Bunyore and Kamusinga Joint Pre-Mock Examination 2024

BUNYORE AND KAMUSINGA JOINT PRE-MOCK 2024 EXAMINATION
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BUKAKA JOINT EXAMINATIONS
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
DATE…………………SIGN…………….TARGET………………
KCPE MARKS………………PREV EXAM MARKS……………
443/1
AGRICULTURE PAPER 1
TIME: 2HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of three sections, A, B & C.

b) Answer all questions in section A & B and only two in section C
For examiners use only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM STUDENT
SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17-20 20
C 21-23 40
TOTAL SCORE 90
FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181

1. Give four reason why farmers are encouraged to practice organic farming (2mks)
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2. Name the routine filed practice done by;

i. Removal of extra suckers in banana stool (1/2mk
ii. Removal of old stems down to level of top foliage in pyrethrum (1/2mk)
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iii. Removal of suckers from coffee bushes (1/2mk)
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3. Distinguish between GDP and GNP (2mks)

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4. What meant by the following terms

i) Seed inoculation (1mk)
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ii) Seed dressing (1mk)
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5. Name four types of terraces (2mks)
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6. State three characteristics of phosphatic fertilizers (1/2 mk)
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3 FOR MARKING SCHEME CALL SIR ABRAHAM 0729 125 181

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7. Explain the relationship between scarcity and choice as used in agricultural economics
(2mks)
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8. Outline four ways by which crop pest are classified (2mks)
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9. State four advantages of land consolidation (2mks)
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10. Outline four benefits derived from trees used in agroforestry (2mks)
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11. Give four advantages of overhead irrigation in crop production (2mks)
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12. State four practices which improve light intensity in crop production (2mks)
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13. a) Give two factors that influence the quality of hay (1mk)
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b) Outline two other methods of conserving forage in the farm (1mk)
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14. Give four varieties of tomatoes grown for processing (2mks)
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15. Give four harmful effects of weed on crop production (2mks)
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16. State four factors that influence the number of secondary cultivation in seed bed
preparation (2mks)
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SECTION B (20MKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED
17. The diagram below represents a method of manure preparation. Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow;

a) Identify the type of manure being prepared (1mk)
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b) Name the parts labelled E and F (2mks)
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c) Give two disadvantages of organic manures (2mks)
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18. The diagram below illustrates a cereal crop plant and its produce, study the diagram
carefully and answer the question that follow;
a) Name one disease that attack the part labelled D in the diagram (1mk)
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b) From which section of the produce labelled E, F and G should seed for planting be
obtained? (1mk)
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c) Give one reason for the answer given in (B) above (1mk)
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d) State two functions of the part labelled H in the diagram (2mks)
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19. A farmer wishes to change her enterprise form vegetable production to dairy farming.
The costs she incurs on vegetables are as follows;
i) Weeding sh. 200
ii) Harvesting sh. 300
iii) Fertilizer sh. 500
iv) Seeds sh. 400
When she changes per enterprise to dairy she incurs the following costs;
Cost of buying cattle sh. 5000
Disease control – sh 200
Salary for milk person –sh 2000
Fencing – sh. 500
The revenue she gets from vegetable is sh 10,000 while in dairy she gets;
i) Milk sales sh 15,000
ii) Manure sales sh 1000
Draw a partial budget and indicate the effect of the proposed changes. (15mks)

20. The illustration below shows a type of soil erosion. Study it carefully and answer the
question that follow:
a) Identify the type of erosion illustrated above; (1mk)

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b) Give three soil factors that influence the rate of soil erosion (3mks)
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c) Name one agent of soil erosion (1mk)

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SECTION C (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
21. a) Describe harvesting of sugar cane (4mks)

b) Study following information which was extracted from juhudi farm record on 31-12-
95 and answer the question below
Loans payable to bank 300,000
Five milking cows 250,000
400 layers 80,000
20 goats 30,000
Debts payable to co-operative 20,000
Buildings/ structures 60,000
Bonus payable to workers 19,000
Cattle feed in store 10,000
Animal drugs in store 4,000
Debtors receivable 18,000
Breakages to repair 30,000
Cash at hand 20,000
Cash in Bank 30,000
Spray equipment 12,000
Prepare a balance sheet for Juhudi’s farm using the information above; (6mks)
d) Describe the function of agricultural marketing (10mks)
22. a) Describe the procedure of silage making (10mks)
b) State five effects of winds in crop production (5mks)
c) Explain five physical methods of pest control (5mks)
23. a) Describe the safety precautions a farmer should take when using herbicides (5mks)
b) Explain five factors that influence rooting of cutting (10mks)
c) Explain five ways through which farmers adjust to risks and uncertainties in farming
(5mks)
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE!

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
443/2 Agriculture Paper 2

MARCH/APRIL, 2024
Time: 2 Hours
• Write your name,, admission number and school in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in section A and B.
• Answer any two questions in section C.
• Answers should be written in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTIONS QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1-16 30
B 17-20 20
C 20
20
TOTAL
90
SECTION A(Answer all questions in this section)

• Name four rabbits breeds reared in Kenya (2marks)
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• State four reasons why dorper breed of sheep is good for mutton production (2marks)
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• Distinguish between curative drug and prophylactic drug as used in livestock production (2marks)
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• Name two functions of the crop in the digestive system of chicken (1marks).
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• List four mineral deficiency disorders in livestock (2marks)
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• State two methods that are used in selection of breeding stock in livestock (1marks)
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• Identify two methods of extracting honey from combs (1mark)
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• Outline two ways of caponisation in poultry (1marks)
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• Differentiate between mothering ability and prolificacy (1marks)
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• List four disease of poultry that are controlled by vaccination (2marks)
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• Give four reasons for controlling livestock diseases (2marks)
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12.A cow was diagnosed with the following symptoms; swollen feet, animal walking with a limping
gait, lameness and pus with rotten smell oozing out of the hooves and animal spending most of time
lying down.
a) Suggest the disease the animal was suffering from(1 mark)
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b) Name the possible cause of the disease (1 mark)
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c) Apart from cattle name other two farm animals attacked by the above disease (2marks)
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d) State four control methods of the disease (2marks)
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• Give two reasons for turning eggs regularly during incubation (1 mark)
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• State four signs of broodiness in a hen (2 marks)
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• What is dry cow therapy (1mark)
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16. Give the main reason for each of the following in dairy farming;
a)Milking quickly and evenly(1 mark)
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b) Milking at regular times (1 mark)
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c) Complete milking (1 mark)
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SECTION B
17. Below is an equipment used in poultry production?

a) Identify the structure (1 mark)
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b) State the main function of the structure (1 mark)
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c) Give the function of the following parts in the structure (3 marks)
i. Water
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ii. Source of heat
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iii. Thermometer
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18. The following is a type of a farm structure
i. Identify the structure (1 mark)
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ii. Name the parts labelled I and 3 (2 marks)
1)
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3)
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iii. Give the uses of the parts named in (ii) above (2 marks)
1)
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3)
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19. The diagram below shows the general parts of a woodwork tool
i. Identify the tool (1 mark)
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ii. Name the parts labeled C, D, and E(3marks)

C)
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D)
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E)
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iii. State one maintenance practice carried out on the part labelled F(1 mark)

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20. The diagram below represents an external parasite
a .Name the parasite(1 mark)
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b. List two harmful effects of parasite shown above (2 marks)
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c. State two control measures of the parasite named in (a) above (2 marks)
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SECTION C
21. a) Discuss the economic importance of parasites(10 mark)
b) Describe the ideal body conformation of a dairy cattle (10marks)
22.a) Describe the causes that may lead to egg eating in poultry(5 marks)
b) State the causes of cannibalism in poultry (5marks)
c) Describe the management of deep litter system (10 marks)
23a). Describe five characteristics of goats which make them survive in the arid regions (10 marks)
b) Discuss the management of bees under the following subheading
i. Siting of an apiary (5 marks)
ii. Pests and predators control (5 marks)

231/3
BIOLOGY PAPER 3 PRACTICAL
CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate should be provided with:-

1. Iodine solution
2. Benedicts solution
3. 1 piece of visking tubing of 10cm
4. Two pieces of thread of 10cm each
5. 30mls of glucose solution labeled L
6. 30mls of starch solution labelled K
7. 4 test tubes
8. Test tube holder
9. Two droppers
10. Means of heating

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
231/1
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
THEORY
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE:
- Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
- Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
-
For Examiner’s use only
QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1-26

1. State two characteristics of organisms that are easily observed in both animals and plants. (2marks)
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2. (a) Terrestrial insects such as locusts were captured and their blood was analysed. It was
found that the blood does not have blood pigments such as haemoglobin. Explain. (2 marks)
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(b) State how the tracheal system in insects is adapted to gaseous exchange. (3 marks)
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3. State two functions of a diastema in herbivores. (2 marks)
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4. State three biotic factors that could affect an antelope living in Masai Mara. (3 marks
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5. Describe how the leaves of submerged plants are adapted to gaseous exchange. (3 marks)
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6. Name the part of the seed whose growth brings about epigeal germination. (1 mark)
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7. State three aspects of light that affect the rate of photosynthesis. (3 marks)

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8. (a) Identify the class with organisms that have three body parts and three pairs of legs. (1 mark)
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(b) Suggest three reasons why members of the class named in (a) above are adapted to all
types of habitats. (3 marks)
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9. (a) List three types of gene mutation. (3 marks)
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(b) (i) What are sex-linked genes? (1 mark)
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(ii) Name two conditions that are sex-linked. (2 marks)
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10. (a) Name two digestive enzymes produced in their inactive form. (2 marks)
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11. Name the organelles that carry out the following functions (4mks)
(i) Destroy old and worn-out organelles

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(ii) Formation of spindle fibres
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(iii) Osmoregulation

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(iv) Selective passage of substances into the cell
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12. (a) Why would you give an athlete glucose and not sucrose after a race? (1mk)
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(b)What happens to lactic acid after oxygen debt recovery? (2mks)
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13.The diagram below represents a plant cell that was subjected to a certain treatment.
At the start At the end of the experiment
a) Account for the shape of the cell at the end of the experiment. (2 marks)
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b) Draw a diagram to illustrate how an animal cell would appear if subjected to the same
treatment. (1mk)
14. Name two types of valves in the heart. (2 marks)

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15.a) Name the hormones that controls metamorphosis in insects (2marks)
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b) Give one advantage of metamorphosis in insects (1mark)
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16a Name the physiological process by which water molecules move from one cell to the
other (1mark)
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b) State the significance of the process in a) above 3marks
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17.The graph below represents growth pattern in a group organism
( a)Name the type of growth curve (1 mark)
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(b) Name the phylum that shows this type of pattern (1 mark)
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(c)State one disadvantage of this type of pattern (1mark)

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18(a) How would you proof that a species of wildbeest in Tanzania belongs to the same
species as a similar looking wildbeest in Kenya (1 mark)
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(b) State two principles of Binomial Nomenclature. (2 marks)
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19. Explain how altitude may affect the rate of breathing (2marks)
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20. The diagram below shows some processes that take place in the ovary and oviduct around
the time of fertilization.
Name
i) The process labeled A (1mark)
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ii) Structure X and B (2marks)

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iii) The hormone produced by structure labeled X ( 1mark)
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21.(a)State three structural differences between arteries and veins (3marks)
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(b)Name the blood vessels that transports blood to the following; 3marks)
i)heart to the lungs
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ii)small intestine to the liver
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iii)Aorta to the kidney
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22a). State two theories that explains origin of life (2marks)
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b) State three evidences of organic evolution (3marks)
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23.Name the causative agent of the following diseases ( 2marks)
i) Malaria
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ii)Typhoid
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24. State three factors that increase the rate of traspiration. (3 marks)
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25. Identify three methods that cause fruit dispersal. (3 marks)
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26.State one distinguishing characteristic of Kingdom Monera 1mark)
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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
231/2
BIOLOGY PAPER 2
THEORY
TIME: 2 HOURS
- Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
- This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
- Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
- In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either questions 7 or 8 in the
spaces
provided after question 8.
For Examiner’s use only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE

1 8
2 8
A
3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 20
8 20
TOTAL SCORE 80

SECTION A(40 MARKS)
1. The diagram below represents a plant cell organelle;
a) Name the organelle (1mk

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b) In which of the labeled parts does carbon(IV)oxide fixation occur? (1mk)
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c) Name the parts labeled A and B and state how each is adapted to its function(4mks)
A
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B
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d) Explain what would have happened to the structure labeled X had the plant been kept
in darkness for 48 hours (2mks)
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2. A group of students set up an experiment as shown below. The experimental set ups were left for 20 minutes.
The observation after 20 minutes were as shown in the table below;
Set up Observations
Inside tubing Outside tubing
A Blue black colour Colour of iodine
B Colour of iodine Colour of iodine
a) State the process being demonstrated in this experiment. (1mk)

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b) Explain the results in set up A; (4mks)
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c) Why was there no blue black colour inside the visking tubing in set up B; (2mks)
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3. The diagram below represents the nitrogen cycle;

a) Name the process labeled; (2mks)
i) L
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ii) N1 and N2
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b) Name the organisms that convert M into nitrates. (1mk)
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c) Name the organism in plants which promotes process K(1mk)
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d) State the relationship between the organisms stated in (c) above and the plant;(1mk)
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e) How would excess pesticides in the soil interfere with process K;(2mks)
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f) If F1 is nitrogen fixation by free-living bacteria, F2is nitrogen fixation by what? (1mk)

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4. The diagram below shows a mould of the genus Rhizopus;
a) Name the kingdom to which it belongs; (1mk)

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b) Name the structures labeled A and B (2mks)
A
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B
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c) Give the functions of the structure labeled B (2mks)
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d) How do the structures labeled B differ from plant roots(1mk)
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e) Give two ways in which members of the kingdom you stated in (a) above are useful to
man. (2mks)
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5. (a) Name the two types of variations. (2mks)
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(b) In a garden with pea plants, 625 plants had tall stems while 205 had short stems in the F2
generation;
i) Work out the ratio of tall to short plants (give your answer correct to the nearest whole
number) (1mk)
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ii) Using letter T to represent the dominant gene, work out a cross between an F1 offspring and
a short plant. (4mks)
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iii) What is the genotypic ratio from the cross in b (ii) above (1mk)
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SECTION B:
Answer question 6 (compulsory and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after
question 8:
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate transpiration and absorption of water in a

certain plant species. The plants were potted and supplied with adequate water. The
amount of water lost and absorbed was determined. The results are shown in the table
below;
Time of the day Amount of water in grams

Transpiration Absorption
0700-0900 30 15
0900-1100 40 25
1100-1300 48 34
1300-1500 56 45
1500-1700 40 50
1700-1900 25 40
1900-2100 15 28
2100-2300 10 21
a) Using the same axes, plot graphs to show transpiration and absorption of water in grams
against time of the day. (7mks)
b) At what time of the day was the amount of water the same for transpiration and
absorption;(1mk)

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c) Explain the shape of the graphs of:-
i) Transpiration (3mks)
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ii) Absorption (3mks)
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d) Suggest what would happen to transpiration and absorption of water if the experiment
was continued for another 2 hours; (2mks)
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e) Name two factors and explain how they would affect transpiration and absorption at
any given time. (4mks)
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7. (i) Describe the process of fertilization in flowering plant. (10mks)
(ii) How is the human male reproductive system adapted to its functions? (10mks)
8. (i) Explain the methods of excretion in plants. (10mks)
(ii) Explain how the nephron is adapted to its functions. (10mks)

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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
231/3
BIOLOGY PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1HR 45 MINUTES
● Write your name and Index Number and sign in the spaces provided above.
● Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
● You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 13/4 hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure you have
all the chemicals and apparatus that you may need.
● All workings MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
● Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiners use only.
Question Maximum Score Candidates Score
1 12
2 14
3 14
TOTAL 40
SCORE
This paper consists of 5 Printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the papers are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing.
1. The photograph below shows the arrangements of different type of cells and tissues in a
certain living organism. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
a) i) From what part of the plant was the photograph obtained. (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
ii) Name the parts labeled. (3marks)
P
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
Q
......................................................................................................................................................
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R
......................................................................................................................................................
…..................................................................................................................................................
S
......................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
T
......................................................................................................................................................
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b. i) State the function of the part labeled Q. (1mark)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
ii) State two adaptations of structure Q to its function. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
c. State two environmental factors which regulate the function of the part labeled P. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
d. Measure the length of one cell of region labeled Q on the photomicrograph whose
magnification is X5000.What is the actual length of the cell in micrometer? Show your
working. (3marks)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………..........................................
2. You are provided with solution labeled L and K.
a) Use the reagents provided to determine their identity. Record your procedure, observation
and conclusion in the table below. (6 marks)
Food substance procedure observation conclusion

b. Tie one end of the visking tubing provided tightly. Put solution K in the visking tubing
and tie the open end. Imerse the visking tubing in the beaker containing solution L .Let
the set up stand for about 30 minutes.
i) Test the contents in the visking tubing with iodine and benedict’s solution. Record your
procedure,observation and conclusion in the table below. (3marks)
Test with procedure observation conclusion
Iodine solution
Benedict’s solution

ii) Test the contents in the beaker with iodine and Benedict’s solution. Record your
procedure, observation and conclusion in the table below.
Test with procedure observation conclusion
Iodine solution
Benedict’s solution
c. Account for your observation in b(i) and (ii) above. (4mks)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
d. What does a visking tubing equite to in a living organism?
......................................................................................................................................................
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......................................................................................................................................................
3. Study the organisms drawn below and answer the questions that follow.
• Use the dichotomous key below to identify the class the organisms belong to.(12 marks)
• (a) Phylum Chordata ……………………………………………………… go to 2
• Phylum Arthropoda ……………………………………………………. go to 3
• (a) Has scales on the body ………………………………………………… go to 4
(b) Has no scales on the body …………………………………………..… Mammalia
3. (a) Has cephalothorax ……………………………………………….……. Arachnida
(b) Has no cephalothorax …………………………………………………. go to 5
4. (a) Has fins ………………………………………………………………… Pisces
(b) Has no fins ……………………………………………………………... go to 7
5. (a) Has three pairs of legs …………………………………………………. Insecta
(b) Has more than three pairs of legs ……………………………………… go to 6
6. (a) Two pairs of legs per segment ………………………………………… Diplopoda
(b) One pairs of legs per segment …………………………………………. Chilopoda
7. (a) Has feathers ……………………………………………………………. Aves
(b) Has no feathers ………………………………………………………… go to 8
8. (a) Has a tail ……………………………………………………………….. Reptilia
(b) Has no tail …………………………………………………………….. Amphibia
Specimen Step followed Identity
(b) Name the type of reproduction shown by specimen B and state it disadvantage.(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 1
APRIL 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the space s provided above
3. Answer all questions
4. All answers must be written in the space provided in this booklet
5. Do not remove any pages from this booklet
For Examiner’s Use Only

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Marks
Question 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Marks

1. Give four features of basic human wants. (4mks)
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2. Outline four reasons why the government trains business people (4 mks)
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3. Highlight four factors to consider when selecting a channel of distribution. (4 mks)
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4. Outline four commercial services that are useful to a manufacturer (4 Marks)
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5. Indicate whether the following items are falling in real, nominal or private accounts. (3mks)
Account
(a) Sales
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Carriage inwards
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Fixture and fittings
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(d) Stock
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(e) Cash
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(f) Capital
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Outline four characteristics of multiple shops (4mks)
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7. Give four causes of unemployment in Kenya today (4 Marks)
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8. State the journal that deals with each of the following types of transaction (4 Marks)
Types of transaction Journal
(a) Sale of fixed asset on credit
(b) Correction of errors
(c) Credit purchases
(d) Return of goods by customers
9. Write whether the following transactions will have an increase, decrease or no effect on
the balance sheet totals.
(4mks)
Transaction Effect
a. Withdrew stock for personal use
…………………..………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………......................................................................................
b. Paid a creditor by cheque

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c. A debtor paid by cash
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d. Received a loan by cheque
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. The following figures relate to Jamii Traders. Shs.
Details
Capital 30.4.2022 940,000
Net loss 20,000
Additional investments 420,000
Drawings per month 6,000
Determine capital as at 1.5.2021. (4 mks)
11. Highlight four roles played by personal secretary (4mks)

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12. The table below shows the supply of milk over a period of three years.
Year 2019 2020 2021

Quantity supplied 50 30 25
(Litres)’’000’’
Outline four reasons for the above trend. (4 mks)

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13. Given the following information of Elisha Traders (4mks)
Land and Building. 490,000

Machinery 300,000
5 year loan 110,000
2 year loan 80,000
Creditors 90,000
Debtors 100,500
Stock 75,600
Cash 40,000
Bank overdraft 69,900
Calculate,
a) Working capital (2 mk)
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b) Current ratio (1mk)
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c) Capital owned (1mk)
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d) Borrowed capital (1mk)
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14. Outline four trends in forms of business units. (4mks)
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15. State four reasons that can lead to the termination of an insurance policy. (4mks)
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16. State four essential elements in comunication. (4 mks)
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17. Given below are transactions to Buda traders for each of the transactions, indicate in the
column below the account to be debited and the account to be credited (4 Marks)
Transaction DR CR
(i) Paid salaries in cash
(ii) Withdraw cash from bank for office

use
(iii) Paid telephone bill by cheque
(iv) Purchased office equipment on credit

from Eldoret Holdings
18. State four causes of business failure (4mks)

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19. State four assumptions of circular flow of income in a two sector economy (4mks)
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20. Highlight four roles of advertising agencies in product promotion. (4mks)
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21. Outline four benefits of commercial production (4mks)
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22. Give four reasons why firms choose to remain small in an economy dominated by large
firms(4 Marks)
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23. Highlight four features of perfect competitive market. (4mks)

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24. Name four documents that originate from the seller in the home trade. (4mks)
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25. State four errors that do not affect the agreement of a trial balance (4 Marks)

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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 21/2 HOURS
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
(d) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the answer sheets provided
(e) This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain
that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
(f) Candidates should answer the questions in English
For Teacher’s Use Only
Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
20
20
20
20
20
TOTAL 100
SCORE

1 a) James runs a manufacturing firm and has employed seventy workers. Explain five reasons why
it would be beneficial to assign each worker a specific job in production (10 marks)
b) Discuss five factors that will lead to an increase in a country’s national income. (10 marks).
2 a) Explain five factors that a business organization would consider when choosing office
equipment. (10 Marks)
b) Discuss five reasons why a government would opt to sell its public corporation (10 marks)
3 a) The following balances relate to kanji stores as at 31st march 2023
Land and buildings 1000000
Motor vehicle 800000
Stock 100000
Trade debtors 70000
During the week ending 7th April 2023. The following transactions took place –
April 2nd –Bought stock on credit 80000
3rd – Sold stock on credit 42000
6th-Received sh 100000 cash from debtors
Required: open the relevant ledger entries, balance them and extract a trial balance as at 7th
April 2023 (12 marks)
b) Outline four importance’s of insurance in the Kenyan economy (8 marks)
4 a) The following transactions were extracted from the books of daraja traders;
2023 June 1-balance brought forward cash ksh 1900, bank ksh 6500
3-sold goods in cash ksh 1200
5- Paid transport by cheque ksh 2050
7 –bought goods worth ksh 2500 in cash less 5% cash discount
10-paid postage charges by cheque ksh 3000
12-daraja deposited ksh 600 from cash till to the business bank account
13-bought goods ksh 8400 by cheque
15- Sold some old furniture for sh 3900 and received the money in cash
17 –brought a table to be used in the business whose value was ksh 1800
18- Paid electricity bill by cheque ksh 2100

20- Sold some goods against a cheque for ksh 6600 whose value was ksh 6850
21- Took cash ksh 400 for family use
26- Sold goods on credit to kimani valued at ksh 4500
28- Received cash ksh 1500 from bidii stores
30- Deposited all cash with the bank except ksh 3525.
Required: prepare a three colmn cash book duly balanced (10 marks)
b) Outline any five factors to consider while locating a warehouse (10 marks)
5 a) Discuss five challenges that a young population poses to a country (10 marks
b) Explain five circumstances under which oligopoly market structure may be created (10 marks)
6 a) Explain five factors that should be considered by a firm when deciding on the method to
use for promoting his products (10 marks)
b) With the aid of a suitable diagram. Explain the effects of a decrease in supply on the
equilibrium price and quantity. (10 marks)

CONFIDENTIAL CHEMISTRY PAPER 3
233/3
(a) Each student should be supplied with the following
1. Burette
2. Pipette
3. Pipette filler
4. Filter funnel
5. White tile
6. Clamp and stand
7. 2 conical flask
8. 100 cm3glass Beaker (empty)
9. Stop watch
10. 100cm3 measuring cylinder
11. 10cm3measuring cylinder
12. 250 cm3volumetric flask
13. Metallic spatula
14. 6 clean test tubes
15. Test tube holder
16. 500ml distilled water
17. White piece of paper or filter paper
18. 1 filter paper
19. 1 labelling paper
20. Phenolphthalein indicator
21. About 90cm3 solution K
22. About 100cm3 solution L
23. About 70cm3 solution N
24. About 90cm3 solution P
25. About 0.5gNaHCO3
26. About 1.0g solid Q
(b) Each student should have access to the following solutions:

1. Mean of heating
2. 2M NaOH
3. 2M HNO3
4. Pb(NO3)
5. Acidified KMNO4
6. Potassium iodide solution
NB: the above solutions should be supplied with a dropper each
(c) SOLUTIONS PREPARATION AND SOLID MEASUREMENTS
1. Solution K IS 1M H2SO4
2. Solution L IS 0.36 M NaOH containing 14.4g OF NAOH in 1 litre
of the solution
3. Solution N IS 2M HCl
4. Solution P IS 0.16 M Na2S2O3(Sodium thiosulphate)
5. Solid Q is a mixture of sodium sulphite(Na2SO3) and lead (II)
carbonate (PbCO3) mixed in the ratio 1:1 (should be thoroughly
mixed)

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
233/1
CHEMISTRY PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
c) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
d) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 –29 80

1. The samples of equal volumes of water were put in 100cm3 conical flasks and heated for 5
minutes on a Bunsen flame. It was observed that sample 1 registered a low temperature
than sample II
Flame 1 Flame II
(a) Name flame I (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……….…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) State one disadvantage of using flame I for heating (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
The diagram shows the method used to separate component of mixture P

X
Hot water
. Lie big condenser
Cold
water
Liquid mixture
Distillate
P
Heat
(a) Name X .
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) What is the name given to the method used in separation of mixture P (½mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) What would happen if the inlet and outlet of water were interchanged ( 1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………...……………………………………………………………………………………………….
(d) Which physical property is used to separate mixture P (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……..……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. The table below shows the solubility of three solids P, Q, and R.

SOLID COLD WATER HOT WATER
P Soluble soluble
Q insoluble insoluble
R insoluble soluble

How would you obtain pure samples of R,P and Q (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. State one physical property that would suggest the presence of each of the following gases
from a leaking gas cylinder:
a) H2S (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) N2O (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Cl2 (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. The PH values of some solutions are given below

PH 14.0 1.0 8.0 6.5 7.0
Solution M L N P Z
(a) Identify the solution with the lowest concentration of hydrogen ion. Give reason for
your answer (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Which solution would be used as an anti-acid for treating stomach upset. Give reason
for your answer (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The data below gives the electronic configuration of some selected atoms and ions
Atom/ion A2+ B C2- D2+ E F- G+ H
Electronic 2 2.4 2.8 2.8.8 2.8 2.8.8 0 2.8.2

configuration
(a) Select an atom that is a noble gas (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What is the atomic number of C and A (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Select an element that belong to group 2 and period four (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………
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7. Helium is used instead of hydrogen in balloons for metrological research. Explain (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. Zinc metal and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the following equation
Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
1.96g of Zinc metal were reacted with 100cm3 of 0.2M hydrochloric acid
a) Determine the reagent that was in excess (2mks)
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Zn=65.2; Molar gas volume at s.t.p 22.4 liters
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Calculate the total volume of hydrogen gas that was liberated at s.t.p (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds

(1mk)
(i) .CH3CH2CH2CH CH3
CH3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) CH3CH=CHCl (1mk)
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10. 0.9g of potassium chloride and potassium carbonate mixture completely reacted with
25cm3 of 0.2M hydrochloric acid
(i) Write an equation of the reaction which takes place (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Determine the number of moles of the acid used (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii) Calculate the mass of potassium chloride in the mixture (K=39.0; C=12.0; O=16.0) (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow
Metal M
Dilute Hydrochloric acid Colourlesss gas
White ppt soluble Process I

Solution E Process 2
Ammonia solution White ppt soluble in excess
in excess added drop wise NaOH added
drop wise
(i) Identify metal M: (1mk)
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(ii) Colourless gas: (1mk)
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(iii) Write an equation that leads to the formation of white precipitate in process (1mk)
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12. a) Define the term dynamic equilibrium (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) A reaction at equilibrium can be represented as
2CrO2-4[aq] + 2H+[aq] Cr2O7 2[-aq] + H2O{l}
Yellow orange

State and explain the observation made when NaOH is added to the equilibrium
mixture (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. Few drops of hydrochloric acid were added into a test tube containing lead {II} Nitrate solution
a) State one observation made (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write an ionic equation of the reaction that occurred in the test tube (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. A compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen contains 57.15% carbon, 4.76%
hydrogen and the rest oxygen. If its relative molecular mass is 126, find its
molecular formula. (C = 12, H = 1, O = 16) (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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a) State Grahams law of diffusion. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) The rate of diffusion of sulphur(IV)oxide gas through a porous material is 40cm3s -1.
Calculate the rate of diffusion of carbon(IV)oxide gas through the same porous
material (S=32,O=16,C=12) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. a) Distinguish between strong and concentrated acid ( 1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b). A solution of ammonia in methylbenzene has no effects on red litmus paper while a
solution of ammonia in water turns red litmus paper blue. Explain (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Name the process which takes place when

• Iodine changes directly from solid to gas (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
• Fe2+( aq) changes to Fe3+(aq) (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
.………………………………………………………………………………………………….
• White sugar changes to black when mixed with concentrated sulphuric

(VI) acid (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………...…………………………………………………………………………………….
17. In the last stage of the solvay process, a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate
and ammonium chloride is formed
a) State the method of separation used (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Write an equation showing how lime is slaked (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Name the product recycled in the above process (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
18. The diagram below is a section of a model of the structure of element K
Key
+ + + + + + +
charged nucleus
+ + + + + +
electron
+ + + + + +
a) State the type of bonding that exist in K (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) In which group of the periodic table does element K belong. Give a reason (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….……
19. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

a) State two observations made in the above experiment when sodium react with
water (2 mks)
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
b) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that takes place (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. (a) Explain why permanent hardness in water cannot be removed by boiling
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name two methods that can be used to remove permanent hardness from water (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Write an equation to show the effect of heat on the nitrate of: - (2mks)
i) Potassium
………………………………………..…………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Silver
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..………………………………………………………………………………………
23. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.

(a) State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mk)
…………………………………………….……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Name gas P (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Sulphur exists in two crystalline forms.
a) Name one crystalline form of Sulphur. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………..………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) State two uses of Sulphur. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………..……………………………………………………
25. Bond energies for some bonds are tabulated below: -
BOND BOND ENERGY KJ/mol
H–H 436
C=C 610
C- H 410
C–C 345
Use the bond energies to estimate the enthalpy for the reaction. (3mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. Study the set up below and answer the questions that flows
State all the observations that would be made when the circuit is completed (3mks)
……..…………………………………………………………………….……………………..………
…..………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
27. Describe how solid samples of salts can be obtained from a mixture of lead (II)
chloride, sodium chloride and ammonium chloride. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
28. The diagram below represents a set-up used to prepare oxygen gas.

(a) Name substance Q. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Complete the set-up to show how oxygen gas is collected. (1mk
......................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................
(c) Write the equation for the reaction that occur. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
29. Two reagents that can be used to prepare chlorine gas are potassium manganate
(VII) and hydrochloric acid.
(a) Write an equation for the reaction. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………..……………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Give the formula of another reagent that can be used instead of potassium
manganate (VII). (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Using an equation illustrate how chlorine bleach coloured substances. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
KCPE MARKS………………PREV EXAM MARKS…………
233/2
CHEMISTRY FORM 4
Time: 2 hours
21. Write your name and index no in the spaces provided

22. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
23. Answer all questions in this paper in spaces provided.
24. All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
25. Mathematical tables/electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE
1 13
2 12
3 09
4 12
5 13
6 13
7 08
TOTAL 80
SCORE

d) Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that
follows. The letters do not represent the symbol of the elements.
Element Atomic Melting point
number (°C)
A 8 -2188
B 9 -219.6
C 12 650
D 13 660
E 14 1410
F 17 -101
G 20 842
d) Write the electron arrangement for the
a. Atom of D. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Ion of F (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...
e) Select an element which is

a. The most reactive non-metal. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Best conductor of electricity. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
f) To which group of the periodic table does element G belong. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...
g) How do the reactivity of element C and G compare? Explain (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h) Using dots [•] and crosses [×] to represent outermost electrons, show the
bonding in the compound formed between elements B and D. (1 mark)

i) Explain why the melting point of element D is higher than that of element C.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...
j) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that will occur between C and A. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………….
k) Compare the atomic and ionic radius of element F. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) (a) The following diagrams show the structures of two allotropes of carbon.
Study them and answer the questions that follow.
(i) What is meant by the term allotropy? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name allotrope
M and N (2mark)
M
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
N
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) Give one use of N (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….….
iv) Which allotrope conducts electricity? Explain (2mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) In an experiment, carbon (IV) oxide gas was passed over heated charcoal and the gas
produced collected as shown in the diagram below
l) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube
(1mar
k)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name another substance that can be used instead of sodium hydroxide (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………………………
a. Describe a simple chemical test that can be used to distinguish between

carbon(IV)oxide and carbon(II) oxide (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Give one use of carbon (II) oxide (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………
f) The flow chart below represents some industrial processes leading

to the formation of two nitrogenous fertilizers.
e) Name each of the process above

m) Process 1 (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Process 2 (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………………………..
f) Name the catalyst used in

i) Process 2 (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Ostwald process (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii) Contact process (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) Name compound Y (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h) Write the equation for the reaction that leads to formation of ammonium sulphate (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…..
i) Ammonium nitrate is a better fertilizer than ammonium sulphate. Explain and show
your working. (N = 14, H = 1, O = 16, S = 32). (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
g) a) Study the table below and answer the questions that follows
Formula of hydrocarbon Boiling points (K)

C2H4 -104
C3H6 -47.7
C4 H8 -62
C5 H10 30
C6H12 63.9
i) What name is given to a series of organic compounds like the ones in the table? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
ii) To what class of organic compounds does the above hydrocarbon belong? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Select one hydrocarbon that would be a gas at room temperature (298K);
give a reason for your answer. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Give the formula of the seventh member of the above series. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………
v) What is the relationship between the boiling point and the relative molecular masses of the
hydrocarbons in the table above? Explain your answer. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b. S t u d y the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.
Conc. H₂SO₄ HCl
c) Write the formula of

a. Alcohol X (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
b. Compound Z (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
c. Name process Y. . (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
b) Propane and chlorine react as shown below;
CH3CH2CH3 ⟶ CH3CH2CH2Cl + HCl
d. Name the type of reaction that takes place. (1mar

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
e. State the condition under which this reaction takes place. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
c) The table below gives the volume of the gas produced when different volumes of 2M
sulphuric (VI) acid were reacted with 0.6g of magnesium powder at room temperature.
Volume of sulphuric acid(cm3) Volume of gas (cm3)

0 0
10 240
20 480
30 600
40 600
50 600
a) On the grid provided plot a graph of the volume of gas produced against volume of
the acid used. (3marks)
Time (hours) Glucose (hepa) Glucose (ilia)

0 85 85
1 85 85
2 140 125
3 130 110
4 110 90
5 90 90
6 90 90
7 90 90
b) Write an equation for the reaction between sulphuric (VI) acid and
magnesium(1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
c) From the graph determine

The volume of the gas produced if 12.5cm3 of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid has been used.
(i)
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
The volume of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid which reacted completely with 0.6g of
(ii)
magnesium powder. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
d) Explain the effect on rate of production of the gas if;

i) 0.6g of magnesium ribbon was used instead of magnesium powder(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………….
ii) 3M sulphuric (VI) acid was used instead of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Given that one mole of a gas occupied 24000cm3 at room temperature, calculate the
relative atomic mass of magnesium. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
j) In another experiment, aqueous iron (III) chloride reacts with hydrogen sulphide
gas in a closed system as shown below.
2FeCl3(aq) + H2S (g) ⇌ 2FeCl2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) + S(S)
(pale brown) (pale green)
State and explain the observation that would be made if dilute hydrochloric acid is
added to the system at equilibrium. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..

h) The curves below represent the variation of temperature with time when
pure and impure samples of a solid were heated separately.
a) Which curve shows the variation in temperature for the pure solid? Explain. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
b) State the effect of impurities on the melting and boiling points of a pure substance.
i. Melting points (1/2mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Boiling points (1/2mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………………….
c) The diagram below shows the relationship between the physical states of matter.
A
B C
E D
i) Identify the processes B and D.

B (1/2 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
D 1/2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
ii) Name process A (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
State two substances in chemistry that undergo the process A

iii) (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
Is the process E exothermic or endothermic? Explain

iv) (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
7 a ) What method can be used to separate a mixture of ethanol and propanol.(1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
b) Explain how a solid mixture of Sulphur and sodium chloride can be separated
into solid Sulphur and sodium chloride crystals. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) The table below gives the solubility’s of potassium bromide and potassium sulphate
at 00C and 400C
Substance Solubility g/100g water at

400C 800C
Potassium bromide 55 75
Potassium sulphate 85 95
When an aqueous mixture containing 60g of potassium bromide and 70 g of

potassium sulphate in 100g of water at 800C was cooled to 400C some crystals
were formed
i) Identify the crystals. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
ii) Determine the mass of the crystals formed. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….............................................………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………...
iii) Name the method used to obtain the crystals. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
iv) Suggest one industrial application of the method named in (iii) above(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………..
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
233/3
CHEMISTRY PAPER 3
TIME: 2 HOURS
(i) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(ii) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Score Score
1 15
2 12
3 13
Total Score 40

QUESTION 1
• You are provided with solution K and L
• Solution K is 1M H2SO4
• Solution L contains 8.7g of the hydroxide of metal M (with formulae MOH)
in 600cm3 of the solution
• You are required to carry out the experiment to determine;
k) Concentration of solution L
l) R.A.M of metal M
Procedure
26. Measure 75cm3 of solution K and put into a clean 250cm3 volumetric flask
and add distilled water up to the mark
-label this solution W
27. Fill a clean burette with solution W
28. Pipette 25cm3 of solution L into a clean conical flask and add 2 drops of
phenolphthalein indicator
29. Titrate the solution W in the burette against solution L in the conical flask
and record the results in the table below
30. Repeat {3} and {4} above as you fill the table below.
TABLE 1
I II III
3
Final burette reading {cm }
Initial burette reading {cm3}
Volume of solution W used {cm3}
(4mks)
{a} Calculate the;
(i) Average volume of solution W used (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Concentration of solution W (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Number of moles of solution W that reacted with each 25cm3
portion of solution L [2mks]

……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
{b}Calculate the;
{i} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide {MOH} in solution L that
reacted with each portion of solution W [2mks]
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Concentration of solution L [1mk]
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
{iii} Number of moles of the metal hydroxide [MOH]in 600cm3 of solution L
(2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) R.A.M of metal M [0=16, H=1] (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION 2
You are provided with solution N and P

(d) Solution N is 2M HCl
(e) Solution P is 0.16M sodium thiosulphate
(f) You are required to carry out the experiment below to determine how
concentration affects the rate of reaction between HCl and sodium
thiosulphate solutions

PROCEDURE
n) Fill a clean burette with solution P.

Measure 25cm3 of the solution P from the burette into a clean 100cm3 glass
beaker and place on a white piece of paper with a cross[x] marked on it
o) Add 10cm3 of solution N into it and immediately start a stop watch and note
the time taken for the cross beneath the mixture to become invisible
p) Clean the 100cm3 beaker and measure into it 20cm3 of solution P form the
burette, and add 5cm3 of distilled water into the solution solution
q) Repeat step [2] above and note the time taken for the cross to become
invisible
r) Repeat the experiment using volumes indicated on the table below and as
you record the results
TABLE 2
Expt
1 2 3 4 5
3
Volume of solution p(cm ) 25 20 15 10 5
Volume of water added to 0 5 10 15 20
solution p{cm3}
Volume of solution N 10 10 10 10 10
Time taken for the cross to
become invisible [in seconds]
1
S-1
𝑡
(4mks)
1
(a) Plot a graph of against volume of solution P on the grid provided (4mks)
𝑡

{b} From the graph
(i) Determine the time taken for the cross to become invisible when
12.5cm3 of solution P is used (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Explain the effect of concentration on the rate of reaction between
HCl and sodium thiosulphate solution (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION 3
• You are provided with solids Q
• You are required to carry out the tests below as you record your
observations and inferences
d) SOLID Q
-Add about 5cm3 of distilled water to solid Q, shake the mixture
thoroughly for a while and then filter it
NOTE: Retain both the filtrate and the residue for the tests below
Divide the filtrate into 4 portion
i) (i) To the first portion, add 4 drops of NaOH
OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES
(1mk) (2mk)
d) Scoop the 2nd portion on a metallic spatula and ignite on a non-

luminous flame

(1mk) (1mk)
e) To the 3rd portion, add 2 drops of Pb{NO3}[aq]
(1mk) (1mk)
f) To the 4th portion, add acidified KmnO4
(1mk) (1mk)
B (i) Put the residue in a test tube and add about 2cm3 of HNO

(1mk) (1mk)
e) To the mixture in b{i} above, add 2 drops of KI solution
(1mk) (1mk)

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES PAPER 1
THEORY
TIME: 2½ HOURS
▪ Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
▪ Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided.
▪ This paper consists of two sections.
▪ Answer all the questions in section A.
▪ Answer question 16 (compulsory) and any other three questions from section B.
▪ All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE ACTUAL SCORE

A 1 – 15 40
16 15
15
B 15
15
TOTAL SCORE
This paper consists of 13 printed pages
Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.

SECTION A (40 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED
1. One of the functions of an operating system is to control computer resources. State three
resources under operating system control (3 marks)
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2. (a) The figure below shows the relationship between tables in a database.
Table 1
Table3 1 ∞ Admno
Table 2
Admno Termcode
Name Idno ∞ 1 Termid
Class Year
Eng
maths
Identify two primary keys and two foreign keys used in the relationships (2 marks)
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(b) Distinguish between bound and unbound controls as used in database forms (2 marks)
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3. Explain why an impact printer is suitable for printing multiple copies (2 marks)
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4. State any four examples of document readers (2 marks)

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5. (a) Define the term simulation (1 mark)

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(b)List two educational areas where simulation programs can be used (1 mark)
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6. Explain two ways of protecting data and information against unauthorized access (2 marks)
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7. Explain two characteristics of good information (2 marks)
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8. Explain three types of errors that are likely to exist in a program (3 marks)
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9. State two roles of a network admistrator (2 marks)
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10. State three negative impacts of information communication technology on the

environment (3 marks)
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11. Study the follow flowchart then answer the questions that flow.

A
B
C
A
i. Identify the type of flowchart represented by the flowchart in figure(1 mark)

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ii. Name the flowchart symbols labeled A, B,C and D in the flowchart. (2 marks)
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12. Mary a computer student noticed that every time a person enters the computer lab, the computer
screen flickered. Identify three reasons why the monitor might be flickering (3marks)
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13. (a) state the importance of column breaks as used in a word processor (1 mark)
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(b) List any two line spacing specifications used in Ms- Word (1 mark)
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14. The first column in the table below contains the formula stored in cell C10 of a
spreadsheet. Enter the formula as they would appear when copied to cell F15 of the same
spreadsheet (2 marks)
FORMULA IN C10 FORMULA IN F15

=A5*B5
=4*B$6
15. (a) Differentiate between an analog and digital data signal (2 marks)
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(b) The government of Kenya is in the process of laying out fibre optic cables throughout
the country. State three advantages of fibre optic cables (3 marks)
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SECTION B( 60 MARKS)
ANSWER QUESTION 16 AND ANY OTHER THREE QUESTIONS FROM THIS
SECTION
16.(a) Draw a program flowchart that would accept and their sum. If the sum is greater
than 200, it adds 30 to the sum, otherwise subtracts 20 from the sum. The program should
then display the results (7 marks)
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(b) Study the pseudo code below and determine its output (3 marks)
STEP 1: T=0
M=0
K=1
STEP 2 M=M+T
T=T+5
K=K+1
STEP 3 REPEAT STEP 2 WHILE K<3
WRITE M, T
EXIT

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(c )(i)List two benefits of using interviews as a method of fact finding (2 marks)

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(ii) Explain three types of system change over strategies (3 marks)

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17. (a) state three functions of a database management system (DBMS) (3 marks)
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(b) if a database was to be created for a list, Tables, Forms, Queries and Reports are
likely to be used. State the purpose of each of the object (4 marks)
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c) The information below is maintained by Jessica Fruit store. Study it and answer
the questions that follow:
Product Product name Qty in stock (kg) Value per unit

number (ksh)
001 Peach 1000 200
002 Oranges 1200 200
003 Mangoes 1300 100
Write down the query statements you can use to list the following;
i) Product names starting with letter P. (2 marks)

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ii) Value per unit below 200. (2 marks)
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(d) The following is a spreadsheet relating to a farmer (2 marks)
A function = IF (B2<200, “Not Viable”, IF (B2>300, “Moderate”, IF (B2>1000, “Viable”))). Give

the appropriate result returned in cells C2, C3, C4 and C5
d) Name four data types used in spreadsheets. (2 Marks)
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18. (a) Explain the use of the following commands found in the spell check dialog box in reference
to word processing (3 Marks)
i) Change
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iii) Ignore once
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iv) Add
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(b)State four font styles supported by Ms. Word (2marks)
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(c) Work out the followingbinary arithmetic (2marks)

i. 11101.00112+ 101.0112
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ii. 101001.101012-110.011012
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iii. Using twos complement, perform the following calculation. (4marks)

2310 - 4110
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iv. Convert 13.12510 to decimal. (2marks)
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v. Aparticularcomputerstoresnumbersinasingle8-bitword. Howwouldit
Represent 0.312510? (2marks)

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19( a) Explain each of the following type of operating systems (4marks)
i. Distributed
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ii. Multi-user.
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b)List any two types of embedded operating systems used in modern cell phones (2marks)
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c) Most operating systems provide a file system. Mention any TWO file systems used in windows
environment. (2 marks)
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(d) Define the term interactive data processing. (1mark)
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(e) Explain why input screens are better data entry designs than entering data directly
a table. (2 marks)
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(f) State two likely causes of data and program loss in a computer system? (2 marks)
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(g) Explain the meaning of the following terms as used in data security (2marks)
a. Fraud
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b. Alteration
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20. (a) The figure below shows an extract of an e-mail application.
State what is meant by the following (3 marks)
(a) Trash
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(b) Spam
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(c) Inbox
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b) Explain the following interactive sensory equipment used in virtual reality (2marks)
i) Head gear
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ii) Body suit

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c) Most computerized security systems make use of Biometric analysis, name three
physical features of human beings that can be considered in this analysis (3marks)
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d) (i) Define the term networking topology (1mark)

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e) (ii) Distinguish between logical and physical network topologies (2marks)

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(d) Explain the functions of the following network devices (4marks)
(i) Network interface card (NIC)

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(ii) Gateway
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(iii) Bridge
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(iv) Repeater
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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
451/2
COMPUTER STUDIES PRATICAL
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
• Type your name and index number at the top right hand corner of each printout.
• Write your name and index number on the CD-R or CD-RW provided.
• Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer
sheet.
• Answer ALL the questions.
• All questions carry equal marks.
• All answers must be saved on the CD
• Hand in the prints and the CD
Question 1
The EAGLE Company is a supplier of the removable storage devices for the Londiani Joint Centers.
The following is an extract of sales from the company.
Figure 1
A B C D E F G H I
CENTERS JAN FEB MARCH APRIL MAY JUNE JULY AUG
1 LONDIANI 43 38 16 33 43 26 32 36
GIRLS
2 CHEPSEON 19 30.5 23 11 40 25 33 28
COMPLEX
3 LONDIANI 14 26.8 22.5 7.3 26 31 16 24
BOYS
4 KAPCHEPLANGA 16 19 29 33 41 21 17 15
SECONDARY
5 SACRED HILL 18 34 17 41.2 36 41 18.5 16
GIRLS
6 LONDIANI 22 25 28 36 24 36 19 18
TOWNSHIP
(a) Create a workbook to store the above data and save it as EAGLE SUPPLIERS. (10 mks)
(b) Insert a blank row at the top of the worksheet and type the heading “EAGLE SUPPLIERS
2022”, merge and center across the data (3 mks)
(c) Rename the worksheet as SUPPLIES (1 mk)
(d) (i) Copy supplies sheet into sheet 2 and save it as SUPPLIES TWO. (2 mks)
(ii) Add a column and give headings: SEP. (4 mks)

(iii) Given that the sales of January were 5% above month of SEP in all the centers, using
absolute cell referencing, calculate the monthly sales of SEP in all the centers. (6mks)
(iv) Compute the average supplies for each center. (3mks)
(v) Format average sales to two decimal places. (2 mks)
(e) Insert a heading Performance after average, and rank the averages in descending order (3 mks)
(f) Assign remarks as follows using appropriate function: (4 mks)
Average Remarks
less than Low

20,
Up to 25 Medium
Above 30 High
(g) Format all numeric values to 2 decimals places. (2mks)
(h) Format the data headings as follows:
(i) Bold and align to center (2mks)
(ii) Data headings orientation of 36˚ (1mk)
(i) Create a pie chart showing centers and average sales . (4 mks)
g) Print SUPPLIES, SUPPLIES TWO, and PIECHART. (3mks)
QUESTION 2
(a) Using a DTP program, design the publication using the sample given in the next page
as your reference and save it as Polite Notice. (29mks)
In your design take into account the following

The size of the publication should be A4, portrait orientation. (1mk)
(b) The page margins should be set all-round at 0.6” (Left, Right, Top and Bottom) (2mks)
(c) Format the header to 45pts font size; add a double outline border of 3pts. In weight (2mks)
(d) The text inside the star object should be reverse text, Bold and 20pts. (3mks)
(e) The numbered and bulleted lists should be formatted to 18pts with paragraph spacing
of 1.5 (2mks)
(f) Format the arrow lines pointing to the circle outlining the numbered and bulleted lists, and the
circle to 2pts in weight with the text inside the circle formatted to 18pts. (3mks)
(g) The vertical text “Remember to abide ……” should be formatted to font size 20pts
and underlined with thick dots. (2mk)
(h) (i) Format the line above the “All the Best …. “ text to 4.5pts in weight. (2mks)
(ii) Format the text “All the Best …. “ to font size 22pts centered and interlaced.(2mks)
(i) Print the publication. (2mk)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
Instructions to candidates
-This paper consists of six questions
-Answer ONLY FIVE questions.
-Each question should be done on a separate foolscap.
-Questions must be answered neatly in a good hand writing
QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL 100
1. (a ) Explain how learning of Christian religious education in secondary school promote the goals
of national development.(6mks)
(b) State six similarities found in both biblical and traditional views on creation. (6mks)
(c) Identify eight ways in which people in traditional African communities take care of God`s
creation (8mks)
2. (a) Describe the incident when Abraham was willing to sacrifice his son Isaac.(Genesis 22:1-19)
(7mks)
(b) Give differences between the Jewish and the traditional African practice of circumcision
.(8mks)
(c) Outline 5 examples of covenants made in Kenya today(5mks)
3. (a) Explain six ways used by king David to promote the worship of Yahweh in Israel. (6mks)
(b)With reference to 1st king 21 :17-29, Give the forms of punishment prophesied by Elijah
to Ahab and queen Jezebel.(7mks)
c.Give seven ways in which Christians fight corruption in Kenya today.(7mks)
4. (a) Describe the categories of true prophets in the Old Testament. (6mks)
(b) Explain the vision of the basket of summer fruits shown to prophet Amos by God (Amos 8:1-3)
(6mks)
(c)Identify eight problems experienced by church leaders in their work (8mks)
5. (a) Outline seven occasions when Nehemiah prayed.(7mks)
(b) Explain why Nehemiah introduced the policy of separation of Jews from foreigners.(7mks)
(c)List six ways in which the government of Kenya support church leaders in their work.(6mks)
6. (a) Explain the significance of rituals performed after the death of a person in traditional African
communities .(7mks)
(b)Give the importance of bride wealth in traditional African communities (6mks)
(c)state the factors that undermine the role of medicine men in kenya today.(7mks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
Instructions to candidates
-This paper consists of six questions
-Answer ONLY FIVE questions.
-Each question should be done on a separate foolscap.
-Questions must be answered neatly in a good hand writing
QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL 100
1(a) Outline Micah’s prophecies about the messiah (Micah 5:1-5). (7 marks)
(b)With reference to Luke 1:13-17 outline the message of angel Gabriel about John to
Zechariah. (7 marks)
(c)Give lessons Christians learn from the incident when Jesus was dedicated. (6 marks)
2. (a) Explain the teachings of Jesus on the Qualities of true discipleship ( Luke
6:20-49). (8marks)
(b)Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman (Luke 7:36-50) .(7
Marks)
(c)State five lessons Christians learn from the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful
woman. (5marks)
3.|(a)Discuss reasons why Jesus celebrated the last supper with His disciples ( 7 marks
)
(b)Give six reasons why Jesus used bread and wine during the last supper (6 marks)
(c)Give virtues that Christians acquire during the celebration of the holy communion.
(6 marks)
4(a) Describe the healing of the Gerasene demoniac in (Luke 8:26-39). (8 marks)
(b)State ways in which the Holy Spirit was manifested on the day of Pentecost. (6
marks)
(c)Outline the role of the Holy Spirit in the church today . (6 marks)
5 (a) Identify five sources of Christian Ethics. (5 marks)
(b)Outline the Christian teachings on Marriage. (8 marks)
(c)Give seven advantages of monogamous marriage. (7 marks)
6 (a) State five similarities between traditional African and Christian view on human
sexuality . (5 marks)
(b)Identify the causes of pre-marital sex among the youth in Kenya today (8 marks)
(c)Give seven reasons why Christians in Kenya condemn homosexuality. (7 marks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
101/1
ENGLISH Paper 1
Functional Skills
Time: 2 hours
Instructions to the candidate

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in this paper
• This paper consists of 8 Printed pages.
• Candidates should check the questions paper to ascertain that all pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
• Candidates must answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use only

score score
20
1
10
2
30
3
Total score
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
1. Your cousin has read an advertisement in your local daily newspaper for the position of a
library assistant in a public library. He advised you to apply for the job. Write a curriculum vitae
for the purpose of applying for this job (12mks)
Assume you have been offered the job as a library assistant. Write a thank you note to your
cousin for his good advice (8mks)
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2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)
A……………………..1 was arraigned before the magistrate in the Kilimani law ……………………2
Yesterday afternoon. Aged about thirty-three, the man was ……………………….3 of trespassing into his
neighbor’s ……………………………..4 and stealing oranges. The man however, pleaded not
………………………….5. He claimed he did not even know Onyango, the complainant. He even
………………………………..6 having met him as he escaped with the oranges. The man …………………………7
laughter when he claimed he did not even take oranges as he is allergic to them. He said Onyango was
trying to ……………………….8 old scores with him by taking him to court. The magistrate ordered him to
be …………………9 in custody until proper ……………………………10 were carried out.
3. ORAL SKILLS (30MKS)

a) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follows
Do not stand at my grave and weep
Do not stand at my grave and weep

I am not there, I do not sleep
I am in a thousand winds that blow
I am the softly falling snow
I am the gentle showers of rain

I am the fields of ripening grain
I am in the morning hush
I am in the graceful rush
Of beautiful birds in circling flight

I am the star shine of the night
I am in the flowers that bloom,
I am in a quiet room.
I am in the birds that sing

I am in each lovely thing
Do not stand at my grave and cry
I am not there. I do not die
(By Mary Elizabeth Frye)
g) Comment on the rhyme scheme of this poem (2mks)
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h) Identify and illustrate any two sound patterns used in the poem above (2mks)
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i) How would you say the last line of the poem (2mks)
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j) With a reason, state the words you would stress in the first line of the
poem(2mks)
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b) For each of the word given below, write down another word with similar
pronunciation (4mks)
iv. Hire
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v. Guest
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vi. Flour
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vii. Plum
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c) Indicate the correct intonation for the following sentences (4mks)

m) How did she travel to Nairobi?
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n) Can I take you home?
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o) You are the new student, aren’t you?
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p) I have been working very hard for the coming examination.
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d) Your neighbouring school has invited you as a guest speaker to give a talk on drug
abuse. At the end of the speech, the students commented that the talk was
delivered. Give reasons why they commented so. (4mks)
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e) You have been invited to a very important interview. Explain briefly what you need to do
before the occasion to ensure that you look presentable (3mks)
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f) We all have to give direction to other people from time to time, sometime we will have to
write directions. However, we often have to give directions orally. What are some of the
things you would mention to make the directions more accurate (3mks)
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g) Below is a telephone conversation between friends. Fill the missing parts (4mks)
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Jane: Hello, may I talk to Judy please?
Judy:…………………………………………………………………
Jane: Oh, how are you? How have you been?
Judy: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jane: I am very sorry, where was the accident?
Judy:……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jane: Good to hear that your injuries were not too serious. You will pull through
Judy:……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Jane: We will visit you as soon as we can. Bye for now and I wish you a quick
recovery.
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
101/2
ENGLISH PAPER 2
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
2½HOURS
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES.
(g) Write your name, admission number, date and signature in the spaces above.
(h) Answer ALL the questions in this paper.
(i) All answer must be written in English and in a black or blue pen.
(j) This paper has 11 printed pages
(k) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTION TESTED AREAS TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 COMPREHENSION 20
2 EXCERPT 25
3 POETRY 20
4 GRAMMAR 15
TOTAL 80
1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
On Sunday, Eliud Kipchoge made world headlines again when he smashed his own world record with
a time of two hours, one minute, and nine seconds in the Berlin Marathon. With that, he sliced 30
seconds off his previous best mark of 02:01:39 on the same course in 2018.
Kipchoge had run so fast that he crossed the line four minutes and 49 seconds ahead of his compatriot
Mark Korir, time that could have seen him have a rapid shower and dried himself just as Korir came
home. But there he was, saying, “My legs and body still feel young, but the most important thing is
my mind-and that also feels fresh and young.” The man might bring this thing below two hours before
he turns forty.
The spectacular success of Kipchoge and other distance stars from Ethiopia, Uganda, Morocco, and
others, is an allegory of the possibility of national progress and African global competitiveness. He and
his ilk have succeeded because they have taken natural resources and opportunity and turned them
into world-bearing products. It is something Africa is very bad at. The Democratic Republic of Congo
is said to be the most resource-rich country, but it has done bugger all with it. It is one of the poorest
countries and remains mired in conflict. If you have that much natural wealth, you can buy a lot of
peace and stability with it if you are smart in its use; ask the Saudis, Emiratis, and Qataris.
There have been plans to build a Grand Inga Dam on the Congo River. Its potential can provide up to
40 per cent of the continent’s electricity needs. That would be more than twice the electricity
generated by the most powerful dam in the world, The Three Gorges Dam in China. Nothing has
happened. The Kipchoge treatment would have that dam up, and supplying power-cut plagued South
Africa and Nigeria.
Until recently, Nigeria was Africa’s largest exporter of oil. But due to corruption and sabotage, its now
fourth, behind Angola, Algeria and Libya. Save for Algeria, all the other three import refined petroleum
products. And Nigeria and Angola are plagued by fuel shortages at the fuel pump. If Nigeria had a
Kipchoge touch, it would be one of the world’s leading exporters of refined fuel products.
Economists keep throwing figures about to show that Africa is de-industrialising. That could be
because they are measuring the wrong thing. One of the biggest industries in Africa is whining and
moaning about how Europeans, Americans, Chinese, the Gulf States, and everyone else is exploiting
and rigging the global system against us.
Yes, global injustices and imperialist exploitation must be called out and resisted, but the payoff is in
overcoming and bragging about it. Africa cannot continue blaming all its miseries on an evil world. Too
many of us believe that it is possible to overcome the odds.
In 2019, Kipchoge demonstrated this in Vienna ineos marathon challenge. He clocked 1:59:40:02,
something that had been seen as an impossibility to run a marathon under two hours. However, the
historic result didn’t toward an official marathon record, because he ran it under controlled near-
laboratory conditions. He was the only competitor and had 41 pacesetters, divided into nine teams.
That meant for every four kilometres plus, he had a fresh set of pacesetters. But, the point had been
made.
If we were all Kipchoges, we would say Africa will be a world superpower and richest continent and
just do it.
Questions
q) According to paragraph one, what made Eliud Kipchoge to make world headlines?(1 mark)
r) Why has Africa failed to develop, according to the passage? (2 marks)
s) Pick a line from the passage to show that Kipchoge is of advanced age. (1 mark)
t) Explain one instance of irony in the passage. (2 marks)
u) Nothing has happened.

Rewrite the sentence, supplying a question tag. (1 mark)
v) Why did Kipchoge’s record of running under two hours in the Ineos 1:59 challenge fail to
receive the marathon body’s recognition? (2 marks)
w) Which common problem affects Nigeria and South Africa? (1 mark)
x) Comment on the language use in paragraph six. (2 marks)
y) What is the author’s attitude on how African countries perceive their problems? (3 marks)
z) From the passage, what is the secret behind Kipchoge and other African athletes’ success?
(2marks)
aa) Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the passage. (3 marks)
• Allegory
• Plagued
• The point had been made
2. Paul B. Vitta, Fathers of Nations.

Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)
“Tad,” said the cranky passenger as he was settling down in economy class, in a seat next to
Dr Afolabi’s. “Tad Longway,” he added. His voice, deep, lingered on like the boom of a big drum. He
held out a card.
Dr Afolabi took it. It said the man was a Director of Special Projects at the Agency for
Governance and Development in Africa. “Pleased to meet you, Mr Longway,” Dr Afolabi said. “My
name is Abiola Afolabi. I teach at the University of Ibadan, Nigeria.”
“You gave an excellent keynote address the other day, Dr Afolabi,” said the cranky
passenger. Sparks of earnestness were crossing his eyes, both crystal-green like toy marbles,
confirming the compliment was sincere. “Your keynote address at the Foundation for Democratic
rule, I mean. It was brilliant.”
“I’m glad you liked it, Mr Longway,” Dr Afolabi said. His voice had become warm. “You were
there, then, Mr Longway?”
“Yes, but back in the last row. As a mere spectator, I did not want to be obtrusive. Anyway,
you were superb, Dr Afolabi. If you don’t mind by adding this, I was more impressed by the points
that the audience raised afterwards, during the question –and–answer period.”
Dr Afolabi felt the praise he had just heard turn into reproach. “So what were those points,
Mr Longway?” he asked. His voice was less warm.
“Remember the guy from Grassroots International: short fellow, round of body and
outspoken of manner? What was his name? It’s on the tip on my tongue.”
“You must mean the fire-eater who kept accusing me of looking for answers where I
shouldn’t even look,” Dr Afolabi said.
“Exactly, that’s our man. Yes, I thought he was right on point, Dr Afolabi. He too was
unhappy with the present state.”
“Wait, the present state of what?”
“Africa.”
“I don’t understand.”
“No problem: I’ll spell it out for you. You see, Dr Afolabi, Africa, in its present state, has two
new arrivals: corruption and impunity. The first is a crime the second protects from punishment, the
second is another crime the first rewards with kickbacks. That is Africa in its present state. Now can
it change?”
“Tell me. Can it?”
“Well, let’s ask the Law of Will.”
“What?”
“Unless there is will to change, there will be no change.’
Questions
f) Place this excerpt in its immediate context. (4 marks)
g) Discuss one character trait of Dr Afolabi and two of Tad Longway. (6 marks)
h) Highlight and illustrate two themes evident in this passage. (4 marks)
i) Identify and illustrate two stylistic devices evident in this passage. (4marks)
j) (i) Unless there is will to change, there will be no change. (Rewrite using “if”) (1 mark)
(ii)It’s on the tip of my tongue. (Rewrite beginning: “On…”) (1 mark)
k) Explain the meaning of the following words and expressions as used in the excerpt. (5 marks)
24. Cranky
25. Keynote address
26. Obtrusive
27. On the tip of my tongue
28. Kickbacks
3. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
My parents
My parents kept me from children who were rough.
Who threw words like stones and who wore torn clothes
Their thighs showed through rags. They ran in the streets-
And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams
I feared more than tigers their muscles like iron

Their jerking hands and their knees tight on my arms.
I feared the salt Coarse pointing of those boys
Who copied my lisp behind me on the road?
They were lithe, they sprang out behind hedges

Like dogs to bark at my world. They threw mud
While I looked the other way, pretending to smile
I longed to forgive them, but they never smiled.
Questions
j) What is the poem about? (4 marks)
k) Describe the character of the following: (4 marks)

viii. The speaker’s parents
l) Identify the persona. Illustrate. (2 marks)
m) Describe the tone used in the poem. (3 marks)
n) Identify and illustrate four stylistic devices used in the poem. (4 marks)
o) What is the role of the parents as depicted in the poem? (2 marks)
p) Explain the economic background of the children in the poem. (2 marks)
q) Rewrite the following sentence replacing the word in bold with its opposite word.
And climbed cliffs and stripped by the country streams (1 mark)
4. GRAMMAR (15 MARKS)

b) Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. Do not change the meaning.
(3 marks)
31. Njoki did not know it was a dangerous vocation. (Rewrite using: “...how...”)
32. Someone saw Kirimi leaving the plane in Khartoum. (Begin: Kirimi...)
33. She opened the window and a bat flew out. (End in: “...a bat.”)
c) Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets, (3 marks)
k) Living in the (industry) part of the town can e very distressing.
l) The student was punished for treating the old lady (respect)
m) The mock examinations (analyse) has been completed.
d) Use the correct order of the adjectives provided in brackets to complete the given
sentences (3 marks)
s) I enjoyed carrying my (metallic, heavy,
rectangular) box every time we opened and closed school.
t) Magoha married an (intelligent, American,
young) woman.
u) Please buy me a reasonably (cheap, big,
purple)umbrella.
e) Complete the following sentences with the appropriate collective noun. (3 marks)
• The cargo arrived at the port in a of ships.

• The teacher talked to a of girls from class.
• A of monkeys attacked the leopard.
f) Replace the phrasal verbs underlined with one word similar in meaning. (3 marks)
h) I will work hard to make up for the wasted time.
i) Kipkorir takes after his grandfather
j) The project has really eaten into my savings.
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
101/3 ENGLISH - PAPER 3
(Creative Composition and Essay Based on Set Text)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
Instructions to the Candidates

k) Write your details in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
l) Answer three questions only.
m) Questions one is compulsory and choose any two as instructed by your teacher.
n) Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
o) Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.
p) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60
Answer three questions only
(c) IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY) (20 MARKS)
EITHER
ix. Write a composition beginning with the following words

I woke up on Christmas day feeling excited.
OR
x. Write a composition on the negative effect of social media and explain how the youth
can avoid its negative aspects.
(d) PLAY, THE SAMARITAN By John Lara (20 MARKS)
• Bad leaders will not escape punishment due to their evil deeds. Using illustrations
from John Lara’s The Samaritan, write an essay to support this statement.
• Standing firm in doing what is right yields good results. Using Nicole, in John Lara’s,
The Samaritan, write an essay in support of this statement.
(e) EITHER
• The short story ( A Silent Song and Other Stories)
I. Some people can misuse the power in their hands and en up regretting when
they lose it.With close reference to Naguib Mahfouz’s story A Man of
Awesome Power write an essay to justify this statement. (20 marks)
OR
II. Drawing illustrations from Meja Mwangi’s, An Incident in the Park, write an
essay to discuss the problems of urbanization. (20 marks)
OR
• Drama –Adipo Sidang’-Parliament of Owls.

Choices have consequences. With relevant examples from Sidang’s Parliament of
Owls, discuss the validity of this statement. (20 marks)
OR
• The novel-Kazuo Ishiguro. An Artist of the Floating World

War causes many negative results. Drawing examples from Ishiguro’s An Artist of
The Floating World, write an essay to show the truth of this statement. (20 marks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
312/1
GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES
n) This paper has two sections A and B
o) Answer ALL the questions in section A.
p) In section B answer question 6 and any other TWO questions
For Examiners Use Only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score
A 1–5 25
B 6 25
25
25
TOTAL SCORE 100
SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section
xi. (a) What is the relationship between Geography and Mathematics? (2 marks)
(b) Identify three branches of Geography (3 marks)
2. (a) Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow.
(i) What type of eclipse is represented by the diagram? (1 mark)

(ii) Explain how the above eclipse occurs. (2 marks)
(b) What is the time at Malindi on 40° E, when the time at Accra on Longitude 0° is 12.00
noon? (3 marks)
3. (a) Apart from fold mountains, name three other features resulting from folding. (3 marks)
(b) State two factors that determine the folding of crustal rocks. (2 marks)
4. (a) Give three reasons why some lakes in Kenya have saline water. (3 marks)
(b) Outline two economic uses of lakes. (2 marks)
5. (a) What is natural vegetation? (2 marks)
(b) State three characteristics of the Mediterranean type of vegetation. (3 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Mumias 1:50,000 (Sheet 101/2) provided and answer the following
questions.
(a)(i) Identify two types of scales that have been used in the map extract. (2 marks)
(ii) What was the magnetic declination of Mumias as at January 1965? (2mks)
(iii)Name three districts covered by the map of Mumias. (2mks)
(iv)Measure the length of the dry weather road from the junction at grid reference 6028 up to the
bridge at grid reference 6434. Give your answer in KM (2mks)
(b) (i) Reduce by two, the area to the East of Easting 50 and enclosed by Northing 30 to 40.(2 marks)
On it mark and name;
q) River Nzoia (1mk)

r) All weather road loose surface (1mk)
s) District boundary (1mk)
t) Seasonal swamp (1mk)
(ii) Calculate the scale of the reduced area (2mks)
(c) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)
(d) Citing evidence from the map, identify two economic activities carried out in the area covered
by the map. (4mks)
7. (a) (i) Define the term rock. (2mks)
(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals;
• Tenacity (2mks)
• Lustre (2mks)
• Cleavage (2 marks)
(b) (i) Name two examples of extrusive igneous rocks. (2mks)
(ii) Describe the formation of Plutonic rocks. (4mks)
(c) Explain three significance of rocks to the economy of Kenya. (6 marks)
(d) Your class is planning to carry out a fieldwork on rocks around your school.
(i) Outline two activities you would engage in before the study. (2 marks)
(ii) State three challenges you are likely to face during the field study. (3 marks)
8. (a) (i) Outline any two types of river erosion. (2 marks)
(ii) State three factors that influence river erosion. (3 marks)
(b) Describe how the river erodes through the following processes.
(i) Hydraulic action. (4 marks)
(ii)Solution (2 marks)
(c) Describe how the following features are formed.
(i) Interlocking spurs. (4 marks)
(ii) Natural levees. (4 marks)
(d)Explain three negative effects of rivers to the human environment. (6 marks)
9. (a) (i) Differentiate between Vulcanicity and Volcanicity. (2 marks)
(ii) Describe how a lava plateau is formed. (4 marks)
(b) The diagram below shows some intrusive features formed by vulcanicity.
Use it to answer the questions that follow.
5. Name the features marked E, F and G. (3 marks)

6. Explain how the feature marked E is formed. (4 marks)
(c ) Students carried out a field study on volcanic rocks.
l) Give four reasons why it is necessary to collect rock samples during such a field study. (4
marks)
m) Outline four follow up activities the learners would be engaged in afte the field study. (4
marks)
(d)Give four causes of earth quakes. (4 marks)
10. (a) (i) What is a soil catena? (2 marks)
(ii) Give three factors that determine the colour of soil. (3 marks)
(iii)State three ways in which mulching helps in soil conservation. (3 marks)
(b) Explain how the following farming practices causes soil erosion.
(i) Burning (4 marks)
(ii) Over cultivation (4 marks)
(c ) Give two economic uses of soil (2 marks)
(d) You are supposed to carry out a field study of an eroded area.
(i) State three methods you would use to control soil erosion. (3 marks)
(ii) Give two disadvantages of using secondary sources of collecting data in this kind of study. (2
marks)
(iii)Identify two methods you would use to record the observations. (2 marks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
312/2
GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES
(f) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(g) This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
(h) Answer ALL the questions in section A.
(i) In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and any other 2 questions.
For Examiners Use Only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 25
B 6 25
7 25
8 25
9 25
10 25
SECTION A: (25MARKS):
Answer ALL questions in this section:
1. (a) Define the term Geography. (2mks)
(b) Name three divisions of human and economic geography. (3mks)
2. (a) Name two forest reserves in Kenya. (2mks)
(b) State three characteristics of equatorial rain forest. (3mks)
3. (a) State three physical conditions that favour large scale sugarcane growing in
Kenya. (3mks)
(b) Name two areas where sugarcane is grown in large scale in Kenya. (2mks)
4. (a) Name two underground methods of mining. (2mks)
(b) Name three ways in which derelict land can be rehabilitated. (3mks)
5. (a) Define eco-tourism (2mks)
(b) State three measures being taken in Kenya to promote domestic tourism. (3mks)
SECTION B: (75 MARKS):

Answer question 6(compulsory) and any other two.
6. The table below shows the various modes of transport used by tourists visiting Kenya
between the years 2006 and 2009. Use it to answer the following questions;
Mode of 2006 2007 2008 2009

transport/year
Road 100,000 50,000 150,000 200,000
Air 600,000 650,000 700,000 800,000
water 200,000 150,000 100,000 50,000
xii. (i) State two reasons why tourists preferred air transport over the other modes of
transport over the period. (2mks)
(ii) Calculate the percentage increase in the number of tourist between the year 2008
and
2009. (3mks)
(iii) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 100,000 tourists, draw a compound bar graph to
represent the number of tourists who visited Kenya using the different modes of
transport.
(9mks)
xiii. (i) Explain three roles played by transport in the economy of Kenya. (6mks)
(ii) Name one highway created in Africa to ease transport across the continent. (1mk)
xiv. Four form students from St. Christopher’s secondary School visited Kisumu
Airport for a field study.
34. Identify two methods they used to record their data. (2mks)
35. Give two follow up activities they engaged in after the visit; (2mks)
7. (a) (i) Differentiate between land reclamation and land rehabilitation. (2mks)
(ii)Give three ways in which the government is trying to rehabilitate overgrazed lands
in Kenya (3mks)
(b) Explain three conditions that favour irrigation farming in Kenya. (6mks)
(c)(i) Name three polders that make up the Zuyder Zee reclamation project in the
Netherlands. (3mks)
(ii)Describe the stages of reclamation of land from the sea in the Netherland. (6mks)
(d)Your school intends to carry out a field study in Mwea Tebere irrigation scheme.
q) Identify the two types of hypothesis you would develop for the study.(2mks)
r) Give three reasons why you would need to sample the area of study.(3mks)
8. (a)(i)What is fossil fuel? (2mks)
(ii)List two fossil fuels that have recently been discovered in Kenya (2mks)
(iii)State three formations in which mineral ores occur. (3mks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence mining.
(i) Value of minerals. (2mks)
(ii)Transport (2mks)
• (i) Describe how solution mining method is carried out; (5mks)
s) Give three negative effects of mining to the environment. (3mks)
xv. (i)Name two areas where diamond is mined in South Africa. (2mks)
(ii)Describe how diamond is processed. (4mks)
9. (a)(i) Name three trees species found in the soft wood forest of Canada. (3mks)
(ii)State three physical factors that favour the growth of soft wood forest in
Canada.
(3mks)
(b) State four characteristics of softwood forest in Canada. (4mks)
(c) Give three reasons why it is necessary to carry out afforestation programs in
Kenyan
forests. (3mks)
xvi. State the difference between softwood forest in Canada and Kenya under the
following subheadings. (6mks)
7 Tree species
8 Harvesting
9 Mode of transport of logs
(e) Explain three significance of forests in Kenya to human activities. (6mks)
10. (a)(i) Name two types of fishing. (2mks)
(ii) State three reasons why marine fisheries are under developed in Kenya. (3mks)
(iii) Identify four solutions to the problems facing the fishing industry in Kenya.
(4mks)
(b) (i) Give two modern methods of fish preservation. (2mks)
(ii)Describe the basket method of fishing. (5mks)
(c)(i) Name three countries in the North West Atlantic fishing ground. (3mks)
(ii)Compare fishing in Kenya and Japan under the following topics:

13. Continental Shelf (2mks)
14. Coastline (2mks)
15. Ocean Currents (2mks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
311/1 HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT PAPER 1
Time: 2 HRS 30 MINS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES;
I. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
II. Answer All questions in section A, three in section B and two in section C.
III. Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer sheets provided
V. Answer all questions in English
Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
Total Score 100
SECTION A: 25 MARKS:
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1) Identify the branch of history that studies the occupation of people (1 mark)
2) Name the species that was discovered at Fort Ternan in 1961 (1 mark)
3) Give one community that is classified under Southern Cushites (1 mark)
4) Identify two written documents that contain the history of East African Coast before
1500AD (2 marks)
5) Give two functions of mission centres established by missionaries in Kenya (2 marks)
6) State one right that is limited to a person held in custody in Kenya (1 mark)
7) Identify one social interactions that can promote national unity in Kenya (1 mark)
8) State two rights guaranteed to the youth in Kenya (2 marks)
9) Identify one house of parliament created by the independence constitution (1 mark)
10) Name two communities in Kenya that showed mixed reactions to the British Rule in Kenya (2 marks)
11) State two reasons why some leaders of the Agikuyu collaborated with the British (2 marks)
12) Identify the treaty that finalised the partition of East Africa (1 mark)
13) State two contribution of the independent schools during the colonial period (2 marks)
14) Name two members of African elected members organisation AEMO at its inception in 1957 (2 marks)
15) State the main function of the Public Service in Kenya (1 mark)
16) State two reasons why elections are held regularly in Kenya (2 marks)
17) State one way through which the Harambee spirit among Kenyans promotes national unity
(1 mark)
SECTION B: 45 MARKS:
ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS ONLY FROM THIS SECTION
18) (a) Give five reasons for migration of the Luo from their original homeland (5marks)
(b) Describe the social organisation of the Maasai during the pre-colonial period (10 marks)
19) (a) Give three reasons why the British used indirect rule in Kenya (3marks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the Nandi resistance to British rule lasted for a long time (12marks)
20) (a) Mention three political organisation that Ronald Ngala worked with in his political career (3 marks)
(b) Explain six problems faced by the trade unions during the colonial period (12 marks)
21) (a) Give three reasons why the Kenya-Uganda railway was constructed during the colonial period
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the British government invited Europeans settlers in Kenya (12 marks)
SECTION C: 30 MARKS:
ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
22) (a) Identify three economic factors that promote national unity (3marks)
(b) Explain six functions of the Kenya National Human Rights and equality commission(12marks)
23) (a) State five conditions that may necessitate a by-election of a member of county
assembly in Kenya (5 marks)
(b) Explain five functions of correctional services in Kenya (10marks)
24) (a) Identify three subordinate courts in Kenya (3marks)
(b) Explain six factors that undermine the administration of justice in Kenya (12 marks
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
311/2
TIME: 2HR 30MIN
INSTRUCTIONS
(a) This paper consists of three sections; A, B AND C
(b) Answer all the questions in Section A, three questions from Section B
and two questions from Section C
For examiner’s use only

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
Total Score 100
SECTION A: 25 MARKS
Answer all the questions in the answer sheets provided
1. State two benefits of studying History and Government. (2 mk)
2. Give two reasons that made early human beings to live in groups (2mk)
3. Identify the main method used to plant cereal crops when early agriculture
begun. (1mk)
4. State two effects of land enclosure system to small scale farmers in Britain (2 mks)
5. Give one advantage of horn blowing as a means of communication during
pre-s colonial period (1mk)
6. Identify the main source of energy used at the onset of industrial revolution
(1mk)
7. Identify one symbol of unity in the ancient kingdom of Asante (1mk)
8. Name two African communities who participated in the Maji Maji rebellion.
(2mk)
9. State two political effects of partitioning of Africa by European powers.
(2mk)
10.Identify the type of constitution used in Britain (1mk)
11.Give two external factors that promoted nationalism in Mozambique. (2mk)
12.State two reasons why the assimilation policy worked in Senegal (2mk)
13.Identify two approaches used by Nationalists against the apartheid regime in
South Africa (2mk)
14.Give the immediate cause of the first world war in 1914 (1mk)
15.What was the Von Schlieffen plan. (1mk)
16.Name one organ of the league of Nations (1mk)
17.Name the party that led Ghana to independence (1mk)
SECTION B (45MARKS)
Answer three questions from this section in the answer sheers
provided
18. A) Give three reasons why Africa is considered the cradle land for mankind
(3mk)
B) Describe six ways in which the upright posture improved early man’s
way of life (12mk)
19.A) State three ways through which iron working technology spread in Africa
(3mk)
B) Explain six effects of scientific inventions on the field of medicine.
12mks
20.A) State five positive impacts of modern means of transport (5mks)
B) Explain five factors that favoured rise of African nationalism (10mks)
21.A) State three reasons why Lewanika collaborated with the British (3mks)
B) Explain six factors that favored growth of industries in Brazil (12mks)
SECTION C: 30 MARKS
Answer any two questions in the answer sheets provided
22. A) State three reasons why USA delayed in joining the first world war
(3mks)
B) Explain six effects of the Versailles treaty (12mk)
23.A) State five reasons why the British used Direct rule in Zimbabwe (5 mks)
B) Explain five differences between the French and British systems of
administration (10 mks)
24.A) Identify three officers who assisted the emperor to administer the Shona
kingdom (3mk)
B) Describe the political organization of the Baganda during pre-colonial
period (12mks)
HOMESCIENCE PAPER 2
PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
1. Plain light weight cotton fabric 65cm long by 90cm wide.

2. A button 1cm in diameter.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric colour.
4. One large envelope
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
441/1
HOME SCIENCE PAPER 1
TIME: 2HRS 30MINS
- Answer all questions in section A and B.

- Answer any two questions in section C.
SECTION QUESTION MAX. SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE

A 1-19 40
B 20 20
C 21-23 40
TOTAL 100
SECTION A (40MKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. State how studying home science benefits the nation. (1mk)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
2. Give four conditions favourable for thriving of micro-organisms in food

contamination. (2mks)
___________________________________________________________________________
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3. Identify the categories in which each of the following small kitchen equipment
belongs. (2mks)
a) Grater
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b) Meat tenderizer
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c) Fish slice
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d) Colander
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4. Give two ways of preventing skin infections. (2mks)
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5. State two classes of textile fibres. (2mks)
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6. Give two disadvantages of living in a maisonette. 2mks)
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7. List four factors that influence the frequency of cleaning a house. (2mks)
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8. Mention two properties that limit the use of nylon in making lingeries. (2mks)
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9. State two factors to consider when choosing cutting out shears. (2mks)
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10. Name two types of vacuum cleaners. (2mks)
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11. Identify four methods of steaming food. (2mks)
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12. Define the following terms: (2mks)

i. Environmental hygiene
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ii. Drainage
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13. Identify two laundry processes that are carried out before washing clothes. (2mks)
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14. State the use of the following in drainage:

a) U bend
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b) Water seal.
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15. Give two qualities of a good clothes line. (2mks)
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16. State one function of each of the following parts of a sewing machine: (3mks)
i. Tension disc
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ii. Thread-take up lever
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iii. Stitch length regulator
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17. Give reasons for using each of the following laundry agents: (3mk)
a) Starch
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b) Fabric conditioner
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c) Salt
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18. Categorize the following stitches into their respective groups: (3mks)
i. Loop stitch
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ii. Oversewing stitch
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iii. Faggoting
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19. Give the names of the following vitamins: (2mks)

a) Vitamin A
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b) Vitamin B1
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c) Vitamin B2
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d) Vitamin C
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SECTION B (20MKS)
(Compulsory)
20. Your brother is celebrating his birthday and has requested you to assist in cleaning.
a) Outline the procedure you will use to launder his loose coloured cotton t-shirt. (8mks)
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b) Give the procedure of cleaning am oil painted wall (8mks)
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c) Explain how to clean a plain wooden chopping board. (4mks)
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SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two questions in this section
21.
a) Highlight five physiological changes in the elderly which affect their diet. (5mks)
b) Discuss five reasons for using soft furnishing in the home. (5mks)
c) Explain the first aid you will give to a patient who is nose bleeding at home. (5mks)
a. Highlight the importance of budgeting for family income. (5mks)

22.
(i) Explain four causes of malnutrition in the community. (8mks)
(ii) Discuss three problems related to breastfeeding. (6mks)
(iii) State and explain three types of advertisement. (6mks)
23.
a. Outline four reasons for sufficient ventilation in a room. (4mks)
b. Explain four principles of food preservation. (8mks)
c. Arrange the following steps in the correct order as used in making yeast mixtures:
(4mks)
Second kneading, Fermentation, proving, shaping, raising, first kneading, mixing,
baking
d. Highlight four ways of meeting nutritional needs of the sick at home. (4mks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
441/2
HOMESCIENCE
CLOTHING CONSTRCTION
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
HOMESCIENCE PAPER 2
CLOTHING AND CONSTRUCTION
TIME:2 ½ HOURS
A pattern of a child's skirt is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, the question
paper and layout before you begin the test
Materials provided
5. A skirt Front
B skirt Back
C frill
D Pocket
E Back waistband
F Front Waistband
N/B: Interfacing for front and back waistbands are cut with pieces E and F from the
same fabric.
6. Plain light weight cotton fabric 65cm long by 90cm wide.
7. A button 1cm in diameter.
8. Sewing thread to match the fabric colour.
9. One large envelope.
THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the LEFT HALF OF the child's skirt to show
the following.
a) Making the back and front darts.

b) The preparation and attachment of the patch pocket
c) The making of a neatened side open seam
d) The preparation of the interfaced front and back waistbands.
e) The attachment of the waistband to the skirt. Finishing the front waistband by
hemming and the back one by tacking.
f) The topstitching of the waistbands.
g) The preparation of the frill and attaching it using overlaid/lapped seam.
h) The beating of only half of the frill seam using loop stitches.
i) The making of the buttonhole and attaching the button.
OMIT the hem management
At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work, on a single fabric a label
bearing your name and index number. Remove the needle and pins from your work,
then fold your work neatly and place it in the envelope provided. Do not put scraps of
fabric in the envelope.
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
JARIBIO LA PAMOJA LA BUKAKA
KIDATO CHA NNE
102/1 – KISWAHILI – karatasi ya 1
INSHA
Muda: saa 134
Maagizo
(j) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(k) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
(l) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya tatu zilizobakia.
(m) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
(n) Kila insha ina alama 20
(o) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(p) Karatasi hii ina kurasa mbili zilizopigwa chapa.
(q) Watahiniwa wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee
Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
Jumla 40
LAZIMA
1. Wewe ni mwanaharakati wa kutetea haki za watoto. Wahutubie
wanafunzi wa shule ya Uzalendo kuhusu la vyanzo vya mimba za
mapema miongoni mwa watoto wa kike.
2.Wewe ni mwenyekiti wa jopo kazi lililoteuliwa kuchunguza kiini cha

kupanda kwa gharama ya Maisha na jinsi serikali inaweza kusuluhisha swala
hili. Tayarisha ripoti hii.
3. Andika kisa kinachoafiki maana ya methali ifuatayo :

Fahali wawili wapiganapo nyasi ndizo ziumiazo.
4. Andika insha utakayoanza kwa maneno yafuatayo:

Walipofungua mlango huo, wengi hawakuweza kuzuia hisia zao. Walitoa
kwi! Kwi! kwa maafa waliyoshuhudia…
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
KISWAHILI
102/2
KARATASI YA PILI
MUDA: SAA 2 ½
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee
SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
JUMLA 80
a) Andika jina lako na nambari katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.

b)Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu ulizoachiwa
c) Majibu yatolewe kwa kufuata sheria za mtihani wa kitaifa
UFAHAMU ( alama 15)
Soma ufahamu ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali:
Binadamu kwa wakati huu amemaka kwa sababu amechafua mazingira yake pasipo tahadhari.
Mathalani amejaza gesi za sumu zitokazo viwandani na hata kuchafua mito kutokana na maji machafu
kutoka viwanda hivyo. Takataka zinazotupwa ovyo ovyo zinarundikana kila mahali. Isitoshe miti
inakatwa vivyo hivyo bila simile. Matokeo ya haya yote ni kwa mfano, tunapata mvua ya asidi ambayo
huhasiri mimea. Aidha nao ukanda wa ozoni unaotukinga dhidi ya miale hatari kutoka kwa jua
umeharibiwa tayari na hivyo kuongeza joto duniani. Sehemu nyingi zimeanza kugeuka na kuwa jangwa
huku sehemu zingine zikifurika kwa maji ya mito na mvua. Maji haya yameanza kumeza visiwa vingi
vilivyo baharini. Kutokana na madhara haya, binadamu sasa anatapatapa ili kutafuta makao kwingine
kwenye usalama. Ndiposa siku hizi nadhari za binadamu zimeelekezwa katika mawanda mengine nje
kabisa ya kisayari hiki kidogo kiitwacho dunia.
Kwa miaka mingi sasa binadamu amekuwa akitafakari uwezekano wa kuishi katika sayari nyingine. Hii
ndiyo sababu mwaka wa 1969 Waamerika walimkanyagisha binadamu wa kwanza kabisa mwezini.
Lengo lilikuwa ni kutalii na kuchunguza uwezekano wa binadamu kuishi huko ili wale watakaoweza
wahamie huko, hata mimea. Mwezini ni vumbi tupu lisiloota chochote. Kipatikanacho kwa wingi sana
ni madini tu ambayo hayawezi kufaidi binadamu kwa lolote.
Sayari nyingine alizozitalii binadamu ni Zuhura, Mirihi, Mushtara na tuseme karibu zote
zinazolizunguka jua. Kilichogunduliwa ni kuwa upo uwezekano wa sayari kama Zuhura na pengine
Mirihi kuwa na mvua, lakini nyingi mno isiyoweza kuruhusu mimea kukua. Zuhura inasemekana kuwa
joto sana wakati wa mchana ilhali Mirihi ni baridi sana siku zote; baridi kiasi cha kuwa binadamu na
wanyama hawawezi kuishi huko. Mushtara yasemekana kuwa joto ajabu, ambapo hizo sayari nyingine
zina joto sana au zina baridi sana. Habari hii imemfunga binadamu katika jela ya kijisayari chake kiki
hiki kiitwacho dunia anachokichafua uchao.
Je, binadamu amekata tamaa? Hata kidogo! Ndio mwanzo anajaribu sana kuzikata pingu alizofunzwa
na maumbile. Vipi? Amejaribu kuchunguza uwezekano wa kuihama ardhi na kuishi baharini, kwa
sababu bahari inazidi ardhi mara tatu kwa ukubwa. Na ni vipi binadamu anadhani anaweza kuishi
baharini mahali ambapo hakuumbiwa aishi humo kama samaki?Jawabu ni kuwa angefanya hivyo kwa
kutumia maarifa yake.
Binadamu anaamini kabisa kuwa ana uwezo wa kujenga miji mikubwa mikubwa humo humo baharini.
Mikubwa zaidi ya hii tuliyo nayo ardhini. Anaamini ya kuwa anaweza kuitawala bahari kiasi
alichotawala ardhi, na hivyo basi kufanya bahari impe makao na kumlisha bila ya kuyabadilisha
maumbile yake. Na iwapo hili halitawezekana basi, ikiwajibika, abadilishe maumbile yake kwa kujiunda
mashavu kwa mfano, ili avute pumzi ndani ya maji. Njia ya pili ya kuepukana na pingu za maumbile ni
kuishi angani. Hii ina maana ya kujenga miji iliyoelea angani, kama madungu vile. Na kwa vile anga
haina kikomo, binadamu atakuwa amejipatia visayari vyake visivyo idadi angani!
Njia ya tatu ni kubadilisha umbo lake ili asihasirike na joto wala baridi. Binadamu wa kisasa anaamini
kuwa inawezekana kumuunda upya mtu katika maabara badala ya katika mimba.Mtu huyu wa
maabara, aitwaye ‘cyborg’ kwa lugha ya Kiingereza, anaweza kuwa na chuma ndani badala ya mifupa,
na mwili wa kawaida wa udongo na maji nje.Kiumbe huyu atakuwa hadhuriki ovyo ovyo kama
binadamu wa sasa aliyeumbwa kwa chumvi, maji na protini. Au bora zaidi, binadamu mpya wa
maabarani aundwe kwa zebaki. Binadamu huyu wa zebaki hafi wala hakatikikatiki. Na iwapo atakatika
vipande vipande, basi kama zebaki hivyo vitaundika tena upya na kumrudishia umbo la awali kamili.
Njia nyingine ya kuepukana na uangamizi ni kutumia viunde vyake vya elektroniki kama vile tarakilishi
yaani kompyuta, na mitambo mingine kama hiyo. Binadamu anaamini kwamba uwezo wa vyombo hivi
utakapokamilishwa, basi vitamsaidia kwa lolote lile.
Maswali
a) Inasemekana kwamba binadamu anakichafua hiki kisayari chake kila uchao. Kwa kutumia
mifano mitatu, eleza jinsi binadamu amechafua mazingira yake. (alama3)
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b) Kwa nini ongezeko la joto limeleta jangwa duniani na wakati huo huo likaleta mafuriko?
(alama 2)
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c) Eleza sababu mbili zinazomfanya binadamu kuhangaika na kutafuta makao kwingine (alama 2)
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(d) Ni mambo gani yanayomfunga binadamu katika ardhi. Taja mawili. ( alama 2)
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(e) Unadhani ni kwa nini madini mengi yaliyoko mwezini hayaletwi duniani. Taja na ufafanue
sababu mbili. ( alama 2)
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(f) Kulingana na aya mbili za mwisho, eleza jambo ambalo binadamu anajaribu kukwepa (alama 2)
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(g) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu. ( alama 2)
(i)Mashavu
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(ii)Madungu
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2.UFUPISHO: (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali :
Maendeleo ya taifa hutegemea jinsi wananchi wanavyojitolea katika kulibingirisha gurudumu la

uchumi wao. Kila mwanajamii anahitajika kujibidiisha katika kazi au taaluma yake. Mzalendo yeyote
yule hupata motisha ya kufanya kazi iwapo anaweza kupata ile kazi aliyokuwa akiitamani.
Kumakinika katika taaluma fulani si jambo jepesi na huchukua muda kutengeneza. Kwa mfano, ili
mhazili apate staha ya uhazili sharti apitie ngazi mbalimbali. Mwanzo kabisa, lazima ahitimu vyema
katika masomo rasmi darasani. Masomo hayo pamoja na cheti huweza kumpa fursa ya kujiunga na
vyuo mbali mbali vya uhazili. Anapojiunga na vyuo hivyo ndipo safari inapoandaliwa. Kukamilisha safari
hii kunahitaji muda wa miaka minne. Anapohitimu huwa tayari ameimudu shughuli hiyo. Hata hivyo,
anatakiwa afanye mazoezi kila mara ili asisahau yanayohitajika katika taaluma hiyo.
Wengi waliokwishapata ujuzi huo wa uhazili huona kuwa hawatapata kazi nzuri yenye mshahara
mkubwa. Baadhi yao hujilinganisha na wale wenzao ambao katika masomo hawana utaalumu kama
wao. Ijapokuwa wote ni wahazili, viwango vyao ni tofauti na mishahara pia hutofautiana. Tofauti hapa
ni daraja zao za vyeo. Baada ya kuhitimu na kupata vyeti vya uhazili ni rahisi kupata au kutopata kazi
zenye ujira wa kuvutia. Anayefanikiwa ana safari ya kujikakamua hasa kwa upande wa uzingativu wa
kazi kikamilifu na kutunza hadhi ya ofisi yake.
Kuna mashirika makubwa yanayojiweza kiuchumi, ambayo raslimali yake ni imara. Mashirika madogo
huwa yana raslimali chache. Mashirika haya yana wahazili na wafanyikazi ambao hupata mishahara
duni. Wafanyakazi hawa hufanya kazi kwa kutokuwa na uhakika wa kulipwa mshahara mwisho wa
mwezi. Watu kama hao hawawezi kutilia maanani kazi zao. Mashirika mengine hayana utaratibu
maalum wa kulipa mishahara kwa vile hutegemea utu wa mkurugenzi.
Baadhi ya wakuu hawa huwa wabanizi na huwapunja wafanyikazi wao. Hili ni suala nyeti ambalo
linahitaji litatuliwe kwa kuwa na chama cha kupigania haki za wafanyakazi. Wakati wanapotafuta kazi,
wahazili wengi huwa ni wahitaji na hukubali chochote wanachopewa.
Wale waliobahatika kupata nafasi ya ajira katika kampuni kubwa za kimataifa, mishahara huwa ni ya
kutia moyo. Katika dunia hii wahazili wana vibarua vigumu kwa sababu lazima wapate tajriba na uzoefu
wa taaluma inayoendelea na shirika fulani. Wakurugenzi mara nyingi huwa hawana subira. Mhazili
anapotumia msamiati usioenda sambamba na shughuli za kiofisi hawasiti kufoka. Wavumilivu
miongoni mwao hula mbivu. Hawa hawafi moyo bali hujitahidi zaidi ili wasikumbwe na kimbunga cha
kufokewa. Kuna wengine ambao humwaga unga.
a) Fupisha aya ya tatu za kwanza. (maneno 60-70) (alama 6, 1 ya utiririko)
MATAYARISHO
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JIBU
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b) Huku ukizingatia aya mbili za mwisho, eleza masuala muhimu ambayo mwandishi anaibua.
(maneno 65-70) (alama 7, 1 ya utiririko)
MATAYARISHO
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NAKALA SAFI
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A. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA- (ALAMA 40)
a. Eleza sifa nne za sauti /a/ (alama 2)

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b. Bainisha muundo wa silabi katika maneno yafuatayo. (alama 2)

c. i.Nywesha
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ii.Gongwa
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d. Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo kwa njia mbili tofauti ili kuleta maana mbili
kidhamira/kimajukumu (alama 2)
Mtihani utafanywa leo
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e. Bainisha mofimu katika neno lifuatalo:
i.
Hajamjia (alama 3)
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f. Eleza dhima ya viambishi tamati mbali na kauli ya kutenda/kiishio: (alama 2)

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g. Ziweke nomino zifuatazo katika ngeli zao (alama 2)
i) Wembe
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ii) Parachichi
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h. Andika kwa wingi. (alama 1)

Ua wake una ua zuri na kubwa
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i. Huku ukitoa mifano, bainisha miundo miwili ya nomino za ngeli ya U-I (alama 2)
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j.Tunga sentensi kuonyesha nomino zifuatazo (alama 2)

i. Nomino ya pekee
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ii. Nomino ya wingi
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k. Changanua kwa kielelezo cha sanduku. (alama 3)

Maimuna hupenda kufanya kazi nyingi kupindukia
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k Tunga sentensi kuonyesha tofauti kati ya:
i. Kiwakilishi cha nafsi huru na kiwakilishi cha nafsi tegemezi (alama 2)
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ii. Kiwakilishi cha ‘a’ unganifu na kivumishi cha ‘a’ unganifu (alama 2)
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l .Tambua chagizo, kijalizo na kiarifa katika sentensi hii. (alama3)

Kijakazi Yule mzuri yu hospitalini alimokimbilia matibabu ya kuugua
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m .Tambua vielezi vinne katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
Mwalimu mkali sana alitufunza jana mara tatu uwanjani .
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n .Tunga sentensi ukitumia viunganishi vifuatavyo. (alama 2)
i.kiunganishi cha kinyume
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ii.kiunganishi cha uteuzi
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o. Tumia vihisishi vifauatavyo kwenye sentensi kuleta dhana iliyokusudiwa (alama 2)
i. Naam!
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ii. Kefule!
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p. Tunga sentensi kubainisha matumizi yafuatayo ya kiambishi ‘na’ (alama 2)
i.Wakati uliopo
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ii.Kihusishi cha mtendi/mtendaji
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q.Tambua vihusishi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)

Rais mteule alipiga dua kabla ya kusimama kwa haraka juu ya jukwaa
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r.Tunasema kifurushi cha kalamu………………cha mboga………….......ya udongo. (alama 2)
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ISIMUJAMII (alama 10)
(a) Wewe ni mtaalamu wa kutoa ushauri nasaha kwa vijana. Umealikwa na shule ya upili ya
Bidii kuwazungumzia wanafunzi. Taja mambo matano uatakayozingatia kufanikisha
mazungumzo yako. (alama5)
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(b) Fafanua jinsi yafuatayo yanavyoathiri matumizi ya lugha. (alama2)
(i) Madhumuni
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(ii) Uana
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(c) Taja mambo matatu yaliyofanyika kukabiliana na changamoto zinazokabili ukuaji wa

kiswahili nchini kenya. (alama3)
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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
102/3
KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3 FASIHI
MUDA: SAA 2 ½
MAAGIZO:
(a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali MANNE pekee.
(d) Swali la kwanza ni la LAZIMA.
(e) Maswali hayo mengine MATATU yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki;
yaani; Riwaya, Tamthilia, Ushairi na Fasihi Simulizi.
(f) USIJIBU maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
(g) Majibu yote LAZIMA yaandikwe kwa lugha ya KISWAHILI.
(h) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 7 zilizopigwa chapwa.
(i) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE.
Swali Upeo Alama

1 20
20
20
20
Jumla 80
SEHEMU YA A: Mapambazuko Ya Machweo Na Hadithi Nyingine- Clara
Momanyi
SWALI LA LAZIMA
1. “Mike! Mike! Mike! Njoo! Nilijua utafanya vyema mwanangu…”

(a) Tambua na ueleze toni ya dondoo hili. (alama 2)
(b) Changanua mtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
(c) Eleza sifa nne za msemaji wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
(d) Eleza mbinu mbili ulizozitumia kutambua sifa za msemaji wa dondoo hili. (alama
4)
(e) Tambua na ufafanue madhila yanayomsakama mhusika mkuu katika hadithi hii ya
“Sabina”. (alama 8)
SEHEMU YA B: RIWAYA
Nguu za jadi
Jibu swali la 2 au 3
2. . “Tangu lini mke amuulize mumewe kule aendako au atokako?. Ama

kweli, wanawake wa kisasa wanavunja kila mwiko uliowekwa na wazee.”
a) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alm4)
b) Kwa kutoa mfano,taja mbinu ya lugha iliyotumika. (alm2)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji (alm4)
d) Kwa kutoa mifano kumi kutoka riwayani, fafanua jinsi mwanamke
amesawiriwa katika jamii ya Matuo. (al10)
au
3. . "Kiburi kilinitwaa, nikawa sioni kosa hata nikioyeshwa. Lakini mwishowe
niliamua kulivurumisha belewa la upotovu juu ya mwamba”
a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili (al.4)
b) Tambua maudhui katika dondoo hili. (al.2)
c) Tambua mbinu mbili za uandishi katlka dondoo hili. (al.4)
d) Eleza umuhimu wa mrejelewa wa maneno haya. (al.10)
SEHEMU YA C: TAMTHILIA
Bembea ya Maisha- Timothy Arege
4.“…anachukua vidonge vyake na kuvimeza kabla ya kuketi kwenye kochi mpya.”
(a) Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)

(b) Tambua aina za taswira katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
(c) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya dondoo hili. (alama 4)
(d) Eleza nafasi ya mwanamke ukijikita katika utamaduni wa jamii ya “Bembea ya
Maisha”. (alama 10)
AU
5. “ Wakati mwingine maisha haya hukufanya kijisikia kama abiria kwenye gari liendalo kwa
kasi. Unatamani dereva apunguze mwendo lakini unakumbuka kuwa safari bado ni ndefu na
hutaki kufika ukiwa umechelewa. Basi unatulia japo ndani una wasiwasi, hutulii. Lakini
huwezi kushuka maana safari itaganda. Kwa hivyo, unajitahidi tena, japo wakati mwingine
unajikuta umetambaliwa na uchovu, shaka na tuhuma.”
(a) (a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

(b) Changanua mtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama4)
(c) Dhihirisha umuhimu wa mzungumziwa wa maneno haya katika kuijenga tamthilia
ya “Bembea ya Maisha”. (alama 6)
(d) Eleza namna maisha yanamfanya mzungumzaji “kujisikia kama abiria kwenye
gari liendalo kwa kasi”.(alama 6)
SEHEMU YA D: USHAIRI
6. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.

Jama, Jama, Jamani
Mbona twabebeshwa mateso hivi
Mizigo mikubwa ya dhiki kama
Kwamba hatuna haki ya kusema
Kukataa ndoa za lazima
Kukataa kuozwa wazee
Kukataa kukatishwa masomo
Kukataa tohara ya lazima
Jama, Jama Jamani

Iweje tuteswe mateso haya
Na watu wasio kuwa hata na haya kama
Kwamba hatuna haki ya kulalamika
Kulalamikia kutumikishwa kama mayaya
Kulalamikia kudhalilishwa kiunyama
Kulalamikia kutolindwa na sheria
Jama, Jama, Jamani

Sasa hii ni awamu nyingine
Na macho tumeyafungua kabisa
Tumekataa kudhalilishwa kabisa
Tumekataa kuteswa kama watumwa
Tumekataa tohara ya lazima
Tumekataa kuozwa....... Tumekataa! Tumekataa
Hii awamu ya ’Haki ya mtoto wa kike’
Maswali
(a) Taja mambo matatu muhimu yaliyozungumziwa na mshairi kisha ueleze kila
moja . (alama 6)
(b) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 4)
(c) Taja mbinu mbili za lugha alizotumia mshairi kisha ueleze kila moja (alama 4)
(d) Kwa nini mshairi huyu anasema hii ni ’awamu’ nyingine? (alama 3)
(e) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa na mshairi (alama 3)
(i) awamu
(ii) kudhalilishwa
(iii) Dhiki
AU
7. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yafuatayo
1. Mkata ni mkatika, harithi hatoridhiwa
Sina ninalolishika, wala ninalochukuwa
Mlimwengu kanipoka, hata tone la muruwa!
Mrithi nini wanangu?
2. Sina ngo’mbe sina mbuzi, sina konde sina buwa
Sina hata makaazi, mupasayo kuyajuwa
Sina mazuri makuzi, jinsi nilivyoachwa
3. Sina kazi sina bazi, ila wingi wa shakawa

Sina chembe ya majazi, mno nikukamuliwa
Nakwa’cheni upagazi, ngumu kwenu ku’tuwa
4. Sina sikuachi jina, mkata hatasifiwa

Hata nifanye la mana, mno mi kulaumiwa
Poleni wangu sana, sana kwenu cha kutowa
5. Sina leo sina jana, sina kesho kutwaliwa

Sina zizi sina shina, wala tawi kuchipuwa
Sina wanangu mi sina , sana la kuacha kuraduwa
6. Sina utu sina haki, mila yangu meuliwa

Nyuma yangu ili dhiki, na mbele imekaliwa
N’nawana na miliki, hadi nitakapofukiwa
7. Sina ila kesho kwenu, wenyewe kuiongowa

Muwane kwa nyinyi mbinu, mwende pasi kupumuwa
Leo siyo kesho yenu, kama mutajikamuwa
Mrithi nini wananngu?
(a) Taja mambo yoyote mawili ambayo mtunzi angewarithisha wanawe. (alama 2)
(b) Eleza sababu ya mtunzi kutoweza kuwarithisha wanawe. (alama 3)
(c) Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha nathari. (alama 4)
(d) Dondoa mifano miwili miwili ya : (alama 2)
(i) Inkisari
(ii) Tabdila
(e) Chambua shairi hili kwa upande wa :
(i) Dhamira (alama2)
(ii) Muundo (alama 4)
(f) Eleza maana ya vifungu vifuatavyo kama vilivyotumiwa katika shairi. (alama 3)
(i) Mlimwengu kanipoka
(ii) Sina konde sina buwa.
(iii) Wingi wa shakawa.
SEHEMU YA E: FASIHI SIMULIZI
8. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali.

Malaika
Nakupenda malaika x2
Ningekuoa malaika...
Ningekuoa dada...
Nashindwa na mali sina wee...
Ningekuoa malaika x2
Pesa, zasumbua roho yangu x2

Nami niafanyeje, kijana mwenzio
Nashindwa na mali sina wee...
Ningekuoa malaika x2
(a) Ainisha wimbo huu kwa kuzingatia kipengele cha maudhui. (alama 2)
(b) Andika sifa mbili za jamii inayosawiriwa na wimbo huu. (alama 2)
(c) Eleza mikakati sita ambayo mwimbaji angetumia kufanikisha uwasilishaji wa
wimbo huu. (alama 6)
(d) Unanuia kutumia mahojiano kukusanya habari kuhusu nyimbo za aina hii.
(i) Eleza manufaa matano ya kutumia mbinu hii. (alama 5)
(ii) Eleza changamoto tano za kutumia mbinu hii. (alama 5)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
MATHEMATICS PAPER 121/1
TIME: 𝟐 𝟏⁄𝟐 HOURS
NSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
v) Write your name, index number, signature and date of the examination in the spaces
provided
w) The paper contains two sections. Section I and section II
x) Answer ALL questions in section I and any five questions in section II
y) Answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided
below each question
z) Show all steps in your calculation below each question
aa) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong
bb) Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may
be used, except where stated otherwise
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
SECTION I
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
MARKS
SECTION II
QUESTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
MARKS
GRAND TOTAL
SECTION I (50 MKS) Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces
provided.
1.33×0.15
(l) Evaluate without using tables or a calculator the value of (3marks)
0.19×0.0017
(m) When a certain number is divided by 48, 72 or 100 the remainder is 3 in each case. Find the
number. (3marks)
3 849.6×2.41
(n) Using logarithm table evaluate √ . (4marks)
3941
(o) A 890kg culvert is made of a hollow cylindrical material with outer radius of 76cm and
an inner radius of 62cm. It crosses a road of width 3m. Determine the density of the
material used in its construction in Kg/m3 correct to one decimal place. (3marks)
(p) Evaluate the value of x in 81𝑥+1 + 34𝑥 = 246. (3marks)
4𝑥 2 −9
(q) Simplify the equation . (3marks)
2𝑥 2 +5𝑥+3
(r) The diagram below represents a prism whose Cross-section is a right-angled triangle.
Draw the net of the solid. (3marks)
(s) During an annual general meeting at Elimu Mixed Day, goats and chicken were
slaughtered. The number of heads for both chicken and goats were 45. The total
number of legs were 100. Determine the exact number of goats and chicken
slaughtered. (3marks)
(t) In a mixed school there are 900 students, out of these 600 are girls.
u) Find the ratio of boys to girls. (2marks)
v) What is the percentage of boys in this school? (1mark)
𝑡−1 4+𝑡
(u) Find the value of t in the equation − = 0. (3marks)
3 4
(v) The sum of interior angles of a polygon is 19800. Find the number of sides of the
polygon and name the polygon. (3marks)
(w) Solve the following inequalities and represent the solution on a single number line. (3mks)
3-2x<5
4-3x≥-8
(x) Line K whose equation is 2𝑦 − 6 = 4𝑥 is perpendicular to another line Q. Find the

equation of line Q if it passes through point. (-2, 7). (3marks)
(y) The figure below is not drawn to scale.
Find correct to 1 decimal place;

(a) Length PQ. (2 marks)
(b) Angle ABC (2 marks)
(z) The marked price of a car ina dealers shop was Ksh.450 000. Kawira bought the car at
7% discount. The dealer still made a profit of 13%. Calculate the amount of money the
dealer had paid for the car to the nearest shillings. (3marks)
(aa) The figure below shows triangle T with vertices P(2,4), Q(6,2) and R(4,8). It is
mapped onto triangle T/ with vertices P/(10,0), Q/(8,-4) and R/(14, -2) by a rotation.
t) Draw on the same axis T/ the image of triangle T. (1 mark)
u) Determine the center and angle of rotation. (2marks)
SECTION II(50 marks). Answer only five questions in this section in the spaces
provided.
(bb) The diagram below shows a solid made of a hemisphere and a cylinder. The radius
of both the cylinder and the hemisphere is 3cm. The length of the cylinder is 12cm.
r) i) Calculate the volume of the solid. (3marks)
ii) The solid fits in a box in the shape of a cuboid 15 cm by 6cmby 6cm. Calculate
thevolume of the box not occupied by the solid correct to four significant figures.(2marks)
s) i) Calculate the total surface area of the solid correct to four significant figures. (3marks)
ii) The surface of the solid is to be painted. One millilitre of paint covers an area of 8cm2.The
cost of paint is Ksh 900 per litre. Calculate the cost of the paint required. (2marks)
(cc) An expedition has 5 sections AB, BC, CD, DE and EA. B is 200m on a bearing of 0500
from A. C is 500m from B. The bearing of B from C is 3000. D is 400m on a bearing 2300
from C. E is 250m on a bearing 0250 from D.
(a) Sketch the route (1 Mark)
(b) Use the scale of 1cm to 50m to draw the accurate diagram representing the route.(5 Marks)
(c) Use your diagram to determine
(i) Distance in metres of A from E (2 Marks)
(ii) Bearing of E from A (2 Marks)
(dd) A trader bought 2 cows and 9 goats for a total of Ksh. 98,200. If she had bought 3
cows and 4 goats, she would have spent Ksh. 2, 200 less.
• Form two equations to represents the above information. (2marks)
• Use the matrix method to determine the cost of a cow and that of a goat. (4marks)
• The trader later sold the animals she had bought making a profit of 30% per cow and
40% per goats.
(r) Calculate the total amount of money she received. (2marks)
(s) Determine corrects to 4 significant figures the percentage profit the trader
made from the sale of animals. (2marks)
(ee) Two towns, Meru and Maua are 80km a part, Kimathi started cycling from Meru to
Maua at 10:00 30a.m at an average speed of 40km/h. Mutuma started his journey from
Maua to Meru at 10:30 a.m and travelled by car at an average speed of 60km/h.
(ii) Calculate:
i) The time taken by Kimathi and Mutuma to meet. (3marks)
ii) The distance from Meru when Kimathi and Mutuma met. (2marks)
iii) The time of the day when the two met. (2marks)
(iii) Murianki cycled from his home to a school 6km away in 20minutes. He stopped at
the school for 5 minutes, before taking a motorbike to a town 40 km away. The
motorbike travelled at 75km/h. On the grid provided, draw a distance time graph to
represent Murianki’s journey. (3marks)
21.In the figure below AOC is a diameter of the circle centre O; AB = BC and ACD = 350.
EBF is a
tangent to the circle at B. G is a point on the minor arc CD.
D G
350(
A C
O
E B F
Giving reason
vi) Calculate the size of
(i) BAD (3 Marks)
(ii) The obtuse BOD (2 Marks)
(iii) BGD (2 Marks)
vii) Show that ABE = CBF (3 Marks)
(𝑥+3) 1
22. a) Solve the equation = (𝑥−2)
(4 marks)
24
(b). The length of a floor of a rectangular hall is 9m more than its width. The area of the
floor is 36m2.
(i). Calculate the perimeter of the floor. (4 marks)
(ii). A rectangular carpet is placed on the floor of the hall leaving an area of 28m2. If the
length of the carpet is twice its width, determine the width of the carpet. (2 marks)
16. Using a pair of compass and ruler only construct.

1. Triangle PQR in which PQ =5cm∠QPR = 300 and ∠PQR=1050. (3marks)
2. A circle that passes through the vertices of the triangle PQR. Measure its radius. (3marks)
3. The height of triangles PQR with PQ as the base. Measure the height. (2marks)
4. Determine the area of the circle that has outsides the triangle correct to 2 decimal
places. (2marks)
24. (a). The equation of a line L1 is 7𝑦 − 5𝑥 − 20 = 0 ⋅ Find the x-intercept of the equation
(1mark)
b). Another line L2 is perpendicular to L1 and passes through (-5, 3). Find the equation of L2.
(3marks)
c). L3 passes through (0,-3) and parallel to the line L4 whose equation is 3𝑦 − 8𝑥 = 3 find the
equation of L3. (3marks)
d). Calculate the coordinates of point of intersection between the lines L1 and L3. (3marks)
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
MATHEMATICS PAPER 121/2
TIME: 𝟐 𝟏⁄𝟐 HOURS
NSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
7. Write your name, index number, signature and date of the examination in the spaces
provided
8. The paper contains two sections. Section I and section II
9. Answer ALL questions in section I and any five questions in section II
10. Answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided
below each question
11. Show all steps in your calculation below each question
12. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong
13. Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may
be used, except where stated otherwise
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
SECTION I
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
MARKS
SECTION II
QUESTION 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
MARKS
GRAND TOTAL
SECTION I (50 MKS)
SECTION I (50 MARKS)Answer ALL questions in this section.
(t) Make y the subject of the formula : (3 marks)
(u) Solve for x in the equation: 𝐿𝑜𝑔8 (6 − 2𝑥) − 𝐿𝑜𝑔8 (𝑥 − 2) = −1⁄3 (3 marks)
(v) Three quantities P, Q and R are such that P varies directly as the cube of Q and
inversely as the square root of 𝑅. Find the percentage change in P if Q decreases
by 10% and R decreases to 36%. (3 marks)
(w) A circle with its Centre at O (-2, 0) passes through a point (1, 4). Write down the
equation of the circle in the form 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 (3 marks)
𝐶𝑂𝑆 300
(x) Express: in surd form and simplify by rationalizing the
tan 450 +√3
denominator (3 marks)
6. In a transformation, an object with area 9cm² is mapped onto an image whose area
𝑥 𝑥−1
is 54cm². Given that the matrix of transformation is (2 4 ) Find the value
of X (3 marks)
1 7
7 a) Find the binomial expansion of(1 + ) up to the 4th term with increasing powers of x.(2 marks)
2𝑥
b) Hence estimate the value of (1.05)7 correct to 4 decimal places. (2 marks)
8. A computer with a marked price of Kshs. 40000 can also be bought on hire purchase
terms. Kibet bought the computer on hire purchase by making a deposit of Ksh 10000 and
cleared the balance with equal 12 monthly installments of KShs. 3500 each. Determine the
monthly interest rate of hire purchase to 2 significant figures. (3 marks)
xvii. A dealer blends Kericho tea that costs sh 300 per 100g packet with Ketepa that costs
ksh 160 per 200g packet. In what ratio must the dealer mix the two so that by selling a
100g packet of the blend for ksh 250, a profit of 25% is made? (4 marks)
xviii. Solve for x in the equation: 𝑆𝑖𝑛 2θ = −0.5 for 00 ≤ θ≤ 3600 (3 marks)
xix. Use completing of the square method to solve: 2𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 4 = 0 (3 marks)
xx. A carpenter wishes to cut a 1m long piece of wood into 3 equal parts. He
approximates the length of each piece to 0.33m. Calculate the percentage error
due to this approximation (3 marks)
xxi. Calculate length DT in the figure below given AT and DT are secants that intersect
at T and AB = 5 cm, BT = 4 cm and DC = 9 cm. (3 marks)
D
C
B
A
xxii.An arc of a circle of diameter 7 cm subtends an angle of 1.2 radians to the Centre
of the circle. What is the length of the arc? (2 marks)
𝑥 − 2𝑥 𝑥−4
xxiii. Given matrix 𝐴 = ( ). Find the possible values of 𝑥 if 𝐴 is a
𝑥 2
singular matrix. (3 marks)
xxiv. Working together two taps A and B can fill a tank in 2 hours. By itself tap A can fill the
tank in 6 hrs. Tap A and B are opened at the same time and after running for 1 hour,
an outlet taps which can drain the full tank by itself in 12 hours is opened and Tap A is
closed. Find the total time taken to fill the tank. (4 marks)
SECTION II – 50 MARKS Answer only FIVE questions from this section.
xxv. In a form 4 class there are 24 girls and 30 boys. The probability that a girl
participates in games is 0.4 whereas that of a boy is 0.6.

7 A student is picked at random from the class. Find the probability that the student
picked:
w) Is a boy and will participate in games (2 marks)
x) Will not participate in games (2 marks)
8 Two similar bags A and B are such that, bag A contains 3 blue balls and 7 red balls
while bag B contains 4 green balls and 8 blue balls. The balls are similar in shape
and size. A ball is drawn from bag A and bag B. Determine the probability that:
36. One of the balls drawn is green. (2 marks)
37. The balls drawn are of the same colour. (2 marks)

38. None of the balls drawn is red (2 marks)
xxvi. In the triangle OAB below, OA = a, OB = b and 3OA = 2OC. M divided OB
in the ratio 1:1 .
10 Express in terms of a and b only, the vectors

j) BA (1 mark)
k) OC (1 mark)
l) MC (1 mark)
11 Given further that MN = hMC and BN = kBA,
cc) Express vector MN in two different ways in terms of a, b, h and k (2 marks)
dd) Find the value of h and k. (4 marks)
12 State the ratio MN:MC (1 mark)
xxvii. A group of people planned to contribute equally towards buying a plot

valued at Ksh. 270,000. After the contribution, 2 members joined of the group. As
a result, a refund of Ksh 1500 was made to the members who had already
contributed.
a) Let the original number of people be x, express in terms of x:

a) The original contribution (1 mark)
b) The new contribution (1 mark)
b) Find how much each member contributed finally (5 marks)
c) Calculate the percentage decrease in the contribution per person caused by the
members who joined. (3 marks)
xxviii. The table shows income tax rates for a certain year.
Monthly taxable pay K£ Rate of tax in Ksh. Per K£

1- 434 2
435 - 866 3
867- 1298 4
1299 - 1730 5
Over 1730 6
A company employee earns a monthly basic salary and is also given taxable
allowances amounting to Ksh 10480. If the employees’ tax on the 5 th band is Ksh 3420,
5. Calculate the employee’s monthly taxable income tax in K£. (2 marks)
6. The employee is entitled to a personal tax relief of Ksh. 1056 per month. Determine
the net tax. (4 marks)
7. In a certain month, the employee received a 25% increment in his basic salary.
Calculate his net monthly pay. (4 marks)
21.(a) In a geometrical progression the sum of the second and third term is 12 and the sum of the
third and fourth terms is −36. Find the first term and the common ratio. ( 4 marks)
(b) In an arithmetic progression the 12𝑡ℎ term is 25 and the 7𝑡ℎ term is three times the
second term, find;
i) The first term and the common difference ( 4 marks)
c) The sum of the first 10 terms of the arithmetic progression. (2 marks)
22 a). The table below shows the frequency distribution of marks scored by students in a
test.
Marks 1-10 11-20 21-30 31-40 41-50

Frequency 2 4 8 4 2
On the grid provided, draw a cumulative frequency curve for the data. (3 marks)
b). Use your graph to determine;
( i). The pass mark if only 6 students passed the exam. (2 marks)
(ii). The upper quartile mark (1 mark)
c). Find the percentage change if the upper quartile in b(ii) above was found by
calculation. ( 3 marks)
n) a) Complete the table below for 𝑦 = −2 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 and 𝑦 = 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥.
x 0° 30° 60° 90° 120° 150° 180° 210° 240° 270° 300° 330° 360°
-2 Sin x 0.00 -1.73 -1.00 0.00 2.00 1.73
3 Cos x 3.00 1.50 -2.60 -3.00 0.00 1.50
(2 marks)
b,) Draw the graph 𝑦 = −2 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑥 and 𝑦 = 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 using 1 cm to represent 30°
horizontal axis and 2 cm to represent 1 unit on the vertical axis. (5 marks)
c) Use the graph to solve:
i) 3 Cos x + 2sin x = 0 (1 mark)
ii) 1 - 2sin x = 2 (2 marks)
• A triangle ABC with vertices at A (1,-1) ,B (3,-1) and C (1, 3) is mapped onto
 −1 0
triangle A1B1C1 by a transformation whose matrix is   .Triangle A1B1C1
 0 1 
is then mapped onto A11B11C11 with vertices at A11 (2, 2), B11 (6, 2) and C11 (2,-6)
by a second transformation.
(i) Find the coordinates of A1B1C1 (3 marks)
(ii) Find the matrix which maps A1B1C1 onto A11B11C11. (3 marks)
(iii) Determine the ratio of the area of triangle A1B1C1 to triangle A11B11C11. (1 mark)
(iv) Find the transformation matrix which maps A11B11C11 onto ABC (3 marks)
CONFIDENTIAL
Question 1
• A carbon resistor labelled X (10Ω)

• A carbon resistor labelled Z (10kΩ)
• A voltmeter (0 – 5V)
• An ammeter (0 – 1A)
• 5 10Ω carbon resistors (unlabelled)
• Centre zero galvanometer.
• 2 new dry cells - size D
• Cell holder.
• 8 connecting wires at least 4 with crocodile clips at one end.
• Jockey
• A resistance wire labelled AB (A at 0)mounted on mm scale. (diameter 0.29mm)
• A switch.
Question 2
➢ Metre rule.
➢ Screen
➢ Glass beaker (250ml)
➢ Water
➢ Plasticine.
➢ A candle.
➢ Vernier calipers. (can be shared)
➢ Micrometer screw gauge (can be shared)
➢ Boiling tube.
➢ Test tube.
➢ Some water in a beaker
➢ Half metre rule.
➢ 2 ball bearings. (size ¼’’)
➢ Some sand.
➢ Spatula
➢ Complete retort stand.
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
232/1
PHYSICS PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.

Non programmable silent scientific calculators may be used
SECTION A 25 MARKS (ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS)
1. Water is normally used as a coolant in many internal combustion systems.
Explain why (2mks)
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2. Give the reading indicated in the section of the Vernier calipers shown
below (2mks)
3. One advantage of friction force is that it enables motion. State one

disadvantage of friction (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Steel bars are used to reinforce concrete beams. Give a reason why (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. A stone of mass 50g is whirled in a vertical circle at a linear speed of

25m/s when attached to a string of length 0.5m. Calculate the tension on
the string when the stone is at the bottom of the circular path.
[g=10N/kg](3mks)
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6. An inflated balloon is left on the sun for some time. The balloon burst,
give a reason why it bursts. (2mks)
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7. Name two factors that determine momentum of a body. (2mks)
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8. It is common practice by motor vehicle body builders to make luggage

compartments of buses underneath passengers’ seats. How does this
enhance safety of those travelling in such buses? (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. An empty density bottle has a mass of 20g. When full of water, its mass is
70g and when full of a liquid X, its mass is 55g. Given that density of
water is 1000kg/m3, find the density of liquid X. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Figure below shows a system used to transfer a liquid from a tank A to
tank B on earth’s surface.
(a). Give the name of this method (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b). When some young astronauts tried the method on the moon’s surface, they
failed. Give a reason why they were unsuccessful (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. An object of mass 90kg weighs 360N on the surface of a certain planet.
Find the acceleration due to gravity of this planet (3mks)
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SECTION B (55 MARKS) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
13. (a). State Hooke’s law (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b). State three factors that affect spring constant (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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©.A spring has a spring constant of 40N/cm. 3 such springs are used to suspend
a mass of 180kg as shown in the figure below.
Find the extension of the system (3mks)
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(d). A spring of elastic constant 50N/cm is compressed 2cm inside the muzzle
of a shotgun. If the gun is to shoot a bullet of mass 20g when trigger is released.
Find;
i. The initial velocity of the bullet as it leaves the gun (4mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. The recoil velocity of the gun if it has a mass of 4kg. (3 decimal
places) (3mks)
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14. (a). What is an ideal gas (1mk)
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(b). Absolute zero temperature is practically not attainable. Explain why (1mk)
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©. A gas has a volume of 2m3 at 25˚C. What will be the volume of the gas at
a temperature of 77˚C keeping pressure constant (2.d.p) (3mks)
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(d). A hot air balloon is sometimes used by merry makers to rise to high heights.
Explain how it works (3mks)
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(e). Figure below represents a cross-section of a large ship.
i. What is the use of the large metal plate underneath the ship (2mks)
ii. The ship can carry heavier luggage in sea-water than in fresh water.
Explain (2mks)
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iii. A loaded ship whose total weight is 4000 tonnes is moving in sea
water of density 1030Kg/m3. Find the volume of ship under the water
surface (1.d.p) (3mks)
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15. (a). Define the term velocity ratio of a machine (1mk)
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(b). Figure below shows part of a hydraulic press. The plunger is the piston
where effort is applied while the Ram piston is the piston where the load is
applied. The plunger has a cross-sectional area a m2while Ram piston has a
cross-section area, A m2.
When the plunger moves down a distance d the Ram moves up a distance D.
Derive an expression for the velocity ratio (V.R.) in terms of A and a . (4mks)
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©. A machine of velocity ratio 45 overcomes a load of 𝟒. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝑵 when an effort

of 135N is applied. Determine
i. The mechanical advantage (M.A) of the machine (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Efficiency of the machine (2mks)
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iii. The percentage of work that goes to waste (1mk)
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(d). State two properties of fluid suitable for use in such a hydraulic machine (2mks)
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16. (a). Define the term specific latent heat of fusion (1mk)
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(b). You are provided with the apparatus shown in the figure below. Describe an
experiment to determine the specific latent heat of steam L using the set up. In
your answer clearly explain the measurements to be made and how these
measurements could be used to determine L (6mks)
©. A block of metal of mass 150g at 100˚C is dropped into a lagged calorimeter

of heat capacity 40JK-1 containing 100g of water at 25˚C. The temperature of the
resulting mixture is 34˚C. (Specific heat capacity of water =4200JKg-1K-1).
Determine:
i. Heat gained by calorimeter (2mks)
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ii. Heat gained by water (2mk)
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iii. Heat lost by the metal block (1mk)
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iv. Specific heat capacity of the metal block (2mks)
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NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
232/2
PHYSICS
TIME :2 HOURS
INSTRUCTION TO CANDINDATES
1 write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
2 Answer all the questions both in section A and B in the spaces provided below in each question .
3 All working must be clearly seen, marks may be awarded for correct steps even if the answers are
wrong .
4 silent electronic calculator and KNEC mathematical table may be used.
For examiners use only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDINDATE SCORE

A 1 12 25
13 11
B 14 12
15 13
16 12
17 7
TOTAL SCORE 80
SECTION A(25 MKS)
xxix. State two properties of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. (2mks)
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xxx. Recharging is one of the practices of maintenance of accumulators; state two measurements which need to be taken
to help you decide when the accumulator is ready for recharging. (2mks)
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xxxi. Two students stand 300m from a wall. One bangs two pieces of wood together and at the
same time the other starts a stop watch. They hear an echo after 1.8 seconds. Determine the
speed of sound in air. (3mks)
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xxxii. State one use of gold leaf electroscope. (1mk)

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xxxiii. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequencies
Infrared, X rays ,visible light, Radio waves . (1mk)
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xxxiv. The figure represents displacement time graph for a wave.
0
0.002 0.004 0.006 0.008
Determine the frequency of the wave. (3mks)
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xxxv. Describe the change on the image formed when the following adjustment are made on a
pinhole camera:
o) Size of the hole increased (1mk)
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p) Length of the pinhole camera increased (1mk)

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xxxvi. Two pins are hanging from a magnet as shown in the diagram below.
State and explain why they do not hang vertically downwards (2mks)
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xxxvii. The figure below shows magnetic field pattern due to current flowing through a conductor
Using . or a x State the direction of electric current in the conductor. (1mk)
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xxxviii. (a) What do you understand by the label 100W, 240v indicated on an electric bulb? (1mk)
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(b) What property does a fuse wire have that makes it suitable for protecting excessive current
in the circuit? (1mk)
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(c) What is the operating resistance of an electric lamp rated by manufacturer at 80W , 240 V (3mks)
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xxxix. Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum. Explain. (1mk)

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xl. Other than the same frequency, state other two conditions for formation of stationary wave. (2mks)
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SECTION B (55 MKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED
(y) (a) State Snell’s law. (1mk)

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(b) The figure below shows a ray of light incident on air glass interface. Study it and answer
the questions that follow.
Air
60O
30O
Glass
From the diagram determine
(i) The refractive index of the medium (2mks)
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(ii) The critical angle of the medium (3mks)
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(c) State two conditions under which total internal reflection occurs. (2mks)
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q) The figure below shows an optical fibre. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
• Explain how the ray of light is transmitted from one point of incidence until it emerges at
B through the tube. (1mk)
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• State two advantages of using optical fibre in communication. (2mk)

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14. (a) State two physical quantities that affect the electrical resistance of a conductor at a constant
temperature. (2mks)
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(b) The cell in the figure below has an emf of 1.8V and negligible internal resistance.
2Ω
3Ω
A
V
3Ω
Determine
14. Total resistance in the circuit. (3mks)

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15. Current in the circuit. (2mks)

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16. Reading of the voltmeter. (2mks)
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17. Reading of the ammeter. (3mks)

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ee) (a) Plane water waves produced in a ripple tank are passed from a region of deep water
into a region of shallow water. The figure below shows the top view of the tank .
(i) State what happens at the boundary to the frequency of the waves. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The waves have a speed of 24cm/s in the deep water. Consecutive waves crests are
0.08M apart in the deep water. Calculate the frequency of the source producing the
waves. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain how an increase in temperature affects the speed of sound in air. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
r) State one application of a capacitor. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
s) The figure below shows three capacitors connected in a circuit
2V
2µF
3µF
6µF
Calculate
y) The total capacitance of the circuit. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
z) The charge stored in the circuit. (2mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
aa) The potential difference across the 2µF capacitor. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) Define the following terms as used in mirrors
(ff) Principal axis. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(gg) The pole. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The figure shows two rays of incident on a converging lens.
F’ F
Complete the ray diagram to show the rays after passing through the lens. (2mks)
(c) (i) State two differences between the human eye and the camera lens. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii ) State the name of the part of the eye that enables the lens to focus images of objects at
different distances. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
t) An object which is 3cm tall is placed 20cm from a converging lens of focal length 12 cm.
Calculate:
• The distance of the image from the lens. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
• Magnification. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17 (a) The figure below shows a circuit with two bulbs X and Y study the diagram and answer the
question that follow.
X
Soft iron bar
Springy
iron bar
Explain the following observations
v) When the switch S is closed, bulb Y lights continuously. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
w) When the switch S is closed bulb X flickers. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) You are provided with the following apparatus; a white screen, a metre rule, and a concave
mirror and a mirror holder. Using the apparatus describe an appropriate method to determine the
focal length of the mirror. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
NAME……………………………………………….ADM…………
SCHOOL………………………………………INDEX…………...
232/3
Paper 3(PRACTICAL)
Time: 2 .5 Hours
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS
FORM FOUR
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-
• Write your name, index number and school in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided above.
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work
• Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made their suitability,
accuracy and the use made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
• Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.
QUESTION PART MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 A 05
B 15
2 A 10
B 10
40
QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following apparatus;
• A carbon resistor labelled X .

• A carbon resistor labelled Z
• A voltmeter (0 – 5V)
• An ammeter (0 – 1A)
• 5 10Ω carbon resistors.
• Centre zero galvanometer.
• 2 new dry cells and cell holder.
• 8 connecting wires at least 4 with crocodile clips at one end.
• Jockey
• A resistance wire labelled AB mounted on mm scale.
• A switch.
PART A
a) Set up the circuit below.
V
A
b) Record the voltmeter reading E when the switch is open.
E= .V (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Close the switch and record the voltmeter and Ammeter readings V and I respectively.
V= .V (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
I= .A (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Account for the difference between E and V. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Calculate the resistance R for resistor X. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART B
a) Set up the circuit as shown in the figure below.
10Ω Z
A B
P
a
b) Close the switch. Tap the jockey at various points on the wire AB and locate point P at
which the galvanometer shows zero deflection. Measure and record in the table below
the length a where a = AP.
c) Repeat procedure b) using two 10Ω resistors in series, then three resistors in series,
then four resistors in series and five resistors in series.
d) Record your readings in the table below and complete the table where X is the effective
resistance for the series combination. (5mks)
Number of 10Ω One Two Three Four Five

carbon resistors
X (Ω)
a (cm)
1/X (Ω-1)
1/a (cm-1)
e) Plot a graph of 1/a (cm-1) against 1/X (Ω-1) (5mks)
f) Determine the slope m of the graph. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝟏 𝑹 𝟏 𝟏
g) Given that = 𝑲 . 𝑿 + 𝑲 where K = 100cm, use the graph to determine R.(2mks)
𝒂
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
QUESTION B
PART A
You are provided with the following;
• Metre rule.
• Screen
• Glass beaker (250ml)
• Water plasticine.
• A candle.
Proceed as follows;
a) Add a volume V= 200ml of water into the beaker.

b) Measure the value of h, the height of water in the beaker.
h= cm (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝑽
c) Calculate the value of internal radius R of the beaker using the formula 𝑹 = √
𝝅𝒉
where π=22/7 (2mks)
R=
………………………………………………
d) Fill the beaker with water and set the apparatus as shown below.
Water
Screen
Candle
Plasticine h
x y
e) Position the candle which acts as an object above the metre rule and 10R from the
centre of the water ‘lens’.
f) Measure the object distance x.
(1mk)
x = …………………………………………………………….cm
g) Move the screen towards or away from the water lens to obtain a sharp and focused
bright image (line) on the screen.
h) Measure the value of image distance y. (1mk)
y = ………………………………………………………..cm
i) Repeat the experiment for the other values of x in the table below and note and record
the corresponding values of y. Complete the table.
Beaker 10R 9R 8R
position
x
y
𝒙𝒚
𝑺=
𝒙+𝒚
I. Determine the average value of S. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. What does S represent. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART B
You are provided with the following;
• Vernier calipers. (can be shared)

• Micrometer screw gauge (can be shared)
• Boiling tube.
• Test tube.
• Some water in a beaker
• Half metre rule.
• 2 ball bearings.
• Some sand.
• Spatula
• Complete retort stand.
i. Measure and record the diameter of one ball bearing using the micrometer screw gauge.
d = ……………………………………………mm (1/2mk)
ii. Determine the volume V of the ball bearing. (1mk)
V = …………………………………………………..cm3
iii. Measure and record the outer diameter D of the test tube using the vernier calipers.
D = ………………………………………………….. (1/2mk)
iv. Calculate the cross-sectional area A of the tube. (1mk)
A …………………………………………………….cm2
v. Mount the boiling tube on the clamp as shown below and put some water to a height of
about 8.5cm from bottom.
Boiling tube
8.5cm
Water
vi. Gently lower the test tube into the water in the boiling tube.
vii. Add some sand into the test tube bit by bit until the test tube floats upright in the water.
viii. Note and record height ho of the water in the boiling tube from the bottom.
ho = …………………………………………………cm (1mk)
ix. Gently lower one ball bearing into the test tube and note and record the new level h in
the table below.
x. Add the other ball bearing and note and record the corresponding height h.
xi. Compute the values of h- ho and complete the table. (2mks)
No. of ball bearings (N) Height h (cm) h – ho (cm)
1
𝐡 – 𝐡𝐨
xii. Calculate S the average value of X where 𝑿 = (1mk)
𝑵
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝑽𝓵𝒔
xiii. Given that 𝑺 = 𝑨𝓵𝒆
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
where ℓs is the density of steel and ℓe the density of water, determine the ratio of
𝓵𝒔
(2mks)
𝓵𝒆
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝓵𝒔
xiv. What is the significance of the ratio
𝓵𝒆
(1mk)
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BUNYORE AND KAMUSINGA JOINT PRE-MOCK 2024 EXAMINATION

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a) This paper consists of three sections, A, B & C.

For examiners use only

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2. Name the routine filed practice done by;

3. Distinguish between GDP and GNP (2mks)

4. What meant by the following terms

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a) Identify the type of erosion illustrated above; (1mk)

c) Name one agent of soil erosion (1mk)

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

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443/2 Agriculture Paper 2

SECTION A(Answer all questions in this section)

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• List four mineral deficiency disorders in livestock (2marks)

• Identify two methods of extracting honey from combs (1mark)

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• Differentiate between mothering ability and prolificacy (1marks)

• List four disease of poultry that are controlled by vaccination (2marks)

• Give four reasons for controlling livestock diseases (2marks)

a) Suggest the disease the animal was suffering from(1 mark)

b) Name the possible cause of the disease (1 mark)

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• State four signs of broodiness in a hen (2 marks)

• What is dry cow therapy (1mark)

a)Milking quickly and evenly(1 mark)

b) Milking at regular times (1 mark)

c) Complete milking (1 mark)

17. Below is an equipment used in poultry production?

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b) State the main function of the structure (1 mark)

c) Give the function of the following parts in the structure (3 marks)

ii. Source of heat

18. The following is a type of a farm structure

i. Identify the structure (1 mark)

i. Identify the tool (1 mark)

ii. Name the parts labeled C, D, and E(3marks)

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20. The diagram below represents an external parasite

a .Name the parasite(1 mark)

b. List two harmful effects of parasite shown above (2 marks)

21. a) Discuss the economic importance of parasites(10 mark)

b) Describe the ideal body conformation of a dairy cattle (10marks)

b) State the causes of cannibalism in poultry (5marks)

c) Describe the management of deep litter system (10 marks)

b) Discuss the management of bees under the following subheading

i. Siting of an apiary (5 marks)

ii. Pests and predators control (5 marks)

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BIOLOGY PAPER 3 PRACTICAL