FON History, Concepts and Theories (100 items) D.

Swanson
9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the
Link: consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine- for. It allows access to higher human spirit.
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/fon-practice-exam-history-
concepts-theories/ A. Benner
B. Watson
1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the C. Leininger
D. Swanson
A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health 10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options.
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of
Rehabilitative nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health recover in the face of the illness.
2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to
assist him in his recovery is theorized by A. Benner
B. Watson
A. Nightingale C. Leininger
B. Benner D. Swanson
C. Swanson 11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
D. King profession according to Marie Jahoda?
3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge
that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to A. A profession is an organization of an
care of the ill person occupational group based on the
application of special knowledge
A. King B. It serves specific interest of a group
B. Henderson C. It is altruistic
C. Roy D. Quality of work is of greater importance
D. Leininger than the rewards
4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive 12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a
profession to persons who are wholly or partly professional?
dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for
them are no longer able to give care. A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
A. Henderson C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
B. Orem D. Independent
C. Swanson 13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a
D. Neuman profession is
5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the
variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, A. Education
which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature. B. Theory
C. Caring
A. Neuman D. Autonomy
B. Johnson 14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that
C. Watson differentiate a person to another
D. Parse
6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the A. Philosophy
individual, sick or well, in the performance of those B. Personality
activities contributing to health that he would perform C. Charm
unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and D. Character
knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain 15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used
independence as rapidly as possible. as guides to personal behavior and actions

A. Henderson A. Philosophy
B. Abdellah B. Personality
C. Levin C. Charm
D. Peplau D. Character
7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant 16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best
domain that distinguishes nursing from other health describes this function?
disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
A. Benner B. Protect client’s right
B. Watson C. Coordinates the activities of other members
C. Leininger of the health team in managing patient care
D. Swanson D. Provide in service education programs, Use
8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING accurate nursing audit, formulate
WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING philosophy and vision of the institution
BELIEF. 17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Benner A. Determine client’s need

B. Watson B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Leininger
 C. Help client recognize and cope with D. Neuman
stressful psychological situation 28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM
D. Works in combined effort with all those MODEL
involved in patient’s care
18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine A. Orem
sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which B. Johnson
role best fit that statement? C. Henderson
D. Parse
A. Change agent 29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A
B. Client advocate HELPING ART MODEL
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator A. Swanson
19. These are nursing intervention that requires B. Hall
knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health C. Weidenbach
professionals. D. Zderad
30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and
A. Dependent MODELING theory
B. Independent
C. Interdependent A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
D. Intradependent B. Neuman
20. What type of patient care model is the most common C. Newman
for student nurses and private duty nurses? D. Benner and Wrubel
31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS
A. Total patient care CARING
B. Team nursing A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
C. Primary Nursing B. Peterson,Zderad
D. Case management C. Bnner,Wrubel
21. This is the best patient care model when there are D. Boykin,Schoenhofer
many nurses but few patients. 32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF
NURSING
A. Functional nursing A. Travelbee
B. Team nursing B. Swanson
C. Primary nursing C. Zderad
D. Total patient care D. Peplau
22. This patient care model works best when there are 33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on
plenty of patient but few nurses MUTUAL TRUST
A. Freud
A. Functional nursing B. Erikson
B. Team nursing C. Kohlberg
C. Primary nursing D. Peters
D. Total patient care 34. He proposed the theory of morality based on
23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to PRINCIPLES
maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits. A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
A. Functional nursing
D. Peters
B. Team nursing
35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards
C. Primary nursing
and traits through
D. Total patient care
A. Imitation
24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?
B. Introjection
C. Identification
A. Hammurabi D. Regression
B. Alexander 36. According to them, Morality is measured of how
C. Fabiola people treat human being and that a moral child strives
D. Nightingale to be kind and just
25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING A. Zderad and Peterson
MODEL. B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
A. Henderson D. Schulman and Mekler
B. Nightingale 37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He
C. Parse developed four theories of faith and development based
D. Orlando on his experience.
26. She described the four conservation principle. A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
A. Levin C. Fowler
B. Leininger D. Freud
C. Orlando 38. He described the development of faith. He suggested
D. Parse that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a
27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL. persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational
phenomenon.
A. Henderson A. Giligan
B. Orem B. Westerhoff
C. Parse C. Fowler
 D. Freud 51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual
39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being
society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first is
superintendent. A. Like all other men
A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing B. Like some other men
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing C. Like no other men
C. Philippine General Hospital School of D. Like men
nursing 52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing constant interaction and transaction with a changing
40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to environment.
occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital. A. Roy
A. St. Paul Hospital B. Levin
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital C. Neuman
C. Philippine General Hospital D. Newman
D. St. Luke’s Hospital 53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is
41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed true?
300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, A. Affected by matter
and care of the poor and sick herself. B. A sole island in vast ocean
A. Elizabeth C. Allows input
B. Catherine D. Constantly affected by matter, energy,
C. Nightingale information
D. Sairey Gamp 54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the
42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to totality is greater than sum of its parts?
prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes. A. Roy
A. Clara louise Maas B. Rogers
B. Pearl Tucker C. Henderson
C. Isabel Hampton Robb D. Johnson
D. Caroline Hampton Robb 55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra
43. He was called the father of sanitation. systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and
A. Abraham systems while the suprasystems are family, society and
B. Hippocrates community.
C. Moses A. Roy
D. Willam Halstead B. Rogers
44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated C. Henderson
A. China D. Johnson
B. Egypt 56. Which of the following is not true about the human
C. India needs?
D. Babylonia A. Certain needs are common to all people
45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil B. Needs should be followed exactly in
forces away accordance with their hierarchy
A. Chinese C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
B. Egyptian D. Needs are stimulated by external factors
C. Indian 57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human
D. Babylonian needs?
46. In what period of nursing does people believe in A. May not be deferred
TREPHINING to drive evil forces away? B. Are not interrelated
A. Dark period C. Met in exact and rigid way
B. Intuitive period D. Priorities are alterable
C. Contemporary period 58. According to Maslow, which of the following is
D. Educative period NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?
47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy,
Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses science etc.
A. Apprentice period B. Desires privacy, autonomous
B. Dark period C. Follows the decision of the majority,
C. Contemporary period uphold justice and truth
D. Educative period D. Problem centered
48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders 59. According to Maslow, which of the following is
emerged to take care of the sick TRUE about a self actualized person?
A. Apprentice period A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Dark period B. Do not predict events
C. Contemporary period C. Self centered
D. Educative period D. Maximum degree of self conflict
49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi 60. This is the essence of mental health
A. St. Catherine A. Self awareness
B. St. Anne B. Self actualization
C. St. Clare C. Self esteem
D. St. Elizabeth D. Self worth
50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, 61. Florence nightingale is born in
Who questions the Christian faith. A. Germany
A. Apprentice period B. Britain
B. Dark period C. France
C. Contemporary period D. Italy
D. Educative period 62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?
 A. Born May 12, 1840 B. Bernard
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when C. Leddy and Pepper
she was 40 years old D. Roy
C. Notes in nursing 74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being
D. Notes in hospital and becoming an integrated and whole person.
63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in A. Cannon
nursing? B. Bernard
A. Belgium C. Dunn
B. US D. Roy
C. Germany 75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the
D. England theory of Walter Cannon?
64. Which of the following is recognized for developing A. Positive feedback
the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS? B. Negative feedback
A. Erikson C. Buffer system
B. Madaw D. Various mechanisms
C. Peplau 76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define
D. Dunn by the culture or an individual.
65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join A. Roy
professional association primarily because of B. Henderson
A. Promotes advancement and professional C. Rogers
growth among its members D. King
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit 77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle,
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances and Illness as interference in the life cycle.
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad A. Roy
66. Founder of the PNA B. Henderson
A. Julita Sotejo C. Rogers
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas D. King
C. Eufemia Octaviano 78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of
D. Anesia Dionisio developed human structure and bodily mental
67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be functioning.
a member of a national nurse organization? A. Orem
A. R.A 877 B. Henderson
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house C. Neuman
of delegates and the PNA D. Clark
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by 79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which
the BON all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony
D. RA 7164 with the whole system.
68. Which of the following best describes the action of a A. Orem
nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis? B. Henderson
A. She documents it and charts it whenever C. Neuman
necessary D. Johnson
B. She can be accused of malpractice 80. Postulated that health is reflected by the
C. She does it regularly as an important organization, interaction, interdependence and
responsibility integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.
D. She charts it only when the patient is A. Orem
acutely ill B. Henderson
69. Which of the following does not govern nursing C. Neuman
practice? D. Johnson
A. RA 7164 81. According to them, Well being is a subjective
B. RA 9173 perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics A. Leavell and Clark
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice B. Peterson and Zderad
70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the C. Benner and Wruber
community renders service on maternal and child health D. Leddy and Pepper
among the neighborhood for a fee is: 82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum
A. Primary care nurse as interaction of the environment with well being and
B. Independent nurse practitioner illness.
C. Nurse-Midwife A. Cannon
D. Nurse specialist B. Bernard
71. When was the PNA founded? C. Dunn
A. September 22, 1922 D. Clark
B. September 02, 1920 83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented
C. October 21, 1922 towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation
D. September 02, 1922 of the environment.
72. Who was the first president of the PNA ? A. Well being
A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas B. Health
B. Loreto Tupas C. Low level Wellness
C. Rosario Montenegro D. High level Wellness
D. Ricarda Mendoza 84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN
73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal is cigarette smoking?
milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to A. Heredity
maintain internal environment. B. Social
A. Cannon C. Behavioral
 D. Environmental 96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER
85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of that describes the nature of persons as they interact
illness precursor? within the environment to pursue health
A. Heredity A. Ecologic Model
B. Social B. Health Belief Model
C. Behavioral C. Health Promotion Model
D. Environmental D. Health Prevention Model
86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who? 97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward
A. Becker increasing the level of well being and self actualization.
B. Smith A. Health prevention
C. Dunn B. Health promotion
D. Leavell and Clark C. Health teaching
87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. D. Self actualization
Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to 98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting
influence preventive behavior? in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.
A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness A. Illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness B. Disease
C. Perceived threat of an illness C. Health
D. Perceived curability of an illness D. Wellness
88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED 99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy
BARRIER in preventive action? A. Illness
A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle B. Disease
B. Economic factors C. Health
C. Accessibility of health care facilities D. Wellness
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies 100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant
89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of way of responding to a valued client towards whom the
actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.
that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and A. Benner
complete development actualization. B. Watson
A. Clinical Model C. Leininger
B. Role performance Model D. Swanson
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of
sign and symptoms equates health.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with FON Infection, Asepsis, Basic concepts of stress and
it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health illness (100 items)
belief model?
A. Demographic Link:
B. Sociopsychologic https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine-
C. Structural nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/fon-practice-exam-
D. Cues to action infection-asepsis-basic-concept-stress-illness/
92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the
individual to seek help
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic 1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated,
C. Structural FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic
D. Cues to action nervous system releases norepinephrine while the
93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the
in what variable of HBM? following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic A. Pupils will constrict
C. Structural B. Client will be lethargic
D. Cues to action C. Lungs will bronchodilate
94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of D. Gastric motility will increase
HBM? 2. Which of the following response is not expected to a
A. Demographic person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR
B. Sociopsychologic FLIGHT response sets in?
C. Structural
D. Cues to action A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation
95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, of the detrusor muscle
All of this are factors that affects health and illness B. The client will be restless and alert
except C. Clients BP will increase, there will be
A. Reservoir vasodilation
B. Agent D. There will be increase glycogenolysis,
C. Environment Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
D. Host 3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional,
intellectual and social development or spiritual
functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a A. Neoplastic
previous experience. B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
A. Illness D. Iatrogenic
B. Disease 13. The classification of CANCER according to its
C. Health etiology Is best described as:
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person 1. Nosocomial
starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as 2. Idiopathic
the transition phase from wellness to illness. 3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
A. Symptom Experience 5. Congenital
B. Assumption of sick role 6. Degenrative
C. Medical care contact A. 5 and 2
D. Dependent patient role B. 2 and 3
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a C. 3 and 4
professionals suggestion. The person also becomes D. 3 and 5
passive and may regress to an earlier stage. 14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of
pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role A. Remission
C. Medical care contact B. Emission
D. Dependent patient role C. Exacerbation
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the D. Sub acute
illness. 15. A type of illness characterized by periods of
remission and exacerbation
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role A. Chronic
C. Medical care contact B. Acute
D. Dependent patient role C. Sub acute
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his D. Sub chronic
illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his 16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal
symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an
predicted organ or body tissue is termed as

A. Symptom Experience A. Functional

B. Assumption of sick role B. Occupational
C. Medical care contact C. Inorganic
D. Dependent patient role D. Organic
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the 17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in
sick role except their environment. It deals with the relationship between
disease and geographical environment.
A. One should be held responsible for his
condition A. Epidemiology
B. One is excused from his societal role B. Ecology
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as C. Statistics
possible D. Geography
D. One is obliged to seek competent help 18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease.
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of
individual or group to illness or accident control and prevention of disease.

A. Predisposing factor A. Epidemiology

B. Etiology B. Ecology
C. Risk factor C. Statistics
D. Modifiable Risks D. Geography
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host 19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic
has against a certain pathogen changes but as a result from abnormal response to a
stimuli.
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity A. Functional
C. Virulence B. Occupational
D. Etiology C. Inorganic
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a D. Organic
disease 20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and
Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining
A. Syndrome OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
B. Symptoms
C. Signs A. Primary
D. Etiology B. Secondary
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed C. Tertiary
redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is D. None of the above
best classified as what type of disease?
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage 30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to
optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
illness?
A. Bernard
A. Primary B. Selye
B. Secondary C. Cannon
C. Tertiary D. Rogers
D. None of the above 31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE
prevention. A. Genetics
B. Age
A. Primary C. Environment
B. Secondary D. Lifestyle
C. Tertiary 32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like
D. None of the above Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of
prevention? A. Genetics
B. Age
A. Primary C. Environment
B. Secondary D. Lifestyle
C. Tertiary 33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of A. Surgical Asepsis
prevention? B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
A. Primary D. Asepsis
B. Secondary 34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of
C. Tertiary illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be
D. None of the above transferred to another
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after
establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is A. Host
advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs? B. Agent
C. Environment
A. Primary D. Carrier
B. Secondary 35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to
C. Tertiary have been exposed to a disease.
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients A. Carrier
is on what level of prevention? B. Contact
C. Agent
A. Primary D. Host
B. Secondary 36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate
C. Tertiary objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to A. Sterilization
the public? B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
A. Newspaper D. Autoclave
B. School bulletins 37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their
C. Community bill boards spores
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts A. Sterilization
and subparts of an individual? B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
A. Newman D. Medical asepsis
B. Neuman 38. The third period of infectious processes
C. Watson characterized by development of specific signs and
D. Rogers symptoms
29. The following are concept of health:
A. Incubation period
1. Health is a state of complete physical, B. Prodromal period
mental and social wellbeing and not merely C. Illness period
an absence of disease or infirmity. D. Convalescent period
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance 39. A child with measles developed fever and general
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal weakness after being exposed to another child with
milieu rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this
4. Health is integration of all parts and child belongs?
subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3 A. Incubation period
B. 1,3,4 B. Prodromal period
C. 2,3,4 C. Illness period
D. 1,2,3,4 D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax A. Creed
powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t B. Immunization
developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what C. Current medication being taken
stage of infectious process does this man belongs? D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for
A. Incubation period tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what
B. Prodromal period type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer
C. Illness period her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of A. Natural active immunity
infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of B. Natural passive immunity
infection and diseases C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent 50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man
B. Portal of Entry while she was crossing the railway. She suffered
C. Susceptible host multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid
D. Mode of transmission Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying
infection chain? TTIg provides

1. Susceptible host A. Natural active immunity

2. Portal of entry B. Natural passive immunity
3. Portal of exit C. Artificial active immunity
4. Etiologic agent D. Artificial passive immunity
5. Reservoir 51. This is the single most important procedure that
6. Mode of transmission prevents cross contamination and infection
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1 A. Cleaning
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1 B. Disinfecting
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1 C. Sterilizing
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked D. Handwashing
you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. 52. This is considered as the most important aspect of
You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is handwashing
transmitted via
A. Time
A. Direct contact transmission B. Friction
B. Vehicle borne transmission C. Water
C. Air borne transmission D. Soap
D. Vector borne transmission 53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease ….
primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always
A. Pathogenicity be above the waist
B. Virulence B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner
C. Invasiveness than the elbow
D. Non Specificity C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the require hands to be above the waist
hospital is usually cause by D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the
lower arms
A. Urinary catheterization 54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using
B. Spread from patient to patient the time method is
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of
caregiver A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
doctors and nurses C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a 55. The minimum time in washing each hand should
distance of 3 feet. never be below

A. Droplet transmission A. 5 seconds

B. Airborne transmission B. 10 seconds
C. Vehicle transmission C. 15 seconds
D. Vector borne transmission D. 30 seconds
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body 56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for
against infection handwashing procedure?

A. Skin A. 1-2 ml
B. WBC B. 2-3 ml
C. Leukocytes C. 2-4 ml
D. Immunization D. 5-10 ml
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility 57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization,
except cleaning and disinfection?
 A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to B. Black trashcan
clean C. Orange trashcan
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of D. Yellow trashcan
all viable microorganism including spores 65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to
other, with coagulated protein requires put them at disposal via a/an
longer time
D. The number of organism is directly A. Puncture proof container
proportional to the length of time required B. Reused PET Bottles
for sterilization C. Black trashcan
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS
glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her WASTES”
by saying 66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine,
was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her
minutes vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix.
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other What should be your initial action?
articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards
15 minutes is required the cervix then call the physician
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it
articles, as long as the water reached 100 on a lead container
degree Celsius C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing it on a lead container
drugs, foods and other things that are required to be D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to
sterilized before taken in by the human body touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the
A. Boiling Water leeches?
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD
D. Radiation Containers
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV B. Yellow trashcan
Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a C. Black trashcan
week. What type of disinfection is this? D. Leeches are brought back to the culture
room, they are not thrown away for they
A. Concurrent disinfection are reusable
B. Terminal disinfection 68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID
C. Regular disinfection doing in preventing spread of infection?
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing A. Recapping the needle before disposal to
medical asepsis prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact part
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS
clothings Patients
C. Shake the linens to remove dust D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and
D. Practice good hygiene vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or Neutropenia
steam under pressure? 69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II
TB?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their
spores are destroyed by autoclave machine A. In a room with positive air pressure and
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
1 month considering the bags are still intact B. In a room with positive air pressure and
C. The instruments are put into unlocked atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
position, on their hinge, during the C. In a room with negative air pressure and
autoclave atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at D. In a room with negative air pressure and
one time is advisable atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
63. Which of the following is true about masks? 70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What
precaution is used for this patient?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with A. Standard precaution
alcohol B. Airborne precaution
C. Masks can provide durable protection even C. Droplet precaution
when worn for a long time and after each D. Contact precaution
and every patient care 71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter precaution is used for this patient?
organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper? A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
A. Green trashcan C. Droplet precaution
 D. Contact precaution A. The glove of the non dominant hand
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What B. The glove of the dominant hand
precaution is used for this patient? C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is
A. Standard precaution unnecessary
B. Airborne precaution 80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on
C. Droplet precaution applying the protective items listed below
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, 1. Eye wear or goggles
she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s 2. Cap
glass containing distilled drinking water which is 3. Mask
definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do? 4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert A. 3,2,1,5,4
the NG Tube B. 3,2,1,4,5
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client C. 2,3,1,5,4
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it D. 2,3,1,4,5
again 81. In removing protective devices, which should be the
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do exact sequence?
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL
ASEPSIS except 1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces 3. Mask
faster than with dry surfaces 4. Gloves
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an 5. Gown
object, consider it not sterile A. 4,3,5,1,2
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, B. 2,3,1,5,4
considered it sterile C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. If you can reach the object by D. 1,2,3,4,5
overreaching, just move around the sterile 82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a
field to pick it rather than reaching for it sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL above the receptacle?
ASEPSIS?
A. 1 inch
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are B. 3 inches
considered sterile for about 4 months as C. 6 inches
long as the bagging is intact D. 10 inches
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each 83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It
nurse is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile
enhance sterile technique forceps?
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the
sterile field, He/she must do handwashing A. The tip should always be lower than the
and gloving again, but the gown need not handle
be changed. B. The tip should always be above the handle
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved C. The handle and the tip should be at the
first? same level
D. The handle should point downward and the
A. The dominant hand tip, always upward
B. The non dominant hand 84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne
C. The left hand precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her are appropriate actions by the nurse?
own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the 1. She wears mask, covering the nose and
goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation? mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field removing gloves, after suctioning the
B. After surgical hand scrub client’s secretion
C. Before surgical hand scrub 3. She removes gloves and hands before
D. Before entering the sterile field leaving the client’s room
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when 4. She discards contaminated suction catheter
applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure? tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when B. 1,2,3
picking up the second glove C. 1,2,3,4
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four D. 1,3
fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff 85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand following nursing action is required to prevent
first contamination?
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after
both gloves are on 1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail
79. Which gloves should you remove first? polish
 2. Open faucet with knee or foot control C. Stage of Homeostasis
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing D. Stage of Exhaustion
and rinsing 94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you decreased
scrubbed
A. 1,2 A. Stage of Alarm
B. 2,3 B. Stage of Resistance
C. 1,2,3 C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. 2,3,4 D. Stage of Exhaustion
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an 95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back
inappropriate nursing action? into HOMEOSTASIS?

A. Wash gloved hand first A. Stage of Alarm

B. Peel off gloves inside out B. Stage of Resistance
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Remove mask and gown before removing D. Stage of Exhaustion
gloves 96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive
stress? mechanisms are utilized

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and A. Stage of Alarm

illnesses B. Stage of Resistance
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests C. Stage of Homeostasis
psychological symptoms D. Stage of Exhaustion
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive 97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
equilibrium B. There is a totality of response
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress C. Adaptive response is immediately
theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to mobilized, doesn’t require time
any demand made upon it. D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new
A. Hans Selye technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which
B. Walter Cannon of the following mode of adaptation is Andy
C. Claude Bernard experiencing?
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
to the concept of Modern Stress Theory? B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
A. Stress is not a nervous energy D. Technological adaptive mode
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, 99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in
always adapts to it Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to
C. Stress is not always something to be learn the language of the people. What type of
avoided adaptation is Andy experiencing?
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
concept of Modern Stress Theory? B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
A. Stress is essential D. Technological adaptive mode
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is 100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a
asleep written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and
C. A single stress can cause a disease kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation
D. Stress always leads to distress mode is this?
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of
alarm of general adaptation syndrome? A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
stress D. Technological adaptive mode
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism
begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
 1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels
in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decreases force of contractility
D. Decreases cardiac output
2. What stress response can you expect from a patient
with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level

B. There will be a halt in release of sex
hormones
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase
3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation
except

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement

of phagocytosis
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing
capillary permeability
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing
pain
D. Prepare for tissue repair
4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
D. Transient Vasodilation
5. The last expected process in the stages of
inflammation is characterized by

A. There will be sudden redness of the

affected part
B. Heat will increase on the affected part
C. The affected part will loss its normal
function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site
6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an
antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism
infection?

A. Serous
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent
D. Sanguinous
7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

A. Redness on the affected area

B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation
8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining
the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response,
Which of the following WBC component is responsible
for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
FON Practice Exam for Stress, Crisis, Crisis C. Eosinophils
Intervention, Communication, Recording, Learning D. Monocytes
and Documentation (100 items) 9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates
in cases of Anaphylaxis?
Link:
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine- A. Neutrophils
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/fon-practice-exam-stress- B. Basophils
crisis-crisis-intervention-communication-recording- C. Eosinophil
learning-documentation/ D. Monocytes
10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the
Components. She got an injury yesterday after she use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic
twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. tissues
She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible C. It is a type of dressing where in, The
for proliferation at the injured site immediately wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing
following an injury. You answer: to prevent contamination
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A
A. Neutrophils cellophane or plastic is placed on the
B. Basophils wound over a wet dressing to stimulate
C. Eosinophils healing of the wound in a wet medium
D. Monocytes 18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is
11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process
that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, A. Release of pain mediators
You tell her: B. Injury to the nerve endings
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by
A. Phagocytosis the edema fluids
B. Emigration D. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is
C. Pavementation insufficient
D. Chemotaxis 19. The client is in stress because he was told by the
12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of
describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects
bring phagocytes to the site of injury? of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?

A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked 1. Constipation

a lot of questions 2. Urinary frequency
B. It is Diapedesis 3. Hyperglycemia
C. We call that Emigration 4. Increased blood pressure
D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell A. 3,4
you after I find it out later B. 1,3,4
13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed C. 1,2,4
surgical closure of infected wound D. 1,4
20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the
A. First intention following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the
B. Second intention operation in the morning?
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M
14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M
careful surgical incision and good healing C. Brush his teeth the morning before
operation
A. First intention D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
B. Second intention 21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood
C. Third intention test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of
D. Fourth intention the following below is an expected response?
15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown
suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration A. Low BP
on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the B. Decrease Urine output
criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing C. Warm, flushed, dry skin
that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is D. Low serum sodium levels
22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic
A. First intention relationship?
B. Second intention
C. Third intention A. Directed towards helping an individual
D. Fourth intention both physically and emotionally
16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust
a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to C. Goals are set by the solely nurse
Miss Imelda is D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t
need anymore of the Nurse’s help
A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A 23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is
and C rich foods composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification,
B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A Exploitation and Resolution
and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A A. Roy
and C rich foods B. Peplau
D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A C. Rogers
and C rich foods D. Travelbee
17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY 24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a
Dressing method? Your best response is nurse review the client’s medical records thereby
learning as much as possible about the client?
A. It is a type of mechanical debridement
using Wet dressing that is applied and left A. Pre Orientation
to dry to remove dead tissues B. Orientation
C. Working
 D. Termination A. Mild
25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first B. Moderate
time. She establish a contract about the frequency of C. Severe
meeting and introduce to Roger the expected D. Panic
termination. She started taking baseline assessment and 33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board
set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased
Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong? awareness of his environment and is purely focused on
the exam questions characterized by his selective
A. Pre Orientation attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?
B. Orientation
C. Working A. Mild
D. Termination B. Moderate
26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. C. Severe
As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling D. Panic
Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an 34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What
unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room will you expect to see in this client?
now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of
NPR? A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and
perception is greatly increased
A. Pre Orientation B. Dilated pupils
B. Orientation C. Unable to communicate
C. Working D. Palliative Coping Mechanism
D. Termination 35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?
27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider
Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human A. When anxiety is +1
being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic B. When the client starts to have a narrow
communication is Nurse Aida using? perceptual field and selective
inattentiveness
A. Empathy C. When problem solving is not possible
B. Positive regard D. When the client is immobile and
C. Comfortable sense of self disorganized
D. Self awareness 36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a
28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh symptom of Anxiety?
look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should
intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement A. Frequent hand movement
shows that she is lacking? B. Somatization
C. The client asks a question
A. Empathy D. The client is acting out
B. Positive regard 37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate
C. Comfortable sense of self for client’s with anxiety?
D. Self awareness
29. Which of the following statement is not true about A. Offer choices
stress? B. Provide a quiet and calm environment
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and
A. It is a nervous energy every procedures and equipments
B. It is an essential aspect of existence D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level
C. It has been always a part of human 38. Which of the following statement, if made by the
experience nurse, is considered not therapeutic?
D. It is something each person has to cope
30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many A. “How did you deal with your anxiety
new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon before?”
event. She became depressed and always seen crying. B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
Martina is clearly on what kind of situation? C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
A. Martina is just stressed out 39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it
B. Martina is Anxious done?
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from
31. Which of the following statement is not true with top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then
regards to anxiety? releasing them
B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing
A. It has physiologic component the muscle, Letting go and repeating a
B. It has psychologic component word or sound after each exhalation
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich
an unrecognized entity statement about a desired change
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a D. Exercise combined with meditation to
recognized entity foster relaxation and mental alacrity
32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the 40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if
ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and
her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?
what level of anxiety does this features belongs?
A. Biofeedback
 B. Massage D. Seeking clarification
C. Autogenic training 49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty
D. Visualization and Imagery sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot
41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self- about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And
hypnosis that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic
technique is used in this situation?
A. Biofeedback
B. Meditation A. Reflecting
C. Autogenic training B. Restating
D. Visualization and Imagery C. Exploring
42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic? D. Seeking clarification
50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all
A. Valium night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping”
B. Ativan This is what type of therapeutic communication
C. Milltown technique?
D. Luvox
43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he A. Reflecting
had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in B. Restating
the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be C. Exploring
supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth D. Seeking clarification
experiencing? 51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my
bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is
1. Spiritual Pain hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What
2. Spiritual Anxiety technique did Budek used?
3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair A. Disproving
A. 1,2 B. Disagreeing
B. 2,3 C. Voicing Doubt
C. 3,4 D. Presenting Reality
D. 1,4 52. Which of the following is a therapeutic
44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before
broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and
everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual purge you to pieces!”
distress is Grace experiencing?
A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor
A. Spiritual Pan Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a
B. Spiritual Alienation Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”
C. Spiritual Guilt B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face
D. Spiritual Despair his wrath!”
45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the
already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. hospital, I am your nurse and you are a
This is a type of what spiritual crisis? patient here”
D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can
A. Spiritual Anger you tell me more about it?”
B. Spiritual Loss 53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to
C. Spiritual Despair that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which
D. Spiritual Anxiety of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC
46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He
noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need
restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You to inject you this for your own good”
appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek B. “ You sound afraid”
used? C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this
injection?”
A. Offering general leads D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me
B. Seeking clarification more about your feelings Erik”
C. Making observation 54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was
D. Encouraging description of perception caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal
47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ activities. When he got home after paying for the bail,
Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr.
example of therapeutic communication technique? La Jueteng used?

A. Reflecting A. Restitution
B. Restating B. Projection
C. Exploring C. Displacement
D. Seeking clarification D. Undoing
48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” 55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food.
Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously
uses what example of therapeutic communication? doing?

A. Reflecting A. Restitution
B. Restating B. Conversion
C. Exploring C. Redoing
 D. Reaction formation 64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of
56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following
person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild
TRUE in crisis? Anxiety?

A. The person experiences heightened feeling A. She has increased awareness of her
of stress environmental details
B. Inability to function in the usual organized B. She focused on selected aspect of her
manner illness
C. Lasts for 4 months C. She experiences incongruence of action,
D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings thoughts and feelings
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis? D. She experiences random motor activities
65. Which of the following nursing intervention would
A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time least likely be effective when dealing with a client with
B. There is a triggering event aggressive behavior?
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
D. Person totality is not involved A. Approach him in a calm manner
58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous C. Maintain eye contact with the client
loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of D. Isolate the client from others
crisis is Devin experiencing? 66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I
have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don’t make me close
A. Situational one more door, I don’t wanna hurt anymore!” Which of
B. Maturational the following is the most appropriate response by
C. Social Budek?
D. Phenomenal
59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been A. Why are you singing?
unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the B. What makes you say that?
end of his term. He is in what type of crisis? C. Ofcourse you are everything!
D. What is that you said?
A. Situational 67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the
B. Maturational diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of
C. Social the following is the most appropriate nursing
D. Phenomenal intervention?
60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took
thousands of people and change million lives. The A. Tell the client not to worry until the results
people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not are in
know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is B. Ask the client to express feelings and
this? concern
C. Reassure the client everything will be
A. Situational alright
B. Maturational D. Advice the client to divert his attention by
C. Social watching television and reading
D. Phenomenal newspapers
61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis 68. Considered as the most accurate expression of
intervention? person’s thought and feelings

A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state A. Verbal communication
B. Make sure that the client becomes better B. Non verbal communication
C. Achieve independence C. Written communication
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism D. Oral communication
62. What is the best intervention when the client has just 69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like
experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the talking about.
crisis?
A. Overt communication
A. Behavior therapy B. Covert communication
B. Gestalt therapy C. Verbal communication
C. Cognitive therapy D. Non verbal communication
D. Milieu Therapy 70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an
63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as effective Nurse-Client relationship?
follows
A. Focused on the patient
1. Based on friendship and mutual interest B. Based on mutual trust
2. It is a professional relationship C. Conveys acceptance
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve D. Discourages emotional bond
problems and achieve health-related goals 71. A type of record wherein , each person or department
4. Maintained only as long as the patient makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the
requires professional helpA. 1,2,3 nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order
B. 1,2,4 sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information
C. 2,3,4 source.
D. 1,3,4
A. POMR
 B. POR 81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od
C. Traditional means?
D. Resource oriented
72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the A. Left eye
problem, gathered by members of the health team. B. Right eye
C. Both eye
A. POMR D. Once a day
B. Traditional 82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc
C. Resource oriented Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?
D. Source oriented
73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic A. without
charts or graphs that indicated the progression or B. with
fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure. C. one half
D. With one half dose
A. Progress notes 83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does
B. Kardex ss means?
C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet A. without
74. Provides a concise method of organizing and B. with
recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards C. one half
kept in portable file used in change of shift reports. D. With one half dose
84. Which of the following indicates that learning has
A. Kardex been achieved?
B. Progress Notes
C. SOAPIE A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and
D. Change of shift report eating a balance diet after you taught her
75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. mag HL tayo program
There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the
of the following should you use? steps of insulin administration after you
taught it to her
A. Mongol #2 C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a
B. Permanent Ink health teaching about family planning
C. A felt or fountain pen D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker smoking and alcoholism
76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where 85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he
should you put this vital information in the client’s stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new
chart? situation closely resembles an old one.

A. In the first page of the client’s chart A. Bloom

B. At the last page of the client’s chart B. Lewin
C. At the front metal plate of the chart C. Thorndike
D. In the Kardex D. Skinner
77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the 86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to
Kardex learning?

A. It provides readily available information A. Start from complex to simple

B. It is a tool of end of shift reports B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient
C. The primary basis of endorsement can strive to attain unrealistic goals
D. Where Allergies information are written C. Visual learning is the best for every
78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, individual
violates characteristic of good recording? D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning.
A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of
Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 Donya Delilah to inject insulin?
and Respiratory rate of 22
B. Ate 50% of food served A. Cognitive
C. Refused administration of betaxolol B. Affective
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago C. Psychomotor
79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c D. Motivative
means? 88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making
John and Marsha understand the different kinds of
A. As desired family planning methods?
B. Before meals
C. After meals A. Cognitive
D. Before bed time B. Affective
80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what C. Psychomotor
does p.c means? D. Motivative
89. Which of the following statement clearly defines
A. As desired therapeutic communication?
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
 A. Therapeutic communication is an good breathing, circulation and prevent
interaction process which is primarily complication
directed by the nurse B. Tell the client that deep breathing and
B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance coughing exercises is needed to prevent
and empathy from the nurse to a patient in Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia
relaxed atmosphere and atelectasis
C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal C. Medicate client for pain
interaction based on trust and aimed at D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to
identifying patient needs and developing improve recovery
mutual goals 97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the
D. Therapeutic communication is an best way to communicate this information?
assessment component of the nursing
process A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex
90. Which of the following concept is most important in B. Notify the attending physician
establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship? C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications
A. The nurse must fully understand the 98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning
patient’s feelings, perception and reactions and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the
before goals can be established client’s pain?
B. The nurse must be a role model for health
fostering behavior A. Perform physical assessment
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley
may manifest maladaptive behavior after pain rating scale
illness C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. The nurse should understand that patients D. Observe the client’s behavior
might test her before trust is established 99. Therapeutic communication begins with?
91. Which of the following communication skill is most
effective in dealing with covert communication? A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
A. Validation C. Showing empathy
B. Listening D. Encoding
C. Evaluation 100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to
D. Clarification educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using
92. Which of the following are qualities of a good materials like this, what is your responsibility?
recording?
A. Read it for the patient
1. Brevity B. Give it for the patient to read himself
2. Completeness and chronology C. Let the family member read the material for
3. Appropriateness the patient
4. Accuracy D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read
A. 1,2 the material
B. 3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4
93. All of the following chart entries are correct except

A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80

B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance
94. Which of the following teaching method is effective
in client who needs to be educated about self injection of
insulin?

A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing
95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse
patient relationship?

A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond
96. Which of the following nursing intervention is
needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep
breathing and coughing exercises?

A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and

coughing exercises is needed to promote
 D. Effective
7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her
environment is moving. Which of the following is a
valid assessment?

1. Rhina is giving an objective data

2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
FON Practice Nursing Process, Physiscal and Health 8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive
Assessment and Routine Procedures (100 items) over the impending operation. The client is experiencing
dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela
Link:
made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine- PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/fon-practice-exam-nursing-
process-physical-health-assessment-routine-procedures/ A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING D. Risk
PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process 9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have
which are Observation, Ministration and Validation. undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM
DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE.
Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela
A. Nightingale
already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of
B. Johnson
Diagnosis?
C. Rogers
D. Hall
2. The American Nurses association formulated an A. Actual
innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many B. Probable
distinct steps are there in the nursing process? C. Possible
D. Risk
10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very
A. APIE – 4
unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not
B. ADPIE – 5
specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T
C. ADOPIE – 6
DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE.
D. ADOPIER – 7
She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing
diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already
process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning,
ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is
implementation and evaluation.
this?
1. Yura
A. Actual
2. Walsh
B. Probable
3. Roy
C. Possible
4. Knowles
D. Risk
A. 1,2
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has
B. 1,3
just undergone an operation with an incision near the
C. 3,4
diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some
D. 2,3
complications later on. She then should develop what
4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible
type of Nursing diagnosis?
for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost
resources?
A. Actual
B. Probable
A. Organized and Systematic
C. Possible
B. Humanistic
D. Risk
C. Efficient
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is
D. Effective
INCORRECT?
5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the
INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side
A. Organized and Systematic
rails
B. Humanistic
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of
C. Efficient
loved one
D. Effective
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of
6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential
surgical removal of the leg
to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care
13. Among the following statements, which should be
should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Organized and Systematic
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Humanistic
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Efficient
 C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade 22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series.
D. Client is cyanotic Which type of health assessment framework is used in
14. Which of the following need is given a higher this situation?
priority among others?
A. Functional health framework
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety B. Head to toe framework
precaution is needed C. Body system framework
B. The client has disturbance in his body D. Cephalocaudal framework
image because of the recent operation 23. Which of the following statement is true regarding
C. The client is depressed because her temperature?
boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated A. Oral temperature is more accurate than
15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to rectal temperature
Client Goals? B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature
reading is pear shaped or round
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
and time bounded D. When the client is swimming, BMR
B. They are general and broadly stated Decreases
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT 24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is
ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, dissipated by air current
HOW WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, A. Convection
Client demonstrated the proper B. Conduction
psychomotor skills for insulin injection. C. Radiation
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement D. Evaporation
of an Outcome criteria? 25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?

A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before A. The highest temperature usually occurs
discharge later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the B. The lowest temperature is usually in the
surgical procedure Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
breathing technique after a teaching session D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of due to the absence of fats, Decreased
elimination thermoregulatory control and sedentary
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data? lifestyle.
26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature
A. Dizziness is greater than
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety A. 40 degree Celsius
D. Blue nails B. 39 degree Celsius
18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source? C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
A. Primary 27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client
B. Secondary who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent
C. Tertiary barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees
D. Can be A and B Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing
process except A. High
B. Low
A. Dynamic C. At the low end of the normal range
B. Cyclical D. At the high end of the normal range
C. Universal 28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at
D. Intrapersonal around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John
CARE PLAN? having?

A. It is nursing centered A. Relapsing

B. Rationales are supported by interventions B. Intermittent
C. Verbal C. Remittent
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every D. Constant
nursing diagnosis 29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But
21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees.
effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type
relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL. of fever is John having?

A. Functional health framework A. Relapsing

B. Head to toe framework B. Intermittent
C. Body system framework C. Remittent
D. Cephalocaudal framework D. Constant
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5
degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature
of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to A. 1 to 2 inches
normal. Which of the following best describe the fever B. 5 to 1.5 inches
john is having? C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches
A. Relapsing 40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction
B. Intermittent of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
C. Remittent
D. Constant A. From bulb to stem
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is B. From stem to bulb
characterized as: C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb
A. Tricyclic 41. How long should the thermometer stay in the
B. Bicyclic Client’s Axilla?
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic A. 3 minutes
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever B. 4 minutes
was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius C. 7 minutes
to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse D. 10 minutes
would assess this event as: 42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about
pulse?
A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been
met with full satisfaction of the outcome A. Young person have higher pulse than older
criteria persons
B. The desired goal has been partially met B. Males have higher pulse rate than females
C. The goal is not completely met after puberty
D. The goal has been met but not with the C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
desired outcome criteria D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is 43. The following are correct actions when taking radial
currently at the ONSET stage of fever? pulse except:

A. Hot, flushed skin A. Put the palms downward

B. Increase thirst B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Convulsion C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the
D. Pale,cold skin pulse at the inner wrist
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and
fever, which of the following is expected? bilateral quality
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic
A. Delirium pressure is termed as
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds A. Apical rate
D. Sweating B. Cardiac rate
35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient C. Pulse deficit
method for temperature taking D. Pulse pressure
45. Which of the following completely describes
A. Oral PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic
D. Axillary blood pressure with inspiration
36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic
of temperature taking blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in
A. Oral standing position and high when supine.
B. Rectal D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is
C. Tympanic in standing position and low when supine.
D. Axillary 46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in
taking ORAL temperature? A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
A. Quadriplegic C. I:E 1:1
B. Presence of NGT D. I:E 1:2
C. Dyspnea 47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
D. Nausea and Vomitting
38. Which of the following is a contraindication in A. Medulla oblongata
taking RECTAL temperature? B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
A. Unconscious D. Aortic bodies
B. Neutropenic 48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and
C. NPO prolonged inspiration
D. Very young children
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be A. Medulla oblongata
inserted to the clients anus? B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
 D. Aortic bodies C. 15
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm D. 30
and quality of breathing? 59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the
Client’s BP?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons A. True high reading
C. Carotid bodies B. True low reading
D. Aortic bodies C. False high reading
50. The primary respiratory center D. False low reading
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons A. An arm with the most contraptions
C. Carotid bodies B. The left arm of the client with a CVA
D. Aortic bodies affecting the right brain
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the C. The right arm
mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies? D. The left arm
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing
A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases client’s BP?
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus,
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis preferably at the eye level to prevent error
52. All of the following factors correctly influence of parallax
respiration except one. Which of the following is B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a
incorrect? time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is
A. Hydrocodone decreases RR known as KOROTKOFF sound
B. Stress increases RR D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the
C. Increase temperature of the environment, popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is
Increase RR normal.
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR 62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation
53. When does the heart receives blood from the of the ERROR OF PARALLAX
coronary artery?
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of
A. Systole the meniscus, it will cause a false high
B. Diastole reading
C. When the valves opens B. If the eye level is higher than the level of
D. When the valves closes the meniscus, it will cause a false low
54. Which of the following is more life threatening? reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of
A. BP = 180/100 the meniscus, it will cause a false low
B. BP = 160/120 reading
C. BP = 90/60 D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level
D. BP = 80/50 of the upper meniscus, the reading is
55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest accurate
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before
making a re-reading after the first one?
A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload A. 1
D. Pulse pressure B. 5
56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood C. 15
pressure determinants? D. 30
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the
auscultation of blood pressure?
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
D. Epinephrine decreases BP B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates auscultating BP
the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic? C. Sound produced by BP is considered as
HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have
65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is
lower BP than males
the correct sequence of the physical assessment?
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest
during the night A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion,
D. Africans, have a greater risk of Palpation
hypertension than Caucasian and Asians. B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion,
58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client Inspection
had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation,
caffeine before taking his/her BP? Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation,
Percussion
A. 5
B. 10
66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00
abdomen is: A.M, Friday and she included the urine in
the 24 hour urine specimen
A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ urine of the client
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ urine of the client to the specimen
67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is collection
NOT DONE? D. The nurse added preservatives as per
protocol and refrigerates the specimen
A. Ask the client to void first 74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the and for the presence of albumin the the urine
abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen A. Midstream clean catch urine
is Dorsal recumbent B. 24 hours urine collection
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated C. Postprandial urine collection
68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an D. Second voided urine
ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if 75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for
done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the greater accuracy?
procedure?
A. During meals
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure B. In between meals
privacy C. Before meals
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to D. 2 Hours after meals
allow better illumination 76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient,
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope Which of the following statement indicates an accurate
to ensure comfort performance of the procedure?
D. Darken the room to provide better
illumination A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes
69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and before drawing the urine from the port
the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes
examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse before drawing the urine from the port
in attendance? C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes
before drawing the urine from the port
A. To ensure that the doctor performs the D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes
procedure safely before drawing the urine from the port
B. To assist the doctor 77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and
C. To assess the client’s response to meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you
examination test my urine for glucose? Which of the following
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for
ethical manner glucose without the need for intricate instruments.
70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the
following position is necessary for the patient to assume A. Acetic Acid test
before the start of the procedure? B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
A. Supine D. Litmus paper test
B. Dorsal recumbent 78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine
C. Sitting using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following,
D. Lithotomy if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge
71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for with the procedure?
routine urinalysis and C/S?
A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of
A. Early morning the solution
B. Later afternoon B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding
C. Midnight 1/3 part acetic acid
D. Before breakfast C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding
72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of 2/3 part of Urine
collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity? D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she
noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy
A. Use a clean container 79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?
the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen together with the urine in a test tube
or add ice according to the agency’s B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
protocol C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the
73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 urine to check if the solution is
A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate contaminated
a NEED for further procedural debriefing? D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is
POSITIVE
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by
what color?
 A. Blue B. Release of thyroxin
B. Green C. Muscle activity
C. Yellow D. Stress
D. Orange 88. The heat regulating center is found in the
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for
glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a A. Medulla oblongata
nurse indicates error? B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
A. Specimen is collected after meals D. Pons
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test 89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of
tube heat from one surface to another is
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of
water A. Radiation
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is B. Conduction
considered postitive C. Convection
82. Which of the following nursing intervention is D. Evaporation
important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test? 90. Which of the following is a primary factor that
affects the BP?
A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3
days before procedure A. Obesity
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further B. Age
loss of Iron C. Stress
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before D. Gender
procedure 91. The following are social data about the client except
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods
to produce accurate results A. Patient’s lifestyle
83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which B. Religious practices
of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate C. Family home situation
knowledge and skills about the procedure? D. Usual health status
92. The best position for any procedure that involves
A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically vaginal and cervical examination is
at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a A. Dorsal recumbent
teaspoonful B. Side lying
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen C. Supine
after the client wiped off his anus with a D. Lithotomy
tissue 93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, bipedal edema is best done in what position?
Secure a sterile container
84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following
A. Dorsal recumbent
indicates proper nursing action before sputum
B. Sitting
collection?
C. Standing
D. Supine
A. Secure a clean container 94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the
B. Discard the container if the outside following is the best position for the client to assume?
becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine
A. Dorsal recumbent
after collection
B. Side lying
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum
C. Supine
is needed for each specimen for a routine
D. Lithotomy
sputum analysis
95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what
85. Who collects Blood specimen?
position?
A. The nurse
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Medical technologist
B. Sims position
C. Physician
C. Supine
D. Physical therapist
D. Lithotomy
86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for
96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action
Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health
when collecting urine specimen from a client with an
teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?
Indwelling catheter?
A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days
A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage
prior to the procedure
bag
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1
and draw the specimen from the port
hour prior to the procedure
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase
specimen from the drainage port
level is 50 to 140 U/L
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat
allow self sealing of the port
production is the
97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting
mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine
A. Metabolism analysis?
 A. Collect early in the morning, First voided
specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen
collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
98. When palpating the client’s neck for
lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position
himself?

A. At the client’s back

B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
99. Which of the following is the best position for the
client to assume if the back is to be examined by the
nurse?

A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone
100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best
show chest expansion as well as its movements?

A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine FON Oxygenation and Nutrition (100 items)

Link:
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine-
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/fon-practice-exam-
oxygenation-nutrition/

1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the

Upper airway?

A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing

B. Transport gases to the lower airways
C. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of
inspired air
D. Protect the lower airway from foreign
mater
2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a
filtering mechanism for foreign objects

A. Cilia
B. Nares
C. Carina
D. Vibrissae
3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and
the nose that extends backward into the skull

A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
5. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to
change her surname to something shorter, The court
denied her request which depresses her and find herself
binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of
nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will
the nut go?
 A. Right main stem bronchus 15. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the
B. Left main stem bronchus oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of
C. Be dislodged in between the carina the following is the best response :
D. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis
6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen
by trapping debris in the respiratory tract? and we have 21% available in our air
B. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have
A. Type I pneumocytes 35% available in our air
B. Type II pneumocytes C. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have
C. Goblet cells 50% available in our air
D. Adipose cells D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we
7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG? have 21% available in our air
16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?
A. One
B. Two A. A passive process
C. Three B. The length of which is half of the length of
D. Four Inspiration
8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical C. Stridor is commonly heard during
difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs? expiration
D. Requires energy to be carried out
A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung 17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural
slightly shorter drainage?
B. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung
slightly shorter A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15
C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter minutes
D. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter B. Should last only for 60 minutes
9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli? C. Done best P.C
D. An independent nursing action
A. Type I pneumocytes 18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam
B. Type II pneumocytes inhalation
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells A. Mucolytic
10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby B. Warm and humidify air
viable is C. Administer medications
D. Promote bronchoconstriction
A. 1:2 19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam
B. 2:1 inhalation?
C. 3:1
D. 1:3 A. It is a dependent nursing action
11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the B. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the
normal tidal volume nose
C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60
A. Inspiratory reserve volume minutes
B. Expiratory reserve volume D. Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to
C. Functional residual capacity prevent irritation
D. Residual volume 20. When should a nurse suction a client?
12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after
a forceful expiration A. As desired
B. As needed
A. Inspiratory reserve volume C. Every 1 hour
B. Expiratory reserve volume D. Every 4 hours
C. Functional residual capacity 21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American
D. Residual volume client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york,
13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical
you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you
Your best response is which of the following? are to suction his secretions. In which position should
you place Mr. Hamilton?
A. We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra
B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra A. High fowlers
C. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was B. Semi fowlers
noted by Vesalius in 1543 C. Prone
D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are D. Side lying
floating 22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used
14. Which of the following is considered as the main to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction
muscle of respiration? machine. How much pressure should you set the valve
before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?
A. Lungs
B. Intercostal Muscles A. 50-95 mmHg
C. Diaphragm B. 200-350 mmHg
D. Pectoralis major C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 10-15 mmHg
23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient
the portable suction equipment available. How much before opening the oxygen source
pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent C. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver
trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of oxygen
portable suction units? D. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen
administration
A. 2-5 mmHg 31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an
B. 5-10 mmHg early sign of hypoxia?
C. 10-15 mmHg
D. 15-25 mmHg A. Client is tired and dyspneic
24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which B. The client is coughing out blood
one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton? C. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM
D. Client is frequently turning from side to
A. Fr. 18 side
B. Fr. 12 32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the
C. Fr. 10 admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of
D. Fr, 5 the following associated finding should the nurse
25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, expect?
indicates incompetence during suctioning an
unconscious client? A. Pancytopenia
B. Anemia
A. Measure the length of the suction catheter C. Fingers are Club-like
to be inserted by measuring from the tip of D. Hematocrit of client is decreased
the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid 33. The best method of oxygen administration for client
process with COPD uses:
B. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal
secretion A. Cannula
C. The maximum time of suctioning should B. Simple Face mask
not exceed 15 seconds C. Non rebreather mask
D. Allow 30 seconds interval between D. Venturi mask
suctioning 34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was
26. Which of the following is the initial sign of brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing.
hypoxemia in an adult client? Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered.
What does C.T.T Stands for?
1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia A. Chest tube thoracotomy
3. Cyanosis B. Chest tube thoracostomy
4. Pallor C. Closed tube thoracotomy
5. Irritability D. Closed tube thoracostmy
6. Flaring of NaresA. 1,2 35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain
B. 2,5 fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?
C. 2,6
D. 3,4 A. 2nd ICS
27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces B. 4th ICS
anxiety and apprehension? C. 5th ICS
D. 8th ICS
A. Nasal Cannula 36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed
B. Simple Face mask drainage system with suction. And oscillation is
C. Non Rebreather mask observed. As a nurse, what should you do?
D. Partial Rebreather mask
28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can A. Consider this as normal findings
deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM? B. Notify the physician
C. Check for tube leak
A. Nasal Cannula D. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing
B. Simple Face mask 37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask A. It is the process in which food are broken
29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN? down, for the body to use in growth and
development
A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless B. It is a process in which digested proteins,
gas. fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates
B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane are transported into the circulation
C. Oxygen supports combustion C. It is a chemical process that occurs in the
D. Excessive oxygen administration results in cell that allows for energy production,
respiratory acidosis energy use, growth and tissue repair
30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is D. It is the study of nutrients and the process
about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory in which they are use by the body
distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if 38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in
Roberto will: the

A. Uses venture mask in oxygen A. Mouth

administration B. Small intestine
 C. Large intestine B. Enterokinase
D. Stomach C. Enterogastrone
39. All of the following is true about digestion that D. Amylase
occurs in the Mouth except 48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building
blocks of Protein” is what we call
A. It is where the digestion process starts
B. Mechanical digestion is brought about by A. Nucleotides
mastication B. Fatty acids
C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin C. Glucose
breaks down starches into maltose D. Amino Acids
D. Deglutition occurs after food is broken 49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it
down into small pieces and well mixed detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the
with saliva gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of
40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.
sphincter pressure?
A. Lipase
A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice B. Amylase
B. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers C. Cholecystokinin
C. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, D. Pancreozymin
Suman 50. Which of the following is not true about the Large
D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg Intestine?
41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?
A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the
A. Mouth feces around 75% water and 25% solid
B. Esophagus B. The stool formed in the transverse colon is
C. Small intestine not yet well formed
D. Stomach C. It is a sterile body cavity
42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where? D. It is called large intestine because it is
longer than the small intestine
A. Mouth 51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the
B. Esophagus temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach A. Calorie
43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the B. Joules
Stomach C. Metabolism
D. Basal metabolic rate
A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be 52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of
digested, in about an hour carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup
B. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 of rice?
hours
C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the A. 150 calories
gastric mucosa B. 200 calories
D. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which C. 250 calories
starts the complex process of protein D. 400 calories
digestion 53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories
44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted in a day?
by the small intestine?
A. 1,000 calories
A. Sucrase B. 1,500 calories
B. Enterokinase C. 2,000 calories
C. Amylase D. 2,500 calories
D. Enterokinase 54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s
45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that caloric needs?
stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which
primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the A. All individual have the same caloric needs
Stomach B. Females in general have higher BMR and
therefore, require more calories
A. Enterogastrone C. During cold weather, people need more
B. Cholecystokinin calories due to increase BMR
C. Pancreozymin D. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the
D. Enterokinase day
46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on 55. Among the following people, who requires the
SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed? greatest caloric intake?

A. Galactose + Galactose A. An individual in a long state of

B. Glucose + Fructose gluconeogenesis
C. Glucose + Galactose B. An individual in a long state of
D. Fructose + Fructose glycogenolysis
47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that C. A pregnant individual
completes the protein digestion D. An adolescent with a BMI of 25
56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the
A. Trypsin development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?
 A. Vitamin B1 They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to
B. Vitamin B2 reduce the risk of acquiring prostate cancer
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6 A. Zinc
57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the B. Iron
intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease C. Selenium
due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the D. Vanadium
body? 66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been
reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of
A. Vitamin B1 sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this
B. Vitamin B2 phenomenon?
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6 A. Vitamin A
58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to B. Vitamin B
prevent peripheral neuritis C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
A. Vitamin B1 67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the
B. Vitamin B2 body in a very minute amount. Which of the following
C. Vitamin B3 vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT
D. Vitamin B6
59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is A. Phosphorous
associated in the deficiency of this vitamin B. Iron
C. Calcium
A. Vitamin B1 D. Sodium
B. Vitamin B2 68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany,
C. Vitamin B3 osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.
D. Vitamin B6
60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which A. Vitamin D
Vitamin? B. Iron
C. Calcium
A. Vitamin B1 D. Sodium
B. Vitamin B2 69. Among the following foods, which has the highest
C. Vitamin B3 amount of potassium per area of their meat?
D. Vitamin C
61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin A. Cantaloupe
E? B. Avocado
C. Raisin
A. Green leafy vegetables D. Banana
B. Vegetable oil 70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the
C. Fortified Milk following drug would you expect to be given to the
D. Fish liver oil client?
62. Among the following foods, which food should you
emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client? A. Acetazolamide
B. Deferoxamine
A. Pork liver and organ meats, Pork C. Calcium EDTA
B. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy products D. Activated charcoal
C. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, 71. Which of the following provides the richest source of
Cantaloupe and Dairy products Iron per area of their meat?
D. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs
and yeasts A. Pork meat
63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a B. Lean read meat
pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube C. Pork liver
defects? D. Green mongo
72. Which of the following is considered the best
A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes indicator of nutritional status of an individual?
B. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk
C. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, A. Height
corn, peanuts B. Weight
D. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, C. Arm muscle circumference
Liver, Eggs D. BMI
64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his 73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall
diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that Jose
instruct the client to avoid? Miguel is :

A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, A. Overweight

Liver B. Underweight
B. Salmon, Sardines, Tuna C. Normal
C. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals D. Obese
D. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken 74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the
65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s
anti oxidant in the body according to the latest research. nausea?
 A. Coke A. X-Ray
B. Sprite B. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check
C. Mirinda for bubbles produced
D. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice C. Aspirating gastric content to check if the
75. Which of the following is the first sign of content is acidic
dehydration? D. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a
gurgling sound at the epigastric area
A. Tachycardia 85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an
B. Restlessness NGT feeding today. How should you position the
C. Thirst patient?
D. Poor skin turgor
76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a A. Semi fowlers in bed
dehydrated client? B. Bring the client into a chair
C. Slightly elevated right side lying position
A. 1.007 D. Supine in bed
B. 1.020 86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the
C. 1.039 residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc
D. 1.029 residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of
77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered
male client? by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the
lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the
A. 67% client’s chart as input?
B. 50%
C. 36% A. 250 cc
D. 45% B. 290 cc
78. Which of the following statement by a client with C. 350 cc
prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of D. 310 cc
hypokalemia? 87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates
deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?
A. My arm feels so weak
B. I felt my heart beat just right now A. Do not give the feeding and notify the
C. My face muscle is twitching doctor of residual of the last feeding is
D. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping greater than or equal to 50 ml
79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic? B. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches
about the tube point of insertion to allow
A. Marinol slow introduction of feeding
B. Dramamine C. Ask the client to position in supine position
C. Benadryl immediately after feeding to prevent
D. Alevaire dumping syndrome
80. Which is not a clear liquid diet? D. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is
instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach
88. What is the most common problem in TUBE
A. Hard candy
FEEDING?
B. Gelatin
C. Coffee with Coffee mate
D. Bouillon A. Diarrhea
81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid B. Infection
diet? C. Hyperglycemia
D. Vomiting
89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy
A. Popsicles
feeding?
B. Pureed vegetable meat
C. Pineapple juice with pulps
D. Mashed potato A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma
82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET? and administer the feeding slowly
B. Pour 30 ml of water before and after
feeding administration
A. Steamed broccoli
C. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch
B. Creamed potato
towards the stoma
C. Spinach in garlic
D. A Pink stoma means that circulation
D. Sweet potato
towards the stoma is all well
83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is
90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors,
correct during NGT Insertion?
dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I
feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and
A. Use an oil based lubricant another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but
B. Measure the amount of the tube to be its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the
inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the following is the probable complication being
earlobe, to the xiphoid process experienced by the client?
C. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to
facilitate easy insertion
A. Hyperglycemia
D. Check the placement of the tube by
B. Hypoglycemia
introducing 10 cc of sterile water and
C. Infection
auscultating for bubbling sound
D. Fluid overload
84. Which of the following is the BEST method in
assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?
91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the
following assessment parameters is best used?

A. Food likes and dislikes

B. Regularity of meal times
C. 3 day diet recall
D. Eating style and habits
92. The vomiting center is found in the

A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in
client’s with stroke is

A. Aspiration
B. Dehydration
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D. Malnutrition
94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

A. Ampalaya
B. Broccoli
C. Mongo
D. Malunggay leaves
95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin
A?

A. Egg yolk
B. Liver
C. Fish
D. Peanuts
96. The most important nursing action before
gastrostomy feeding is

A. Check V/S
B. Assess for patency of the tube
C. Measure residual feeding
D. Check the placement of the tube
97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is

A. Ensures adequate nutrition

B. It prevents aspiration
C. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter
integrity
D. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance
98. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and
has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.

A. 20
B. 19
C. 15
D. 25
99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS
ANEMIA?

A. Strawberry tongue
B. Currant Jelly stool
C. Beefy red tongue
D. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC
100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and
notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the
following is a normal serum lipase value?

A. 10 U/L
B. 100 U/L
C. 200 U/L
D. 350 U/L
Fundamentals in Nursing Exam 1 (25 items) B. “The patient will eat the right amount of
food daily.”
Link: C. “The patient will identify all the high-salt
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine- food from a prepared list by discharge.”
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/pnle-fundamentals-in- D. “The patient will have enough sleep.”
nursing-exam-1/ 9. Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane
Robles demonstrates that she understands well th
elements of effecting charting?

1.Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse A. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil.
assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths per minute B. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon.
and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse C. She signs on the medication sheet after
understands that tachypnea means: administering the medication.
D. She signs her charting as follow: J.R
A. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute 10. What is the disadvantage of computerized
B. Blood pressure of 140/90 documentation of the nursing process?
C. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per
minute A. Accuracy
D. Frequent bowel sounds B. Legibility
2. The nurse listens to Mrs. Sullen’s lungs and notes a C. Concern for privacy
hissing sound or musical sound. The nurse documents D. Rapid communication
this as: 11. The theorist who believes that adaptation and
manipulation of stressors are related to foster change is:
A. Wheezes
B. Rhonchi A. Dorothea Orem
C. Gurgles B. Sister Callista Roy
D. Vesicular C. Imogene King
3. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature D. Virginia Henderson
at 101 degrees F. What is the equivalent centigrade 12. Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function
temperature? of:

A. 36.3 degrees C A. Patient and relatives

B. 37.95 degrees C B. Nurse and patient
C. 40.03 degrees C C. Doctor and family
D. 38.01 degrees C D. Nurse and doctor
4. Which approach to problem solving tests any number 13. Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed to have
of solutions until one is found that works for that hypertension since 10 years ago. Since then, she had
particular problem? maintained low sodium, low fat diet, to control her blood
pressure. This practice is viewed as:
A. Intuition
B. Routine A. Cultural belief
C. Scientific method B. Personal belief
D. Trial and error C. Health belief
5. What is the order of the nursing process? D. Superstitious belief
14. Becky is on NPO since midnight as preparation for
A. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated. Which
evaluating, planning of the following is an expected response?
B. Diagnosing, assessing, planning,
implementing, evaluating A. Low blood pressure
C. Assessing, diagnosing, planning, B. Warm, dry skin
implementing, evaluating C. Decreased serum sodium levels
D. Planning, evaluating, diagnosing, assessing, D. Decreased urine output
implementing 15. What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining a
6. During the planning phase of the nursing process, sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter to
which of the following is the outcome? prevent infection?

A. Nursing history A. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine.

B. Nursing notes B. Open the drainage bag and pour out the
C. Nursing care plan urine.
D. Nursing diagnosis C. Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and
7. What is an example of a subjective data? get urine.
D. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a
A. Heart rate of 68 beats per minute sterile syringe.
B. Yellowish sputum 16. A client is receiving 115 ml/hr of continuous IVF.
C. Client verbalized, “I feel pain when The nurse notices that the venipuncture site is red and
urinating.” swollen. Which of the following interventions would the
D. Noisy breathing nurse perform first?
8. Which expected outcome is correctly written?
A. Stop the infusion
A. “The patient will feel less nauseated in 24 B. Call the attending physician
hours.” C. Slow that infusion to 20 ml/hr
D. Place a clod towel on the site
17. The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed D. Incorporation of both nursing and medical
medication but the patient is inside the bathroom. What diagnoses in patient care
should the nurse do? 24. Using Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs,
which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest
A. Leave the medication at the bedside and priority?
leave the room.
B. After few minutes, return to that patient’s A. Ineffective breathing pattern related to
room and do not leave until the patient pain, as evidenced by shortness of breath.
takes the medication. B. Anxiety related to impending surgery, as
C. Instruct the patient to take the medication evidenced by insomnia.
and leave it at the bedside. C. Risk of injury related to autoimmune
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed and just dysfunction
leave the medication at the bedside. D. Impaired verbal communication related to
18. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing tracheostomy, as evidenced by inability to
action when administering NGT feeding? speak.
25. When performing an abdominal examination, the
A. Place the feeding 20 inches above the pint patient should be in a supine position with the head of
if insertion of NGT. the bed at what position?
B. Introduce the feeding slowly.
C. Instill 60ml of water into the NGT after A. 30 degrees
feeding. B. 90 degrees
D. Assist the patient in fowler’s position. C. 45 degrees
19. A female patient is being discharged after D. 0 degree
thyroidectomy. After providing the medication teaching.
The nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The
nurse is performing which professional role?

A. Manager
B. Caregiver
C. Patient advocate
D. Educator
20. Which data would be of greatest concern to the nurse
when completing the nursing assessment of a 68-year-
old woman hospitalized due to Pneumonia?

A. Oriented to date, time and place

B. Clear breath sounds
C. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds and
buccal cyanosis
D. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dl
21. During a change-of-shift report, it would be
important for the nurse relinquishing responsibility for
care of the patient to communicate. Which of the
following facts to the nurse assuming responsibility for
care of the patient?

A. That the patient verbalized, “My headache

is gone.”
B. That the patient’s barium enema performed
3 days ago was negative
C. Patient’s NGT was removed 2 hours ago
D. Patient’s family came for a visit this
morning.
22. Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a
nursing diagnosis of diarrhea?

A. “The patient will experience decreased

frequency of bowel elimination.”
B. “The patient will take anti-diarrheal
medication.”
C. “The patient will give a stool specimen for Fundamnetals in Nursing Exam 2 (25 items)
laboratory examinations.” Link:
D. “The patient will save urine for inspection
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine-
by the nurse.
23. Which of the following is the most important nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/pnle-fundamentals-in-
purpose of planning care with this patient? nursing-exam-2/

A. Development of a standardized NCP.

B. Expansion of the current taxonomy of 1. A patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device. Which
nursing diagnosis of the following nursing assessment is considered
C. Making of individualized patient care abnormal?
 A. Palpable radial pulse A. thigh
B. Palpable ulnar pulse B. liver
C. Capillary refill within 3 seconds C. intestine
D. Bluish fingernails, cool and pale fingers D. lung
2. Pia’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. Which of the 11. The nurse is aware that Bell’s palsy affects which
following food items does the nurse instruct Pia to cranial nerve?
avoid?
A. 2nd CN (Optic)
A. broccoli B. 3rd CN (Occulomotor)
B. sardines C. 4th CN (Trochlear)
C. cabbage D. 7th CN (Facial)
D. tomatoes 12. Prolonged deficiency of Vitamin B9 leads to:
3. Jason, 3 years old vomited. His mom stated, “He
vomited 6 ounces of his formula this morning.” This A. scurvy
statement is an example of: B. pellagra
C. megaloblastic anemia
A. objective data from a secondary source D. pernicious anemia
B. objective data from a primary source 13. Nurse Cherry is teaching a 72 year old patient about
C. subjective data from a primary source a newly prescribed medication. What could cause a
D. subjective data from a secondary source geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge
4. Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis? about the newly prescribed medication?

A. Hypethermia A. Absence of family support

B. Diabetes Mellitus B. Decreased sensory functions
C. Angina C. Patient has no interest on learning
D. Chronic Renal Failure D. Decreased plasma drug levels
5. What is the characteristic of the nursing process? 14. When assessing a patient’s level of consciousness,
which type of nursing intervention is the nurse
A. stagnant performing?
B. inflexible
C. asystematic A. Independent
D. goal-oriented B. Dependent
6. A skin lesion which is fluid-filled, less than 1 cm in C. Collaborative
size is called: D. Professional
15. Claire is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic
A. papule shoulder pain. By definition, the nurse understands that
B. vesicle the patient has had pain for more than:
C. bulla
D. macule A. 3 months
7. During application of medication into the ear, which B. 6 months
of the following is inappropriate nursing action? C. 9 months
D. 1 year
A. In an adult, pull the pinna upward. 16. Which of the following statements regarding the
B. Instill the medication directly into the nursing process is true?
tympanic membrane.
C. Warm the medication at room or body A. It is useful on outpatient settings.
temperature. B. It progresses in separate, unrelated steps.
D. Press the tragus of the ear a few times to C. It focuses on the patient, not the nurse.
assist flow of medication into the ear canal. D. It provides the solution to all patient health
8. Which of the following is appropriate nursing problems.
intervention for a client who is grieving over the death of 17. Which of the following is considered significant
her child? enough to require immediate communication to another
member of the health care team?
A. Tell her not to cry and it will be better.
B. Provide opportunity to the client to tell A. Weight loss of 3 lbs in a 120 lb female
their story. patient.
C. Encourage her to accept or to replace the B. Diminished breath sounds in patient with
lost person. previously normal breath sounds
D. Discourage the client in expressing her C. Patient stated, “I feel less nauseated.”
emotions. D. Change of heart rate from 70 to 83 beats
9. It is the gradual decrease of the body’s temperature per minute.
after death. 18. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the
following assessment parameters is best used?
A. livor mortis
B. rigor mortis A. food preferences
C. algor mortis B. regularity of meal times
D. none of the above C. 3-day diet recall
10. When performing an admission assessment on a D. eating style and habits
newly admitted patient, the nurse percusses resonance. 19. Van Fajardo is a 55 year old who was admitted to the
The nurse knows that resonance heard on percussion is hospital with newly diagnosed hepatitis. The nurse is
most commonly heard over which organ? doing a patient teaching with Mr. Fajardo. What kind of
role does the nurse assume?
 A. talker
B. teacher
C. thinker
D. doer
20. When providing a continuous enteral feeding, which
of the following action is essential for the nurse to do?

A. Place the client on the left side of the bed.

B. Attach the feeding bag to the current
tubing.
C. Elevate the head of the bed.
D. Cold the formula before administering it.
21. Kussmaul’s breathing is;

A. Shallow breaths interrupted by apnea.

B. Prolonged gasping inspiration followed by
a very short, usually inefficient expiration.
C. Marked rhythmic waxing and waning of
respirations from very deep to very shallow
breathing and temporary apnea.
D. Increased rate and depth of respiration.
22. Presty has terminal cancer and she refuses to believe
that loss is happening ans she assumes artificial
cheerfulness. What stage of grieving is she in?

A. depression
B. bargaining
C. denial
D. acceptance
23. Immunization for healthy babies and preschool
children is an example of what level of preventive health
care?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Curative
24. Which is an example of a subjective data?

A. Temperature of 38 0C
B. Vomiting for 3 days
C. Productive cough
D. Patient stated, “My arms still hurt.”
25. The nurse is assessing the endocrine system. Which
organ is part of the endocrine system?

A. Heart
B. Sinus
C. Thyroid
D. Thymus
Fundamnetals in Nursing Exam 3 (25 items) C. Writing out the instructions and having a
family member read them to the patient
Link: D. Demonstrating the procedure and having
https://www.rnpedia.com/practice-exams/philippine- the patient return the demonstration
nursing-licensure-exam-pnle/pnle-fundamentals-in- 9. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed
nursing-exam-3/ medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an
unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient’s medication
drawer. What should the nurse in charge do?

1. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a newly A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication
prescribed drug. What could cause a geriatric patient to error
have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the
medications? pharmacy
C. Use the syringe because it looks like it
A. Decreased plasma drug levels contains the same medication the nurse was
B. Sensory deficits prepared to give
C. Lack of family support D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of
D. History of Tourette syndrome the syringe
2. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the 10. When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric
nurse in charge should assess: patient, the nurse must stay especially alert for adverse
effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients to adverse
A. Any quadrant first drug effects?
B. The symptomatic quadrant first
C. The symptomatic quadrant last A. Faster drug clearance
D. The symptomatic quadrant either second or B. Aging-related physiological changes
third C. Increased amount of neurons
3. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. D. Enhanced blood flow to the GI tract
Which of the following should the nurse document as 11. A female patient is being discharged after cataract
subjective data? surgery. After providing medication teaching, the nurse
asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is
A. Vital signs performing which professional role?
B. Laboratory test result
C. Patient’s description of pain A. Manager
D. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms B. Educator
4. A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which C. Caregiver
assessment finding should the nurse consider abnormal? D. Patient advocate
12. A female patient exhibits signs of heightened
A. A palpable radial pulse anxiety. Which response by the nurse is most likely to
B. A palpable ulnar pulse reduce the patient’s anxiety?
C. Cool, pale fingers
D. Pink nail beds A. “Everything will be fine. Don’t worry.”
5. Which of the following planes divides the body B. “Read this manual and then ask me any
longitudinally into anterior and posterior regions? questions you may have.”
C. “Why don’t you listen to the radio?”
A. Frontal plane D. “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.”
B. Sagittal plane 13. A scrub nurse in the operating room has which
C. Midsagittal plane responsibility?
D. Transverse plane
6. A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. A. Positioning the patient
Indicators of denial include: B. Assisting with gowning and gloving
C. Handling surgical instruments to the
A. Shock dismay surgeon
B. Numbness D. Applying surgical drapes
C. Stoicism 14. A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to
D. Preparatory grief give a prescribed medication. What should the nurse in
7. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the charge do?
bed to a chair. Which action does the nurse take during
this patient transfer? A. Leave the medication at the patient’s
bedside
A. Position the head of the bed flat B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the
B. Helps the patient dangle the legs medication. And then leave it at the bedside
C. Stands behind the patient C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and
D. Places the chair facing away from the bed remain there until the patient takes the
8. A female patient who speaks a little English has medication
emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and
preparation, which nursing action would best help this then leave the medication at the bedside
patient understand wound care instruction? 15. The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be
administered subcutaneously every 6 hours. The vial
A. Asking frequently if the patient understands reads 10,000 units per millilitre. The nurse should
the instruction anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose?
B. Asking an interpreter to replay the
instructions to the patient. A. ¼ ml
 B. ½ ml C. Drop the medication into the inner canthus
C. ¾ ml regardless of eye position
D. 1 ¼ ml D. Drop the medication into the center of the
16. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature canthus regardless of eye position
at 102 degrees F. what is the equivalent Centigrade 24. The difference between an 18G needle and a 25G
temperature? needle is the needle’s:

A. 39 degrees C A. Length
B. 47 degrees C B. Bevel angle
C. 38.9 degrees C C. Thickness
D. 40.1 degrees C D. Sharpness
17. To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is 25. A patient receiving an anticoagulant should be
most likely to order which laboratory test? assessed for signs of:

A. Red blood cell count A. Hypotension

B. Sputum culture B. Hypertension
C. Total hemoglobin C. An elevated hemoglobin count
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis D. An increased number of erythrocytes
18. The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male
patient’s chest. Which statement about a stethoscope
with a bell and diaphragm is true?

A. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best

B. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds
best
C. The bell detects thrills best
D. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds
best
19. A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription
for an analgesic that is a controlled substance. During
discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that the
patient must fill this prescription how soon after the date
on which it was written?

A. Within 1 month
B. Within 3 months
C. Within 6 months
D. Within 12 months
20. Which human element considered by the nurse in
charge during assessment can affect drug
administration?

A. The patient’s ability to recover

B. The patient’s occupational hazards
C. The patient’s socioeconomic status
D. The patient’s cognitive abilities
21. When explaining the initiation of I.V. therapy to a 2-
year-old child, the nurse should:

A. Ask the child, “Do you want me to start the

I.V. now?”
B. Give simple directions shortly before the
I.V. therapy is to start
C. Tell the child, “This treatment is for your
own good”
D. Inform the child that the needle will be in
place for 10 days
22. All of the following parts of the syringe are sterile
except the:

A. Barrel
B. Inside of the plunger
C. Needle tip
D. Barrel tip
23. The best way to instill eye drops is to:

A. Instruct the patient to lock upward, and

drop the medication into the center of the
lower lid
B. Instruct the patient to look ahead, and drop
the medication into the center of the lower
lid