REDEEMER’S SECONDARY SCHOOL

ZONE C, BOLORUNDURO QUARTERS, EMURE-ILE OWO

HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT
CLASS: SS ONE

INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions and show all workings. Leave no question unsolved, ensure to
find solution to all questions.
MATHEMATICS
1. If U = {L, O, N, D, O, N} and S = {O, N, D, O}, then S’ = ______ (a) Ø (b) {L, O, N, D} (c) {L, N}
(d) {L}.
2. (1.28 x 104) ÷ (6.4 x 102) is equal to (a) 2 x 10-5 (b) 2 x 10-1 (c) 2 x 109 (d) 2 x 101
3. Simplify log 2 (1/32) (a) 5 (b) 1/5 (c) -5 (d) 1 (e) 0
4. Simplify 36½ x 64−⅓ x 5° A. 0. B. 1 /24. C. ⅔. D. 1½.
5. If log10 a = 4, find a, in base 10 (a) 0.4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 1000 (e) 10000
6. If P = {3,5, 6}, Q = {4, 5, 6}, find P n Q (a) {3, 4} (b) {4,5} (c) {5, 6} (d) {4, 6} (e) {3, 6}
7. If P = {3, 7, 11, 13} and Q = {2, 4, 8, 16}, which of the following is correct? (a) (P n Q) = {2, 3, 4, 12}
(b) n(P n Q) = 4 (c) P u Q = v{ } (d) P n Q = { } (e) n(P n Q) = 8
8. Express the product of 0.0043 and 2000 in standard form. (a) 8.3 x 10-3 (b) 8.6 x 10-2 (c) 8.6 x 101 (d) 8.6 x 10-3
(e) 8.3 x 10-3
9. Sets that have equal number of element is ______ sets (a) power (b) null (c) super (d) equivalent (e) equal
10. Using log table =, evaluate 5.219 x 3.867 x 15.9, leaving your answer in 1 d. p(a) 112.7 (b) 122.7 (c) 133.7 (d)
422.7 (e) 522.7
Use the information below to answer question 11 and 12.
11. P = {1, 2,3,9,1/2} Q = {1,21/2, 3, 7} R = {5, 4, 21/2}, find P u Q u R. (a) {1, 9} (b) {1/2, 1, 2, 21/2, 3, 4, 5, 7,
9} (c) {5,4,21/2} (d) { } (e) {1,2,3,4,5,7}
12. Find P n Q n R (a) {21/2} (b) { } (c) {1,3,7} (d) {4} (e) {5,7,9}
13. Convert 432seven to base four (a) 219 (b) 912 (c) 3123 (d) 23313 (e) 2213
14. Express 7/8 as a decimal (a) 11.11 (b) 00.11 (c) 0.11 (d) 0.111 (e) 1.011
15. What is the difference between 0.007685 correct to three significant figures and 0.007685 correct to four
places of decimal? A. 10-5 B. 7 x 10-4 C. 8 x 10-5 D. 10 -6
16. Correct 241.34 (3 x 10-3)2 to 4 significant figures A. 0.0014 B. 0.001448 C. 0.0022 D. 0.002172
17. If 2257 is the result of subtracting 4577 from 7056 in base n, find n. A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11
18. Sets that contains all elements that are used in a given problem is _____ sets (a) subsets (b) unity (c) universal
(d) empty (e) power
19. If X10 = 12145, find x. (a) 814 (b) 184 (c) 884 (d) 182 (e) 418
20. Evaluate (111two)2 – (101two)2 in base two (a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1100 (d) 11000
21. If M5ten = 1001011two, find the value of M. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 2
22. Evaluate 2022three – 1122three (a) 21120 (b) 21121 (c) 21112 (d) 210211 (e) 122110
23. Solve for x in 4-3x = 1/64. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 8
24. Simplify 1252/5 (a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 23 (e) 33
25. What is the product of 27/5 – (3)3 and (1/5)? A. 5 B. 3 C. 1 D. 1/25
26. Evaluate (53.75)3 (a) 5.1912 (b) 4.1012 (c) 155300 (d) 5.1812 (e) 5.375
27. Evaluate 64.592 (a) 1.8102 (b) 4171 (c) 3.6204 (d) 0.6123 (e) 7.3807
28. Find the number of element in the set A = {x : 7 < x < 11, x is a prime number (a) n(A) = 0
(b) n(A) = {5, 8} (c) n( A) = {} (d) n(A) = {8,9,10} (e) n(A) = nil
29. Using a set builder notation rewrite B = {3,4, 5,6 . . .} (a) {x: x ≥ 3, x ϵ ƶ} (b) x : 8 ≤ 14, x ϵ ƶ}
(c) {x : 7 < x ϵ ƶ} (d) {x : x < 25, x ϵ ƶ} (e) {x : x < 2, x ϵ ƶ}
30. Express, correct to THREE significant figure, 0.003597 (a) 0.359 (b) 0.004 (c) 0.00360 (d) 0.00359
(e) 0.03509
31. Evaluate: (0.064)-1/3 (a) 5/2 (b) 2/3 (c) -2/3 (d) -5/2 (e) 3/2
 32. If T = {prime number} and M = {odd number} are subsets of ℳ = {x : 0 < x ≤ 10, and x is an integer}, find (T’
∩ M’). (a) {4,6,8,10) (b) {1,4,6,8,10} (c) {1,2,4,6,8,10} (d) {1,2,3,5,7,8,9} (e) {5,9,0}
33. Evaluate 240six ÷ 20six , (a) 13six (b) 12six (c) 15six (d) 33six (e) 14six
34. If 23y = 1111two, find the value of y. (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 2
35. Evaluate log100 0.0001 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) -2
36. Solve for x, if 128x = 0.25 (a) -1/7 (b) -2/7 (c) 1/7 (d) 2/7 (e) 3/7
37. Convert 20C15 to a denary number (a) 45010 (b) 55010 (c) 24010 (d) 46210 (e) 12210
38. Evaluate 75.26 ÷ 2.581 (a) 1.8765 (b) 1.4647 (c) 29.16 (d) 16.28 (e) 2916
39. Sets of all possible subsets is the _____ sets (a) subsets (b) superset (c) equivalent (d) complement
(e) power
40. The number of element in the sets: B = {x : x ≤ 7, x ϵ ƶ} (a) {. . . 4,6,7} (b) . . . 3,4,5,6,7} (c) 7,8,6,5,. . . }
(d) . . . 1,2,3,4,5} (e) {}
41. If a:c = ¼ : 3/8 and b:c = 1/3, 4/9, then a:c is (a) 8:9 (b) 9:8 (c) 1:2 (d) 3:8
42. If a: b = 3: 4 and m : n =2 : 5, find a/m : b/n (a) 3 : 10 (b) 10 : 3 (c) 8 : 15 (d) 15 : 8
43. Solve for n: 4n-1 x 52n-2 x 10n = 1 (d) 2/3 (b) ¾ (c) 1(d) 5/4
44. Evaluate (30 – 9-1/2)-3 (a) 3/2 (b) 27/8 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/9
45. Solve the equation 3x-2 = 4/27 (a) 4/81 (b) 81/4 (c) 2/9 (d) 9/2
46. Solve for x: 5(2x-3) = 160 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
47. Simplify √ (64 r−6 ) 1/2 A. r B. 2r C. 1/2r D. 2/r
3

48. What is the difference between 0.007685 correct to three significant figures and 0.007685 correct to four
places of decimal? A. 10-5 B. 7 x 10-4 C. 8 x 10-5 D. 10 -6
49. Find the value of (0.006)3 + (0.004)3 in standard form. A. 2.8 X 10-9 B 2.8 X 10-8 C. 2.8 X 10-7
D. 2.8 X 10-6
50. Evaluate log2 0.125 (a) -3 (b) 3 (c) -2 (d) 2

SECTION B: THEORY
PART I
Answer all questions in this part
1 1
9 4 X 27 2
1(a) If 3(6-9x) = 27(1-2x), find the value of x (b) Simplify 1
2
81
x−2
2x+1 81 3x
2(a) If 9 =
3
x find x (b) if 4 = 16x+1, find the value of x
-1/4
3 (a) (i) Evaluate: 81 X 361/2 X 100 (ii) Simplify: 2
-3
X 163/4 X 20
(b) Evaluate: (i) Log2 0.125 (ii) Log2 0.2 (iii) Log3 81 (iv) Log10 1000
4 1
4 (a) Simplify ( 5 + 2 ¿ ÷(25 −14 )
3 3
(b) Convert 2440125 to base 8

PART II
Answer three (3) questions from this part
5(a) In a school of 160 pupils, 75 have pencils, 87 have pens and 93 have rulers. 25 have both pencils and pens, 30
have both pencils and rulers while 47 have both pens and rulers. Each pupil has at least one of the three items
(i) Draw a Venn diagram to illustrate this information
(ii) How many pupils have pencils only?
(b) Let μ= {x: 0 ≤ x ≤ 10 }, Q = {x: x is even 2 ≤ x ≤8}, R = { x: x is odd 1 ≤ x ≤ 9}
(i) List the elements in μ

(ii) List the elements in Q

(iii) List the elements in R

(iv) Use a Venn diagram to illustrate the relationship between μ, Q and R
(a) RI (b) Q ꓵ R (c) R ꓵ Q (d) R ꓵ μ (e) R ∪ Q (f) RI ∩ Q (g) (R ∩ Q)I

6(a) (i) Simplify the following

196 -1/2
(a)40.5 (b) 0.125-1/3 (c) [ 225 ¿

3 1
(ii) Simplify the following: (a) 18t ÷ (3t)2 (b) 4a3b X (3ab)-3 (c) 8 (-2x2)3
2(x-1)
(b) (i) If 5 X 5x+1 = 0.04, what is the value of x?
x-1 1
(ii) Solve the equation (a) (0.25) = 32 (b) 5x = 625

3 1
7(a) (i) Write each of the following in logarithm form (a) 2 = 8 (b) 10-4 = 10000 (c) x
5
= 243
(ii) Write each of the following in index form
1 1
(a) Log49 y = 2 (b) Log9 y = 2 (c) Log10 x = -1 (d) Log6 216 = a

7(b) Find the value of the unknown from the following

(i) Log4 64 = x (ii) Log8 0.0625 = p (iii) Log4 8 = x-1 (iv) Logy 100 = 2
8(a) Evaluate the following using logarithm table

(i) √4 854 (ii) √3 972.7 (iii) (27.52)2

8(b) Solve the following using logarithm table
1

√
2
9.6230 X 2.340 2
(i) (ii) (35.20) ×(17.45)
5.310 X 3.721 (3.15)2 × 8.150

CHEMISTRY
1. The IUPAC name for NA2SO4 is? (a) Sodium (IV) sulphate (b) Sodium tetraoxosulphate(VI) (c) Sodium
tetraoxide (d) Sodium (IV) sulphate
2. Soluble salt which is not decomposed by heat can be recovered from solution by a process called (a)
crystallization (b) evaporation to dryness (c) distillation (d) chromatography
3. Which of the following substances is a mixture? (a) soap (b) tin (c) milk (d) sand
4. The atomic number of Caesium is 55 and its atomic mass is 133. The nucleus of Caesium atom contains (a) 78
protons and 55 electrons (b) 55 protons and 78 neutrons (c) 55 protons and 78 electrons (d) 78 protons and 55
neutrons
5. The number 6.02 ×1023 is called (a) Avogadro’s constant (b) Charles constant (c) Magic number (d) Atomic
number
6. The mixture of liquefied air can be separated by (a) simple distillation (b) fractional distillation (c) evaporation
(d) condensation
7. What is the volume occupied by 2 moles of ammonia at s.t.p? (a) 44.8dm3 (b) 22.4dm3 (c) 11.2dm3 (d) 5.6dm3
8. Which of the following substances sublime when heated? (a) sodium chloride (b) calcium chloride (c)
magnesium chloride (d) aluminum chloride
9. Which of the following separation techniques would show that black ink is a mixture of chemical compounds?
(a) crystallization (b) chromatography (c) filtration (d) sublimation
10. The formula for Empirical formula is
% by mass mole % purity mole
( a ) Mole ratio= ( b ) Mass= ( c ) Atomic number= (d )
relative atomic mass atomic number molecular mass molar mass
11. Which of the following methods is applied in garri processing industry? (a) distillation (b) sieving (c)
decantation (d) sedimentation
12. A salt that decomposes on heating can be recovered from solution by (a) evaporation to dryness (b)
decantation (c) sedimentation (d) crystallization
13. A mixture of common salt, ammonium chloride and sand can best be separated by (a) dissolution in water,
filtration and sublimation (b) sublimation, dissolution in water and filtration (c) filtration and evaporation (d)
heating.
14. A mixture of chalk particles and water can be separated by (a) centrifugation (b) chromatography (c) filtration
(d) sieving
15. The components of ink can be separated by (a) chromatography (b) filtration (c) crystallization (d) sublimation
16. Two miscible liquids with boiling points of 750C and 850C respectively can be separated by (a) crystallization
(b) evaporation (c) fractional distillation (d) simple Distillation
17. When a substance changes directly from the solid state to the gaseous state without forming a liquid, the
substance is said to (a) condense (b) evaporate (c) sublime (d) precipitate
18. A mixture of oil and water can be separated by (a) evaporation (b) separating funnel method (c) sieving (d)
Sublimation
19. Find the number of mole of 2g of Argon (Ar = 38) (a) 0.52mol (b) 0.053mol (c) 2mol (d) 0.02
20. If the empirical formula of a compound with relative molecular mass 180 is CH 2O, what is the molecular
formula? ( C=12, O=16, H=1 ) (a) C6H12O6 (b) C3H12O3 (c) CH202 (d) C2H4O2
21. The mass number of an element whose atom contains 13 electrons, 13 protons and 14 neutrons is (a) 13 (b)
26 (c) 27 (d) 40
22. What is the oxidation number of iodine in IO3- ? (a) 5 (b) +5 (c) 0 (d) +4
23. Calculate the percentage by mass of nitrogen in calcium trioxonitrate(v)(A) 8.5% (B) 13.1% (C) 17.1% (D)
27.6%
24. The stability of a noble gas is due to the fact that they (a) have no electron in their outermost shells (b) have
duplet or octet electron configuration (c) belong to group zero of the periodic table (d) are volatile in nature
25. An element is represented as 37 .
17 F What is the total number of Protons and neutrons in the nucleus? (a) 15 (b)

17 (c) 20 (d) 37
26. What is the change in the oxidation number of phosphorus in the reaction below? H3PO3 →H3PO4 (a) 0 to 5
(b) +4 to +2 (c) +3 to +5 (d) +4 to +10
27. A metallic ion X2+ with an inert gas structure contains 18 electrons. How many protons are there in this ion? (a)
20 (b) 18 (c) 16 (d) 8
28. What is the correct IUPAC name for NO2- (a) Trioxonitrate(IV) ion (b) Dioxonitrate(III) ion (c)
Dioxonitate(IV) ion (d) Trioxonitrate(III) ion
29. Which of the following is a physical change? (a) The decaying of substances (b) The dissolution of sodium
metal in water (c) the dissolution of sodium chloride in water (d) The passing of steam over heated iron
30. Which of the following has a negative charge (a) Electron (b) Neutron (c) Photons (d) Protons
31. An element X forms the following compounds with chlorine XCl4, XCl3, XCl2. This illustrates the ____ (a) law
of multiple proportion (b) law of chemical proportion (c) law of simple proportion (d) law of conservation of
mass
32. The oxidation state of Chlorine in Potassium trioxochlorate(v) (a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +5
33. Which of the following statements is true when potassium atom forms ion? (a) it gains one electron and
becomes neutral (b) its atomic number increases (d) it achieves electronic configuration of argon (d)it loses one
proton
34. The following is an arrangement of elements in order of decreasing number of outer electrons. Which of the
elements is wrongly placed? ALUMINIUM, CHLORINE, SILIICON, MAGNESIUM , SODIUM (a) chlorine
(b) aluminum (c) silicon (d) magnesium
35. When a bottle of coca-cola is opened, bubbles of gas are evolved. The gas is (a) hydrogen (b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide (d) sulphurdioxide
36. How many atoms of Oxygen are in the formula Zn(NO3)2? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 12
37. An element with an atomic number 19 has the electronic configuration (a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6
3s23p6 4s1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4s1
38. In the following chemical equation wFe2O3 + xCO2  yFe + zCO2 , the values of w, x, y and z are respectively
(a) 1, 3, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 5, 1 and 2 (c) 1, 6, 3 and 7 (d) 4, 2, 2 and 1
39. The equation of formation of water is given as 2H2 + O2  2H2O. If 2g of hydrogen is sparked with oxygen to
give water, how many grams of the water will be produced? (a) 18g (b) 6g (c) 36g (d) 10g
40. The relative molecular mass of Calcium trioxocarbonate (iv) is A. 100g B. 106 C. 100 D. 106g (Ca = 40, C=
12, O = 16)
41. The Oxidation number of Manganese in KMnO4 is (a) +7 (b) +6 (c) +5 (d) +4
42. What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in Al(NO3)3 (a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +5 (d) +7
43. A hydrocarbon containing 88.9% carbon has the empirical formula ____ if (H = 1, C = 12) (a) CH (b) CH2 (c)
C2H3 (c) C2H5
44. Which of the following elements is diatomic? (a) Oxygen (b) Neon (c) Sodium (d) Iron
45. The number of unpaired electrons in at atom of 8Q is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
46. The chemical formula for Chromium(III) tetraoxosulphate(VI) (a) Cr2(SO4)2 (b) Cr3SO4 (c) Cr2(SO4)3 (d) CrSO4
47. What is the percentage composition of Oxygen in K2Cr2O7 (K2Cr2O7 = 294) (O = 16, K = 39, Cr = 52) (a) 20%
(b) 53% (c) 35.5 (d) 38.09%
48. Which of the following is NOT a physical change? (a) magnetization of iron (b) dissolving common salt in
water (c) boiling of water (d) burning of substances
49. Matter can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to another is the law of
conservation of matter, this law was stated by (a) John Michael (b) Michael Faraday (c) John Dalton (d)
Olaniyi Davies
50. 3Cu + pHNO3 3Cu(NO3)2 + 4H2O + xNO. In the above equation, the values of p and x respectively are (a) 8
and 2 (b) 6 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
SECTION B (ANSWER ANY FIVE)
1. (a) Write the full meaning of IUPAC
(b) Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when the following combine
(i) Sodium and Oxygen (ii) Hydrogen and Oxygen (iii) Magnesium and Chlorine (iv) Magnesium and
tetraoxosulphate(vi) ions
(c) Write the names of these chemical compounds (i) CuSO4 (ii) FeSO4 (iii) H2SO4 (iv) KCLO4
(d) By means of orbital diagram, write down the Electronic Configuration of the following elements (i)
Sodium (ii) Chlorine (iii) Sulphur (iv) Fluorine

2. (a) What are Isotopes?

(b) Name any two elements that exhibit Isotopy and give their respective Isotopes
(c) Explain why the Relative atomic mass of Chlorine is 35.5
(d) The atomic number of Sodium is 11 and its Relative Atomic mass is 23:
(i) How many Protons, Electrons and Neutrons are in the Sodium atom?
(e) Naturally occurring chlorine atoms contains 75.0% 35Cl and 25.0% 37Cl by mass respectively. Calculate
the mean relative atomic mass of chlorine.
3. (a) Explain the following I. Relative Molecular mass II. Molar mass III. Empirical formula
(b)I. Calculate the relative molecular mass of Mg(NO3)2
II. Calculate the percentage by mass elements present in NaOH.
III. Calculate the empirical formula of 15.8% Al, 28.1% S, 56.1%
(Mg = 24, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, H = 1, Al = 27 S = 32)
4. (a)Mention any five (5) separation techniques you know stating the examples of mixtures for each
(b) Define Valency
(c) i. Mention one difference between physical and chemical change and state one example each for the
changes

5. (a) Translate the following word equation to chemical equation and balance
(i) Potassium combines with oxygen to yield potassium oxide
(ii) Sodium reacts with water to form Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
(b) State the principle that governs the filling of electrons into orbitals
(c) What mass of water will be produced when 16g of Hydrogen combines with Oxygen as follows:
2H2 + O2 2H2O (H= 1, O= 16)

6. (a)Determine the empirical formula of a compound W, which has 34.2% of iron and 65.8% of chlorine
(Cl= 35.5, Fe= 56)
(b) An industrial raw material has the following composition by mass:
Iron= 28.1%
Chlorine= 35.7%
Water of crystallization = 36.2%
Calculate the formula of the material.
(H = 1, Cl= 35.5 Fe = 56)
 ENGLISH

In questions 1-6, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics:
1. We must uphold the honour of our country (a) raise (b) elevate (c) maintain (d) rear
2. After the king had ruled for many years, his influence began to decline (a) wane (b) slide (c) flop (d) refuse
3. A good upbringing is manifested in good manners (a) designed (b) demonstrated (c) highlighted (d) returned
4. His account of the incident is hard to belive (a) suspicious (b) incredulous (c) incredible (d) untrustworthy
5. His plan is to take a lucrative job, i.e a job that brings (a) a lot of gain (b) quick money (c) quick promotion (d) a lot of fame
6. The rain has been falling without stop for several days (a) recurrently (b) incessantly (c) repeatedly (d) concurrently
In questions 7-10, choose the word(s) or phrase that best fills the gaps;
7. The dispute has been going on for too long, I think someone should ____ (a) interrupt (b) interfere (c) intrude
(d) intervene
8. Some people are ____ of those who are more successful than them (a) bitter (b) envious (c) mindful (d) curious
9. If you spray a lot of insecticide, you will be able to ____ the cockroaches (a) remove (b) exterminate (c) extinguish
(d) exhaust
10. Our teacher is always ____when we do badly in our examinations (a) elated (b) impressed (c) contended (d) irritated
Antonyms I
In questions 11-15, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) in italics
11. The school will soon move to its permanent site (a) former (b) temporary (c) transient (d) fixed
12. Egypt is densely populated (a) sparsely (b) weakly (c) rarely (d) thickly
13. The manager initiated the driver for more sales (a) started (b) resumed (c) terminated (d) continued
14. She entered the kitchen in a bold and open manner (a) confidently (b) diffidently (c) quietly (d) stealthily
15. He was indifferent to all the requests for assistance (a) saw much difference in (b) remained unmoved by (c) showed much
sympathy for (d) showed little sympathy for
In questions 16-22, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase(s) in italics
16. She is a die-hard supporter of capital punishment (a) hardy (b) dying (c) stubborn (d) fierce
17. He put the awkward question to him point-blank (a) sharply (b) pointedly (c) bluntly (d) directly
18. His version of the incident must be taken with a grain of salt (a) considered doubtful (b) accepted as straightforward (c)
regarded as not salty enough (d) dismissed as totally untrue
19. After two years in jail, the young officer is now a shadow of his former self (a) he is afraid of his own shadow (b) he is weak
and lean (c) he casts a shadow wherever he goes (d) he lacks substance
20. I don't know him from Adam (a) don't know how to describe him (b) know him, but not from Adam's place (c) don't know the
difference between him and Adam (d) cannot tell what he looks like
21. For all he cared, the match was as good as lost (a) he didn't care if the match was lost (c) he was almost certain that the
match would be lost (a) he didn't care if the match was lost (b) he was almost certain that the match would be lost (c) he was
afraid that the match would be lost (d) he cared very much about losing the match
22. People from all walks of life attended the Chief's funeral. This means that (a) both old and young people were there (b) both
rich and poor people were there (c) people of different professions came (d) people of different religions came
In questions 23-25, Choose the word(s) or phrase that best fills the gaps
23. I would like the class to recite the National Pledge____ (a) Off head (b) off hand (c) from heart (d) off by heart
24. What is ____ for the goose is ___for the gander (a) good; good (b) sweet; sweet (c) sauce; sauce (d) bad; bad
25. Both sprinters finished level. In short, it was ____ (a) dead heat (b) dead end (c) photo end (d) dead race
In questions 26-30, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics
26. The tenure of that principal was an unmitigated disaster (a) unfortunate (b) unexpected (c) unqualified
(d) unprecedented
27. Among the mountains in the Cameroun, there is an extinct volcano (a) inactive (b) expired (c) extinguished (d) unprecedented
28. The dispute between the two countries has resulted in the severing of diplomatic relations (a) stopping
(b) breaking (c) withdrawing (d) canceling
29. The loud noise of the police siren woke us up (a) clamour (b) sing-song (c) whistle (d) wail
30. The patient is suffering from an ailment that keeps recurring (a) a chronic aliment (b) a frequent ailment
(c) an acute ailment (d) a constant ailment
In questions 31-35, choose the word(s) or phrase that best fills the gaps.
31. A good government should try not to ____ press (a) bind (b) gag (c) fetter (d) tie
32. Those who ___ policy must have facts at their disposal (a) instigate (b) fabricate (c) organize (d) formulate
33. Because foul play was suspected, the dead man's body was ___from the grave (a) examined (b) expelled
(c) exhumed (d) extracted
34. We reported the robbery, and a policeman was asked to ____(a) prove (b) investigate (c) explore (d) inquire
35. The vice-Chancelor has set up____ to study the complaints of the students (a) tribunal (b) a brains trust
(c) a panel (d) an inquest
36. The orchestra was loudly cheered by the large ____ (a) crowd (b) congregation (c) audience (d) mob
37. When Roli entered the restaurant she was taken to a table by a ____(a) waiter (b) cashier (c) cleaner
(d) cook
In the following questions 38-40, choose the word(s) or phrase that best fills the gaps
38. The president has refused to give his _____ to the bill (a) ascent (b) assent (c) accent (d) asset
39. The ____ of armed robbery has been on the increase (a) incident (b) accident (c) incidence (d) accidence
40. The ____ of our troops was high (a) morale (b) moral (c) morel (d) morals

SECTION B
COMPREHENSION [20 MARKS]
You are advised to spend about 30 minutes on this section.
1. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions on it.
"Water meandering"! The mention of this topic usually takes me retrospectively to my secondary school days. It also reminds me
of our geography class. We were a set of three streams: A, B and C and I see myself in our class with my classmates well seated.
The subject we never liked was geography. This was quite surprising to our Guidance Counsellor who worked hard to ensure
that most of us offered Geography up to the school Certificate Level. Not only was our Guidance Counsellor, our school
Principal also surprised at our attitude towards geography. He had always encouraged us to choose Geography as one of our
subjects for the Senior School Certificate Examination (SSCE). He once boasted: "In the near future, I shall travel by air with one
of you seated as my pilot." We had received this encouragement with thunderous ovation, but our old geography teacher became
the spoiler.
Our old geography teacher killed in us the zeal of becoming future pilot, or, would I say, he destroyed our urge of becoming our
urge of becoming useful citizens of our fatherland.
When this teacher left and Mr. Udenkwo was posted to our school to handle geography, we realized that "Water Meandering"
was not the only topic in geography. In fact, we discovered that "Water Meandering" was not even a topic on its own. But before
this time, the only topic we knew in geography but which we could not really explain, was "Water Meandering".
Also, with the coming of Mr. Udenkwo, as young boys and girls, we began to ask questions about the competence of our old
geography teacher. From these questions, we realized that our old geography teacher was not subject specialist after all.. We
realized too that this teacher only had the Teachers' Grade II Certificate. Whether he studied geography at the Teachers' Training
College (CTTC) or not, was another thing we could not uncover. On the other hand, we discovered that Mr. Udenkwo had a
bachelor's degree in geography.
But before Mr. Udenkwo was posted to our school, much harm had already been done. So all his efforts to bring us back to the
subject proved abortive. Only one of us heeded his entreaties. To demonstrate his ingenuity in the subject, Mr. Udenkwo took his
only 'apostle' from the scratch. When we finally took the Senior School Certificate Examination (SSCE), surprisingly, this
student made a distinction in Geography. Today, this same student is a professor of Geography.
Our story is typical of what obtains in most secondary schools in Nigeria; many teachers are made to handle subjects they do not
major in, thereby "killing" the morale of their students. Thus practice should be discouraged by school administrators. Therefore,
subject specialists should be made to handle their areas of specialty, especially at the School Certificate Level.
(a) According to the passage, why did the students hate geography?
(b) Why was the school Guidance Counsellor astonished at the behaviour of the students?
(c) What did the students receive with thunderous ovation?
(d) What is ironic about the principal's statement?
(e) ".... Who had worked hard ...”
(i) What grammatical name is given to this expression?
(ii) What is its function in this sentience?
(f) Why were students compelled to investigate the old geography teacher?
(g) How, according to the writer, could students’ performance be enhanced in subject areas?

(h) Find one word or phrase which is nearest in meaning to and can at the same time replace each of the following words as used
in the passage.
(i) Retrospectively
(ii) Thunderous
(iii) Zeal
(iv) Specialist
(v) Entreaties
(vi) Scratch
SECTION C
SUMMARY [20 MARKS]
You are advised to spend about 30 minutes on this section
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions on it.
When Nigeria returned from the London 2012 Olympic Games without a single medal, the refrain among the country's sports
administrators was that the lessons of the bad outing would serve the nation well in going forward. Never again was the general
cry from the Nigerian public, who felt that the country with a youth population of over 70 million deserved better than a barren
show at the world's biggest stage. The London 2012 Olympic Games was the first competition since the 1988 Games in Seoul
that Nigeria would participate in without winning a single medal. Following the outery that trailed the poor preparation, the then
president convened a sports summit where all the experts pointed at poor preparation and low morale as the reasons for the
country's shameful performance in London.
After the summit, the general consensus was that for Nigeria to get it right again, the country must drop the fire brigade approach
to preparations for major competitions. There was also the agreement that preparations for future Olympic Games should start
early and thus many youth programmes should be lined up by the National Sports Commission (NSC) to nurture and produce
champions.
However, shortly after the summit, the then sports minister was replaced. Thus the programme and the path to success laid by
experts at the summit were put aside, first to go was the Nigerian Academicals Sports Committee (NASCOM), which was
supposed to champion the youth development programme expected to lead the country to the podium is subsequent international
competitions.
Following that was the total blackout of the majority of the Federations from international competitions which were supposed to
help the athletes gauge their standard, as well as ease the upcoming stars on to the world stage. The reason for the neglect of the
federations was lack of funds, but surprisingly, the resources always managed to be available whenever it is football programme.
With the exit of the last administration, most of the sports federations heaved a sigh of relief, believing that the new regime
would treat all the federations equally.
However, such expectations have been hampered by the continued apathy to the needs of the Nigerian sports in an Olympic year.
To feature at the Olympic Games, athletes are expected to go through qualifiers with their mates from other countries. Absence
from the qualifiers means that the athlete or team has automatically been tiles out of the games. So it has emerged that, Nigeria
may not feature in some of its core events due to its athletes’- inability to participate in some championships that served as
qualifiers for the Olympics.
(a) In two sentences, one fort each, state two resolutions that were reached at the sports summit
(b) In two sentences, one for each, state the development which hindered the implementation of the resolution at the summit

PHYSICS
1. Fundamental units includes the following except ______ (a) Length (b) Mass (c) Time (d) Seconds
2. The unit of mass is (a) Kilogram (b) Newton (c) Second (d) Joule
3. The dimension of velocity is (a) LT-1 (b) LT-2 (c) L-1T-1 (d) L-2T-2
4. The unit of Area is (a) M2 (b) m3 (c) m4 (d) m1
5. The diameter or radius of object is measured with (a) Vernier calliper (b) Spring balance
(c) Chemical beam balance (d) Spiral spring
6. The change in position of a body with respect to time is (a) Motion (b) Movement
(c) Speed (d) Distance
7. These are the types of motion except (a) Random motion (b) Oscillatory motion (c) Translational motion (d)
Circulatory motion
8. Displacement is a (a) Vector quantity (b) Scalar quantity (c) Scaler (d) All of the above
9. Convert 90km/h to m/s (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 25 m/s2
10. 1 hour is approximately (a) 3600s (b) 3600 (c) 3600 minutes (d) 3600 m/s
11. The dimension of force is (a) MLT-2 (b) MLT-3 (c) ML-1T-1 (d) LTM-1
12. A car travels in 1/2 minutes, what is the time in seconds (a) 30 sec (b) 30 min (c) 30 hours (d) 30 m/s
13. A car moving round a circular racing track takes 120s to do a lap of 8km. What is the speed of the car (a) 66.67
m/s (b) 67.67 m/s (c) 66.68 m/s (d) 66.69 m/s
14. The S.I unit of pressure is (a) Nm-1 (b) Nm-2 (c ) Nm (d) Nm
15. The agent that changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line
 (a) Force (b) distance (c) Speed (d) Velocity
16. A car accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s 2 for 3 minutes, what is the velocity of the car in m/s (a) 360 m/s (b) 350 m/s
(c) 355 m/s (d) 361 m/s
17. The force which acts at the surface of separation between two objects in contact is (a) Force (b) Static friction (c)
Dynamic friction (d) Friction
18. Which of the following unit is equivalent to J/S (a) Farad (b) Hertz (c) Watt (d) Pascal
19. The -to- and -fro- movement of a body is said to perform (a) Oscillatory motion (b) Circular motion (c) Relative
motion (d) Displacement motion
20. What describes how fast a body moves with respect to time (a) Speed (b) Distance (c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration
21. The tear and wear of the moving part of a machine is due to effect of (a) Friction (b) Mission
(c) Lubricant (d) Roller-bearing
22. Friction can be reduced in a machine through the following except (a) Lubricants (b) Ball or roller-bearing (c)
Boris (d) Streamlining
23. The causes of the tear and wear of a machine is (a) Friction (b) action (c) reaction (d) reaction
24. A body starts from and accelerates uniformly at 5 ms -2 until it attains a velocity of 25ms-1. Calculate the time taken
to attain the velocity (a) 2.5s (b) 5.0s (c ) 10.0s (d) 125.0s
25. Which of the following phenomena is the practical evidence for the substance of the continual motion of
molecules? (a) Translational motion (b) Rotational motion (c ) Brownian’s motion
(d) Oscillatory motion
26. The study of motion without considering the cause of the motion is (a) Kinematic (b) Dynamic
(c) Force (d) Motion
27. Which of the following is a derived unit (a) Ampere (b) Kilogram (c) Second (d) Ohm
28. Which of the following types of motion does a body undergo when moving in an haphazard manner (a) Random
motion (b) Translating motion (c) Rotational motion (d) Linear motion
29. Walking is possible due to the action of (a) kinetic energy (b) kinematics (c) dynamics (d) friction
30. A man travelled 5 km north, then 7 km east. Calculate his displacement from the starting point (a) 8.6 km,
N35.50E (b) 8.6 km, N45.60E (c ) 8.6 km, N54.50E (d) 12.0 km, N35.50E
31. How far will a body move in 2s, if it uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2m/s 2 (a) 16m
(b) 12m (c) 8m (d) 4m
32. Which type(s) of motion is exhibited by a turning fork struck on a hard object (a) Oscillatory
(b) Random and oscillatory (c ) Rotational (d) Translation
33. A car moving with a velocity of 30 m/s was brought to rest in 10s. calculate the magnitude of its deceleration (a)
3000.0 ms-2 (b) 300.0 ms-2 (c) 30.0 ms-2 (d) 3.0 ms-2
34. A semi-circle plot of land has a diameter of 250 m. Calculate its area in acres. ( π=3.14 , 1 acre = 4047 m 2) (a)
3.86 (b) 6.06 (c ) 12.12 (d) 24.25
35. The motion of a tennis ball in play is (a) Translational only (b) Translational and vibrational
(c) Translational and rotational (d) random only.
36. A train has a velocity of 72 km/h. How long does it travels in 192 km (a) 9600 s (b) 96 s (c) 9.6 s
(d) 900 s
37. A train travelled and covers a distance of 8km/h in 60 minutes. Calculate the speed of the car.
(a) 0.000616 m/s (b) 0.00610 m/s (c) 0.0060 m/s (d) 0.06 m/s
38. A car has a velocity of 72 km/h. How far does it travels in 1/4 minutes? (a) 300 m (b) 200 m (c) 310 m (d) 100 m
39. A car has a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. How far does it travel in 1/2 minutes? (a) 0.9 km (b) 0.8 km (c) 0.7 km
(d) 0.6 km
40. Calculate the time in minutes, that it will take a car travelling at 120 kmh -1 to cover a distance of 20 km (a) 0.2 (b)
6.0 (c ) 10.0 (d) 12.0
 SECTION B
PART I
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1a. Deduce the dimension of the following physical quantities

i. Velocity ii. Force iii. Pressure iv. Work v. moment vi. Power
b. Explain fundamental quantity
c. Define velocity
2a. differentiate between Mass and Weight
b. What is motion? Briefly explain the types of motion
c. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to a velocity of 20m/s in 20 s. This velocity is then maintained
for 30 s before the car decelerates to rest in 10 s;
i. sketch the graph of the motion, from the graph, calculate;
ii. The respective distance throughout the journey
iii. Calculate the uniform acceleration and uniform deceleration

3a. A body moving with a velocity u, accelerates uniformly for time t, to cover a distance s. Derive an
expression for its acceleration.
b. Differentiate between distance and displacement
c. The position of an ant and a spider in a room are A (2, 3, 5) and S (6, 0, 8).
Calculate;
I. the distances, OA and OS, if O is a point in a room represented by O (1, 0, 2)
Ii. The distance between the ant and the spider
PART II
1. (a). Define the following terms: i. Force ii. Friction
(b). Derive the dimension for i. work ii. Momentum
(c). The velocity of a lorry decreased from 60 km/h to 35 km/h within 0.5mins. Find the deceleration.
(d). A block of mass 10kg rests on a horizontal floor of coefficient of friction 0.5.Determine the minimum force require
to move the block when pulled horizontally. (g=10 m s−2 )

2. (a). Define the terms, i. Energy ii. Linear expansivity

(b). Explain the conservation law of energy using the simple pendulum system.
(c). A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at xm/s 2 until it reaches a final velocity of 60 m/s in 23s. It is
then brought to rest for further 15s.
i. Sketch the v-t graph.
ii. Find the value of x
iii. Find the distance travelled during the acceleration
(d). A telephone wire of length 200m experienced a change in temperature of 4.5 ° C on a hot day. If the linear expansivity of the
wire is 1.7 ×10−5 K −1, calculate the change in length experienced by the wire.

3. (a). What is capillarity?

(b). Explain while water wet glass and mercury does not
(c). In two ways, differentiate the solid state from the liquid state of matter.
(d). State two differences between crystalline and amorphous substances.
(e). A stone of mass 20g is released from a catapult whose rubber has been stretched through 4cm. If the force constant of the
rubber is 200 N m−1, calculate the velocity with which the stone leaves the catapult.
4. (a). Define the terms, i. electromotive force ii. potential difference
(b). List four sources of electric current.
(c). State Ohm’s law.
(d). A 3.0V battery of internal resistance of 0.5Ω was connected across a 2.0Ω resistor. If the circuit has an ammeter and a key
connected,
i. draw the circuit ii. Calculate the reading of the ammeter.
(e). An electric appliance takes 5A when operated on a 220V supply. Find the cost of operating the appliance for 12hours at
10kobo per kWh.

BIOLOGY
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN SECTION A
SECTION A
1. All of the following organisms are heterotrophic except (A) Amoeba (B) Euglena (C) Paramecium (D) Hydra .
2. Macro-nutrients include the following except (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Calcium (D) Chlorine.
3. An example of anabolic process in living things is (A) Photosynthesis in green plants (B) Respiration in living
things (C) Digestion in animals (D) Fermentation in plants.
4. Which of the following organelles aids the cell in feeding? (A) Cytoplasm (B)Contractile vacuole (C) Food
vacuole (D) Cell membrane.
5. _______ is the energy currency needed by the cells of the body of an organism. (A) ATP (B) DNA (C) RNA (D)
NADP.

6. The diagram above represents the (A) Digestive system (B) Respiration system (C) Reproductive system (D)
Excretory system.
7. Which of the following instruments is used to measure wind speed?
(A) Thermometer (B) Barometer (C) Hygrometer (D) Anemometer
8. Which of the following statements about the transfer of energy in an ecosystem is correct? (A) Energy increases
at higher trophic levels (B) More organisms can be supported at higher levels (C) There are fewer
organisms at lower trophic levels (D) Energy is lost at each trophic level.
9. Which of the following instruments is used to estimate the number of plants in a habitat? (A) Pooter (B) Pitfall
trap (C) Quadrat (D) Sweep net.
10. Which of the following statement is true about sandy soil? It (A) has limited air space. (B) is light and easy to dig
(C) drains water slowly (D) is heavy and poorly aerated.
11. The cell membrane of a cell is said to be semi-permeable because (A) It allows only large molecular substances to
pass through it into the cell. (B) It is actively involved in energy-production in the cell. (C) It actively allows all
substances to pass through it by diffusion. (D) It is actively selective in allowing substances pass through it.
12. Which of the following processes occurs by diffusion? (A) Reabsorption of water into kidney tubules.
(B) Entry of water into the cytoplasm of unicellular animals. (C) Absorption of water in the large intestine.
(D)Exchange of nutrients between a mother and foetus.
13. Which of these best describes xerophytes? (A) Broad leaves for transpiration (B) Shallow roots for sunlight (C)
Green leaves for photosynthesis (D) Thick bark for conserving water.
14. The process by which a drop of ink spreads uniformly in a beaker of water is called (A) Absorption
(B) Osmosis (C) Plasmolysis (D) Diffusion.
15. Arid lands have the following characteristics except (A) They may be extremely hot or cold (B) Water is very
scanty (C) Less windy (D) Xerophytes are dominant species.
16. One of these is not a plant found in rain forest (A) Kola nut tree (B) Mahogany (C) Elephant grass (D) Oil palm.
17. _____ is not an example of estuarine (A) Horizontally homogenous (B) Vertically homogenous (C) Salt wedge
(D) Partially mixed.
18. Which of the following is not associated with rainforest? (A) Camel (B) Snakes (C) Monkeys (D) Antelopes.
19. Which of the following is not a temperate grassland? (A) pampers of Argentina (B) sahara of North Africa (C)
veldt of south Africa (D) Prairies of North America.
20. One of the following organisms exists as a filament (A) Paramecium (B) Volvox (C) Hydra (D) Spirogyra.
21. The pressure developed by a solution that permits uptake of water by osmosis is called (A) Haemolytic pressure
(B) Osmotic pressure (C) Plasmolytic pressure (D) Diffusing pressure.
22. The cells in plant that divide by mitosis to bring about growth in the plant are called (A) Mitotic cells (B)
Plasmolic cells (C) Meristemic cells (D) Turgid cells.
23. In which cells of the animal body does mitosis occur? (A) Somatic cells (B) Mitotic cells (C) Meiotic cells (D)
Sex cells.
24. Micro-organisms include the following except (A) Plasmodium (B) Spirogyra (C) Amoeba (D) Euglena.
25. …………… zone is the surface of the marine habitat. (A) aphotic (B) splash (C) littoral (D) sub-tidal
26. All the following practices contribute to controlling the spread of diseases except (A) Addition of water to food
items (B) Applying saline solution to a cut (C) Using sterilization method (D) Taking antibiotics for treating a
bacterial throat infection.
27. The following are important in the maintenance of good public health except (A) Proper sewage disposal (B)
Proper refuse disposal (C) Killing all rodents around homes (D) Drinking of contaminated water
28. Setting international quarantine regulations is the exclusive function of the _______ (A) International Red Cross
Organization (B) Immigration Department (C) United Nations International Children Education Fund (D) World
Health Organization
29. One of the ecological conditions which favours the spread of malaria is (A) Improper disposal of decaying
organic matter (B) Clearing of bushes around dwelling houses (C) Presence of weeds (D) Presence of stagnant
water.
30. The following organisms are found in marine habitat except (A) Barnacles (B) Oyster (C) Limpets (D)
Bladderwort
31. Which of the following is NOT a vector control method? (A) Use of chemicals (B) Biological method
(C) Use of septic tanks (D) Environmental sanitation.
32. Which of the following is NOT a disease vector? (A) Housefly (B) Mosquito (C) Tse-tsefly (D) Butterfly

Study the diagram below and answer question 33

33. In which of the following habitats can the organism be found? (A) Marine (B) Forest (C) Estuarine
(D) Freshwater
34. Plants that float on water are called….. (A) Benthos (B) Newts (C) Phytoplanktons (D) Zooplanktons.
35. Disease-causing micro-organisms are called (A) Virus (B) Microbes (C) Pathogens (D) Bacteria.
36. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with aquatic habitats? (A) Salinity (B) Turbidity
(C) Temperature (D) Edaphic
37. One of these is a micronutrient (A) Cobalt (B) Nitrogen (C) Potassium (D) Magnesium
38. The kidney excretes all these except----- (A) Acids (B) Excess water (C) Excess salts (D) Oxygen
39. The Binomial system of nomenclature was introduced by (A) Morris Alfred (B) Carl Von Linne (C) Theodor
Schleiden (D) Charles Darwin.
40. The correct sequence for levels of organization is:
(A) Cell→ Organ→ Tissue→ System
(B) Cell→ Tissue→ Organ → System
(C) System→ Tissue→ Organ → Cell
(D) Tissue→ Cell→ System → Organ
41. Which of these organisms exists as a cell? (A) Euglena (B) Spirogyra (C) Amoeba (D) Paramecium.
42. The cell component that functions for respiration is the (A) Cell wall (B) Lysosome (C) Mitochondria
(D) Nucleus.
43. Which is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom? Phylum (A) Arthropoda (B) Mollusca (C) Nematode (D)
Annelida.
44. Which of these protects the delicate organs of the body (A) Femur (B) Bone (C) Cartilage (D) Skeleton?
45. The tough, flexible and light material that is a major component of the skeleton of arthropods is the
(A) Tendon (B) Collagen (C) Chitin (D) Bone.
46. The meeting point of two or more bones is called (A) Fulcrum (B) Joint (C) Pivot (D) Atlas.
47. The tendency of a plant to grow towards a source of light is called (A) Phototropism (B) Tactic growth (C)
Nastic movement (D) Geotropism.
48. One of the properties of cell that is responsible for the continuity of species is (A) Growth (B)
Reproduction (C) Nutrition (D) Excretion.
49. The enzymatic breakdown of organic food substances, like glucose, through a series of chemical reactions in the
cell to release energy and produce carbon (IV) oxide and water as by-products is called (A)
Excretion (B) Respiration (C) Digestion (D) Assimilation.
50. For photosynthesis to take place in green plants the following conditions are required except (A)
Chlorophyll (B) Enzymes (C) Soil (D) Water.
51. C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO 2 + 6H2O + Energy. This chemical equation rightly represents (A)
Photosynthesis (B) Anaerobic respiration (C) Aerobic respiration (D) Combustion.
52. The vector control method that employs the use of natural enemies is the ------- method. (A) Chemical
(B) Biological (C) Modern sterile technique (D) Physical.
53. One of these is not an example of estuarine habitat. (A) Bay (B) Lagoon (C) Delta (D) Lake.
54. The top most layer in a rainforest is called (A) Middle layer (B) Emergent layer (C) Upper layer (D)
Lower layer.
55. Palm fruit Squirrel Snake Bird.
 Which habitat is suitable for the above food chain? (A) Marine habitat (B) Rainforest habitat (C) Estuarine habitat
(D) Marsh habitat.
56. Which of the following vegetations is characterized by tall grasses and scattered trees and shrubs? (A)
Rainforest (B) Aid land (C) Grassland (D) Marsh.
57. Which of these organisms reproduces asexually by fragmentation? (A) Spirogyra (B) Amoeba (C)
Paramecium (D) Euglena.
58. Which of the following is not a beneficial effect of microbes? (A) Maintenance of soil fertility
(B) Recycling of nutrients (C) Spoilage of fish (D) Brewing of beer.
59. One of the following organisms is not a vector. (A) Mosquito (B) Tse-tsefly (C) Housefly (D) Plasmodium.
60. All are airborne diseases except. (A) Meningitis (B) Cholera (C) Common cold (D) Chicken pox.

ESSAY
. SECTION B

1. Define the following concepts;

i. Osmosis
ii. Diffusion
iii. Flaccidity
iv. Plasmolysis
v. Turgidity

2. (A) List any five ecological instruments and their uses.

(B) State the first Law of Thermodynamics.
(C) Construct a food chain comprising four terrestrial organisms.

3. (ai) Define micro-organisms.

(aii) State three beneficial and two harmful effects of microbes.

(B) Briefly explain any three ways by which vectors can be controlled.

4. (ai) Define habitat.

(aii) State three characteristics of estuarine habitat. (aiii) How is Bay different
from Lagoon?
(bi) Give two characteristics of marine habitat.
(bii) Mention four organisms that can be found on a terrestrial habitat.

5. (a) Using diagrams only, identify the developmental stages in a housefly.

(b) In a tabular form, state four differences between complete and incomplete
metamorphosis
(c) State two insects each that undergoes complete and incomplete metamorphosis.