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Question Paper Mts Examination 2023 20230317 164520

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Question Booklet Sl. No.


Series CODE : AEM – 1/23

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Write here Roll number and Answer Sheet No.

Roll No. Answer Sheet No.

Duration : 3 Hours Total Marks : 300


Declaration by Invigilator : Declaration by Candidate :
I Certify that I have checked that the Roll Number and the I undertake not to employ any unfair means in this exam. I have checked the Question
Answer Sheet Number written by the Candidate on the question Booklet Number and the Answer Sheet Number and both are identical and have
paper and the OMR Sheet are correct and the Answer Sheet been correctly entered by me wherever indicated.
Number matches the Question Booklet Number exactly.

Signature of the Invigilator with Name Signature of the Candidate with Name
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
Important Instructions to Candidates
1. The Roll No. is a 7 digit No., the candidate needs to circle the Roll No. in the Answer Sheet.
2. The appropriate Circle should be shaded for Roll No. This should be done carefully because only
the shaded circles are scanned.
3. Valuation of Answer Sheet will be done on the computer. Candidate should not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet, tamper with or mutilate it. Otherwise it will not be evaluated.
4. Please check all the pages of the Booklet carefully. In case of any defect, please ask the Invigilator for
replacement of the Booklet.

A
5. You must not tear off or remove any sheet from this Booklet. The Answer Sheet must be handed
over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
6. All questions are compulsory and each Question carries 2 marks.
7. There will be negative marking of ¼ for incorrect answer. (i.e. ¼ of 2 = 0.5 marks)
8. This Booklet contains 150 questions. Candidates must note that there will be 3 Sections in the
question paper :
Sections Test Components No. of Questions Page No.
A General English 1-50 5 - 10
B Elementary Mathematics 51-100 11 - 16
C General Knowledge 101-150 17 - 23
9. Use of Calculator/Palmtop/Laptop/Other Digital Instrument/Mobile/Cell Phone/Pager is not allowed.
10. Candidates found guilty of misconduct/using unfair means in the Examination Hall will be liable for appropriate penal/legal
action.
11. No Rough Work is to be done on the Answer Sheet and only single OMR Answer Sheet will be provided.
12. This booklet contains 24 pages.
13. Directions : Each question or incomplete statement is followed by four alternative suggested answers or completions.
In each case, you are required to select the one that correctly answers the question or completes the statement and blacken ( )
appropriate circle a, b, c or d by Blue / Black Ball-Point Pen provided by the board against the question concerned in the
Answer Sheet.
14. Mark your answer by shading the appropriate circle against each question. The circle should be shaded completely without
leaving any space. The correct method of shading is given below.
Wrong Method Wrong Method Wrong Method Correct Method

  

The Candidate must mark his/her response after careful consideration, as it is not possible to change the response once it
is marked.
15. There is only one correct answer to each question. You should blacken ( ) the circle of the appropriate column, viz., a, b, c or d.
If you blacken ( ) more than one circle against any one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
16. Use the space for rough work given at the beginning of the Question Booklet only and not on the Answer Sheet.
17. You are NOT required to mark your answers in this Booklet. All answers must be indicated in the Answer Sheet only.
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Here

W rite
N ot
Do

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Section – A
(General English)

Direction Q. No. 1 to 4 : Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions from the
alternatives given below them.

1. It had a small kitchen garden _______ the back.


(a) in (b) but
(c) at (d) up

2. The students had a tussle _______ the words.


(a) on (b) upon
(c) over (d) from

3. I have been waiting for you _____ the last three days.
(a) on (b) since
(c) in (d) for

4. Value system has been in existence ________ time immemorial.


(a) on (b) into
(c) for (d) from

Direction Q. No. 5 to 9 : Fill in the blanks with appropriate conjunctions.

5. I was reading the newspaper _________ Sachin came to me.


(a) when (b) than
(c) at that time (d) since

6. Both Mili __________ Meena are beautiful.


(a) nor (b) but
(c) or (d) and

7. No sooner did we reach the stadium, ________ it started raining cats and dogs.
(a) then (b) when
(c) than (d) since

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8. I shall take care of you __________ you are my younger brother.


(a) because (b) so
(c) yet (d) hardly

9. He is neither a friend _______ a foe.


(a) nor (b) or
(c) either (d) none

Direction Q. No. 10 to 14 : Fill in the blanks with appropriate question tags from the
alternatives given below them.

10. You aren’t well today, __________ ?


(a) aren’t you (b) do you
(c) are you (d) don’t you

11. It is a fine morning, ____________ ?


(a) is it (b) isn’t it
(c) aren’t it (d) will it

12. It rained yesterday, ___________ ?


(a) has it (b) had it
(c) didn’t it (d) did it

13. There was a large crowd, _________ ?


(a) was there (b) is there
(c) wasn’t there (d) will be there

14. They haven’t much money, ___________ ?


(a) hadn’t they (b) haven’t they
(c) had they (d) have they

Direction Q. No. 15 to 19 : Choose the correct spelling from the following questions.

15. (a) appiarance (b) apearance


(c) apparance (d) appearance

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16. (a) compenion (b) companeon


(c) comppanion (d) companion

17. (a) cirtificate (b) cartifikate


(c) certificate (d) certefecate

18. (a) exercize (b) exorcize


(c) exarcize (d) exercise

19. (a) inergy (b) enerzy


(c) energy (d) enerzi

Direction Q. No. 20 to 22 : Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles from the
alternatives given below them.

20. He is ___________ knave.


(a) a (b) an
(c) the (d) none of these

21. The water of _________ Ganges never gets polluted.


(a) the
(b) an
(c) a
(d) no article required

22. I want to buy ________ umbrella.


(a) an (b) a
(c) the (d) no article required

Direction Q. No. 23 to 26 : In the following questions, you have to give the suitable
words for the homes or habitats of the noun subjects from the given choices.

23. A peasant lives in __________


(a) pens (b) stable
(c) cottage (d) cell

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24. A prisoner is confined to a ________


(a) byres (b) cell
(c) den (d) kennel

25. A parson lives in a ___________


(a) sty (b) cottage (c) pens (d) parsonage

26. Nuns live in a __________


(a) cottage (b) eyrie (c) convent (d) cobweb

Direction Q. No. 27 to 29 : Give the names of the young ones of the following animals
with the help of the given choices.

27. Tiger : ___________


(a) duckling (b) calf (c) piglet (d) cub

28. Duck : ________


(a) calf (b) eaglet (c) kid (d) duckling

29. Pig : _______


(a) fawn (b) kitten (c) piglet (d) whelp

Direction Q. No. 30 to 32 : Identify the form of underlined part of the sentence from
the alternatives given below them.

30. The books on the shelves are for sale.


(a) clause (b) noun phrase
(c) adverb phrase (d) adjective phrase

31. We saw a bird with beautiful feathers.


(a) noun phrase (b) adjective phrase
(c) adverb phrase (d) none of these

32. If possible, let me have two tickets please.


(a) adverb phrase (b) adjective phrase
(c) noun phrase (d) none of these

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Direction Q. No. 33 to 38 : Give the meaning of the following idiomatic expression.

33. Over the moon.


(a) pretension (b) very sad about something
(c) the biggest part of something (d) very happy about something

34. A snake in the grass.


(a) a person who pretends to be a friend but cannot be trusted
(b) a snake found on the grass
(c) yield/surrender
(d) very slow in motion

35. A cold fish.


(a) untrustworthy (b) unfriendly
(c) honest and legal (d) being truthful

36. Look after.


(a) to cancel (b) to take care of
(c) to fail (d) to maintain

37. Keep up.


(a) stay (b) fail
(c) maintain/continue (d) begin

38. Call off.


(a) to call someone (b) to take care of
(c) bear patiently (d) cancelled

Direction Q. No. 39 to 44 : Fill in the blanks with the correct (appropriate) modal
auxiliaries from among the alternatives given below them.

39. __________ I come in, ma’am ?


(a) can (b) may (c) will (d) must

40. If you are not able to solve this sum, you _____________ take Rina’s help.
(a) dare (b) ought
(c) can (d) will

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41. I _________ exercise every day starting from tomorrow.


(a) would (b) shall (c) may (d) could

42. They _________ try to enter through the back door.


(a) might (b) ought (c) must (d) none of these

43. She _______ look for a book in the library, the collection is great there.
(a) do (b) shall (c) could (d) have

44. They __________ not get enough training.


(a) has (b) did (c) does (d) shall

Direction Q. No. 45 and 46 : Identify the form of the underlined verb from the
alternatives given below them.

45. Jack kicked the football.


(a) intransitive verb (b) transitive verb
(c) auxiliary verb (d) none of these

46. The dog barked.


(a) transitive verb (b) intransitive verb
(c) auxiliary verb (d) participles

Direction Q. No. 47 to 50 : Choose antonym of the given word from among the
alternatives given below them.

47. Blame
(a) curse (b) sorrow (c) charge (d) praise

48. Busy
(a) active (b) lazy (c) engaged (d) at work

49. Brief
(a) succinct (b) detailed (c) short (d) concise

50. Cheap
(a) inexpensive (b) costly (c) affordable (d) base

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Section – b
(Elementary Mathematics)

51. The place value of 7 in 752364 is


(a) 7000 (b) 70000
(c) 700000 (d) 7

52. The smallest number formed using the digits 5, 9, 3, 2 is


(a) 9532 (b) 5932
(c) 3295 (d) 2359

53. 527 rounded off to the nearest 100 is


(a) 530 (b) 550 (c) 600 (d) 500

54. In Roman numeral, 40 is represented as


(a) LX (b) XXL
(c) XXXX (d) XL

55. 3925 + 4872 = 4872 + _________


(a) 4872 (b) 3925 (c) 0 (d) 8797

56. 6251 + 0 = ________


(a) 6250 (b) 0 (c) 6252 (d) 6251

57. The number 1000 less than 10000 is


(a) 11000 (b) 9000 (c) 8000 (d) 1000

58. 39 × 1000 = _________


(a) 390 (b) 3900
(c) 39000 (d) 390000

59. 4579 × 0 = ____________


(a) 4500 (b) 4579 (c) 45790 (d) 0

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60. Ruhi’s balcony has 4 potted plants. Each plant has _________ flowers. So,
there are 20 flowers in all.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 16

61. 5 ÷ 5 = _________
(a) 5 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 25

62. For 593 ÷ 10, quotient = __________, Remainder = ________.


(a) 59, 0 (b) 59, 1
(c) 59, 2 (d) 59, 3

63. 400 ÷ 4 100 ÷ 1.


(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) ≠

64. The first three multiples of 5 are


(a) 0, 1, 5 (b) 1, 5, 10
(c) 0, 5, 10 (d) 5, 10, 15

65. The first two common multiples of 4 and 3 are


(a) 8, 12 (b) 12, 24
(c) 12, 18 (d) 12, 30

66. 45 is divisible by
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 7

67. A ray is represented as


↔ →
(a) .AB (b) AB (c) AB (d) AB

1 3 7
68. The value of × × is
12 4 3
7 7 8 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48 49 48 49

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6
69. Equivalent fraction of is
7
24 12
(a) (b)
35 21
12 18
(c) (d)
14 28

70. Like fractions are


1 1 3 4
(a) , (b) ,
4 2 7 7
9 6 5 4
(c) , (d) ,
12 11 7 6

9 2
71. − = ________
15 15
11 14
(a) (b)
15 15
5 7
(c) (d)
15 15

72. The mixed fraction is


3 4 5 8
(a) 5 (b) (c) 9 (d)
7 6 11

9
73. 4 in decimal is
10
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.9 (c) 4.9 (d) 9.4

74. Thirty four and three tenths is


(a) 34.310 (b) 3.34 (c) 33.4 (d) 34.3

75. 55.55 in fraction is


55 55 55.55 5555
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 100 100 100

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76. 5 km 60 m = __________
(a) 560 m (b) 5600 m
(c) 5060 m (d) 56 m

77. 3750 mL = _________


(a) 37 L 50 mL (b) 37 L 500 mL
(c) 3L 750 mL (d) 3750 L

78. Perimeter of a rectangle with length 7 cm and width 5 cm is


(a) 21 cm (b) 23 cm (c) 22 cm (d) 24 cm

79. If a square is 1 m on each side, its area will be


(a) 4 m2 (b) 4 m (c) 1 m2 (d) 1 m

80. If the perimeter of a square is 16 cm, then its one side is


(a) 16 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 4 cm

81. 18 : 10 hours in the 12 hours time clock would be


(a) 1 : 10 pm (b) 8 : 10 pm
(c) 9 : 10 pm (d) 6 : 10 pm

82. How many minutes have passed from 8 : 15 am to 8 : 45 am ?


(a) 15 min (b) 20 min
(c) 25 min (d) 30 min

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83. The simplest form of is
36
4 9 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 4 2 3

2
84. Work out the values of of 80 kg.
4
(a) 40 kg (b) 80 kg
(c) 60 kg (d) 100 kg

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1
85. How many sevenths are there in 8 ?
7
(a) 54 (b) 55
(c) 56 (d) 57

86. 1 1
6 + 7 = __________
5 5
2 2
(a) 13 (b) 14
5 5

2 2
(c) 16 (d) 17
5 5

1
87. Find the value of 6 × .
6
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

1
88. The reciprocal of 5 is
9
9 46
(a) (b)
46 9
9 47
(c) (d)
47 9

89. How many minutes are there in 1 hour ?


(a) 60 (b) 120
(c) 30 (d) 50

90. The short hand in the clock is called the


(a) Hour hand (b) Minute hand
(c) Second hand (d) Days

91. How many weeks and days are there in 20 days ?


(a) 4 weeks (b) 2 weeks 6 days
(c) 1 week 2 days (d) 6 weeks

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92. There are _________ minutes in 6 hours.


(a) 360 min (b) 370 min
(c) 380 min (d) 390 min

93. The first month of the year is


(a) April (b) January
(c) February (d) March

94. Convert 7 liters into milliliters.


(a) 7000 mL (b) 70 mL
(c) 700 mL (d) 10 mL

95. Circles with same centre are known as ________ circles.


(a) Concentric (b) Interior
(c) Exterior (d) Plane

96. What is the diameter if radius is 15 cm ?


(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm
(c) 40 cm (d) 50 cm

97. How many faces has cube ?


(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

98. A pentagon has ________ sides.


(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

99. The perimeter of the triangle whose sides are 14, 16 and 10 cm, is
(a) 30 cm (b) 40 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 10 cm

100. Find the area of rectangle whose l = 6 cm, b = 8 cm.


(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 49 sq.cm
(c) 46 sq.cm (d) 50 sq.cm

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Section – c
(General Knowledge)

101. Arya Samaj was started by


(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Rajaram Mohan Roy
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(d) Keshav Chandra Sen

102. Pataliputra is located in the State of


(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar

103. The Constitution of India came into force on


(a) 26th January, 1950 (b) 26th January, 1949
(c) 26th November, 1949 (d) 26th October, 1949

104. The first woman Prime Minister of India is


(a) Prathibha Patil
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Suchetha Kripalani

105. The world Environment day is observed on


(a) 5th June (b) 11th July
(c) 22nd October (d) 10th December

106. The largest ocean in the world is


(a) Pacific (b) Atlantic
(c) Indian Ocean (d) Bay of Bengal

107. India is in the Continent of


(a) Africa (b) Asia
(c) South America (d) Europe

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108. Gateway of India is located at


(a) Delhi (b) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata

109. The animal which is called as ship of the Desert


(a) Horse (b) Elephant
(c) Camel (d) polar Bears

110. One was popularly known as Netaji


(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

111. The first Indian Woman to climb the Mount Everest is


(a) Bachendri pal
(b) Santhosh yadav
(c) Edmond Hilari
(d) None of the above

112. The longest river in the world is


(a) Amazon (b) Nile
(c) Ganga (d) Godavari

113. Which is known as the ‘power houses’ of the cell ?


(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosome
(d) None of the above

114. The planet is known as the Red Planet


(a) Venus (b) Mercury
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars

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115. The author of ‘Gitanjali’


(a) Bankimchandra Chattarji
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Mohammad Iqbal

116. The highest mountain peak in the world is


(a) K2/Mount Godwin Austin
(b) Mount Everest
(c) Kangchenjunga
(d) Nanda Devi

117. The ‘Rome’ is the capital of


(a) Spain (b) Japan
(c) Italy (d) South Korea

118. Agra is situated on the bank of the river


(a) Ganga (b) Bhagirathi
(c) Yamuna (d) Indus

119. Gram Panchayath is elected for the period of


(a) 6 years (b) 5 years
(c) 3 years (d) 2 years

120. The policy of Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by


(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Wellesly
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Warren Hastings

121. Who composed the Allahabad Pillar inscription ?


(a) Ravikirthi (b) Harisena
(c) Veerasena (d) Mahasena

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122. The vaccine for smallpox is discovered by


(a) Edward Jenner
(b) Alexander Fleming
(c) Robert Coach
(d) Louis Pasteur

123. The chemical formula of water is


(a) CO2 (b) H2O
(c) O2 (d) NO2

124. The name of the laughing gas is


(a) hydrogen peroxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide

125. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution was


(a) Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) T. T. Krishnamachari

126. The nearest planet to Sun in our Solar System is


(a) Mercury (b) Jupiter
(c) Venus (d) Earth

127. The famous scientist who discovered gravity


(a) Sir Isaac Newton (b) Albert Einstein
(c) Michael Faraday (d) None of the above

128. In our Solar System asteroids are found between


(a) Earth and Mars (b) Mars and Jupiter
(c) Venus and Jupiter (d) Saturn and Jupiter
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129. The organ of reproduction in flowering plant is


(a) stem (b) root
(c) leaf (d) flower

130. Our main source of energy is


(a) petrol (b) Diesel
(c) Sun (d) Coal

131. The energy obtained from the interior of the earth is called
(a) Tidal energy
(b) Conventional energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) None of the above

132. The main gas in the atmosphere is


(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Helium (d) Argon

133. The famous Jaipur is situated in the State of


(a) Uttarakhand (b) Assam
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tripura

134. Which one of the following gas that we use for breathing ?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) All the above

135. The SI unit of the length is


(a) Metre
(b) Centimetre
(c) Kilometre
(d) All the above

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136. The Republic day is observed on


(a) 25th November
(b) 25th January
(c) 26th January
(d) 25th February

137. The currency of United States of America is


(a) Dollar (b) Pound
(c) Yuan (d) Rubel

138. The present President of India is


(a) Ram nath Kovind
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Draupadi Murmu
(d) None of the above

139. The Commander in Chief of all the three Armed Forces is


(a) President (b) Vice President
(c) Defence Minister (d) prime Minister

140. The capital of Karnataka is


(a) Mumbai (b) Pune
(c) Belagavi (d) Bengaluru

141. _________ is a war monument built with stone by the adis to fight against the
Britisher in 1894 A.D.
(a) Jaswant garh (b) Bo-ngal Yapgo
(c) Pangsau (d) Chag Zam

142. The Dandi March took place in


(a) 1942
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1932

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143. _________ was the first recipient of Arunachal Ratna Award.


(a) Hangpan Dada
(b) Bomto Kamdak
(c) R. Bob Khathing
(d) Chayang Tajo

144. This newest District formed in 2012 was carved out of


(a) Tirap (b) Papum Pare
(c) Upper Siang (d) Tawang

145. K.A.A. Raja was the first ________ of Arunachal Pradesh.


(a) Chief Minister (b) Governor
(c) Speaker (d) Lieutenant Governor

146. Arunachal Pradesh became a State from a Union Territory in


(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988

147. Nehru Van Udyaan is situated at


(a) Pasighat (b) Roing
(c) Bhalukpong (d) Yingkiong

148. In 1965, Arunachal Pradesh had ________ Districts.


(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

149. ________ is the longest bridge in India over water.


(a) Dibang (b) Dhola-Sadiya
(c) Narayan Setu (d) Bogibeel

150. Apple orchard is located at this place of Arunachal Pradesh


(a) Itanagar (b) Tawang
(c) Papum pare (d) Shergaon

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