CDS Exami[ll):2016 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : SDC-S-SND Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 8. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). Yon will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item, 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6, All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. () There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) Ifa question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO wa @ : sega ar fei Soe wa gfe > fod JER oT tI1. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban. areas? (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Methane (a) Oxygen 2. Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change? (a) Amphibian (b) Reptile (c) Mammal (d)_ Insect Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India? (a) Hydropower plants (b) Nuclear power plants () Thermal power plants (a) Wind energy The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys (a) mast cells (b) platelets (c) erythrocytes (a) lymphocytes 5. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen- carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death? (a) Chloroflucrocarbon () Fly ash (©) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide SDC-S-SND/1A, An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called 1, Parthenogenesis 2. Apogamy 3. Sporophytic budding Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only () 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2and3 7. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? (a) Coal (b) Diamond (c) Graphite (@) Graphene 8. In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is done using (a) sulphuric acid (b) bleaching powder (c) caustic soda (@) nitric acid 9. Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to (a) increase the pH of the soil (b) lower the pH of the soil (c) increase the phosphorus content of the soil (@ increase the nitrogen content of the soil“1, Prater 48 at we fa wed Bat A aau-aca a (celia) a afte fae (a) RRA (b) Re () 3 (a) stadia 2. Prafefad 4 8 ea-a we watact hada fe waiter daeratiet 8? a VR (b) BRS () Bare (a He 3, fafa 4a aa we aa a a waa agi aia 2? (a) wi-fersch aa (b) arse ferret aaa (oy wef aia (a) vr wat 4. HIV fay feet safe A deer fra wa aan ard 87 (a) Fee afro Ay Ae (o) igsmmysit (ceecte) we ER fo) THTySH ze aE (a) ryt a ae HS 8. frafafad 4 8 a-a Hag Waee Aa OF & Gavchfs % wa dels San ata a am Al gah aaa al aa sear 2%, fea, areata tran & she arg oA a ae 8? (a) seirdagsitterrds (&) Ferg tr (co) Ida siaergs (@) Wer SRTRTES SDC-S-SND/1A 6. srr A we ofa fat, fred yfemraey Fite & fr & yo an fore tar @, ear peer 8? 1. aafiasra (mena) 2. arrestee) 3. atmpsefidia EEE (wees afer) A feu ae ee wa aR Bai oR GPT (a) ¥aa 1 (b) Fa 2 (o) FIG 2 3K 3 (1,233 7. Prafataa 4 8 eee we ada ar ser we 8? (a) ren (e) 8a (o) fetta (dere) (a ra 8. are Frio 4, ee are ar feriter fae eT @ fen art 2? (a) Fora ara (0) Fes eh (co) Tew tier (wifeew ater) (a) FRR aA 9. deine i ar eit ge sii yet 7 fea ‘aren & | ae weir ar ae Sea Meat BP (a) Fa% pH wl art (b) ¥1% pH a HH FET () yal A wieaRA ATA Bt aS (@) Fa A ase Fra Bt age [P.7.0.10. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one 14, With reference to earthquakes, which of of the following health problems? the following statements are correct? 1. Earthquakes largely occur along (a) Tooth caries : the converging plate boundaries. (6) Mottling of tooth 2. Point of origin of earthquake in eel lithosphere is known as focus/ hypocentre. (a) Stiffening of joints 3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre. 11, Excessive use of which of the following 4. Epicentre of earthquake always fertilizers may be responsible for the zematus ‘aves ‘continent> analy, presence of a toxic substance in Select the correct answer using the code groundwater? given below. (a) Nitrogen (a) 1 and 2 only (b) Phosphate only () Ay 2 and’ 3: 2 and 3 onl (¢) Potassium only (2) 2ane) pal (@ land 4 (@) Phosphate and potassium 15. Which of the following pairs of Indian 12. Which one of the following elements ‘State and tribal population are correct? does not form solid hydrogen 1, Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal carbonate? population 2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total (6) Potassium population of the State 3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after Madhya (@) Lithium Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram (@) Sodium () Caesium 13. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only () Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam () 1, 2and3 (6) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab (4) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam (@ 2,3 and4 SDC-S-SND/1A__ 410. 11. 12) 13. frafafaa #8 aaa eH ee BET wastage Fh aah arn ete 8? (a) ta am (o) aaa ge (co) wera ar ae (@) Se A ore frefafaa sdat 38 fra we a amas sede stasie Hous onfeerg vert At safeate % fae freden A aaa 87 (a) TRE (b) 7a Bie (c) aa tere (a) Fidke otk Herr ffataa ai 4 8 a-a wm, de weg ‘arate wat aaa 2? (a) aifeam (o) Fehr (co) Sify (@) ifm 2011 A aa & ager, Pefefaa 7 a aaah we deh ash & A a are wel un He? (a) a, wavs, sa, TsTa fo) Wrens, Rea, aA, Ha (co) Ra, wave, VTA, AH (@) wrens, Ie, Ha, aH SDC-S-SND/1A 14, yeh dal 4, Peifefad #8 ae wer wa 1. ay oaftrmige: «= afer Ra sitdoneil warren era €1 2, weer Hoyer A soft a fig Sa FR/saaR HET Bl 3 wg A dam tem a at & ae wedi @ 4. (ee aft; wa mn «a Bar 8 fa ea my ez a wan a a Se PAL (a) ¥aa 1 3k 2 () 1,28R3 () Fa 2 Ks (i isa 15. urdia ea sik sponta sreen & Prefefira Ha ara sie aa 8? 1, Waste : walt seaside sre 2. fisie : usa A ga seen 4 ronda sreien a aftenae wftera 3. odieng : ha wea ae ae Sta Sr STEM ATT TST 4, Se ver: fis & ae usa Fh ga Set 9 8 aie sen A aftr freee 3 SeyAR AT TT Ae fee me ee a van an ae SR EAT (@ Fart 1 she 2 (b) Fas 2 she 4 () 1,233 @ 2,394 [P.7.0.16. The spring constant of a spring depends on its (a) length only (6) material only () length and its diameter (d) thickness, its diameter and its material 17. In the gamma decay of a nucleus (a) the mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its atomic number does not change (6) the mass number of the nucleus does not change whereas its atomic number changes () both the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus change (@ neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes 18. In a bipolar junction transistor (a) all the three regions (the emitter, the base and the collector) have equal concentrations of impurity () the emitter has the least concen- tration of impurity (6) the collector has the least concen- tration of impurity (@) the base has the least concen- tration of impurity 19. The pressure exerted by a 760mm column of mercury at 0 °C is known as (a) 1 pascal (6) 1 atmosphere (o) 1 bar (@) 1 poise ____SDC-S-SND/1A ee 20. Which one of the following physical quantities has the same dimensions as that of Planck's constant h? (a) Linear momentum (o) Angular momentum (c) Force (@) Potential energy 21. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The response of the ear to sound of increasing intensity is approximately logarithmic. (6) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound. (c) When two or more’ waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave, (@) Longitudinal waves can travel in all media—solids, liquids and gases. 22. Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body? (a) GH (b) TSH (Q) Insulin (a) Cortisol16. fe pari a sari fers fra 7 fk ara 8? (q) Fae TEA aT (b) Fae see a (co) Sa arang hk Se AAA (@) SrA Ae, soe eae ait see vend 17. Pah arte & rar a H ae eit 8? (@) Aire A gem-den saad 3 sate Bea HY -seHTs AM aaeTAT B) (o) wits A xermm-wten wa acer & ‘seats ear VAY -weHT aaeTAT EI (9 ire A seamen oh Te-am ari sea #1 (a) Var aie Ai zera-tien acer & atk 7G Tory-wais saci 2) 18. Pah fags aif gift 4 an diet 8? (a) Wri Gai asia, aa sik ares) F was A wear sizer ah 21 (b) Sean A aryl A sere wiz eet BH (o) Hares 4 orate Al ream Bizet Ah 8) (ad) 2a 4 agle A acca sige A a1 19. 0°C % URA % 760 mm Fem aM HA ATT ‘aa aM aeeTa e? (a) 1 TRA (b) 1 Rear () 14 @ 148 SDC-S-SND/1A 20, Prieta sft ofr a a fra we A fare vate Facies nfl ferns & ana eel 8? (a) Ree eae (by vis ea, () Aa (a) Rafts ssf 21. frrafefad 4 @ aaa oH wer Tel wet 8? (a) ah A aah ef can wit ar A wii erm aporhia (alte) aa et () ara er At eaerererar wah Hl sgh % ara wei seer 81 AAAs sees a oH A eH aerdt %, dt sa area & feel raza ar freama sa sels oer aR ge eae 3 ‘asia ar & acer Sa 2! (a) aA ve wh mesh, va othe ta Aaa aad 8 22. frfefad 4 3 aaa eid, ama wk aitrasi a att & sien h faq afar 8? (a) to we (b) Bo To Te () Far (a) Fifeaie [P.7.0.23. Which of the following cells do not 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the contain nucleus? correct answer using the code given 1. Root hair cells below the Lists : 2. Red blood cells List-t Listt 3. Platelets (Element) (Property/Use) 4. Monocytes AL Mg 1. Gives red colour to flame Select the correct answer using the code Bee aih{Saiphaie [Link] ve Ww. " : given beloy in medicine to examine the (a) 1 only alimentary canal of a patient (0) 2 and 3 only c. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sunlight () 1,2ana4 in photosynthesis (@) 2,3 and 4 D. Ba 4. Control of muscle contraction 24, Biological catalysts are protein molecules which Code: 1. speed up a chemical reaction @aA B CC D 2. remain unchanged after reaction 26/1 8 3. function optimally at 37°C OA BSC D 4, do not have an enzymatic activity a an a 3 Select the correct answer using the code @ A B Cc D given below. 3:4 § (a) 1 only @a Bc D iS ||| || ah || () 1,2 ana 3 (@ 2 end 3 only 27. Which one of the following statements is @ 1,3 and4 correct? (a) The oxidation number for hydrogen 25. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high sa) ALWAYS ZerO, altitude due to (b) The oxidation number for hydrogen (a) high partial pressure of oxygen is leaps f1" (by low partial pressure of oxygen (c). The oxidation number for hydrogen (e) low level of haemoglobin is always -1. (@ high partial pressure of carbon (@) Hydrogen can have more than one dioxide oxidation number. ____sDC-S-SND/1A____ ea ae23. frafefad 4 8 fea aires 4 afte a amt? 1. aa ta aire 2. ara Te aT 3. afeary (reece) 4, wpe (Are) AS fae me ge ar eT a BET Se GATTI (a) Fra 1 (b) FA 2 sR () 1,2%R4 (d) 2, 33m 4 24, Sirs sake, wR ay taf, 1, Taras aPiBee ay tat ar 83S 2, after % are sratafta cea € 3. 37°C R TEM HH He S 4. tareh afer agi ait & aR Ruy az a ee aE oR BAT (q) ¥7a1 () 1,23R3 () FI 2 KS (@ 1,3aR4 28. ‘Gra fart’ afte Sarg x eh 8) sear ae we? (@) seis sa sire ara (b) siadisa a Pr sift zara () Seine a1 Ara (@) aaa sesttaaes a Ta aries aa SDC-S-SND/1A 26. a A eA 8 wifes Ae sik Beat aia faq ng ez a eT a ae TH GPA: air ae i) (qu/seam) AL Mg 1. are & Al sare a1 8 B. Ca 2. fafrrn 4 ate ate ar seit frei hh A orer ara A Sita we aa? c. Sr 3. ware-aeae 4 a & wa A oat a tear Tae e D. Ba 4. Tietet daa an Paar We: @aA B D | ||/34))|| a) || ®) A B C D 0/60) |||) ||| (0: As) B)) 0 6 4 2 2 @aA Bc D ||| f)||||) ||| 27. Prafafad 48 aaa um Hea we 8? (a) WRgRH Re stare sie: wa A Ba 8 (o) Warr % fare sigan ois ata +1 amet (oc) aR % fay sient sis wea -1 ame (dQ) CRSA UH a atte aria si aaa a [P. 7.0.28. In case of a standard hydrogen electrode 31. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/UT is 15°48’00N (a) absolute electrode potential is BU aeeae Wea none ek Aneel 74°40’33’"B, then which one of the (b) absolute electrode potential is zero following is that State/UT? () both absolute and standard (a) Puducherry electrode potential values are zero (@) electrode potential is zero only at (0) Chandigarn 25°C (c) Goa 29. The elemental composition of an adult (@) Delhi human body by mass is (a) C>O>H>N i Dy $2, Match List-I with List-II and select the (6) O>C>H>N correct answer using the code given A) Rees below the Lists : (@) N>C>0>H List List-Il (Railway Zone) (Headquarters) 80. With regard to water transportation in A. North Easter Railway 1. Kolkata India, which of the following statements are correct? B. East Central Railway 2. Bilaspur 1, Headquarters of Central Inland C. South East Central 3. Hajipur Water Transport Corporation is Railway located at Delhi. 2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways D. South Eastern 4. Gorakhpur Authority of India is located at Railway Noida. 3. National Inland —_ Navigation Code : Institute is located at Kolkata. @A Be D 4. First National Inland Waterway was ull lie between Haldia and Allahabad. Select the correct answer using the code (b) “> ow Loa a0 given below. (a) 1 and 2 only ( “> vo 20 so (6) 2 and 3 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only MA B® oC (a) 1,2 and 4 4 3 2 ro _SDC-S-SND/1A 1028, GH Ae eS Was & a A (a) Praia gaadte fava aa ei eats (b) Frate getagts faa Ea eter t 31. af fel afta waft mia ver ar wain ok eaiatta frea 15°48°00" N @ 145315 N aR 74°20'13"E 74°40'33’" E &, ft Prafefaa 4 8 ae as4/ rm feed se aaa BF (Praia she ame eat we & wets i a fama & ar ae aa t (a) were (dj fava Saal 25°C ya ae (a) Wegts fara Se Bed 29. GH ame Ha TOK a oR eat FA () ten agar Pra weer Sten 8? (a ee (a) C>O>H>N (b) O>C>H>N 32. da wt ein a gfe Ae ak Gat a () N>C>H>0 AS fq my az a a ae BEI eR BART (a) N>C>O>H ait an 30, ure 4 aa dias day A efefar Fa (wt HoEet) (gears) ra Mil AL UGTA 1. aeera 1 "5 adie aa whee a fagh 8 fea ki B. Gearata 2. Perea 2, ania sicieta aerarh srftereor a C. afer meta 3. sh yerer atest # fr 21 D. aftr-qai ta 4. Tia 3. Wer siddeita akiarem der Fleer feat) we 4. wR ude sidéefa sermel fewer oi @aA B c D ‘sererare & ats a 42 8 @ AP Rem az ai i aR at oR EPL oa B @€ D a 2 (a) aa 1 sR 2 i i @G@a BP G D ) oe 1 2 3 % () ¥7a 2 3k 4 @aA B Cc D (a 1,234 a ee! SDC-S-SND/1A ia [P.T. 0.33. Which of the following statements 35. Which one of the following is not a concerning atmosphere of the Barth are tributary of the river Ganga?” correct? ; 1. In stratosphere, temperature (a) Bon increases with altitude. (b) Mahananda 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. Teese 3. The lowest temperature of the (@) Sharada atmosphere is recorded in the Uppes part Of fmesoaphere. 36. Which one of the following pairs of lakes 4, Tropopause is an isothermal zone. is connected by Soo Canal? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Superior and Michigan @@). 1nd only. (6) Superior and Huron (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Huron and Ontario (c) 3 and 4 only (a) Huron and Erie (4) 1,2,3 and 4 37. In total internal reflection, the light 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the travels from i correct answer using the code given below the Lists : (a) rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity List-I List-I (Place) (industry) (6) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity A. Bongaigaon 1, Paper (o) rarer to denser medium and it B. Koraput 2. Machine tools Mt Eas occurs with loss of intensity C. Pinjore 3. Aircraft D. sipur pera aa (@ denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of intensity Code : @e BG D 38. The energy of a photon, whose a oe. BL momentum is 10 MeV/c, where cis the speed of light, is’ given by ) A B Cc D if it i ié 4 3. 2 (a) 10 Mev @aA B eG D (b) 100 Mev 19 3 4 () 1 Mev @aA B © D 1, 3 @ 4 (@) 0-1 MeV SDC-S-SND/1A 1233. val & aged % du 7 frafafad 48 38. Fefafad 4 8 sai ce vim A erm act H-a wer wee? waa? 1 wrarer A Sad we aT (a wa asm’) 2, -memmoge Seng ara aT gem 8 ian 3. FAHVEE A ARAN TN BETTIS % (o) fee sad am asf fan rat 21 (a) wet 4. ated (Aata) we aAaA Ba 21 A Reema ae TH A SM BAT coe Onn tenn (a) Fara 1 sie 2 iat or (b) Fa 1, 233 ul i () Fas sing @ eran (o u iia sik street (@) 1,2, 33R4 @ Se (@ Asie 34, qa at eH 8 Bera Ae ak efea J ae Ra me ae a ae a oR GAT 37. oh aiates ooada & ware (a) fra 8 we eA A ore @ aie tact Sa ae 8 aft % fan ore att 8 aa {er (bo) Wr a fra Tey FH ore & ott laa A. dima 1. ar Al aft % fear wa Ber & B. arog 2. mete sitere (9 fra a aR HEM F ore & stk chat cc. Fisk 3. ag A cafe ere sre een & D. 4. Sararn (tetera) (a) WR @ fara eam A ore % sik aa hi A fa % wa we tere He: @aé B S D 38. Uh eM, fraet a1 10 MeV/c @, wel c A oil. wars aie 8, Al Gal Pew ae wae ® A Bc D Bh 8? e Sea 2 (a) 10 Mev ee e ie ot (b) 100 MeV 1 2 3 % @a BC D | uey i 3 2 * (d) 0-1 Mev SDC-S-SND/1A, 13 [P.T.0.39. Liquids and gases never show 42. Match List-I with List-II and select the f ! correct answer using the code given diamagnetic proper! a) ete PTT below the Lists : (6) paramagnetic property List-I List-IT (c) ferromagnetic proj @ Sao (Ocean Current) (Country) (d) electromagnetic property ‘A, Agulhas Current 1. Peru 40. Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear Hs! Gtanetnotael Game 4/0!|lieuee Aare, propagation of light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for ©, Labrador Current 3. Argentina light is D. Falkland C1 = 4. Cat (a) of variable refractive index TRA pa (b) made up of slabs of different refractive indices Code : (c) homogeneous and transparent mA Be OD (a) inhomogeneous and transparent 3 ££ a @ 41. Match List-I with List-II and select the () A B Cc oD correct answer using the code given 2 i 4 3 below the Lists : List List-I (A B c D (Strait) (Water Body) 8 FF PAR A. Strait of Hormuz 1, Java Sea wh wp eB B. Strait of 2. Andaman Sea ie |) ||| | ee Bab-el-Mandeb C. Strait of Malacca 3. Red Sea D. Strait of Sunda 4. Gulf of Persia 43. Which one of the following fishing . banks is located off the coast of the Code : : United Kingdom? @gsa 2B 6 D - 2 3 1 (a) Great Fisher Bank ea 2B CG DP 1 & @ @ (b) Grand Banks QA B @ D 1 2B 4 (c) Dogger Bank @ga B © D | || ees)|||| || 07 (a) Reed Bank —SD€-S-SND/1A——— 14 r39. aa ott fat A aah of 42. ah A Ei a gira fie otk andl (a) wfergrartta Io el aa S De NR eH) HTN SATS (b) sega IM ae eae aha aa (o) Sie-grasita yr zal Sta B (Rererréta ert) (a) (a) Prqa-garhia yo wel eae AL sryere oT 1 40. war eh tar A aera & (Fa aT Ae Tee aay dae)| ae wer Gee 8, ae va & fee C. aren a 3. sda are Te, D. wie ant 4. FART (a) vedi errata a He: (>) fafa aradaist A ofa a an (o) Bar six aaa a (a) seni atk ore a 41. ea A i a afer Hig ok Gat qa aa Re 1a ee I a az aE eR BP () A B Cc D wa en FIRS Alea a (aersranea) (serra) A. Sas seer 1, Saar @aA B Cc D B. aM-Ue-aPea eenetes 2, SSH ATR AMER C. Fare Sere 3. aa aK D. ga aereren 4. ora Aart 43. frafafaa 4 8 tem we en de EIS fren % ae fm 2? ee: @a sp € D 40 3 (a) 32 Pen ae A |B) -e | Dy la a 2 4 (b) Be aa @&-B © Dv " t aie 4 (sin a @a-+B @ D 4 8 2 -f (a) te te SDC-S-SND/1A 15 [P.7.0.44, Match List-I with List-II and select the 46. Which one of the following statements is correct answer using the code given not correct? below the Lists i (a) Position of the Sun, Earth and ‘Histel list Moon in a straight line of 180° (Power Bland) (State) angle is known as syzygy. A. Satpura 1, Maharashtra B, Dhuvaran 2. Uttarakhand @ ee ‘Seapmetion! Causes solar C. Tanakpur 3. Gujarat D. Dabhol 4. Madhya Pradesh (¢} “Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse. Code : (a) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the (a) A B c D time of perihelion only. # 3 2 =f ews 8 @ D i 6 2: 4 47. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion? @A BaD 1 2 3 @ (a) Wind gap @aA B ec BD 2 8 2 (b) Zeugen 45. Which of the following statements (0) Dreikanter regarding soil is/are correct? 1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen (d) Demoiselle content. 2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen. 48. Which one of the following is correct? |. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen (a) Guindy National Park is known for and potassium. tiger reserve. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve. a nal only (d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass (@ 1,2 and3 Sanctuary. _SDC-S-SND/1A 16 ll44. qi & qa a gfe Fhe ak afaat Fs 46. frafefaad #8 ata-a oH Fer el TET a? AS faq ag ae ae wen ae A TA GPE: (a) 34, yeh atk wa A 180° Fr A oH ait ata aii tar A feat at-fagit fg (Raa tia) (a) (Resi) areca 81 A. BAe es ERR (@) W-Rae fee dia gine a B. yee 2. saree arm 8 C. aa 3. Ta (co) aft farg wfagern ware D. aie 4. We Tea : eon : (a ae-Raf fry tier Baa on @m@a B ¢ D wa aa él 4 3 2 1 i A- Boe DB, |||) || 402 || ae 47. fafatad 4a aa-a w ana aa & Gas Bb ¢ BD ‘deities wet 2? 1 2 3 a @a B Cc D (a) ve Fa 4 2 3 < ) oA 45. ya day 9 refed 4a ae-a/a He “wat B/R? (ce) Sere 1, She gerd aed 3 aH ath FI (@) fearta (shige 2, arch gerd ce ait wa a aaa tht e s ; Wag aa @ OH ehh ZI 3. deage yard che sik Ugh 8 age, 48, frafafan 4 a aa o aa 27 Od @ oq aah otk Heft 3 oe Br 8 fq Wa Aeaa wh, cen fod & faq a aR Ree ge I we eA TR SAT ser (a) ¥aa 1 2 (b) Trem AR I, A eee & fag ea (b) Bras is eos (o) Sear we saaves ford 81 (@ 1,233 (a) Bes Hl TH UH re Te TEAR FI SDC-S-SND/1A 17 [P. 7.0.—SDC-S-SND/1A. 49. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct? (a) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests. (b) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu. (c) Deodar is a coniferous species of tree. (@) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya. 50. Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct? (a) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata. Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur. (b) Centre for Social Eco-Rehabilitation Allahabad. © Forestry and is located at (d) Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi. Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (6) Both the statements —_ are individually true but Statement IL is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 51. Statement I : The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis. Statement II : The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress. 52. Statement I : The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India. Statement II : The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.49, fafetar wrt 4 a ae ww a A swrptten area 3 ai Hat oe 87 (a) Are Sg TRS eH A Te STAT BI (o) afer saftrrig: aPreng % ada Ba wra-are TT ST (co) 2aar, vigurd sale srw A 81 (a) wien ar yore: ferre % sad a Fay wa él so. Fafefaa ai #8 see TH ARG aga Seat % iss Hel TEE 8? (a) Wha wid) Sa shee (arteaitaish) tex Brerarat H fears 81 (0) Fata gs aa agen eam shee F fea el (o) airs PRA it valaw-graa x, wererar # fea 21 (@) WA serena Sea teh H fee 81 SDC-S-SND/1A 19 Pam: frafafan ata (3) weit FA ae 8, er 1 ate er. & Set wee an eraariigdes wham Ae ste fF Ree me ge we A aE SH GPE: we: (a) @Mi wer wats: aa %, sit eA T, wer 1 ar et ea () ai ae afta: wer 8, fq eH I, ere 1 a eh ean Te (co) Fert 1 ae 2, Peg wer OT rT e (a) ert 1 Fa 8, Peg Fe ae 51. FHI: ‘ard-ared’ fram ofa fra a, sh 3% (afar) & aren sR saa Ay her I: ‘ord-ared’ Pearl 3 og THRE wal 3 area 4 a ontie dee A far 4 am ‘fen! 52. FT: greene ane 4 sefian ww sites af ar) wer I: wae rarest Hae ua A sent = ora: aa den a pit dat faeth fart ar we fret [P.T.0.53. Statement 56. Which King Ashoka abolished _ capital punishment and disbanded his army. Statement II : After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist. 54. Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank? (a) 7-55 (b) T-155 () 7-72 (a) 7-90 55. Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe? (a) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera () Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera (o) Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma (a) Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India? 1, The Government of India Act, 1935 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 4. The Government of India Act, 1919 Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (e) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2,3and4 SDC-S-SND/1A___ 20. 58. Which of the 57. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect? 1, Citizenship 2. Elections 3. Provisional Parliament 4, Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2,3 and 4 (6) 1,2 and 3 () 1 and 3 only (@) 1 and 2 only following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct? 1, The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. 3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation. 4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (6) 1,2 and 3 () 2and 4 (@) 1 and 3 only53. 54. 55. 56. wT: wore oie A geqeve at wae ax fear sik art aa Bl i ae aT) wer IT: cafim ae % ware oes vera dem he TT fafetar 7 a aaa we ye te a At aatfan 8? (a) 7-55 (b) T-155 () T-72 (a) 7-90 a wert 4 8 fea clea a wave (fa) & ters } wr FA set set 8? (a), &, ae atk BR fo) %, Fe, Be ote BAK (co) %, Fe, 3H SK TET (a) 3, fra, eR sh H fefefaa 4 a fe afetatt a urd afer % aged 3905 % ao fea fen rH a? 1. ane ater aff, 1935 2. ainda eatam afafia, 1947 3. ff anita dorian ea fafa, 1949 4, SRA wer afefaar, 1919 AA fee ge aT eK a SR BPTI (a) Far 1 He 2 (bo) Fara 1 3. () Fa 1, 233 (@) 1,2, 33K 4 SDC-S-SND/1A 21 87. 26 Ha, 1949 A uA % aaa & ‘Prafeftea 48 ota-8 wae ar Ee? 1, afer 2. Prater 3. Feared sae 4, Tifa after 8 Re Te ae ar WaT aR BE TH BPTI @ 2,33R4 ) 1,2 8R3 () Fat 1 SKS. (a) ara 1 sik 2 58. ura A dum an & an # frafefad Fa at an/ ert TE t/8? 1. vide fier ant % weet eI ea 8 am a aaa PT aT 2, arbhis amen wmfier % sna ga fre ag ay 3. aa A he a aie Share Sherr ge Peat a a 4, dai a afiee adeder ater sre oe Pea aT TT fe faq 7e az wr an ae we Se ATL (a) ae 1 (b) 1,233 () 234 (@ Fa srs [P.T. 0._SDC-S-SND/1A 59. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (@) Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate. (b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromate from the list of permissible food additives. (c) The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation. (@) Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin, 60. Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016? (a) England and Scotland (b) England and Wales () Scotland and Northern Ireland (d) Wales and Northern Ireland 22 61. Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct? (a) In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India’s first reusable space vehicle. (b) The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. () The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing. (d) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel. 62. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (@) BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation. (2) The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia. () Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter. (d) Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.89. Prafefian aor 4a aaa wp uel ae et? 61. Fd (SRO) & Faves sista are B aR ‘frrafeifiaa 48 ata wa sem Bel AE a? (a) Bam sic vata ae ae ae Ga fea, mee RM A ae AT we 8 Ph BA (a) Bi 2016 4, sna % vem gritos yd as (24) & one & aH FS aaa ae #1 ISRO 4 wecayds Ba a ata 3 WR athe ote HR ata fem arid % fre cifaea Te eT (b) 7e safer ares sist weer 3 AtefeRe (o) wide are ean GE ARR waa} ada var aide a a cia far ear ara avai A ah 8 dR rat aie A en A aegis eres area B a (co) Baa eq Sraferd Ba S arse sare a wea Gea ais ae 65 km #1 Sarg ae uga 7 aT () saw Hg H omen H He Wa F aa tie % ea 4 defer dhe & gain a afte eam (@) we afew S a BA ara Te aR a agen PT ATL (a) Shira ae wa aBenfes (=RleifaeA) a 62. frifafad 4a aaa ua Hee wel wet BP (a) waa, wR tk we sa (Rete) aT 60. FF 2016 4 frefetad 4 & fra-Pra 9 fataee fifiia —_— (Brexit) Rag ate Pra? ae ocafre ae Fra (b) see am, @ aft, ara AY mega site (a) Fae sit wales. wa Al aera aM HET AL (b) Fas aR Aa () anda Sa aante wate ast free a Gae30 We Ho age Tew H aT aareferd a 3 ae () BHeds ait sa8 ores (@) FAL30 Te Fo sige Yaw wt Pai (a) ea ae Ae ses tal agar sik fare area 21 SDC-S-SND/1A 23 [Pim63. Which one of the following sources tells 65. Match List-I with List-II and select the us about women protesting against correct answer using the code given the infidelity of their husbands or the below the Lists : neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household? List-I List (Historian) (Book) A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth (a) The Kitab-ul-Hind of Economic Nationalism in India (6) Documents belonging to the Village B, Shahid Amin 2, A Rule of Property Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat for Bengal and Maharashtra if C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, (c) Sculptures from Mandor 1903-1908 D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, ‘Memory—Chauri (a) The Ain+-Akbari of Abul Fazl Chaura, 1922-1992 Code : 64, The All India Census was real ISHII II nes 3 £ 2 1 1, first attempted in 1872 gas cx 3 2 4 1 2. regularly undertaken since 1881 Oa 3B c D 3. always undertaken as a five-year 46804 8 exercise @,A 8 € D Select the correct answer using the code 1* @ & given below. @ sloay 66. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty? (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Harihara (b) Bhai () 1 and 2 only + () Rudra (@ 1,2and3 (@ Tripurantaka SDC-S-SND/1A. 24 pe63. frafafad 4 8 ata-a dia, amt ofall 65. aa A ai 2 afer Ae sik Gast F arena % fiee a yer Tearh % aa Fett AP Re ae ee a FAT HR BE TT BPE : ak eh A a % Paes aeons % fade ant 4 aaren 8? wer ae (gterrer) (ger) (a) Prava-sr- fee A. fia ae 1. tue te abe oie selritire teraferon e4 sear o an ote mera ta are B. weg ana 2. cme ote siete wit afer ware adda Cc. wees 93. a eee aate sa dai, 1903-1908 . D. fara 4. 34x, Farah, RH fo) HeR afereT ait, 1922-1992 (a) aq wa Al oTg7-T-sTHAE mes (@ A B c D 3 * 2 1 64, siftra sna SET Cys (Be) Dp 3 2 4 1 1, 1872 Faget an Fg 2, 1881 8 Rata era A ot Heid eealvea Is 3, daatia arara & wa A aren At al @ @aA B ¢ BD 1 a 2 3 fe aq me ag a eT ae a SR ATL —_ 66. ate wade aU fia gate Fhe F fire ar (@ A-aI a waits ffte 8? (oe) ¥aa 233 (a) eee (0) a () FIG 1 KD () (4 1,23K3 (a) Pages SDC-S-SND/1A 25 [P. 7.0.67. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to 1. the power of judicial review 2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) 3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India 4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967) Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only () 1,2, 3 and 4 Yo 1 and 3 only (@) 2 and 4 only 68. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? 1, Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discri- mination) 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity) Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1,2and3 (b) 2,3 and 4 () 1,3 and4 (@) 1 and 4 only —SDC-S-SND/1A, 26 A cit en of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1. renounces Indian citizenship 2, voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country 3. marries a citizen of another country 4. criticizes the Government Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1,2 and 3 (6) 2,3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (a) Landa 70. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences? (@) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused. (b) The accused must have violated an existing law. () An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again. (@) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.