motor
18. When the centrifugai disc type purifier is in de-sludging mede, the bowl is _
A. open
B. closed
C. rotating slowly
D. half the speed of motor
19. The following are parts of the main bowl of purifier except _
A. hood
B. bolt
C. nut
D. body
20. Unbalance accumulation of sludge in the bowl can result to _
A. slow discharge of purified oil
B. excessive sealing water
C. leaking of oil to water outlet pipe
D. vibration
21. The oil is heated prior to entering centrifugai purifier to _
A. cascade contrai
B. improve purification
C. to inlet pressure
D. to increase flow
22. ln disc type centrifugai purifier, the bowl is located on the upper of _
A. below the electric motor
B. friction clutch
C. bowl spindle
D. horizontal shaft
23. The nut of the bowl assembly is confirmed tight by means of _
A. a torque wrench
B. aligned marks on the body and nut
C. when the nut is no longer move after several hammer blows
D. any of the options
24. ln a centrifugai purifier, dirty oil enters the discs stack _
A. from the bottom going up
B. from the topside going down
C. from the top going down
D. nane of the above

25. The boundary of oil and water in the purifier bowl is called _
A. periphery
B. interface
e. oil region
D. water boundary
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and

Philippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCI} Engine Reviewer.

PURIFIERS (SEPARATORS) : Answer Key
1. B 14 . e
2. e 15. B
3. e 16. A
4. A 1 7. B
5. D 1 8. A
6. B 19 . B
7. e 20. D
8. A 21. B
9. D 22. e
10. B 23. B
11. e 24. A
12. A 25. B
13. D
CHAPTER 8
PUMPS
Pump is a mechanical device that imparts energy to the liquid causing it to flow. The main use of
pump is to move the liquid. ln the pumping system, pump creates the flow of liquid. To increase the pressure, there s
Two Classifications of Pump
1. Positive Displacement Pump - the discharge capacity is not dependent of the head. This pump produces c
viscosity liquid like fuel oil and lube oil.

PUMPS : Questions
1. Type of pump which is independent of the head is _ _
A. positive displacement type
B. centrifugai type
C. eductor
D. ejector

_ _ _
2. Type of pump which is dependent of the head is _
A. piston pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. screw pump
D. centrifugai pump
3. One of the major components of centrifugai pump is _
A. impeller
B. piston
C. gear
D. screw
4. The following are the negative factors that affect the suction of the pump except
A. friction
B. vapour pressure
C. npshr
D. atmospheric pressure
5. Pumping condition where the liquid is turning into vapour is called _
A. pressurizing
B. negative lift
e. cavitation
D. liquid trap
6. The corresponding height of the liquid measured from the surface of the liquid above the
pump is called _ _ _ _ _
A. total head
B. head
e. suction lift
D. liquid gravity
7. Minimum amount of work the pump must do to transfer the liquid corresponds to .
A. suction head
B. discharge head
e. friction head
D. total head
8. Liquid height measured from the surface of the liquid down to the pump on its discharge side is called ------
A. suction head
B. discharge head
e. friction head
D. total head
9. Pressure measured at the bottom of the tank filled with liquid is called _
A. liquid pressure
B. hydrodynamic pressure
C. hydrostatic pressure
D. absolute pressure
10. Absolute pressure is also called _
A. total head
B. compound pressure
C. combined pressure
D. total pressure
11. Too much heating of liquid to be pumped can cause _
A. cavitation
B. increase volume of discharge
C. increase pressure
D. increase liquid flow

12. lncreased clearance between the wear ring and impeller beyond recommended by the
manufacturer can _ _ _ _ _
A. increase volume flow
B. increase pump efficiency
C. reduce pump efficiency
D. do no harm to the pump
13. When the liquid in the tank is low, reducing the speed of the pump will _
A. be bad for the pump
B. improve pump suction
C. be a waste of time
D. not affect the performance of the pump
14. Which type of pump is widely used as cargo pump in tanker ship?
A. Positive Pump
B. Gear Pump
C. Centrifugai Pump
D. Reciprocating Pump
15. When pumps are operating in series there will be an increase of _ _ _ _ _
A. volume discharge
B. discharge pressure
C. pumps load
D. liquid velocity
16. When centrifugai pumps are operating in parallel there will be an increase of_ _ _ _ _
A. volume discharge
B. discharge pressure
C. pumps load
D. liquid velocity
17. The purpose of mechanical seal in the centrifugai pump is_ _ _ _ _

A. to provide cooling
B. to protect wear and tear parts
C. prevent damage to impeller
D. to prevent escaping of liquid through the pump shaft
18. Which part of the pump is worn out if the discharge capacity is reduced?
A. Wear Ring
B. lmpeller
e. Shaft
D. Mechanical Seal

19. During starting the discharge valve can be closed for the - - - - -
A. positive displacement pump
B. centrifugai pump
C. gear pump
D. screw pump
20. ln tanker ship, when the liquid in the tank has reached low level, the liquid can be discharged by
means of _ _ _
_ _
A. vacuum
B. gravity
C. draining
D. stripping
21. A mechanical device that adds energy to the liquid causing it to flow is _ _ _ _ _
A. gear
B. pump
C. valve
D. orifice
22. Piston pump is classified as _ _ _ _ _
A. double acting pump
B. vane pump
C. high speed pump
D. reciprocating pump
23. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugai pump is to _ _ _ _ _
A. minimize wear of impeller and casing
B. prevent damage to shaft
C. maintain alignment of shaft
D. all of the above
24. The following pumps have a relief valve installed on their discharge side except _
A. gear pump
B. piston pump
C. centrifugai pump
D. screw pump
25. lf the liquid is below the pump, it is called _
A. suction lift
B. discharge lift
e. negative lift
D. npshr
26. The pressure acting on a liquid which cause the liquid to turn to vapour is called _
A. saturation pressure
B. vapour pressure
e. absolute pressure
D. criticai point
27. The lowest height of the liquid which can be pumped without cavitation is called _
A. total head
B. net positive suction head available
C. net positive suction head required
D. minimum head
28. Pressure divided by (density x acceleration dueto gravity) is formula for _
A. head
 B. hydrostatic pressure
C. npshr
D. volume flow

29. The constant value of acceleration dueto gravity is -----

A. 0.981 m/sec
B. 9.81 m/sec
C. 0.981 m/ sec 2

D. 9.81m/ sec 2

30. lf the bottom pressure of water in the tank is 2.95 bars, what is the height of water in the tank?
A. 20 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
31. The depth of the sea is 135 meters. Using the formula, what is the pressure at the bottom if the
density of the seawater is 1025 kg/ m ? 3

A. 12.57 bars
B. 125.7 bars
C. 13.57 bars
D. 135.7 bars
32. A reciprocating pump discharge pressure is low, the cause maybe _
A. suction valve is closed
B. discharge valve is closed
C. by pass valve is closed
D. relief valve is leaking
33. After overhauling, an electric driven centrifugai pump failed to build up pressure when starting,
the reason maybe _
A. suction pressure is high
B. discharge valve is closed
C. suction valve is open
D. wrong impeller rotation
34. Most common reason of centrifugai pump break down is dueto - - - - - -
A. pump started at closed discharge valve
B. cavitation
C. high suction pressure
D. high discharge pressure
35. ln a centrifugai pump if the back pressure is high, the _
A. suction pressure is high
B. suction pressure is low
C. discharge capacity is low
D. discharge capacity is high
36. ln a centrifugai pump if the back pressure is low, the _
A. suction pressure is high
B. suction pressure is low
C. discharge capacity is low
D. discharge capacity is high
37. What material is used in the mechanical seal?
A. bronze
B. carbon
e. copper
D. hard plastic
38. Vibration and noise in a pump maybe caused by _
A. small wear ring clearance
B. high suction pressure

C. bent shaft
D. damaged mechanical seal
39. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the pump are _ _ _ _ _
A. bearings
B. impeller
e. lantern ring
D. wear rings
40. Pump normally used for high viscosity liquid is _

A. centrifugai pump
B. positive displacement pump
C. vacuum pump
D. eductor
41. The following are immediate effects of cavitation in the pump except _
A. vibration
B. noisy
C. low or no discharge pressure
D. cold pump casing
42. S.I. unit for discharge capacity of pump is _
A. liters per minute
B. cubic meter/hour
C. barreis per hour
D. gallons/minute
43. lmportant check to carry-out during overhauling is the _
A. wear ring clearance
B. pump shaft condition
C. mechanical seal condition
D. impeller condition
44. The graph that shows the relationship between head and capacity of the pump is known as
A. capacity curve
B. performance curve
C. pump head curve
D. pressure and volume curve
45. Factors that determine the pressure of the liquid in the tank are the density and
A. volume of liquid
B. viscosity of the liquid
C. height of the liquid
D. all of the above

46. lnstrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is _

A. hydrometer
B. calorimeter
e. pyrometer
D. barometer
47. The velocity of liquid in the centrifugai pump is at maximum _
A. in the discharge side of the pump
B. in the eye of the impeller
C. when the discharge valve is closed
D. when the suction valve is closed
48. The following are the characteristics of the centrifugai pump except, _
A. not affected by the back pressure
B. needs to be primed
C. can be started at closed discharge valve
D. it has impeller
49. Pressure in the surrounding is called _

A. absolute pressure
B. compound pressure
C. dynamic pressure
D. atmospheric pressure
50. The sum of atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure is called _
A. dynamic pressure
B. absolute pressure
C. barometric pressure
D. static pressure

Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consultative Councif, lnc (PJMCCI} Engíne Reviewer .
PUMPS: ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. o
3. A
4. o
5. e
6. B
7. o
8. B
9. e
10. o
11. A
12. e
13. B
14. e
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. e
25. A

REFRIGERATION ANO AIR CONDITIONING: Questions

1. The thermostatic expansion valves of a refrigeration system are opened _
A. by spring pressure and close by refrigerant pressure
B. by refrigerant pressure and dose by spring pressure
C. and close by spring pressure
D. and dose by refrigerant pressure
2. An instrument used to detect leaks in the refrigeration system is - - - - - -
A. thermometer
B. shy bolt instrument
C. tachometer
D. halide torch
3. lf there is a leak in a refrigeration system, halide torch fiame will turn blue to _
A. yellow
B. red
C. white
D. green
4. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor
to restart?
A. closing of the solenoid valve
B. closing of the expansion valve
C. an increase in the suction pressure
D. a decrease in the suction pressure
5. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or nota refrigeration system is sufficiently charged.
A. high pressure liquid line
B. low pressure liquid line
C. high pressure vapor line
D. low pressure vapor line
6. The term 'oil foaming' in refrigeration practice is used to describe t he_ _ _ _ _ _
A. released of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase
B. released of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase
C. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid
D. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant
7. One ton refrigeration is equal to _
A. 180 BTU/hr
B. 2,000 BTU/hr
C. 12,000 BTU/hr
D. 2,880,000 BTU/hr
8. How much heat cana 5 ton refrigeration unit remove from a refrigerated space?
A. 60,000 BTU/hr
B. 80,000 BTU/hr
C. 100,000 BTU/hr
D. 120,000 BTU/hr pressure
9. lf a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU/hr, the equivalent tonnage of the unit is _
A. 2 tons
B. 4 tons
C. 6 tons
D. 8 tons
10. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugai compressor when there is __
A. a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow
B. fouled condenser tube
C. excessive air in the system
D. all of the above
11. What is the purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor?
A. Reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil
B. Prevent acidic pitting
C. Removed entrained water
D. Remove wax and gum
12. What maybe the possible cause if the pressure at the refrigeration compressor suction inlet is below normal?
A. Overcharge of refrigerant
B. Short cycling of the compressor
C. Restricted suction filter
D. Overfeeding expansion valve pressure

13. lf the suction of the compressor is below normal the cause maybe_ _ _ _
A. an excess of liquid refrigerant
B. the expansion valve is overfeeding
C. a fouled compressor suction filter
D. the compressor short cycling
14. The solenoid valve of a refrigeration system is controlled by _ _ _ _ _ _
A. thermal switch operated by,the ic box temperatljre
B. amount of liquid in the svstem
C. temperature in the condenser
D. amount of gas in the system
15. Jhe: char ging Yi=!IV q_f a refrigeration system is located.betwee,nthe _
A. compressor and the condenser
B. king valve and the expan. ion .val y . ..· 1

C. suction valve and the discharge yalye

D. evaporator and the expansion v lv,e , , , ,, , .•. ,,,;

16. ln a refrigeration system, king valve is located _

,A... , Fl h s.ucJiçrn siql:!,Pf . Víl!P9rato,r;:
1 .. tr,'

B. at the discharge side of expansion valve

e. at the suct io.n side,of th.e: cqrnpr pr i 1c '>,. J:,:di

D. atthe discharge of a liquid receiyeJ) i.n ;'.' ,.,.·,:-.!
,.
,·•,

17. ln the refrigeration syst e r:n; the refriger nt absorbs : t h .Jateri, hea .p.f vaporization in
the---
A. evaporator
B. compressor
e. condenser
D. liquid receiver

18. The moisture entering a refrigeration system will most likely _

A. boil in the condenser
B. be removed by the liquid line strainer
C. cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils
D. freeze in the expansion valve
19. Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by _
A. bleeding refrigerant from the condenser
B. opening drain cock on the oil separator
C. condensing the water in heat exchanger
O. using a dehydrator cartridge
20. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause _
A. freezing the expansion valve closed
B. corrosion of system piping
C. improper temperature regulation
 O. AII of the above
21. lf a liquid sight glass in a refrigeration system shows gas bubbles passing inside of the glass,
there is-----
A. too much refrigerant in the system
B. oil entrained in the refrigerant
C. less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system
O. ice crystals forming in a refrigerant
22. Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction line of a refrigeration
compressor?
A. Shortage of refrigerant in the system.
B. Expansion valve is stuck open.
C. Liquid line service valve is closed
O. Condenser cooling water temperature is too high
23. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is located _
A. after oil separator
B. before liquid receiver
C. before expansion valve
O. after evaporator

24. Before opening any part of the refrigeration system for maintenance, what precautions must
be taken?
A. use halide torch to check for leakage before doing maintenance
B. prevent entrance of moisture since positive pressure exists in the system
C. defrost line to remove frost on coils to ensure visibility of parts to maintain
D. set high pressure cut-out on manual to prevent automatic starting
25. Which of these refrigerating systems uses brine?
A. Dual System
B. Direct Refrigeration
C. lndirect Refrigeration
D. Direct Thermal Type
26. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called the
A. boiling point
B. dew point
C. absolute humidity temperature D condensation temperature
27. The process of removing moisture from air is known as _
A. dehumidification
B. humidification
C. evaporation
D vaporization temperature
28. lncreasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as _
A. moisturizing
B. humidification
C. dehumidification D condensation
29. An indication of too much Freon in the system is _
A. when the compressor runs in short cycles
B. when the compressor absorbs oil in its crankcase
C. when the safety valve lifts repeatedly
D when the compressor runs without stopping
30. One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be _
A. high evaporator superheat
B. the liquid valve is open too much
C. a low refrigerant charge in the system
D insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser
31. lf the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will
A. short cycle on the water low pressure switch
B. run continuously
e. not start
D short cycle on the high pressure switch
32. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high pressure refrigerant
A. refrigerant inlet of the condenser
B. inlet side of the evaporator
C. liquid strainer
D. suction side of the compressor
33. High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by _
A. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened
B. the king valve is insufficiently open
C. a dirty dehydrator
D. the expansion valve being open too wide
34. A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always indicates _
A. a lack of refrigerant
B. a dirty dehydrator
C. proper refrigerant contrai
D. enough refrigerant is passing in the evaporator
35. Sludge may be formed in the oil crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a
result of ----
A. refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity
B. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil
C. moisture in the refrigerant
 D. oxidation of the lube oil from overheating
36. Check the oil level in a refrigeration compressor _
A. after an extended lay-up period
B. while running
C. just before starting the compressor
D. immediately after the compressor shuts down after a long period of operation
37. When a substance changes from solid to a liquid without a temperature change, the change is
caused by_ _ _ _ _
A. sensible heat
B. heat of vaporization
C. heat of evaporation
D. latent heat of fusion
38. A refrigeration pressure gauge also indicates _ _
A. vacuum
B. volume
C. temperature
D. weight
_ _ _ _
39. Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high efficiency, it is however
A. toxic
B. explosive
e. flammable
D. all of the above
40. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from the _
A. condenser to the expansion valve
B. expansion valve to the evaporator

C. expansion valve to the compressor

D. evaporator to the condenser
41. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems starts from the _

A. compressor to the expansion valve

B. evaporator to the compressor
C. expansion valve to the compressor
D. compressor to the condenser
42. The purpose of expansion valve is to _ _ _ _ _ _ _
A. change the gasto a liquid
B. provide a chamber for the pre-expansion of the liquid
C. provide an orifice between the high pressure and low pressure side of the system
D. to speed-up the flow of refrigerant
43. ln a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at
----
the

A. evaporator
B. compressor
e. condenser
D. expansion valve
44. ln a refrigeration system the purpose of an evaporator is to _ _ _ _ _ _
A. absorb the latent heat of vaporization
B. transmit the latent heat of vaporization
C. absorb the latent heat of fusion
D. transmit the latent heat of fusion
45. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the _ _ _ _ _
A. condenser
B. compressor
C. expansion valve
D. evaporator
46. ln a refrigeration system, the temperature of the refrigerant gas is the highest _
A. at the evaporator outlet
B. at the expansion valve outlet
C. at the suction of the compressor
D. at the discharge of the compressor
47. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration system is called _
A. dehumidifier
8. receiver
C. charging tank
D. purging tank
48. What causes a refrigeration compressor to run continuously?
A. The high pressure switch is open
8. The low pressure switch is jammed
C. A defective thermal bulb
D. The strainer is clogged
49. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to _
A. operate at minimum efficiency
8. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor
C. start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures
D. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor
50. ln a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line before
A. the oil separator
8. the condenser
C. the receiver
D. each expansion valve
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consu/tative Council, lnc {PJMCCI} Engine Reviewer.

REFRIGERATION ANO AIR CONDITIONING: Answer Key

1. B 26. B
2.D 27.A
3.D 28. B
4. C 29.A
5.A 30.D
6. B 31. B
7. C 32.D
8.A 33.C
9. B 34.A
10.D 35.D
11. A 36.D
12.C 37.D
13. C 38.C
14. A 39.D
15.B 40.C
16.D 41.A
17.A 42.C
18.D 43.D
19.D 44.A
20.D 45.B
21. e 46.D
22. B 47.B
23.C 48. B
24.A 49.C
25.C 50.D

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM: Questions

1. One of the four basic components of hydraulic system that provides the flow of oil in the
 system is called
A. pump
B. power
e. motor
D. valve
2. Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted undiminished and acts equally in all directions and at right ang
A. Newton's Law
B. Archimedes Principie
C. Pascal Law
D. Bernoulli's Principie
3. ln hydraulic system, valves are known as _
A. actuators
B. directional valves
C. solenoid valves
D. pneumatic valves

4. ln hydraulic system, all machines which are consumers of hydraulic power equipped with
A. motor
B. pump
e. relief valve
D. tank
5. A hydraulic system where all oil goes back to the tank is termed as. _
A. A4V system
B. A2V system
C. close loop system
D. open loop system
6. A hydraulic system where only a small amount of oil is flowing back to the tank is called
A. A4V system
B. A2V system
C. dose loop system
D. open loop system
7. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with _
A. 4 positions and 3 ports
B. 4 ports and 3 positions
C. 4 positions and 3 method of operation
D. 2 ports and 3 posítíons
8. The inlet port of hydraulic oil supply to the direction valve is designated by
letter------
A. p
B. R
e. s
D. T
9. lnitial position of a solenoid operated directional valve is always held by _
A. hydraulic oil
B. spring
e. actuator
D. any of the above
10. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _ _ _ _
A. rotary pump
B. gear pump
e. centrifugai pump
D. piston pump
11. A vicker hydraulic pump is _
A. vane type
B. piston type
e. geartype
D. screw type
12. Return port of a hydraulic directional valve is designated by letter _
A. p
B. R
e. s
D. T
13. How many relief valves are installed in a hydraulic system?
A.
B.
e.
D.
14. At constant flow rate, the sum of kinetic energy and pressure energy at various points in a
hydraulic system is constant. This is according to _
A. Newton's Law of Motion
B. Pascal Law
C. Archimedes Principie
D. Bernoulli's Principie
15. When the hydraulic oil level in the tank is below normal during operation, there is a possible build-
up of _
A. pressure
B. vortex
C. heat
D. moisture
16. The term used to describe fluid at rest is -----
A. hydrodynamic
B. hydrokinetic
C. hydrostatic
D. any of the above
17. ln hydraulic system, pressure is created by _
A. pump
B. relief valve
C. restriction in the line
D. directional valve
18. The unit of force, kilopond is equal to _
A. 1 kg-force
B. 1 newton
C. 1 bar
D. 1 pound
19. Normal hydraulic level in the tank is _
A. 50% of the tank height
B. 60% of the tank height
C. 75% of the tank height
D. 90% of the tank height
20. Vortex is bad for hydraulic oil because, _ _ _ _ _
A. it allows entry of air in the system
B. solid contaminants build - up in the system
C. it overheats the system
D. it tends to over-pressure the system
21. The 5.1. unit of pressure is _
A. psi
B. newton
e. bar
D. pascal
22. The filter element of hydraulic oil in the system is _
A. to be disposed after second use
B. disposable
C. reusable
D. to be sent back to manufacturer for recondition
23. Formula for pressure is _ _ _ _ _
A. Force * Distance
B. Force/Distance
C. Force* Area
D. Force/Area

24. A fixed displacement pump is a hydraulic pump in which the ----

A. discharge pressure is constant
B. discharge capacity is changing
C. discharge capacity is constant
D. discharge capacity is dependent to the consumption
25. An A4V hydraulic pump is _
A. variable displacement pump
B. vicker pump
C. vane pump
D. any of the above
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCI) Engine Reviewer.
HYDRAULIC SYSTEM : Answer Key
1. A 14. D
2. e 15. B
3. B 16. e
4. A 17. e
5. D 18. A
6. e 19. e
7. B 20. A
8. A 21. D
9. B 22. B
10. D 23. D
11. A 24. e
12. D 25. A
13. A
CHAPTER 11
FRESHWATER EVAPORATOR
Crew on board ship needs fresh water for the maintenance of their equipment but most importantly
for personal use. Obviously, freshwater generator is one of the important machines that should be kept running in go
Fresh water evaporator produces freshwater out of sea water by distillation. Distillation is a process of heating up the
Evaporators in running ships are normally using vacuum for the purpose of reducing the boiling
temperature so that even at lower temperature, water will boil. The vacuum is provided by a vacuum pump or by sea
Types of Freshwater Evaporator Found in the Ships
1. Tube Type Evaporator
2. Plate Type Evaporator
Low fresh water production rate

Low fresh water production rate

FRESHWATER EVAPORATOR: Questions
1. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket coolin
A. Ejector
B. Evaporator
C. Condenser
D. Shell
2. Heat exchangers used in distilling plants include air ejector, condenser, feed water heater
anda----
A. brine cooler
B. distillate cooler
C. distillate heater
D. vapour separator cooler

3. Prior to producing water in the distiller, it is important to -----

A. maintain vacuum pressure
B. maintain jacket cooling temperature
C. ensure that no polluted water is admitted
D. water is properly treated with chemical
4. Air entered into the shell chamber is removed by the-----
A. distillate pump
B. evaporator
C. relief valve
D. ejector
5. The presence of dirt on the ejector could cause a _
A. decrease in vacuum
B. increase in shell temperature
C. decrease in shell temperature
D. decrease in distillate pump pressure
6. When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum,
----
the

A. distillate pump pressure decrease

B. capacity increase
C. scale formation increase
D. shell temperature increase

7. Scale formation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause _

A. loss of vacuum
B. reduced evaporator capacity
C. increase water purity
D. reduce shell temperature
8. Air leaking in the flash type distilling plant could occur through_ _ _ _ _ _
A. gasketed joints
B. gauge glass packings
C. valve stem
D. ali of the options
9. Distilled water from an evaporator maybe discharged into a potable water tank _ _ _ _ _
A. after chemical analysis
B. after passing through a filter
C. through a solenoid operated valve
D. through a detachable hose connection
10. Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result to _
A. contamination of the distillate
B. contamination of second stage condenser
C. lower feed inlet temperature
D. loss of second stage vacuum
11. Which statement is correct pertaining to Distilling Plant operation?
A. Distillate is a freshwater resulting from boiling of shore water
B. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapour which is condensed to freshwater
C. Brine is the result of condensed seawater vapour
D. Vacuum is necessary to remove the salt content of seawater to produce freshwater
12. Potable water piping systems installed aboard ship must be _
A. disinfected monthly with chlorine compound
B. steel to prevent internai corrosion
C. flushed each time potable water is taken on board
D. independent of all other piping systems
13. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash evaporator are cooled by _
A. seawater
B. air
C. distillate
D. brine
14. How is vacuum created in a flash type distilling plant?
A. condensation of seawater feed
B. the flashing of the feed water
C. condensation of the distillate
D. air ejector, educator ora separate vacuum pump
15. Water droplets together with vapour leaving the evaporating section are removed by _
A. further increase in vacuum
B. ejector
C. demister
D. increasing shell temperature
16. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principie of measuring the _
A. electrical conductivity of water
B. electrical inductance of water
C. specific gravity of water
D. hydrogen ion concentration of water
17. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the _
A. quantity of freshwater produced
B. quality of water produced
C. leaking tube
D. amount of chemical to be added
18. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces _ _ _ _ _ _
A. increases brine density
B. increases distillate salinity
C. reduces metal corrosion
D. reduces heat transfer
19. ln the production of freshwater from seawater through a process of heating and cooling, the
cooling phase of production is usually called_ _
A. evaporation
B. condensation
e. distillation
D. sublimation
_ _ _
20. The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is called
A. evaporation
B. condensation
e. distillation
D. sublimation

21. The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compareci to submerged tube type evaporators,
include - - - - -
A. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate produced
B. less scale formation in a flash evaporator
C. less internai corrosion because of lower brine density
D. less feed water required for a flash evaporator
22. Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube evaporator because
A. the distillate produced has greatest purity
B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces
C. evaporation occurs ata higher rate
D. the incoming feed is ata higher temperature
23. An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator may be caused by _
A. high water level in the shell
B. inadequate steam quality to the air ejector nozzles
C. improper venting of the tube nests
D. air leaks in the tube nests
24. Priming in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by high water levei and _
A. low brine density
B. high absolute pressure
C. low steam pressure
D. excessive brine density

25. Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an-----

A. psychrometer
B. salinometer
C. anemometer
D. barometer
26. lf the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator cannot be maintained with
the maximum jacket water flow rate, the evaporator _
A. has a serious brine leak
B. temperature switch is defective
C. chemical feed must be increased
D. heating surfaces are scaled
27. ln a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur
in the-----
A. saltwater feed heater
B. distillate cooler
C. second stage feed heater
D. second stage vapor separator
28. Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from _
A. low brine concentration
B. reduced evaporator capacity
C. improper vacuum regulation
D. poor distillate quality

29. Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of _

A. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
8. high distillate conductivity
C. low distillate conductivity
D. a pressure drop through the loop seal
30. lf a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect -----

A. a leak in the feed water heater

8. improper vacuum
C. malfunctioning brine pump
D. a clogged desuperheater water strainer
31. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should _
A. fill theunit with saltwater
8. completely drain the unit
C. tightly seal the unit to exclude air
D. fill theunit with de-scaling compound
32. ln a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh-type vapor separators function to
A. improve distillate purity
8. vent non-condensable gases
C. recycle evaporator flash steam
O. direct flash steam into the cooler
33. ln the operation of a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly
reduced by _
A. maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature
8. operating the unit at its rated capacity

C. the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit
D. the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell ata constant pressure

34. On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber i-s - - - - - -

A. the open area above the brine leveis in the first and second stages
B. combined as part of the distillate cooler
C. another term used to describe the vapor feed heater
D. combined as part of the salt water feed heater
35. Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing - - - - - - -
A. steam through cooling coils
B. steam through heating coils
C. heated water into a low pressure area
D. heated water into a high pressure area
36. ln a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly
A. increasing its temperature
B. increasing its velocity
C. decreasing its density
D. decreasing its pressure
37. ln a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through
the
- - - - - - -
A. first stage distilling condenser
B. second stage distilling condenser
C. salt water feed heater
D. all of the above
38. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by _
A. seawater
B. brine
C. air
D. distillate
39. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by _ _ _ _

A. air ejectors, eductors, ora separate vacuum pump

B. the flashing of the feed water
C. the condensation of the saltwater feed
D. condensation of the distillate
40. A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two stages of a multiple

stage distilling plant by the use of_ _ _ _ _

A. steam trap
B. butterfly valve
C. loop seal
D. adjustable controller
41. Vacuum in a plate type evaporator is maintained to _
A. evaporate the freshwater content of seawater below lOOºC
B. remove the salt content of seawater
 C. maintain shell temperature
D. increase shell temperature

42. Difficulty to increase the vacuum is dueto- - - - - -

A. dirt on air ejector
B. leaking on joints
C. low discharge pressure of ejector pump
D. all of the above
43. An excessively high brine level in a low pressure distilling plant can be caused by _
A. excessive brine pump motor speed

B. broken brine pump

C. increased distillate pump speed
D. decreased distillate pump speed
44. An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator maybe caused by _
A. inadequate steam to air ejector nozzle
B. high water level in the shell
C. broken distillate pump
D. improper venting of tube nests
45. ln a flash type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell should be installed in the _
A. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler
B. outlet of distillate cooler
C. condensate drains from feed water heater
O. all of the above
46. A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installed in the discharge line between the
distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the
A. distillate pump is broken
B. distillate temperature is high
C. distillate salinity is high
O. distillate pump pressure is high
47. Main engine jacket cooling water is use in distilling plant to _
A. maintain vacuum
B. heat up feed seawater
C. reduce brine
D. drive air out of the evaporator shell
48. lndicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a fl ash-type distilling plant will be a result
 -----
of

A. maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance

B. carrying the brine levei below normal
C. leaks in the demister baffles
O. venting of the saltwater heater drain pump
49. ln a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is vaporized in the _
A. first and second stage flash chamber
B. feed water heater
C. first stage flash chamber only
O. second stage flash chamber only

50. What type of distilling plant is not using a vacuum?

A. Flash Type
B. Tube Type
C. Reverse Osmosis
O. Plate Type
Note: Some o/ the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and Philippine-
FRESHWATER EVAPORATOR: Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. e
4. o
5. A
6. e
7. B
8. o
9. e
10. A
11. B
12. o
13. A
14. o
15. e
16. A
17. B
18. o
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. B
23. B
24. o
25. B
CHAPTER 12
HOW TO MEASURE DIFFERENT ELECTRICAL COMPONENTS
A. Megger Testing or lnsulation Testing of an Electric Motor, Three-Phase 440VAC
lnstrument: lnsulation - Continuity Tester
EARTH

(BLKK)

r- LINE (RED)

an zttn :oNO ffYO 2001m 2totMn OO i1Nl1m' RANGE IN!HJLATION

n ca , o t'llT
Figure 1 Sampie of the Tester
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM: Questions
1. ln Ohm's Law, V/R will solve for _
A. Current
B. Resistance
C. Power
D. Ohm
2. Electrically charged atoms are called _
A. valence
B. ions
C. isotope
D. molecule
3. An electronic component which can store electrical energy is the _
A. rectifier
B. transistor
C. diode
D. capacitar
4. An electrical device that converts alternating current to direct current is known as _
A. transformer
B. capacitar
C. rectifier
D. AVR
5. Electron which can be found in the last orbit of an atem is called -----
A. valence
B. ion
C. proton
D. neutron
6. A device that utilizes the principie of electromagnetic induction is the _
A. transformer

B. transistor
C. rectifier
D. AVR
7. Battery room should be well ventilated because charging process produces _
A. poisonous vapor
B. corrosive vapor
e. toxic vapor
D. explosive vapor
8. The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery is _ _ _ _ _ _
A.
B.
e.
D.
9. Electrical current is measured in am pere . One ampere is equal to _ _ _ _ _
A. 1 electron/second
B. 1 coulomb/second
C. 1 rneter/seco11d
D. 1 ion/second
10. An electrolyte consists of distilled water and sulphuric acid can be found in _
A. nickel cadmium
B. alkaline cell battery
C. lead-acid battery
D. nickel iron battery

11. The force used to drive an electrical current in a circuit is called-----

A. electromotive force
B. current force
C. electron force
D. dielectric strength

12. Electrical leads and insulation of the motor should be coated with - - - - -
A. electro-paint
B. heat resistant paint
e. ordinary paint
D. insulating varnish
13. The unit of electrical resistance is ----
A. ohm
B. volt
e. ampere
D. watt
14. Fuses are rated in------
A. ampere
B. voltage
C. interrupting capacity
D. all of the above
15. Positive ians going to the negative electrode is called _
A. cations
B. anions
C. proton
D. electron
16. Negative ians going to the Positive electrode is called _
A. cations
B. anions
C. proton
D. electron
17. The conduction of electrical current in a liquid solution is dueto _
A. electrolysis
B. electrolytic dissociation
C. electrode
D. electrolytic submission
18. The moving part of an electric motor is the _
A. coil
B. stator
C. rotor
D. conductor
19. ln series circuit, if the voltage is the sarne and the resistance is increased, the flow of current
A. increased
B. increased by one-half
C. the sarne
D. decreased
20. ln an AC system, low PF indicates _
A. good operation
B. wasted energy
C. good insulation
D. load draws less current
21 A motor with enclosure that protects from falling liquids is classed as _
A. rust proof
B. water proof
C. drip proof
D. spray proof
22. The unit Hertz is equal to _
A. revolutions per second
B. cycles per second
C. revolutions per minute
D. frequency per second
23. A material that allows passing of electron is called _
A. conductor
B. insulator
C. capacitor
D. resistor

24. Copper is generally used as an electrical conductor because _

A. it does not get hot even in big current
B. it can be found anywhere
C. it is very cheap
D. it offers little resistance to current
25. What will be the phase angle relationship of a 6 pole, 3 phase, rotating field generator?
A. 360 º
 B. 240 º
e. 120 º

D. 60 º
26. The conversion of electrical to chemical energy by the conduction of current through a liquid is
called ---
A. electrolysis
B. electrochemistry
C. electron bonding
D. electrical conductivity
27. To check the capacitor which was taken from a circuit, you should first _
A. wipe with rags
B. check the resistance
C. check the continuity
D. short circuit its terminais
28. A DC shunt generator has its field windings connected in _
A. series with the armature windings
B. series with the series winding
C. parallel with the field rheostat
D. parallel with the armature windings
29. A wire connected to the motor wiring and to its metal trame is called _
A. short

B. ground
e. heat sink
D. insulation
30. The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is a ------
A. secondary battery
B. primary battery
C. de exciter generator
D. ali of the above
31. Lead acid battery positive plate is made-up of _
A. lead peroxide
B. lead sulphate
C. copper
D. zinc
32. ln transformer, mat eri.al of the core is usually _
A. bronze
B. copper
 C. iron
D. aluminium
33. ln an electrical circuit, transformer is used to -------
A. oppose current
B. increase or decrease the voltage
C. convert AC to DC
D. energize the circuit
34. A safety device in an electrical circuit consisting of metal stríp that melts when the current exceeds the safe level is called -
A. rheostat
B. diode
e. fuse
D. circuit breaker
35. What type of liquid is added to the lead acid battery?
A. Soft Water
B. Hard Water
e. Mineral Water
D. Distilled Water

36. Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of _

A. slip ring
B. brush
e. commutator
D. all of the above
37. The resistance of electrical wire decreases as ------
A. the current increases
B. the cross sectional area increases
C. length increases
D. temperature increases
38. The electrolyte of Nickel Cadmium battery is _ _ _ _
A. potassium hydroxide
B. sulphuric acid
C. pure distilled water
D. cadmium hydroxide
39. One horsepower is equivalent to _
 A. 1.34 watts
B. 746 watts
C. 1000 watts
D. 134 watts
40. A variable resistor with two terminais is - - - - -
A. pot meter
B. potentiometer
e. rheostat
D. all of the above

41. The unit of electrical force is-----

A. volt
B. watt
e. ampere
o. ohm
42. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current to AC generator is called _
A. armature
B. stator
C. commutator
O. exciter
43. To solve for power, formula is _
A. P =VxA
B. P = VxAxR
C. P = AxR
O. P = (VxA)/R
44. Which of the following material is a good insulator?
A. copper
B. iron
C. silver
O. wood
45. A galvanometer is an instrument used to measure _
A. large power
B. small amount of voltage or current
C. resistance
O. frequency
46. ln series circuit, the total resistance is -----
A. the average of all resistances
B. one-half of the sum of all resistances
 C. the sum of all resistances
D. smaller than the lowest resistance
47. Discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel-cage motor indicates _

A. vibration
B. corrosion
C. exposure to seawater
D. overheating
48. The 5.1. unit of frequency is _
A. coulomb per second
B. hertz
C. rpm
D. farad
49. Current that flows in one direction is called - - - - - -
A. direct current
B. eddy current
C. hysteresis
D. alternating current
50. The unit of the cross sectional size of wires and cables is expressed in_ _ _ _ _
A. inch
B. circular mil
C. millimeter
D. micrometer
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consu/tative Council, /nc (PJMCCI} Engine Reviewer.
ELECTRICAL SVSTEM: Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. e
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. e
9. B
10. e
11. A
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. e
19. D
20. B
21. e
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. e
CONTROL ENGINEERING: Questions
1. Difference between the measured value and desired value in the closed contrai loop
system is called-----
A. variable
B. feed back
C. error
D. process
2. ln contrai engineering, engine raom parameters such as temperature and pressure when
subject to be maintained ata certain value during operation is called _ _
A. variables
B. pracessing data
C. pracess variables
 D. input
_ _ _
3. ln a closed loop system, variable or signal entering the pracess is called_ _ _ _ _
A. encode
B. input
C. software
D. output
4. ln a closed loop system, signal leaving the pracess is termed as _
A. outlet
B. outcome
C. output
D. feedback
5. ln a praportional contrai, the term offset refers to a sustained error between the
A. set point and contrai point
B. set point and deadband
C. deadband and praportional band
D. praportional band and set point
6. A contrai loop system where input is independent of output signal is called _ _ _ _ _
A. closed loop contrai system
B. open loop contrai system
C. proportion contrai system
D. integral contrai
7. A control loop system which has a feedback is called _
A. praportional contrai system
B. open loop contrai system
C. integral system
D. closed loop contrai system
8. Another name for errar is------
A. deviation
B. offset
e. wrang signal
D. feed back
9. Piezoelectric sensor contains set of -----
A. non-metallic element
B. gold
C. quartz elements
D. diamond
10. The component in a contrai loop system used to convert pracess variables into pneumatic or
electrical signal is called _
A. sensor
B. transducer
e. transmitter
D. amplifier
11. Pneumercator is an instrument used to measure ------
A. level
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. viscosity
12. A temperature sensor consisting of two dissimilar metais joined together atone end is called
A. RTD
B. resistance temperature sensor
C. thermocouple
D. PTlOO
13. An electromechanical device that converts an electrical signal to a change in mechanical position
A. transducer
B. servomotor
C. amplifier
D. transmitter
14. A component in a control loop system that send signal from the sensor to the controller is
called- - - - -
A. actuator
B. transducer
C. transmitter
D. radar
15. A device that utilizes a nozzle-flapper arrangement and a set of permanent and electromagnet to
converta signal is known as _
A. electro-pneumatic transducer
B. differential pressure transmitter
C. booster relay
D. actuator
16. An alloy of copper and nickel used for thermocouple is called _
A. alumel
B. constantan
e. chromel
D. steel
17. A compound bourdon tube gauge is capable of measuring _
A. pressure and flow
B. pressure and temperature
C. atmospheric pressure and vacuum
D. vacuum and pressure
18. Proportional band is the measure of controller ------
A. setting
B. deviation
e. sensitivity
D. action
19. Most widely used final contrai element is the_
A. contrai valve
B. solenoid valve
e. expansion valve
D. sensing bulb
_ _ _ _
20. The mode of contrai used by an alarm circuit is a _
A. differential gap contrai
B. cascading contrai
C. two position contrai
D. reset contrai
21. A closed loop contrai system which enables two or more valves operated by one contraller is
known as _
A. cascade contrai
B. split range contrai
C. ratio contrai
D. proportion contrai
22. PtlOOO is a temperature sensor which has a resistance of 1000 ohms at _
A. lOOOºC
B. lOOºC
C. lOºC
D. OºC
23. Control system which utilizes a master controller and one or more slave controller is known
as _
A. slave control

B. ratio control
e. cascade control
D. split range control
24. A pneumatic contrai signal is ranging from _
A. 4.0- 20 bars
B. 0-7bars
e. 0- 5 bars
D. 0.2-1.0 bar
25. A controller with low proportional band is _
A. less sensitive
B. very sensitive
C. no action
D. less action
26. Reset contrai is also known as-----
A. integral control
B. proportion control
C. derivative control
 D. differential gap control
27. Nozzle-flapper arrangement in a control system is used to generate _
A. electrical signal
B. electronic signal
C. pneumatic signal
D. any of the above options
28. Pressure drop across the filter can be measured by a _
A. differential pressure gauge
B. pressure gauge
C. bourdon tube gauge
D. compound gauge
29. ln an automation system, the measured value signal is transmitted to the controller as a/an
A. controlling signal
B. error signal
e. feedback
D. variable signal
30. Contrai air should always _
A. return to air reservoir to maintain pressure
B. maintain at 10 bar
C. wet to maintain its coolness
D. dry and properly lubricated
31. The three important adjustments in calibration of transmitters and pressure gauges are _
A. zero, range and linearity adjustment
B. zero, range and half scale adjustment
C. Lero, linecuity émd full scale adjustment
D. zero, range and full scale adjustment
32. The controller where offset is always possible is known as _
A. reset contrai
B. two position contrai
C. proportional contrai
D. PIO
33. lf the air signal from the controller is entering at the top of the contrai valve actuator, it is called
A. indirect acting
B. direct acting
C. reverse acting
D. fail safe
34. lf the air signal from the controller is entering at the bottom of the control valve actuator, it is
called
-------
A. indirect acting
B. direct acting
C. reverse acting
D. fail safe
35. ln a pneumatic control valve, actuator utilizes _
A. coil
B. diaphragm
e. motor
D. bellows
36. The type of level measurement that utilizes electromagnetic waves to constantly monitor the level
of liquid in the tank is called_ _ _ _ _ _
A. capacitive level meter
B. microwave sensor
C. piezoelectric sensor
D. radar level meter

37. The desired value in a closed loop control system is known as _

A. control point
B. set point
C. measured value
D. ali of the above
38. Compound gauge is usually installed at the _ _ _ _
A. suction side of the pump
B. discharge side of the pump
C. air reservoir
D. before and after the reducing valve
39. Type J,K,T and E are used to categorise _
A. resistance temperature detector
B. thermometer
C. thermocouple
D. pyrometer
40. Pressure reading of O bar gauge is equal to _ _ _ _ _
A. 14.7 psi absolute
B. 1.013 bar absolute
C. 1.033 kg/ cm absolute
2

D. all of the above

41. ln tanker ship, radar wave is widely used to measure -----

A. cargo pressure
B. cargo temperature
C. cargo level
O. cargo flow
42. Part of the contrai valve that connects the actuator and the plug is known as _
A. valve body
B. valve stem
e. diaphragm
o. yoke

43. A device that sets the contrai valve to its correct position is called -----
A. vc1lve pusitiuner
B. contraller
C. actuator
O. fail set valve
44. ln a contraller, if the proportional band is high, - - - - - -
A. the sensitivity is high
B. sensitivity is not affected
C. the sensitivity is low
D. the action of contraller is fluctuating
45. A control loop system similar to manual contrai is the -----
A. closed loop
B. openloop
e. ratio contrai
o. split contrai
46. ln Pt500, at OºC the resistance is _
A. 5 ohms
B. 50 ohms
e. 500 ohms
o. Oohm
47. Magnetic pick-up is used to measure _
A. levei
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. speed
48. ln thermocouple, when the metal junction is heated or cooled, it will produce voltage, this is
known as- - - - -
A. electric effect
B. thermal effect
C. metallic effect
D. Seebeck effect
49. The value of an electrical signal in control loop system is from _
A. 4.0-20 mA
B. 0-7 mA
C. 0-5 mA
D. 0.2 - 1.0 mA
50. Which of the following formula is correct for the proportional band?
A. P.B. = Gain x 100%
B. P.B. = (1/Gain) x 1.00% ·
C. P.B. = Sensitivity/Gain
O. P.B. = Gain/Sensitivity
CONTROL ENGINEERING: Answer Key
1. e
2. e
3. B
4. e
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. e
10. B
11. A
12. e
13. B
14. e
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. e
19. A
20. e
21. B
22. D
23. e
24. o
25. B
Note: Some of the questions were taken from US Coast Guard Marine Engineers Exams Questions and
Philippine-Japan Manning Consultative Council, lnc (PJMCCJ) Engine Reviewer.
26 A
27 e
28 D
29 e
30 D
31 A
32 e
33 e
34 B
35 D
36 A
37 e
38 A
39 e
40 D
41 B
42 A
43 e
44 D
45 e
46 B
47 e
48 A
49 B
50 D
lnsufficient cooling water lnsufficient lncrease water flow
lubrication Replenish oil in the crankcase Clean
oil filter
Use correct type of oil

Leaks in the system, safety Stop leaks

valves
Leaking safety valves or drain Stop leaks
valves
lntake filter clogged Clean or replace filter

Valves broken Replace broken valve

Compressor components worn Check and replace broken

or broken component

Pressure setting too high Adjust

Compressor does not stop at setting Check contrai circuit
pressure

Moisture separator not Check and repair

draining
Air cooler not working Check and repair

lnsufficient cooling water Check flow and pressure, clean

when necessary
Broken piston or rings Repair and replace broken
parts
Oil level in the crankcase too
high Adjust oil level
Wrong specification of oil use Renew oil with correct
specification
Cooling tubes broken Check and repair

Cooling water tubes dirty Clean cooling tubes

ure back to suction side in case the discharge valve is dose during starting. Most of these pumps are used for high
26 B
27 e
28 A
29 o
30 e
31 e
32 o
33 o
34 B
35 e
36 o
37 B
38 e
39 A
40 B
41 o
42 B
43 A
44 B
45 e
46 D
47 B
48 A
49 D
50 B
1
2
3
4
 POSSIBLE CAUSE REMEDY

Problem on the salinometer Check the condition of the

Salinometer Cell is dirty Over salinometer as described in the
production manual
Leaking tubes in the heat exchanger Dismantle and clean
Adjust heating on the evaporator
Repair and pressure test
Low heating water flow lncrease flow of heating from main
Low cooling water flow engine jacket cooling
Check seawater pump supply line

Vacuum is low Check vacuum pump

Dirty tubes in evaporator and Check for any sign of leak on the
condenser cover and all connections. Check the
Problem in distillate pump tightness.
Low seawater feed to sea water Clean evaporator and condenser
heater tubes.
Adjust the feed rate, if problem
persists check for clogged in the feed
water line
26 o
27 A
28 e
29 A
30 e
31 B
32 A
33 . e
34 A
35 . e
36 o
37 o
38 A
39 . A
40 e
41 A
42 o
43 B
44 A
45 o
46 e
47 B
48 e
49 A
50 e
2
4
6
8
26 A
27 D
28 D
29 B
30 e
31 A
32 e
33 B
34 e
35 D
36 D
37 B
38 A
39 [3
40 e
41 A
42 D
43 A
44 D
45 B
46 e
47 D
48 B
49 A
50 B
26 A
27 e
28 A
29 e
30 D
31 A
32 e
33 B
34 e
35 B
36 D
37 B
38 A
39 e
40 D
41 e
42 B
43 A
44 e
45 B
46 e
47 D
48 o
49 A
50 B
water flow
h oil in the crankcase Clean

ct type of oil

replace filter

broken valve

d replace broken
nt

ntrai circuit

d repair

d repair

w and pressure, clean

essary
d replace broken

level
l with correct
ion
d repair

oling tubes
umps are used for high
 REMEDY

e condition of the
er as described in the

e and clean
ating on the evaporator
d pressure test
 low of heating from main
cket cooling
awater pump supply line

cuum pump
any sign of leak on the
d all connections. Check the

aporator and condenser

e feed rate, if problem

heck for clogged in the feed