Sof2 Final
Sof2 Final
Sof2 Final
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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5/18/23, 8:56 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 3
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 4
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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5/25/23, 9:38 PM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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4/30/23, 4:05 AM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 2
Correct
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 4
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
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5/7/23, 12:21 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 2
Not answered
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
Question 3
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 4
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Question 5
Not answered
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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5/12/23, 11:54 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
until N = O
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 3
Not answered
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 4
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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4/8/23, 4:44 AM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 4
Correct
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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4/15/23, 5:57 AM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 2
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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4/23/23, 10:22 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Correct
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Correct
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 4
Correct
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 5
Correct
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 2
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Correct
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Correct
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 5
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
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Question 6
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Correct
A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.
Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser
b. Coverage analyser
c. Tuning analyser
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Question 9
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Correct
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 11
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Correct
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 14
Correct
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 15
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Correct
_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.
Select one:
a. Consistency Checking
b. Correctness Checking
c. Completeness Checking
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 20
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
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Question 3
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Correct
A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Correct
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 8
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 10
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 11
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
Question 13
Correct
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. General
b. Financial
c. System
Question 15
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 16
Correct
Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 18
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow
c. Central Transform
Question 20
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source
b. no longer in use
The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. NRZI
b. Manchester
c. AMI
d. 4B/5B
Question 6
Correct
Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Packet corruption
b. Software bugs
c. Protocol flaws
d. Congestion
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding
The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable
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Question 9
Correct
What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?
Select one:
a. 1 millisecond
b. 1 microsecond
c. 120 microseconds
d. 12 microseconds
Question 10
Correct
The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data
d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
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Question 13
Correct
The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.
Select one:
a. large antennas
d. pseudorandom sequences
Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)
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Question 15
Correct
In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.
Select one:
a. binary tree
b. unary tree
c. routing
d. shortest path
e. spanning tree
Question 16
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. Telephone
b. USB
c. 10 Mbps Ethernet
Question 18
Correct
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
Select one:
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. MAC
e. Physical
Question 20
Correct
In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.
Select one:
True
False
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3
Jump to...
CS2204 U2 Solution ►
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Sequencing
b. Flow Control
c. Acknowledgement
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Question 3
Correct
UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. 256 bits
b. 96 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 128 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5
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Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery
e. flow control
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. IPv3
b. IPng
c. IPv5
d. IPv6
e. IPv4
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 9
Correct
In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):
Select one:
a. half of the window size
c. window size
Question 10
Correct
The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:
Select one:
a. 32 bytes
b. 60 bytes
c. 50 bytes
d. 40 bytes
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Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
e. performance issues
Question 12
Correct
Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:
Select one:
a. LAN address
b. link-local address
c. interface identifier
d. h/w address
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Question 13
Correct
Select one:
a. 8 bits
b. 16 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 48 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 14
Correct
Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Correct
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing
Select one:
a. distance vector
b. link state
c. path vector
d. OSPF
e. path state
Question 16
Correct
The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
Question 18
Correct
What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?
Select one:
a. IPv6 only
b. source routing
c. subnets
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Question 19
Correct
To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Correct
Select one:
a. LAN multicast
b. IP multicast
c. IP unicast
d. LAN broadcast
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6
Jump to...
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Correct
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 4
Correct
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Incorrect
One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.
Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
Question 6
Correct
True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Incorrect
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Correct
Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / Payroll
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Question 9
Correct
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 10
Correct
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 11
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 13
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 15
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 16
Correct
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Correct
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 2
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 4
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 5
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 1
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 2
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Incorrect
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
Question 2
Incorrect
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 3
Incorrect
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Incorrect
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Correct
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Incorrect
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 2
Incorrect
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 5
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 1
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 3
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 3
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 6
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Question 8
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 9
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 11
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 13
Not answered
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 14
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 16
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 18
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 21
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
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Question 23
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 25
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 26
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 27
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 28
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Question 4
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 5
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 6
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 10
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 11
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 15
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 17
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
Question 19
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 20
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 22
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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Question 25
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 26
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 28
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 2
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 4
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 5
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 6
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 7
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
Question 8
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 9
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 10
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 11
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 12
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 14
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 15
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 16
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 21
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 26
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
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Question 28
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 30
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 1
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 12
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 13
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 15
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 20
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 23
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 24
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 26
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 28
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 2
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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lOMoARcPSD|7278408
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
a. Product Matrix
b. Process Matrix
c. Traceability Matrix
d. None of the above
Question 2
Correct
On the Ordinal Cohesion Scale, rate the following in the Lowest to Highest order of cohesion.
Select one:
a. Logical , Coincidental, Sequential, Temporal, Functional
b. Coincidental, Sequential, Functional, Temporal, Logical
c. Coincidental, Logical, Temporal, Sequential, Functional
d. Logical, Sequential, Coincidental, Temporal, Functional
Question 3
Correct
7. -------------------measures the degree to which the specification or code of a software program has been exercised by tests. ---------
----------measures the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested.
Select one:
a. Test coverage, Code coverage
b. Code coverage, Test coverage
c. Acceptance Test, Unit Test
d. Unit Test, Acceptance Test
Question 4
Correct
The observer pattern , separates the display of the state of an object from the object itself and allows alternative displays to be
provided. When the object state changes, all displays are automatically notified and updated to reflect the change.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
Match with the correct choices. In context diagrams, what are the following used for?
Select one:
a. A-2, B-3, C-1
b. A-1 ,B-2, C-3
c. A-3, B-1, C-2
d. None of the above
Question 6
Correct
The Advanced Encryption Standard has a fixed block size of ________bits and a key size of _______ , ________ and _________ bits
Select one:
a. 256, 128, 192, 256
b. 128, 128, 192 and 256
c. 192, 128, 192, 256
d. None of the above
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. Cleartext
b. Ciphertext
c. Plaintext
d. Jumbled text
Question 9
Correct
We call a function f a trapdoor function if f is easy to compute, but f -1 is very hard, indeed impossible for practical purposes.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Correct
'Velocity' of the development team ( in effort estimation ) is defined are the -----------?
Select one:
a. Duration needed to develop the system
b. Effort needed to develop the system
c. Productivity of the team
d. Speed of the team
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
Jump to...
Question 1
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 2
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Correct
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Correct
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 5
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
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Question 6
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Correct
A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.
Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser
b. Coverage analyser
c. Tuning analyser
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Question 9
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Correct
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 11
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Correct
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 14
Correct
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 15
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Correct
_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.
Select one:
a. Consistency Checking
b. Correctness Checking
c. Completeness Checking
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 20
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
Jump to...
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Question 1
Correct
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
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Question 2
Correct
_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.
Select one:
a. Consistency Checking
b. Correctness Checking
c. Completeness Checking
Question 3
Correct
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 7
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 8
Correct
The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow
c. Central Transform
Question 9
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
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Question 10
Correct
A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without ever
executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.
Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser
b. Coverage analyser
c. Tuning analyser
Question 11
Correct
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 12
Correct
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Correct
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 14
Correct
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects Object
c. Class
Question 15
Correct
A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
Question 19
Correct
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
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Question 20
Correct
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
Jump to...
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False
Question 2 _____________Normal modules perform one action on data from one object.
Correct ____________Polymorphic modules perform one action on data from many
Mark 1.00 out of objects of di ering data types.
1.00
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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b. Project
c. Con guration
d. Software
False
False
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Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
Question 7 True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Correct
False
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b. Class
d. Meta Class
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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False
c. Typeless checking
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b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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b. Financial
c. System
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Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
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c. Bottom up testing
Question 18 An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application,
Correct including both service and problem domain objects.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
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b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 20 A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of
Correct data records based on programmer speci cations
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
True
False
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Question 4
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Jump to...
https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=11067930&cmid=370862 3/3
8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 4
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
until N = O
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 4
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 4
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 5
Not answered
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
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8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 4
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:13 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 4
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 5
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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8/2/23, 10:14 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 5
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Jump to...
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8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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8/2/23, 10:15 AM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Jump to...
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Question 1
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 2
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Correct
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Correct
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 5
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
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Question 6
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Correct
A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the syntax and executability of code without
ever executing the code. They cross-reference all references to a line of code.
Select one:
a. Dynamic code analyser
b. Coverage analyser
c. Tuning analyser
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Question 9
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Correct
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when
they are defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 11
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update may be performed until the lock is
removed.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Correct
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 14
Correct
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 15
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Correct
_______________determines that the syntax and connections used in diagrams, charts, and so forth are accurately used.
Select one:
a. Consistency Checking
b. Correctness Checking
c. Completeness Checking
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 20
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 7
Jump to...
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
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Question 3
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Correct
A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Correct
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 8
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 10
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 11
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Graded Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 12
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
Question 13
Correct
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. General
b. Financial
c. System
Question 15
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 16
Correct
Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 18
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow
c. Central Transform
Question 20
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source
b. no longer in use
The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. NRZI
b. Manchester
c. AMI
d. 4B/5B
Question 6
Correct
Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Packet corruption
b. Software bugs
c. Protocol flaws
d. Congestion
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding
The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable
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Question 9
Correct
What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?
Select one:
a. 1 millisecond
b. 1 microsecond
c. 120 microseconds
d. 12 microseconds
Question 10
Correct
The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data
d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
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Question 13
Correct
The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.
Select one:
a. large antennas
d. pseudorandom sequences
Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)
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Question 15
Correct
In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.
Select one:
a. binary tree
b. unary tree
c. routing
d. shortest path
e. spanning tree
Question 16
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. Telephone
b. USB
c. 10 Mbps Ethernet
Question 18
Correct
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
Select one:
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. MAC
e. Physical
Question 20
Correct
In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.
Select one:
True
False
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3
Jump to...
CS2204 U2 Solution ►
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Sequencing
b. Flow Control
c. Acknowledgement
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Question 3
Correct
UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. 256 bits
b. 96 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 128 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery
e. flow control
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. IPv3
b. IPng
c. IPv5
d. IPv6
e. IPv4
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 9
Correct
In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):
Select one:
a. half of the window size
c. window size
Question 10
Correct
The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:
Select one:
a. 32 bytes
b. 60 bytes
c. 50 bytes
d. 40 bytes
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
e. performance issues
Question 12
Correct
Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:
Select one:
a. LAN address
b. link-local address
c. interface identifier
d. h/w address
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Question 13
Correct
Select one:
a. 8 bits
b. 16 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 48 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 14
Correct
Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).
Select one:
True
False
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 15
Correct
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing
Select one:
a. distance vector
b. link state
c. path vector
d. OSPF
e. path state
Question 16
Correct
The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.
Select one:
True
False
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
Question 18
Correct
What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?
Select one:
a. IPv6 only
b. source routing
c. subnets
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 19
Correct
To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Correct
Select one:
a. LAN multicast
b. IP multicast
c. IP unicast
d. LAN broadcast
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6
Jump to...
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Correct
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 4
Correct
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 5
Incorrect
One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.
Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
Question 6
Correct
True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Incorrect
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Correct
Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / Payroll
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Question 9
Correct
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 10
Correct
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 11
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 13
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 15
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 16
Correct
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Correct
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 2
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 4
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 5
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 2
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Incorrect
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
Question 2
Incorrect
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 3
Incorrect
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Incorrect
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Correct
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Incorrect
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 2
Incorrect
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 5
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 3
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 3
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:13 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 6
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Question 8
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 9
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 11
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 13
Not answered
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 14
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 16
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 18
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 21
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
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Question 23
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 25
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 26
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 27
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 28
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Question 4
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 5
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 6
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 10
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 11
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 15
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 17
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
Question 19
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 20
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 22
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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Question 25
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 26
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 28
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 2
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 4
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 5
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 6
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 7
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
Question 8
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 9
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 10
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 11
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 12
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 14
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 15
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 16
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 21
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 26
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
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Question 28
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 30
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 1
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 12
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 13
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 15
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 20
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 23
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 24
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 26
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 28
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 2
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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lOMoARcPSD|7386538
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 5
Question 6
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 8
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 9
Question 10
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 11
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 12
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 13
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
Question 15
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 18
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 20
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 21
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 22
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 23
Question 24
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 25
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 26
Question 27
Question 28
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 31
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 32
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 33
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 34
d. Identification
Question 35
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 36
Question 37
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 38
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 39
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 40
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 41
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in
the�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer is 'True'.
Question 42
Question 43
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 44
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 45
Question 46
Question 47
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 48
Question 49
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 50
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ubr />Select
one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance
Question 7
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 10
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 11
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 12
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 17
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 18
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 19
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 20
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 21
Question 22
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Question 24
Question 25
True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 26
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 27
Question 28
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 29
Question 30
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 31
Question 32
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C
Question 33
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 34
c. Integration
d. Unit
Question 35
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 36
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 37
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 38
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 39
Question 40
Question 41
Question 42
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 43
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 44
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 45
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 46
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 47
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 48
Question 49
Question 50
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name
Question 2
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
Question 4
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's
Question 11
Question 12
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
Question 16
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 17
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 18
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
Question 20
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 21
Question 22
Question 23
Question 24
Question 25
Question 26
Question 27
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 28
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 29
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 31
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 32
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 33
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 34
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 35
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 36
Question 37
Question 38
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 39
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 40
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 41
True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 42
Question 43
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 44
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 45
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 46
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 47
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 48
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 49
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 50
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 2
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 3
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 4
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 11
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 12
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
Question 20
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 21
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 22
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 23
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 24
Question 25
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 26
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 27
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 28
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 29
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 30
Question 31
Question 32
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 33
Question 34
Question 35
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 36
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit
Question 37
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 38
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 39
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 40
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 44
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 45
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 46
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 47
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 48
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 49
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 50
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 2
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 3
Question 4
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 10
Question 11
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 16
Question 17
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
Question 18
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
Question 21
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 22
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The
c`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uanalysis
:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 24
Question 26
Question 27
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 28
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 29
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 30
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 31
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 32
Question 33
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 34
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 35
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 36
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 37
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 38
Question 39
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 40
Question 41
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 42
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Question 44
Question 45
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 46
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 47
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 48
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 49
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 50
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 2
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 4
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 6
Question 7
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 10
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 11
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 12
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
Question 14
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 15
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
Question 20
Question 21
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 22
Question 23
Question 24
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 25
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 26
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
Question 27
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 28
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 31
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 33
Question 34
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 35
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 36
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 37
Question 38
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 39
Question 40
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 45
Question 46
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 47
Question 48
Question 49
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 50
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 2
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 3
Question 4
Question 5
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 6
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 8
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 9
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 10
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Table III-3 discusses all but:
Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification
Question 2
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 4
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 6
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 9
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name
Question 2
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow
Question 4
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to
exi�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Ubr />The Goal of 3NF Is
to:
Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code
Question 6
Question 7
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 2
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 3
Question 4
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 5
Question 7
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
Question 11
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 14
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 18
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
c. Object
d. class
Question 2
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 4
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 8
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 10
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 4
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 5
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 6
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 7
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 8
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 9
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 10
Restructuring is:
Select one:
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:
Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 2
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 4
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 6
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 8
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U>
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 10
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 2
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 3
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 4
Question 5
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 6
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
Question 10
Jenkins (2005)
stated`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Un
order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 11
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 12
Question 13
Question 14
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 16
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 17
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 18
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 19
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 20
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 6
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 7
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
Question 2
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
Question 4
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 2
Question 3
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 4
Question 5
Question 6
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Question 8
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 9
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 10
Question 11
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 14
Question 15
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 21
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 22
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 23
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 24
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 25
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 26
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 27
Question 28
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 29
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C
Question 30
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 31
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 32
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 33
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 34
Question 35
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 36
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 37
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 38
Question 39
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 40
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 41
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 42
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 43
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 44
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 45
Question 46
Question 47
Question 48
Question 49
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 50
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 5
Question 6
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 8
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 9
Question 10
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 11
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 12
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 13
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
Question 15
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 18
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 20
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 21
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 22
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 23
Question 24
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 25
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 26
Question 27
Question 28
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 31
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 32
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 33
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 34
d. Identification
Question 35
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 36
Question 37
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 38
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 39
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 40
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 41
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in
the�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Uer is 'True'.
Question 42
Question 43
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 44
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 45
Question 46
Question 47
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 48
Question 49
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 50
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
��O�U��O�U��O�Up �O�Ux��O�U0��O�U@0��O�Ubr />Select
one:
a. design
b. installation
c. operations
d. maintenance
The correct answer is: maintenance
Question 7
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 10
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 11
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 12
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 17
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 18
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 19
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 20
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 21
Question 22
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Question 24
Question 25
True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 26
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 27
Question 28
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 29
Question 30
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 31
Question 32
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C
Question 33
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 34
c. Integration
d. Unit
Question 35
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 36
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 37
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 38
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 39
Question 40
Question 41
Question 42
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 43
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 44
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 45
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 46
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 47
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 48
Question 49
Question 50
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name
Question 2
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
Question 4
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
The correct answer is: Temporal vector's
Question 11
Question 12
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
Question 16
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 17
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 18
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
Question 20
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 21
Question 22
Question 23
Question 24
Question 25
Question 26
Question 27
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 28
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 29
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 31
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 32
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 33
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 34
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 35
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 36
Question 37
Question 38
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 39
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 40
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 41
True or False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagrams.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 42
Question 43
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 44
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 45
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 46
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 47
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 48
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 49
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 50
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 2
e. Constructs schedule and milestones and keeps the PM informed and on schedule.
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 3
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 4
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 11
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 12
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 14
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
Question 20
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 21
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 22
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 23
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 24
Question 25
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 26
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 27
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 28
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 29
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 30
Question 31
Question 32
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 33
Question 34
Question 35
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 36
b. System
c. Integration
d. Unit
Question 37
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 38
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 39
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 40
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 44
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware
and software platforms
Question 45
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 46
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 47
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 48
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 49
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 50
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 2
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 3
Question 4
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 10
Question 11
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 13
Question 14
Question 15
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 16
Question 17
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
Question 18
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
Question 21
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 22
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The
c`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Uanalysis
:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 24
Question 26
Question 27
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 28
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 29
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 30
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 31
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 32
Question 33
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 34
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 35
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 36
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 37
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 38
Question 39
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 40
Question 41
In "FIGURE 10-52 Example of Process Hierarchy Diagram," which of the following is NOT one
of the four sub processes of sales?
Select one:
a. Data fulfillment
b. Prospect maintenance
c. Data security
d. Inventory fulfillment
Question 42
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Question 44
Question 45
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 46
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 47
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 48
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 49
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 50
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 2
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer
c. Executive
d. Expert
Question 4
True or False: Data-oriented design uses data as the basis for clustering processes, building
databases, and identifying.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 6
Question 7
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 10
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 11
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 12
True or False: In this diagram the activity production phase 1 can begin before specify
requirements has completed.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
Question 14
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 15
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
Question 20
Question 21
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 22
Question 23
Question 24
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 25
FIGURE 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 26
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
Question 27
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 28
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 30
An important part of the maintainability is to make all which of the following available:
Select one:
a. Project documentation
b. Design documentation
c. Supporting material
d. All of the above
Question 31
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 33
Question 34
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 35
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 36
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 37
Question 38
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 39
Question 40
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 41
Question 42
Question 43
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 45
Question 46
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 47
Question 48
Question 49
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 50
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 2
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 3
Question 4
Question 5
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 6
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 8
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 9
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 10
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are
delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Table III-3 discusses all but:
Select one:
a. Document
b. Review
c. Coding
d. Identification
Question 2
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
a. Program code
b. Programmer
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 4
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 6
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 9
Select one:
a. Process Data
b. Process ID Number
c. Constraints (e.g., concurrence, sequential with another process, time-out, etc.)
d. Process Name
Question 2
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
enemy-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
a. Program code
b. Process flow
c. Function
d. Data flow
Question 4
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to
exi�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�Ubr />The Goal of 3NF Is
to:
Select one:
a. Remove Repeating Groups
b. Remove Partial Key Dependencies
c. Remove Non-Repeating Groups
d. Remove Nonkey Dependencies Program code
Question 6
Question 7
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 2
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location.
Question 3
Question 4
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 5
Question 7
True or False: Cohesion is a measure of the external strength of a module with the notion that
maximal, or functional, cohesion is the goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
Question 11
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the
development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 14
True or False: The code validation file has the validation role for Process 1.2.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 15
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
In "FIGURE 9-24 Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating
Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one or more:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / payroll
Question 18
True or False: Data-oriented methods assume that, since data are unstable and processes are, data
should be the main focus of activities.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
c. Object
d. class
Question 2
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 4
True or False: Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware
engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
Table 12-1 Object-Oriented Design Documentation; how many (tables and diagrams):
Select one:
a. 3,3
b. 4,3
c. 4,4
d. 3,4
Question 8
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
See Figure 12-17; Which subdomain is responsible for service objects such as Define logical
data access control and application presentation.
Select one:
a. Data.
b. Human.
c. Software.
d. Hardware/Operating System.
Question 10
True/False: Booch diagram are used to summarize the objects-both application and service - and
their interactions.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
True or False: White-box testing evaluates specific execute item logic to guarantee its proper
functioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 4
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 5
True or False: The purpose of the regression test is to ensure that the changes cause the
application to regress to a functional state, that is, that the changes do introduce errors into the
processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 6
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 7
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 8
A __________work product is a product that is considered complete and that is the basis for
other, current work by the project development team.
Select one:
a. Baseline
b. Change request
c. checklist
d. Change Control File
Question 9
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 10
Restructuring is:
Select one:
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Jenkins (2005) stated that the critical path is defined as:
Select one:
a. It is this path that you can traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 2
True or False: The scope triangle is NOT also called the quality triangle.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 3
Jenkins (2005) listed the mythical man month diagram how many interfaces exist for a 5 person
project.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
Question 4
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 5
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 6
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 7
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 8
All listed below are examples of stakeholders with the exception of:
Select one:
a. End user
b. Programmer�#P�U�#P�U�JO�U@HO�U8#P�U�#P�U@�#P�U>
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 10
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 2
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 3
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 4
Question 5
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 6
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 7
Question 8
True or False: Scope encompasses your vision, but NOT your goal.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 9
Question 10
Jenkins (2005)
stated`��P�U`��P�U��KO�U���P�Uț�P�U���P�U@���P�Un
order to reach completion of your project on time
b. It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your project on time
c. The critical path represents the ideal set of tasks to be complete for your project
d. The critical path represents a set of tasks to be complete for your project
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 11
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 12
Question 13
Question 14
The process diagram defines the hardware environment and shows process assignments to
software.
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 16
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. None of the above
Question 17
True or False: Encapsulated Objects can have both Public or Private Parts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 18
The correct answer is: does not vary from one program to another
Question 19
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 20
In the following development project schedule what is the deliverable for the acceptance testing
phase:
Select one:
a. Project proposal
b. Requirements Spec
c. Alpha
d. Release system
Question 2
Question 3
Question 4
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 5
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 6
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Data
Question 7
True or False: CASE tools can ONLY be used in single user versions and NOT multiuser.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 8
Question 9
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 10
Question 2
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what
issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software
platforms
d. None of the above
Question 4
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
Question 5
Question 6
Question 7
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's
environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Question 9
Question 10
Question 2
Question 3
Which goal is stated in a clear and concise manner and more likely to inspire team members to
achieve it?
Select one:
a. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that just about gets the job done”
b. “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
c. “To deliver the cheapest system, in the shortest time, that almost gets the job done”
d. “To deliver a sales and marketing system on time”
The correct answer is: “To deliver the best sales and marketing system on the market”
Question 4
Question 5
Question 6
True or False: In a required relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist. In
an optional relationship, the entity must be present for the other entity to exist.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Question 8
There are five rules of scheduling; which of the following is NOT one of them:
Select one:
a. Eliminate uncertainty wherever you can
b. Pick the right level of granularity
c. Take a vacation
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 9
The correct answer is: impacts of the change document the priority for the action, and the cost
and schedule of the change.
Question 10
Question 11
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 12
True or False: In many projects the change management system is NOT linked to (or is part of) a
defect tracking.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 13
____ are input data created to demonstrate that both components and the total system satisfy all
design requirements.
Select one:
a. Test plan
b. Test strategy
c. Test cases
d. Subsystem testing
Question 14
Question 15
True or False: Sometimes referred to as a ‘business case’, the project proposal states the lowest
level goals in a project.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 16
Question 17
Question 18
True or False: The product or project can be accepted even if acceptance testing is not complete.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 19
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the
logical and physical data definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and
special processing considerations that might complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 20
Restructuring is:
Select one:
a. the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
b. is the reverse analysis of an old application to conform to a new methodology, usually
Information Engineering or object orientation.
c. is also known as reverse engineering. Rebuilding is the retirement and redevelopment of an
application.
d. the redevelopment of an application with a bridge to the old application.
The correct answer is: the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old
application.
Question 21
The correct answer is: The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any
of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
Question 22
The correct answer is: Leads the team and is responsible for the final product quality and
timeliness.
Question 23
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 24
The correct answer is: test to demonstrate an application's ability to operate satisfactorily in a
simulated production environment using its intended hardware and software configuration.
Question 25
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 26
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and
___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 27
Question 28
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 29
See Figure 2: CVSS Metrics and Equations. Which values are considered optional when
reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. Base metrics plus vector
b. Temporal metrics
c. Environmental metrics
d. B and C
The correct answer is: B and C
Question 30
Potential distribution of the application. The specific activities in structured systems analysis:
Select one:
a. Develop a context diagram
b. Optionally, develop a state-transition diagram if building an on-line or real-time application
c. Develop a structured data dictionary
d. Develop a set of balanced data flow diagrams
Question 31
The correct answer is: It is this path that you must traverse in order to reach completion of your
project on time
Question 32
True or False: Identification does not refer to both Analysis and Design.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 33
True or False: Traceability is proven at test or implementation time and validates that a
requirement has been satisfied.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 34
Question 35
An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are
modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. abstract data type (ADT)
b. Class/objects
c. Object
d. class
Question 36
c. Test plan
d. Test design
Question 37
See Table 13-2; which methodology does not require Data Relationships knowledge?
Select one:
a. Process
b. Data
c. Object
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Process
Question 38
Question 39
"TABLE 8-9 CASE Tools for Structured Design Program" code include all but:
Select one:
a. The Developer
b. Maestro
c. Oracle
d. Analyst/Designer Toolkit
Question 40
Project teams characterize risk by impact and likelihood. Which quadrant is high impact and high
likelihood?
Select one:
a. Major
b. Critical
c. Minor
d. Major
Question 41
True or False: There are three basic types of business programs: report, edit/validate, and file
update.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 42
True or False: The means to store unlimited, continuously growing databases currently are called
data marts.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
Question 43
The list below are useful terms in expressing requirements specifications and can be abbreviated
to stand for:
Select one:
a. START
b. STOP
c. SMART
d. None of the above
Question 44
True or False: Figure 7-9 Example of Complex Context Diagram describes a inflows context
called patients claims processing.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 45
Question 46
Question 47
Question 48
Question 49
Figure 7-3 Sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to:
Select one:
a. File B
b. Process 3.0
c. Entity Name 1
d. Process 2.0
Question 50
True or False: The Humphrey's maturity frameworks were developed for the Department of
Defense as a self-assessment framework that identifies levels of computing and application
development process maturity.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'True'.
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
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Question 3
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Correct
A test data generator (TDG) is a program that can generate any volume of data records based on programmer specifications
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Correct
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 8
Correct
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Correct
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 10
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 11
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Correct
After the system and QA tests are successful, the minimal set of transactions to test the application are compiled into test scripts for
a______________. It is a set of tests that is executed every time a change is made to the application.
Select one:
a. QA test package
Question 13
Correct
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. General
b. Financial
c. System
Question 15
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 16
Correct
Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Fig 1 represent raw DFD and Fig 2 represent decomposed DFD
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 18
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its incoming state to some other state.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow
c. Central Transform
Question 20
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In broadband transmission, signals are
sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent simultaneously.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
The terms “throughput” and “data rate” are considered to mean the same thing.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. generally uses LEDs as the light source
b. no longer in use
The correct answer is: generally uses semiconductor lasers as the light source
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. 5 GHz exclusively
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Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. NRZI
b. Manchester
c. AMI
d. 4B/5B
Question 6
Correct
Switches are used to connect distant LANs whereas a Router is most often used to connect individual computers.
Select one:
True
False
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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Packet corruption
b. Software bugs
c. Protocol flaws
d. Congestion
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. the metal braiding in the shielding
The correct answer is: the twisting of the wires in the cable
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Question 9
Correct
What is the bandwidth delay to get 1500 bytes onto the wire for Gigabit Ethernet?
Select one:
a. 1 millisecond
b. 1 microsecond
c. 120 microseconds
d. 12 microseconds
Question 10
Correct
The popular USB (Universal Serial Bus) standard for connecting computer peripherals uses Manchester encoding.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
b. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. It is used as a pad for data
d. It is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
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Question 13
Correct
The use of _________ lets the base station receive CDMA messages from unsynchronized mobile phones.
Select one:
a. large antennas
d. pseudorandom sequences
Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Transport (e.g. TCP)
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Question 15
Correct
In bridged LANs, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path
only.
Select one:
a. binary tree
b. unary tree
c. routing
d. shortest path
e. spanning tree
Question 16
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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8/12/22, 11:00 PM Graded Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. Telephone
b. USB
c. 10 Mbps Ethernet
Question 18
Correct
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its physical address.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Correct
Select one:
a. Network
b. Transport
c. Data Link
d. MAC
e. Physical
Question 20
Correct
In the context of data networking, a protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that governs how computers exchange
information over a network medium. A protocol implements the functions of one or more of the OSI layers.
Select one:
True
False
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 3
Jump to...
CS2204 U2 Solution ►
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
In distance-vector routing, each node has a complete view of the network topology.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Sequencing
b. Flow Control
c. Acknowledgement
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Question 3
Correct
UDP packets with spoofed source address are difficult to deliver to the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 5
Correct
Select one:
a. 256 bits
b. 96 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 128 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. acknowledgement of data delivery
e. flow control
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. IPv3
b. IPng
c. IPv5
d. IPv6
e. IPv4
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 9
Correct
In Sliding Windows, the sender is allowed to send up to this many packets (starting with the next packet after the last acknowledged
packet):
Select one:
a. half of the window size
c. window size
Question 10
Correct
The IPv6 fixed header is twice the size of the IPv4 header, so it amounts to:
Select one:
a. 32 bytes
b. 60 bytes
c. 50 bytes
d. 40 bytes
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8/12/22, 11:10 PM Graded Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 11
Correct
Select one:
a. security
d. addressing simplifications
e. performance issues
Question 12
Correct
Generally speaking, IPv6 addresses consist of a 64-bit network prefix (perhaps including subnet bits) followed by a 64-bit part called:
Select one:
a. LAN address
b. link-local address
c. interface identifier
d. h/w address
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Question 13
Correct
Select one:
a. 8 bits
b. 16 bits
c. 32 bits
d. 48 bits
e. 64 bits
Question 14
Correct
Routers have the option of fallback-to-flooding for unknown destinations (i.e. those which are not in their routing table).
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Correct
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing protocol based on _________ routing
Select one:
a. distance vector
b. link state
c. path vector
d. OSPF
e. path state
Question 16
Correct
The Split Horizon fix to the slow-convergence problem prevents all linear routing loops.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
Select one:
a. to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
b. to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
d. to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
The correct answer is: to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
Question 18
Correct
What enables an Internet site to appear to the outside world as a single IP network, but further IP-layer routing to be supported inside
the site?
Select one:
a. IPv6 only
b. source routing
c. subnets
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Question 19
Correct
To avoid stop-and-wait becoming a performance bottleneck, TFTP has an option to allow small window size sliding windows operation.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Correct
Select one:
a. LAN multicast
b. IP multicast
c. IP unicast
d. LAN broadcast
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 6
Jump to...
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Graded Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Correct
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 4
Correct
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Incorrect
One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed.
This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.
Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
Question 6
Correct
True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the
outcome to be realized
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Incorrect
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Correct
Decomposition for Customer and Video Maintenance Remove Repeating Groups," which processes are decomposed?
Select one:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / Payroll
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Question 9
Correct
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 10
Correct
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 11
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Correct
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 13
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 15
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 16
Correct
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and
entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Correct
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Program specifications document the program's purpose, process requirements, the logical and physical data
definitions, input and output formats, screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might complicate the
program.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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12/22/22, 9:56 PM Self-Quiz Unit 1: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 2
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 4
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 2
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:57 PM Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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12/22/22, 9:58 PM Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 5: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 1
Incorrect
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
Question 2
Incorrect
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 3
Incorrect
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Incorrect
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 9:59 PM Self-Quiz Unit 6: Attempt review
Question 5
Correct
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Incorrect
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 2
Incorrect
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 5
Correct
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident
work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:10 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414553&cmid=329410 2/2
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414556&cmid=329410 2/3
12/22/22, 10:11 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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12/22/22, 10:12 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 1/3
12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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12/22/22, 10:13 PM Self-Quiz Unit 7: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
https://my.uopeople.edu/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=9414570&cmid=329410 3/3
1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the
intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 6
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Question 8
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 9
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 11
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 13
Not answered
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 14
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 16
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 18
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 21
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
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Question 23
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 25
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 26
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 27
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 28
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Question 4
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 5
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 6
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 10
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 11
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 13
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 15
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
Question 17
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
Question 19
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 20
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 22
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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Question 25
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 26
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 28
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 2
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 4
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 5
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 6
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 7
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
Question 8
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 9
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 10
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 11
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 12
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 14
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 15
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 16
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 21
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 25
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 26
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-
intelligence equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
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Question 28
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 30
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and associates
each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
d. None of the above
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together, forming the
load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
c. Load , Joint memory resident work
d. Compilation, Joint memory resident work
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined
in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
b. Pseudostrong type checking
c. Typeless checking
d. Mixed mode type checking
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the
application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many objects of
differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 1
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete
on time.
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the
application works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 11
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 12
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 13
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
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Question 15
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of
the application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 17
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 20
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 22
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and
processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 23
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 24
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 25
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 26
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 28
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 29
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
d. Request for proposal (RFP)
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a charge in module
to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
c. Development, operation, maintenance and retirement
d. Operation, development, maintenance and retirement
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
b. Recursive Pseudo Code
c. Reusable Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable part to each
reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant
adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are defined in
the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
b. Data are copied in more than one location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
d. Different data are completely stored in more than one location.
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Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and equipment
for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence equipment such as a disk
drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
d. None of the above.
Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
b. State Transition Diagram
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their personal
customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
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Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
d. Longest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
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Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly
interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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1/5/23, 1:16 AM Review Quiz: Attempt review
Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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1/5/23, 1:08 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
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1/5/23, 1:09 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 2
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:10 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
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1/5/23, 1:11 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
True
False
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure of
confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the vulnerability to a
user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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1/5/23, 1:12 AM Self-Quiz Unit 8: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1 The _____________scope de nes the location of work for each activity.
Correct The_______________ scope de nes technology platform by location.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
The correct answer is: Remove non key dependencies program code
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c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more
than one location
False
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Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
Question 6 True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) de nes some essential
Correct process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Mark 1.00 out of realized
1.00
Select one:
True
False
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b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 8 Software engineers are involved in these activities in which correct order:
Correct
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False
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Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 12 The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for
Correct customer, video and ___________.
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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b. Object
c. Data
d. System
b. Pooled Interdependence
c. Reciprocal Interdependence
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False
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Select one:
a. Rental/Return
b. Accounting
c. Purchasing
d. Personnel / Payroll
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b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
Question 18 IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented
Correct design technique context
Mark 1.00 out of
1.00 Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
b. E erent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4
Jump to...
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Question 1
Correct
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Correct
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Question 3
Correct
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Correct
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Correct
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 6
Correct
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 7
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
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Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 9
Correct
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
d. Construction
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Question 10
Correct
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 11
Correct
Elements of a procedure are combined because they are all required to complete one specific function. This is the strongest type of
cohesion and is the goal. This level of cohesion is called the ______________ level.
Select one:
a. Sequential
b. Functional
c. Temporal
d. Procedural
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Question 12
Incorrect
__________defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.
Select one:
a. Sequential Interdependence
b. Pooled Interdependence
c. Reciprocal Interdependence
Question 13
Correct
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
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Question 14
Correct
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Correct
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 16
Correct
True or False: A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome
to be realized
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Correct
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 18
Correct
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 19
Correct
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 20
Correct
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 2
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 4: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 3
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 5
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Jump to...
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م6:14 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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م6:14 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 2
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Question 3
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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م6:14 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 4
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 5
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
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Question 2
Not answered
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 4
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 5
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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م6:13 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 3: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 2
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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م6:14 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
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Question 2
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 3
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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•
• Graded Quiz Unit 4
Question 1
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes,
data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
True or False: The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an
entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 3
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid
on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
c. Request for bid
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
b. Operation, development, retirement and maintenance
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
d. Preparation for Software Engineering
Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls,
relating each topic to the data and processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be
present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________
scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
d. None of the above
Feedback
Question 10
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Enterprise Analysis
b. Business Area Analysis
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and
work independently to service their personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the
marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
d. None of the above
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows
on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Feedback
Question 14
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Elements of a procedure are combined because they are all required to complete one specific
function. This is the strongest type of cohesion and is the goal. This level of cohesion is called
the ______________ level.
Select one:
a. Sequential
b. Functional
c. Temporal
d. Procedural
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or when normal
linkage mechanisms are bypassed. This is the highest level of coupling and is to be avoided. This
is called the ___________ level of coupling.
Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
Feedback
Question 16
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique
context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not
synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 18
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to
identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to define what other
transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager
provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
•
• Graded Quiz Unit 7
Question 1
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
The ___________ processes have as their major function the change of information from its
incoming state to some other state.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flow
b. Efferent Flow
c. Central Transform
d. None of the above
Feedback
Question 3
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 4
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data
plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently.
There is a constant part and a variable part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 6
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
A charge-out causes a lock to be placed on the module such that no other chargeouts for update
may be performed until the lock is removed.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 7
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits,
conditional statements, or case constructs
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 8
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs.
It signifies that the updating of a charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 9
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 10
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The
____________ model defines all actions and associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Feedback
Question 11
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Refer to the diagrams given above and state whether the statement given below is true or false.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 12
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been
compiled and link-edited together, forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a
series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
b. Load , Memory Resident Work
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
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Question text
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input
data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
d. Top down testing
Feedback
Question 14
Incorrect
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Question text
A code analyzer can range from simple to complex. In general, ______________ evaluate the
syntax and executability of code without ever executing the code. They cross-reference all
references to a line of code.
Select one:
c. Tuning analyser
d. Static code analyser
Feedback
Question 15
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both
service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 16
Correct
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Question text
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 17
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Select one:
a. Black box testing
Feedback
Question 18
Correct
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Select one:
True
False
Feedback
Question 19
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all
objects.
Select one:
Feedback
Question 20
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Feedback
Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 3
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
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Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
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Question 1
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
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Question 3
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
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Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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م6:14 2023/7/11 Self-Quiz Unit 2: Attempt review
Question 1
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 2
Not answered
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
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Question 4
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 5
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 2
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.
Question 5
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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Charles Solomon
Select one:
True
False
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__________de nes highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple
units requiring feedback and constant adjustment.
Select one:
a. Sequential Interdependence
b. Pooled Interdependence
c. Reciprocal Interdependence
Select one:
True
False
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A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Select one:
The correct answer is: Remove non key dependencies program code
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Select one:
True
False
True or False: Program speci cations document the program's purpose, process
requirements, the logical and physical data de nitions, input and output formats,
screen layouts, constraints, and special processing considerations that might
complicate the program.
Select one:
True
False
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In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning
to end and work independently to service their personal customers. In addition,
they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Select one:
True
False
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In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Select one:
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Select one:
a. Transform
b. Transaction
c. Structure Chart
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the
project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design
technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but
do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
One module directly references and/or changes the insides of another module or
when normal linkage mechanisms are bypassed. This is the highest level of
coupling and is to be avoided. This is called the ___________ level of coupling.
Select one:
a. Control
b. Execute
c. Common
d. Content
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Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with di erent data in more
than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
The correct answer is: Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one
location
◄ Self-Quiz Unit 4
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The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and re nement of an
entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure analysis.
Select one:
True
False
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video
and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Con guration
d. System
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are :
Number of delivered source instructions and Project mode.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data ows, and processes across the levels
of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage,
and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit
controls, relating each topic to the data and processes in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application,
including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. A erent Flows
b. E erent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have
to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
c. Bottom up testing
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only
on data objects of the same data type when they are de ned in the same module.
Select one:
c. Typeless checking
Select one:
True
False
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
Select one:
True
False
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Select one:
c. Bottom up testing
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Select one:
True
False
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following
diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under
the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Jump to...
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data owing from Process
2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only
on data objects of the same data type when they are de ned in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the
tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the
tasks are delayed, the project can complete on time.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
A critical success factor (CSF) de nes some essential process, data, event, or action
that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________
modules perform one action on data from many objects of di ering data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Select one:
True
False
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data ows, and processes across the levels
of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
The baseline is the o cial version of a code module that is in production use at any
time.
Select one:
True
False
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video
and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with di erent data in more than
location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
Integration tests verify that the functional speci cations are met, that the human
interface operates as desired, and that the application works in the intended
operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness,
Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
An __________ is the new, user-de ned data type that encapsulates de nitions of
object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Jump to...
A ___________ is a list that identi es the speci c versions of multiple modules that
were linked to create a load module or joint memory resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and
completion times estimated for the development e ort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as sca olding, to support
the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the application.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Con guration
d. Software
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a
charge-out occurs. It signi es that the updating of a charge in module to remove
the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. A erent Flows
b. E erent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning
to end and work independently to service their personal customers. In addition,
they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data
ows to identify 'boundary' processes with which they directly interact. It is used to
de ne what other transformations are required to link the input and output
boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
True or False: The Temporal group re ects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
True
False
________________ identify the ow of data into and out of modules and match the
data ows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Select one:
True
False
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design
technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Select one:
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that
is, the data) are modeled in a computerized application.
Select one:
b. Class/Objects Object
c. Class
Select one:
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the
project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
Question 1
Correct
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Correct
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also
delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.
Question 4
Correct
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
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Question 5
Correct
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 6
Correct
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
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Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
Question 8
Correct
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
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Question 9
Correct
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Correct
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Correct
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Correct
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Correct
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 14
Correct
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 15
Correct
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Correct
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 17
Correct
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Correct
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Correct
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
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Question 20
Correct
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Correct
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 22
Correct
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 23
Correct
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 24
Correct
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Correct
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
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Question 26
Correct
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 27
Correct
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 28
Correct
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
Question 29
Correct
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 30
Correct
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint
memory resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Jump to...
Final Exam ►
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Question 1
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
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Question 2
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 3
Not answered
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 4
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
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Question 6
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Question 7
Not answered
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.
Question 9
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 10
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 11
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Question 12
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
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Question 13
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 15
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
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Question 17
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
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Question 18
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 19
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 20
Not answered
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 21
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 22
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
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Question 23
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 25
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
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Question 27
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 28
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 29
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 2
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 4
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 7
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
Question 9
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 10
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
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Question 13
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
Question 14
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
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Question 15
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 17
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 18
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Question 20
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
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Question 21
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 22
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 25
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
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Question 26
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 27
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 28
Not answered
Begin
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
Question 29
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 30
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Jump to...
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Question 1
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Question 2
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 6
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Not answered
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
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Question 9
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Question 11
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 12
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 13
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 15
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
Question 16
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 17
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
Question 18
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 20
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 22
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 23
Not answered
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
Question 24
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
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Question 25
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
Question 26
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 27
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 30
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
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Question 1
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 2
Not answered
An __________ is the new, user-defined data type that encapsulates definitions of object data plus legal processes for that data
Select one:
a. Object
b. Class
d. Meta Class
Question 3
Not answered
______________ is the extent to which programs can be coded to intercept and handle program errors without abending a program.
Select one:
a. Modularization
b. Inheritance
c. Exception handling
d. Polymorphism
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Question 4
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 5
Not answered
__________-oriented design focuses on the needs for security, recovery, and audit controls, relating each topic to the data and processes
in the application.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Object
c. Data
d. System
Question 6
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
_________________ is the refinement of data relationships to remove repeating information, partial key dependencies, and non key
dependencies.
Select one:
a. Partitioning
b. Normalization
c. Coupling
Question 9
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 10
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Not answered
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 12
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
Question 13
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 14
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 15
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.
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Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 17
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 19
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
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Question 20
Not answered
A ___________ depicts specific transformations and outputs as effects and identifies the input data causing those effects
Select one:
a. Boundary value analysis
b. Cause-effect graph
c. Bottom up testing
Question 21
Not answered
Select one:
a. Base
b. Temporal
c. Environmental
d. Human
Question 22
Not answered
True or False: Vulnerability is a bug, flaw, weakness, or exposure of an application, system, device, or service that could lead to a failure
of confidentiality, integrity, or availability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 23
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Not answered
The baseline is the official version of a code module that is in production use at any time.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 26
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 28
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 29
Not answered
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
Question 2
Not answered
Bottom -up testing frequently requires extra code, known as scaffolding, to support the stubs, partial modules, and other pieces of the
application.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
The following question is not complete, can you send me the entire question?
After the development of booch diagrams, the next step is to develop a ______________ that shows the distribution of functionality and
equipment for the application being developed. It depicts processors, for example, computers, and devices, that is, limited-intelligence
equipment such as a disk drive.
Select one:
a. State Diagram
b. Process Diagram
c. Object Diagram
Question 4
Not answered
A __________ module is a compiled version of one or more source code modules that have been compiled and link-edited together,
forming the load module. whereas a ______________unit is a series of load modules that work together in a dynamic, real-time
environment.
Select one:
a. Load , Compilation
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Question 5
Not answered
A critical success factor (CSF) defines some essential process, data, event, or action that must be present for the outcome to be
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Not answered
Select one:
a. process dependencies
b. synchronization matrix
c. process hierarchies
d. object diagrams.
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Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. Crow
b. Bird
c. Sparrow
d. Eagle
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Question 9
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
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Question 10
Not answered
In the following figure, CVSS metrics and equations, which values are considered optional when reflecting the risk posed by the
vulnerability to a user's environment?
Select one:
a. B-Base Matric ; C- Temporal metric
b. B-Environmental metric; C- Base Metric
c. B-Temporal metric; C- Base metric
d. B- Temporal metric; C- Environmental metric
Question 11
Not answered
Select one:
a. Complete 'records' or tuples of data are stored with different data in more than location
c. Partial 'records' or tuples of data are stored in more than one location
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Question 12
Not answered
______________ management is the use of software code libraries to manage the official, operational code modules of an application.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Module
c. Configuration
d. System
Question 13
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
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Question 14
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 15
Not answered
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
____________________, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they are
defined in the same module.
Select one:
a. Strong type checking
c. Typeless checking
Question 17
Not answered
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is an open framework that addresses what issue?
Select one:
a. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate software platforms
b. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware platforms
c. Identifying and assessing vulnerabilities across many disparate hardware and software platforms
d. None of the above
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Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
a. Environmental Metrics
b. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
c. Remediation Level (RL)
d. Report Confidence (RC)
Question 19
Not answered
A structure chart is a hierarchic, input - process-output view of the application that reflects the DFD partitioning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
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Question 21
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Not answered
Control language constructs support iteration, sequential or selection processing via loops, exits, conditional statements, or case
constructs
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Not answered
Leveling is the act of checking entities, data flows, and processes across the levels of the diagram set in a DFD.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 24
Not answered
True or False: Encapsulated objects have both Public and Private parts
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Not answered
The second step of OOD is the development of _______________ for all processes and all objects.
Select one:
a. Time Event Diagrams
b. Booch diagrams
c. Process Diagrams
Question 26
Not answered
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 27
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Not answered
Select one:
a. Shortest sequence of dependent tasks to project completion.
b. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the most time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project is also delayed
c. The sequence of dependent tasks that together take the least time. If any of the tasks are delayed, the project can complete on
time.
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Question 29
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Data requirements for applications include: input, output, storage, and retrieval.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
A/An _______ is an entity from the real world whose processes and attributes (that is, the data) are modeled in a computerized
application.
Select one:
a. Abstract Data Type
b. Class/Objects
c. Class
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Question 2
Not answered
The below example of Complex Context Diagram describes an inflows context called patients claims processing:
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 4
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
Question 5
Not answered
When the changed version of the code module is reentered into the library, a charge-out occurs. It signifies that the updating of a
charge in module to remove the lock.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Not answered
Select one:
a. Collateral Damage Potential (CDP)
b. Target Distribution (TD)
c. Security Requirements (CR, IR, AR)
d. Temporal vector's
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Question 7
Not answered
True or False: The two key variables in the Composite Cost Model (CoCoMo) are : Number of delivered source instructions and Project
mode.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 9
Not answered
True and False: Booch diagrams are also called module structure diagram
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Not answered
___________is the process of identifying the clusterings of sub processes based on their major functions.
Select one:
a. Afferent Flows
b. Efferent Flows
c. Transform Analysis
d. Partitioning
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Question 11
Not answered
____________is the redevelopment of a portion of an application with a bridge to the old application.
Select one:
a. Reengineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Restructuring
d. Rebuilding
Question 12
Not answered
Select one:
a. Black box testing
c. Bottom up testing
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Question 13
Not answered
The two major activities of data modeling are the creation and refinement of an entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and entity structure
analysis.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Not answered
A __________ is written by the PM and the SE and used to advertise a project to vendors to bid on.
Select one:
a. Bidding document
b. Project request
Question 15
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 16
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
True or False: Software engineering is the systematic application of tools and techniques in the development of computer-based
applications.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 19
Not answered
A __________Chart shows the entire set of project tasks, people assigned, and completion times estimated for the development effort.
Select one:
a. Pert
b. CPM
c. Gantt
d. None of these
Question 20
Not answered
Sequential interdependence defines highly interrelated activities that are worked on jointly by multiple units requiring feedback and
constant adjustment.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 21
Not answered
The _____________scope defines the location of work for each activity. The_______________ scope defines technology platform by location.
Select one:
a. Technology, Network
b. Network, Technology
c. Data, Process
d. Enterprise, Network
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Question 22
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
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Question 23
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
Question 24
Not answered
True or False: The Temporal group reflects the intrinsic qualities of a vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 25
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
Question 26
Not answered
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools automate the hardware engineering process.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Not answered
Strong type checking, the third level of data type checking, permits operations only on data objects of the same data type when they
are defined in the same module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 28
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 29
Not answered
Independent concurrent processes are those which execute at the same time but do not synchronize their process completion.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
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Question 1
Not answered
In the ______________ approach, employees know the entire process from beginning to end and work independently to service their
personal customers. In addition, they works closely with the marketing and sales force for those same customers.
Select one:
a. Assembly workers
b. Case workers
c. Enterprise Architecture
Question 2
Not answered
Reusability is a property of a module such that it can be shared by several tasks concurrently. There is a constant part and a variable
part to each reentrant module.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 3
Not answered
In the given diagram , sample Data Flow Diagram depicts data flowing from Process 2.0 to
Select one:
a. Entity 1
b. Entity 2
c. Process 2.0
d. Process 3.0
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Question 4
Not answered
________________ identify the flow of data into and out of modules and match the data flows on the DFD.
Select one:
a. Control Couples
b. Data Couples
c. Factoring
d. Morphology
Question 5
Not answered
The video store case study in chapter 2 includes requirements for customer, video and ___________.
Select one:
a. Rental Processing
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Networks
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Question 6
Not answered
___________management is the identification, organization, and control of modifications to software built by a programming team.
Select one:
a. Change
b. Project
c. Configuration
d. Software
Question 7
Not answered
Integration tests verify that the functional specifications are met, that the human interface operates as desired, and that the application
works in the intended operational environment, within its constraints.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 8
Not answered
Select one:
a. Data Architecture
b. Enterprise Architecture
c. Process Architecture
d. Network Architecture
Question 9
Not answered
In this approach of identifying processes, we use context diagram entities and data flows to identify 'boundary' processes with which
they directly interact. It is used to define what other transformations are required to link the input and output boundary processes.
Select one:
a. Top Down
b. Bottom Up
c. Outward In
d. Functional Sequence
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Question 10
Not answered
How many types of Process Dependency Connections are there in the following diagram?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Five
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Question 11
Not answered
According to CoCoMo , the program having 128 thousand lines of codes falls under the category of
Select one:
a. Very Large
b. Large
c. Intermediate
d. Medium
Question 12
Not answered
A ________________ shows the time ordering of processes and identifies relationships between processes.
Select one:
a. DFD
c. Flowcharts
d. Gantt Chart
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Question 13
Not answered
Select one:
a. Access Vector
b. Authentication
c. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
d. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability Impacts
Question 14
Not answered
If N =0
Then Factout = 1
Select one:
a. Re-entrant Pseudo Code
d. None of above
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Question 15
Not answered
Delta version and variation management are the principle techniques of configuration management
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Not answered
True or False:Risk is the relative impact that an exploited vulnerability would have to a user's environment.
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Not answered
An Event diagram depicts all objects and their processes in the application, including both service and problem domain objects.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 18
Not answered
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Not answered
True or False: Organizational reengineering is the evaluation and redesign of business processes, data, and technology
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Not answered
The __________model defines all state changes and associates each with an action. The ____________ model defines all actions and
associates each with a state.
Select one:
a. Moore, Mealy
b. Mealy, Moore
c. State, transition
d. Transition, state
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Question 21
Not answered
The _______ supports and sells the goals of the project throughout the organization:
Select one:
a. Project Manager
b. Sponsor
c. Champion
d. User
Question 22
Not answered
Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Project Initiation
c. System Retirement
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Question 23
Not answered
IEW and IEF are the popular _______ tools discussed in the data-oriented design technique context
Select one:
a. CASE
b. UML
c. ERD
d. DFD
Question 24
Not answered
Three types of quality checking are performed on the analysis results. Correctness, Completeness and Consistency checking.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 25
Not answered
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Return
c. Retrieve
d. Report
Question 26
Not answered
Select one:
a. Development, operation, maintenance or retirement
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Question 27
Not answered
A ___________ is a list that identifies the specific versions of multiple modules that were linked to create a load module or joint memory
resident work unit.
Select one:
a. Module
b. Link
c. Code
d. Derivation
Question 28
Not answered
True or False: In job redesign, a caseworker approach is preferred to an assembly line approach.
Select one:
True
False
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Question 29
Not answered
_____________ modules perform one action on data from one object. ____________ modules perform one action on data from many
objects of differing data types.
Select one:
a. Normal, Polymorphic
b. Polymorphic, Normal
c. Encapsulated, Reusable
d. Reusable, Encapsulated
Question 30
Not answered
True or False: The systems engineer provides organizational expertise while the project manager provides technical expertise.
Select one:
True
False
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