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NO.1

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the
output verify?
A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 byte.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The output verifies that the tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on
both sites.
In the provided configuration, SiteA has a keepalive of 5 seconds while SiteB has a keepalive of 6
seconds.
For GRE tunnels to establish and maintain connectivity, the keepalive settings should be identical on
both ends of the tunnel to ensure that both sides can detect if the tunnel becomes unreachable.
References: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)
study guide or course materials available on Cisco's official website.

NO.2 Which devices does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control
policy?
A. All devices integrating with ISE
B. selected individual devices
C. all devices in selected sites
D. all wired devices

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Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco DNA Center configures all devices that integrate with Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) when
deploying an IP-based access control policy. This allows for consistent policy application across the
network and for the devices to enforce the access controls as defined by the policy.
References: The Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies
(SPCOR) source book and study guide

NO.3 While configuring an IOS router for HSRP with a virtual IP of 10 1.1.1. an engineer sees this log
message.

Which configuration change must the engineer make?


A. Change the HSRP group configuration on the local router to 1.
B. Change the HSRP virtual address on the local router to 10.1.1.1.
C. Change the HSRP virtual address on the remote router to 10.1.1.1.
D. Change the HSRP group configuration on the remote router to 1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The log message indicates a misconfiguration in the HSRP setup. The correct configuration requires
the HSRP virtual IP to be set to 10.1.1.1. This IP address is used by hosts on the network as their
default gateway and is shared among routers in the HSRP group to provide redundancy. If the local
router's HSRP virtual IP is not set to 10.1.1.1, it would not match the group's configuration, leading to
errors and potential network issues.
References:
* First Hop Redundancy Protocols Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S - This guide provides
detailed information on HSRP operation, configuration, and benefits.
* Configuring HSRP - Cisco - This document explains how to configure HSRP to provide routin
g redundancy for IP traffic.
* Basic HSRP Configuration On Cisco IOS XR - Cisco Community - Although this example uses IOS XR
, the principles of HSRP configuration are similar across different IOS versions.

NO.4 Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the
objectives they accomplish on the right.

Answer:

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Explanation:
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated with medium confidence

NO.5 Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand
or manually?
A. event manager applet ondemand
event register
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
B. event manager applet ondemand
event manual
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
C. event manager applet ondemand
event none
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
D. event manager applet ondemand
action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg 'This is a message from ondemand'
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is option B.
This option creates an EEM applet policy named "ondemand" that is registered with EEM to run
manually, as indicated by the "event manual" command.
This means the applet will only execute when triggered manually by a user or another process.
The action specified logs a critical priority message to syslog stating.
This is a message from ondemand'.References := Cisco EEM Applet Configuration Guide

NO.6 What is a characteristic of MACsec?


A. 802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services

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B. 802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption
keys based on the master session key from a successful 802.1X session
C. 802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the
Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode)
D. 802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol
Answer: A
Explanation:
MACsec, defined by IEEE standard 802.1AE, is a security technology that provides encryption,
integrity, and authentication for data on Ethernet networks.
It ensures that only authorized devices can access and modify the transmitted data, thereby
protecting against threats like interception and tampering.
MACsec operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, which means it secures data at the link level between
devices such as switches and hosts.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/16-
9/configur

NO.7 A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?


A. HSRP version 2
B. VRRP version 2
C. GLBP
D. VRRP version 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The customer's requirements include FHRP redundancy, a multivendor router environment, and
support for IPv4 and IPv6 hosts. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) version 2 is the
appropriate protocol to meet these requirements. It provides FHRP redundancy to increase the
availability of routing paths via automatic default gateway selections on an IP subnetwork. VRRP
version 2 supports both IPv4 and IPv6, making it suitable for environments that utilize both IP
versions. Additionally, being a standard protocol, it supports a multivendor router environment.
References: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies source
documents or study guide

NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.

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An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24.
The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0
interface of the router However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet.
Which explanation of this behavior is true?
A. Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is
sourced from the router.
B. Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.
C. After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for
the access control list to take effect.
D. The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Access control lists that are applied outbound on a router interface do not affect traffic that is
sourced from the router itself. This means even if an ACL is applied to block certain types of outgoing
traffic, it won't block pings or other types of traffic originating from the router itself. References:
Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

NO.9 Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN
environment?
A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a VXLAN environment, the VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) is responsible for maintaining Layer 2
isolation between segments. The VTEP encapsulates Layer 2 frames within Layer 3 packets (using
MAC-in-UDP encapsulation) and uses a 24-bit VXLAN Network Identifier (VNID) to identify and
maintain isolation between different Layer 2 segments over a shared Layer 3 infrastructure123.
References := RFC 7348, Cisco Press resources on VXLAN

NO.10 Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
A. MTU

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B. Window size
C. MRU
D. MSS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option D (MSS - Maximum Segment Size) is correct because it refers to the maximum amount of data
that can be received in a single TCP segment. Adjusting MSS can help minimize the risk of
fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel because it ensures that TCP segments are small enough to fit
within the GRE/IP packets without needing fragmentation.References := Cisco IP Tunneling
Configuration Guide

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)


A. R1 becomes the active router.
B. R1 becomes the standby router.
C. If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online.
D. If R1 goes down. R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online.
E. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online.
Answer: A D
Explanation:
The configuration shows that R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). R1
has a higher priority (120) than R2 (110), so R1 becomes the active router. If R1 goes down, R2 will
become active because of its lower priority but will not revert back to standby when R1 comes back
online due to preemption not being configured. References := Implementing and Operating Cisco
Service Provider Network Core Technologies source documents or study guide

NO.12 Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on
the right.

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Answer:

Explanation:
Diagram Description automatically generated

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit.

After implementing the configuration 172.20.20.2 stops replaying to ICMP echoes, but the default
route fails to be removed. What is the reason for this behavior?
A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly.
B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo
C. The default route is missing the track feature
D. The threshold value is wrong.

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Answer: C
Explanation:
The issue described indicates that even though 172.20.20.2 stops responding to ICMP echoes, the
default route does not get removed as expected. This suggests a problem with the tracking
configuration of the route. The correct implementation should include associating the tracked object
with the routing configuration so that if the tracked object goes down, it triggers the removal of the
associated route. Since option C points out that the default route lacks this association with tracking,
it is identified as the cause of the issue.

NO.14 What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments?
A. The access point is part of the fabric underlay
B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay
C. The access point is part the fabric overlay
D. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments, the wireless client is considered part of the fabric
overlay.
The overlay network is a virtual network built on top of the underlay network. It allows for the
deployment of network services and policies that are independent of the underlying network
topology. References := Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core
Technologies

NO.15

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a trunk between switch sw1 and switch SW2
using DTP, but the trunk does not form. Which command should the engineer apply to switch SW2 to
resolve this issue?
A. switchport mode dynamic desirable
B. switchport nonegotiate
C. no switchport
D. switchport mode access
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario provided, both switches SW1 and SW2 are set to "dynamic auto" mode for their
respective interfaces. This mode allows the interface to become a trunk link if the connecting
interface is set to trunk or desirable mode. However, when both ends of a link are set to "dynamic

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auto," neither will actively attempt to form a trunk. To resolve this issue, one of the switches needs
to actively attempt to form a trunk, which can be achieved by setting one of the interfaces to
"dynamic desirable" mode using the command switchport mode dynamic desirable.
References:
* Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) v1.1
* Cisco's training and certification materials regarding DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) and
switchport modes.

NO.16 A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group
CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication. This message is logged to the console of router R1:

Which two configuration allow peering session to from between R1 and R2? Choose two.)
A. R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP
password Cisco
B. R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP
password Cisco
C. R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER
password Cisco
D. R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP
password Cisco
E. R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP
password Cisco
Answer: A E
Explanation:
The error message indicates an MD5 authentication failure between the two BGP peers. The IP
addresses involved are 10.10.10.1 and 10.120.10.1, which should correspond to R1 and R2
respectively. The correct configurations to resolve this issue would be to ensure that both routers are
configured with the same password for MD5 authentication within the same peer group CORP.
Option A is correct because it configures R1 with the CORP peer group and sets the password to
"Cisco" for MD5 authentication.
Option E is correct because it configures R2 with a neighbor in the CORP peer group at IP address
10.10.10.1 (which should be R1) and sets the password to "Cisco" for MD5 authentication.
References := Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

NO.17 Refer to the exhibit.

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An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming
that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed
on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 chooses Link 2 as the entry point, the engineer can
manipulate the BGP attributes to make path via Link 2 more preferable. In this case, prepending AS
numbers to the route advertisement will make the path appear longer and thus less preferable
through Link 1. By applying route-map PREPEND with additional AS numbers on R3 for neighbor
10.1.1.1 (Link 1) and not doing so for neighbor 10.2.2.2 (Link 2), it will cause traffic to prefer entering
through Link 2 which appears to have a shorter AS path. References: = This explanation is based on
common BGP practices covered in Cisco's Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider
Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) curriculum, where manipulating BGP attributes such as AS_PATH
is discussed as a method for influencing routing decisions.

NO.18

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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into
the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves
this issue?
A. Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.
B. Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.
C. Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.
D. Change the access-list number in the route map
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct action is to change the access-list number in the route map to match the access-list
defined for the VRF leaking. The access-list number is a reference that must correspond between the
route-map and the access-list configuration. References: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service
Provider Network Core Technologies source book

NO.19 What is the difference between CEF and process switching?


A. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.
B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.
C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching
punts each packet.
D. Process switching is faster than CEF.
Answer: C
Explanation:
CEF, or Cisco Express Forwarding, is a high-speed packet forwarding mechanism used in Cisco routers

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.
Unlike process switching, which involves the CPU making forwarding decisions for each individual
packet, CEF makes use of two key components to expedite the process:
* FIB (Forwarding Information Base): This table contains pre-computed routes for packet forwarding,
allowing for quick lookups and forwarding decisions.
* Adjacency Table: This table lists the next-hop addresses and associated Layer 2 information for all
FIB entries, enabling efficient packet transmission to the next hop.
The combination of these tables allows CEF to bypass the CPU for most forwarding decisions,
significantly reducing processing time and increasing the speed at which packets are forwarded
through the router.
References: The explanation is based on the concepts outlined in the Implementing and Operating
Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) course materials, which detail the
workings of CEF and its advantages over process switching.

NO.20 Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute attacks and minimize the impact?
A. SHA-512 and SHA-384
B. MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384
C. SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512
D. PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt
Answer: D
Explanation:
To secure REST APIs from brute force attacks and minimize their impact, algorithms like PBKDF2,
BCrypt, and SCrypt are used. These algorithms are designed to be computationally intensive and
slow, which helps to protect against brute force attacks by making them time-consuming and
resource-intensive678910.
References := Cisco documentation and security best practices for REST APIs.

NO.21 When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component
configuration is required?
A. NTP server
B. PKI server
C. RADIUS server
D. TACACS server
Answer: C
Explanation:
When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, a RADIUS server is required for authentication. WPA2
Enterprise uses 802.1X for network access control and requires a RADIUS server to validate
credentials and to manage the keys used to encrypt traffic.
References: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)
source book and study guide

NO.22 Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. Which change to the first line of the script
resolves the error?

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A. from ncclient import


B. import manager
C. from ncclient import*
D. import ncclient manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
The error shown in the exhibit can be resolved by changing the first line of the script to "from ncclient
import
*". This syntax is used in Python to import all modules from a package, which in this case includes the
'manager' module required for establishing a connection using ncclient.manager.connect.
References:
* Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) training1.
* Cisco's official certification exam overview for SPCOR 350-5012.

NO.23 What is one difference between saltstack and ansible?


A. SaltStack uses an API proxy agent to program Cisco boxes on agent mode, whereas Ansible uses a
Telnet connection
B. SaltStack uses the Ansible agent on the box, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet server on the box
C. SaltStack is constructed with minion, whereas Ansible is constructed with YAML
D. SaltStack uses SSH to interact with Cisco devices, whereas Ansible uses an event bus
Answer: C
Explanation:
SaltStack and Ansible are both popular Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools used for automation and
configuration management. SaltStack, also known as Salt, is built on a master-minion model and uses
a YAML-based configuration language. It is known for its high-speed data collection and execution
capabilities, which are facilitated by the ZeroMQ messaging library that establishes persistent TCP
connections between the master and minions. SaltStack is designed to be scalable and flexible,
capable of handling thousands of minions per master.
On the other hand, Ansible is an open-source tool that emphasizes simplicity and agentless
architecture. It uses YAML to write its Playbooks, which describe automation jobs. Ansible's agentless

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nature means it communicates with nodes over SSH or WinRM without requiring an agent to be
installed on the remote systems, making it easy to deploy and manage.
References:
* SaltStack's architecture and features are detailed in the comparison articles I found, which highlight
its scalability and flexibility12.
* Ansible's simplicity and agentless architecture are also discussed, along with its use of YAML for
Playbooks

NO.24

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to
verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?
A. ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.
B. Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.
C. VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA
D. ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The status "QM_IDLE" indicates that the ISAKMP Security Association (SA) is in a Quick Mode idle
state, meaning it's authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode. In this state, the SA is established
but idle, waiting to be activated to protect data flows between peers.
References: The Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies
(SPCOR) course provides a deep dive into Service Provider technologies including core architecture,
services, networking, automation, quality of services, security, and network assurance.

NO.25

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?


A. When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4, the device will authenticate them against
TACACS+ if local authentication fails
B. The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

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C. The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password
ciscotestkey
D. The device will allow only users at 192.166.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
Referring to the exhibit, when users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4, the device will
authenticate them against TACACS+ if local authentication fails. This configuration shows that AAA
new-model is enabled, which allows for the use of TACACS+ for authentication. The configuration
also specifies an authorization list for login using TACACS+. If TACACS+ fails, it will revert to local
authentication as there's no explicit deny statement in the configuration.

NO.26 Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?
A. handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric
B. distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric
C. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers
D. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vSmart controller in an SD-WAN deployment is primarily responsible for distributing policies that
govern data forwarding within the SD-WAN fabric. These policies are central to the SD-WAN's ability
to manage traffic efficiently, providing optimized paths based on various criteria such as application
type, quality of service, and security requirements. The vSmart controller acts as the brain of the SD-
WAN, enabling it to adapt to changing network conditions and enforce policies consistently across
the network.

NO.27

Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ is enabled on all switches. Which command set must be configured
on switch1 to achieve the following results on port fa0/1?

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A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

NO.28 Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?
A. wireless client
B. wireless LAN controller
C. access point
D. WCS location server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The decision for a wireless client to roam is primarily made by the wireless client itself. The client
device listens for beacon frames or sends probe requests to discover access points (APs) advertising
the preferred SSID. The client's driver uses the received signal strength of beacons or probe
responses to make decisions on whether to change APs or remain connected to the current AP. This
process is a client-side decision in 802.11 WiFi.

NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.

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An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming
that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that theattributes have not been changed
on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?
A. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200
B. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200
C. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200
D. R4(config-router)nighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 chooses Link 2 as the exit point, the local preference attribute
can be used. By setting a higher local preference on R3 for routes learned via Link 2, traffic will prefer
this path over others. The command bgp default local-preference 200 on R3 will accomplish this task,
as local preference is a well-known discretionary BGP attribute that influences the outbound traffic
policy by indicating the preferred path to exit the AS. References := Implementing and Operating
Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

NO.30 When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network
connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this
problem?
A. Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.
B. Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.
C. All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.
D. All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

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Answer: B
Explanation:
When wireless clients roam between different wireless controllers, they should experience seamless
connectivity if the controllers are correctly configured. A common configuration issue that can cause
a network connectivity outage during roaming is when the controllers in the mobility group do not
have the same virtual interface IP address. The virtual interface is used by the controllers to exchange
mobility messages and manage client state information. If the virtual interface IP addresses are not
consistent across the mobility group, the controllers cannot properly communicate, leading to
potential outages during client roaming.

NO.31 A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local
management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?
A. Autonomous
B. Mobility Express
C. SD-Access wireless
D. Local mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mobility Express is a solution designed for small to medium-sized deployments where a physical
controller is not required. It simplifies the deployment and management of Wi-Fi networks by
allowing local management using the CAPWAP protocol, which is ideal for the customer's
requirement of managing several small branches.
References := Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

NO.32 Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic
except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Option A. This option specifies an access list that denies HTTP traffic from the

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host with the IP address 10.10.10.1 while permitting all other traffic. This is achieved by denying TCP
traffic on port 80, which is the default port for HTTP, from the specified host and allowing all other IP
traffic. References := Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

NO.33 Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH
Answer: A D
Explanation:
RESTCONF is a network management protocol based on HTTP that provides a programmatic interface
for accessing data defined in YANG, using the datastores defined in NETCONF. Among the options
provided, HEAD and PATCH are valid operations for RESTCONF. The HEAD method is used for reading
the metadata of a resource without fetching the resource itself, while the PATCH method is used for
applying partial updates to a resource.
References: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies source
documents or study guide.

NO.34 What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?


A. provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers
B. dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric
C. encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric
D. statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric
Answer: C
Explanation:
VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) is responsible for encapsulating the original Ethernet frame into a
VXLAN packet and de-encapsulating it upon arrival at its destination within the VXLAN fabric. It adds
or removes VXLAN headers as necessary for traffic entering or leaving the overlay network.
References := Cisco

NO.35

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Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set
must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?
A.

B.

C.

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D.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The commands shown in Option C are the appropriate ones to resolve the connectivity issue. The
command no interface po1 disables the port-channel interface, which might be causing a conflict or
misconfiguration.
The interface range fa0/1-2 command selects the range of interfaces to be configured next. The
channel-group
1 mode passive command adds these interfaces to an EtherChannel group in passive mode, which
waits for LACP packets from another LACP-enabled device before forming an EtherChannel link.
Finally, the end command exits the configuration mode.
References := This answer is based on the knowledge from the Implementing and Operating Cisco
Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) course

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