Combinepdf 2

-1-
DELTA UNIVERSITY
FOR SCIENCE AND
TECHN0LOGY
FACULTY OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION
ECONOMICS DEPARTMENT
CREATIVE AND
CRITICAL THINKING
UNIVERSITY REQUIREMENT
CODE 117
AGGREGATED TEST – BANK
DR. SAIED ABDEL – ALEM EMARA
2021 – 2022
-2-
INTRODUCTION
In our pursue of preparing students for real world careers and challenges and
equipping them with 21st-century skills, we often forget that as educators, we have
a duty to dream and create spaces where everyone has the opportunity to be creative
and bring out the best in themselves. The aim of this course is to raise confidence
and broaden knowledge in educators in adopting different techniques and methods
of encouraging their students to become more creative and develop their critical
thinking and problem- solving skills. In this way, we will be effectively preparing
them to be manager and directors of their own future, a constantly changing reality
where they will be able to successfully apply their 21st century competences to take
on complex and open-ended challenges.
The purpose of this TEST-BANK is not to measure your understandability of the

Topics and the selected chapters of the book, nor to examine you and put just points
and Marks to determine degrees of your course. Our common dream in Delta
University is very simple, direct, plausible, concrete, and goal-oriented. We cannot
be unique and individual without preparing our students and Graduates to be
compete, advantageous, highly sophisticated. All that means we have to concentrate
on the final destination, to weapon you with the required skills to earn the best
opportunities and job offers existed on the markets of your career. That could be best
done through acquiring the deserved creative and critical thinking skills which
disseminated along and across socio-emotional and socio-managerial intelligence as
well as the human development activities.
PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING PAGES BEFORE GETTING

INVOLVED IN THE QUESTIONS AND THEIR ANSWERS. THAT
SURELLY WILL HELP YOU TO ENJOY YOUR STUDY AND YOUR
TO-MORROW LIFE.
DR. SAIED ABDEL-ALEM EMARA

PROFESSOR AT DELTA UNIVERSITY
What Is Creative Thinking?

Defined by the Business Dictionary, creative thinking is: A way of looking at
problems or situations from a fresh perspective that suggests unorthodox solutions
(which may look unsettling at first). Creative thinking can be stimulated both by
an unstructured process such as brainstorming, and by a structured process such
as lateral thinking.
-3-
Creativity is, therefore, our ability to form something new out of what’s presented.
It’s our ability to think differently and provide new angles and perspectives to a
solution. This can translate to a new solution that wasn’t there or even the realization
that a problem doesn’t need a solution at the moment or at all.
The Importance of Creative Thinking

True that many people may not care so much about new solutions or angles but that’s
the point. Our brains have a natural tendency to fall into certain ‘shortcuts’. Have
you ever been in a situation where you hear or learn one piece of information and
you use it all the time?
I bet you have, since we don’t need to relearn how to use a knife or a fork. That way
of thinking does have its perks in those situations but has some drawbacks in other
situations. This is especially true with problem-solving.
Creative thinking and creative thinkers are needed in those situations because it
pushes out of that linear way of thinking. It encourages us to look at other
perspectives and even open up to the idea of new solutions.
Creative thinking is also important for other reasons as the follows:

Thinking creatively provides immense freedom. When we create, we have the
opportunity to engage with the world without judging ourselves. It’s similar to what
we felt when we were a child. Back then we didn’t care what people thought of us.
Creative thinking provides self-awareness. We start to think with authenticity as
we use our own thoughts, feelings and beliefs. This creates biases in our ideas, but
we can learn to set those aside and deeply learn about ourselves.
We become more confident in our ideas. Maybe right now, you don’t present ideas
or your ideas get shut down. By tapping into creative thinking, we can build our
confidence in our ideas and start to contribute to the group and our work at large.
What Are the Creative Thinking Skills?
Creative thinking isn’t barred to those who learn in creative fashions. Anyone can
pick up creative thinking skills and use them to enrich their lives and those around
them.
1. Perception & Empathy: Feeling surprised that this is one of the creative thinking
skills? Being perceptive and empathetic works hand in hand with creative thinking.
Being able to read the mood of a meeting or a discussion you’re having with people
can help immensely. This is key because there are times and places to share ideas.
Specifically, you may find the best opportunities to share ideas when:
▪ You’re facing a major problem or issue and can’t seem to find a way to proceed
and solve it.
▪ During times of change, when the future is more obscure than usual and you’re
thinking of possibilities.
-4-
▪ When there is a clear divide between what people think needs to happen. It’s
especially needed when no compromises can happen without considerable
effort.
▪ When something new is needed and hasn’t been tried before.
Empathy also helps with how an idea is presented. Maybe in your workgroup, people
aren’t always receptive to your ideas. However, there is that one person who always
has a plan and people support. Empathy is letting that person take “ownership” of
that idea and be the voice behind the idea. In these sorts of scenarios, you build up
more than empathy. It also builds the belief that your idea will prevail in the hands
of someone else.
2. Analytical: Analytical skills help us in understanding many other situations
outside of the social environment. Being able to read text or data and have a deeper
understanding of what they mean will serve you in a variety of ways. I find that with
creative thinking, the first step is being able to intake information and digest it in
various ways. Being able to analyze information is often the first step in the creative
thinking process.
3. Open-Mindedness: Once you’ve taken in the information, it’s important that you
have an open mind. This means you need to set aside your biases or assumptions and
encourage yourself to look at a problem in a new way. Biases and assumptions are
some of the mental barriers you’ll face. But looking at the other barriers, they often
stem from that sort of thinking. A strict and “this is how it should be” way of
thinking. Other examples of limitations are that you’re thinking of a problem too
logically or that creative thinking is somehow breaking the rules.
These are limiting because we know that to have an open mind is to succeed. Every
successful entrepreneur in the world today had to break rules at some point in their
lives.
4. Organized: The last thing people associate creative thinkers is that they’re
organized. While we think of great minds have messy rooms or desks, that’s not the
case at all. Being organized plays a crucial role in creative thinking in that it allows
you to better organize our ideas. Not only that, but it also helps to present it as well.
When we present ideas, it’s similar to a speech. There ought to be a structure, a
vision, and have it easy to follow and understand.
5. Communication: Communication plays a vital role in all this as well. You can’t
sell a group or an individual on an idea if you can’t communicate effectively. This
applies to both written and verbal communication skills.
6. Dissect Ideas: The last skill I’ll offer is a challenging one but can pay off in so
many ways. Sometimes creative thinking means taking two ideas and merging them.
This helps because in most situations ideas in their base form might not be able to
satisfy the original goal or problem. That or maybe the idea is outright terrible but,
there are some good pieces of information in it.
-5-
Be a critical Thinker
Critical thinkers go beyond memorization of facts. Delta University has already
prepared you for thinking critically because of the specific professors that students
chose. Students have a tendency to try to make their lives easier, but that isn’t the
way to develop and grow as a person. You need to learn to think differently and
apply what you learn. I am interested in combining perspectives from both
international studies and economics in order to approach conflicts in a new way.
Employers will know that I am a critical thinker through my writing samples because
how I articulate myself shows how I think.”
Critical and creative thinking are the keys to work and economic prosperity in the
twenty-first century. There is a long-term trend away from routine-oriented work,
which requires people to do the same things every day, and toward creativity-
oriented jobs that ask people to engage in analysis and to make judgments. The
creative class includes people whose work it is to create new forms (for example,
writers, engineers, and designers) and people who work in a wide range of
knowledge-intensive industries that ask them to make critical and creative decisions
about specific problems in their fields. Successful universities in the twenty-first
century will be those that educate graduates who contribute to a critical and creative
workforce.
Business faculty at Delta University, therefore, believes that developing students’

critical and creative thinking skills are among the highest priorities of a college
education. They describe knowing when it is appropriate to take intellectual risks,
being decisive, and learning from failure as essential to critical and creative thinking.
And while faculty think the curriculum should ask students to think critically and
creatively throughout their studies, they emphasize the importance for freshmen to
begin under high expectations for critical and creative thinking.
Studying at university can change the way you look at the world and the way that
you think about your subject. Developing your ability to think academically and in
a way that complements your subject does take practice. You will have many
opportunities to hone your thinking skills in seminars and tutorials, in debate and
discussion, and in writing assignments and projects.
Your academic Professors can provide a variety of models for demonstrating how to
put creative thinking into practice, and how they will encourage your intellectual
curiosity. Professors will use questions to clarify and establish the facts; they will
test assumptions and challenge viewpoints; and they will seek evidence to back-up
any position or argument. Adopting these approaches will help you to develop your
own thinking skills for independent study.
-6-
Critical Thinking is the ability to analyze the way you think and present evidence
for, rather than simply accepting your personal reasoning as sufficient proof. You
can gain numerous benefits from mastering critical thinking skills, such as better
control of your own learning and empathy for other points of view.
Critical Thinking is, in short, self-directed, self-disciplined, self-monitored, and
self-corrective thinking. It presupposes assent to rigorous standards of excellence
and mindful command of their use. It entails effective communication and problem-
solving abilities and a commitment to overcome our native egocentrism and socio-
centrism. From solving problems in class assignments to facing real world
situations,
Critical Thinking skills teach a variety of skills that can be applied to any situation
in life that calls for reflection, analysis and planning.
Critical Thinking is a domain-general thinking skill. The ability to think clearly
and rationally is important whatever we choose to do. If you work in education,
research, finance, management or the legal profession, then critical thinking is
obviously important. But critical thinking skills are not restricted to a particular
subject area. Being able to think well and solve problems systematically is an asset
for any career.
Critical Thinking is very important in the new knowledge economy. The global
knowledge economy is driven by information and technology. One has to be able to
deal with changes quickly and effectively. The new economy places increasing
demands on flexible intellectual skills, and the ability to analyze information and
integrate diverse sources of knowledge in solving problems. Good critical
thinking promotes such thinking skills, and is very important in the fast-changing
workplace.
Critical Thinking enhances language and presentation skills. Thinking clearly
and systematically can improve the way we express our ideas. In learning how to
analyze the logical structure of texts, critical thinking also improves comprehension
abilities.
Critical Thinking promotes creativity. To come up with a creative solution to a
problem involves not just having new ideas. It must also be the case that the new
ideas being generated are useful and relevant to the task at hand. Critical
thinking plays a crucial role in evaluating new ideas, selecting the best ones and
modifying them if necessary
Critical Thinking is crucial for self-reflection. In order to live a meaningful life
and to structure our lives accordingly, we need to justify and reflect on our values
and decisions. Critical thinking provides the tools for this process of self-evaluation.
Critical Thinking is something that is valued both in the university setting and in
the professional situations you will find yourselves in after you graduate, and is part
of lifelong learning. Critical Thinking is important in life. to developing your
judgment, evaluation and problem-solving abilities.
-7-
CHAPTER ONE
UNDERSTANDING CREATIVITY
First: Multiple Choice Questions
1. According to John Scully, the former chairman of Apple Computer, what is
a key ingredient of successful teams?
A. Creativity
B. Viability
C. Reasonability
D. Profitability
2. What is the purpose of the outcomes window when considering solutions?

A. Determine how much it will cost to implement each solution.
B. Determine if all solutions have been considered.
C. List positive and negative consequences of a decision.
D. Test to determine if other people will accept or reject the solutions.
3. What is the term for creatively generating associations and connections

between dissimilar subjects?
A. Balancing concepts
B. Conceptual blending
C. Disassociation
D. Intermingling ideas
4. ________ is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of
looking at problems and opportunities.
A) Showboating
B) Commoditizing
C) Innovation
D) Creativity
5. ________ is the ability to apply creative solutions to problems and

opportunities to enhance or to enrich people's lives.
A) Showboating
B) Commoditizing
C) Creativity
D) Innovation
6. According to Ted Levitt, creativity is--------- new things.

A) Thinking
-8-
B) Doing
C) Corroborating
D) Emulating
7. According to Ted Levitt, innovation is ________ new things.

A) Thinking
B) Doing
C) Corroborating
D) Emulating
8. For entrepreneurs, simply having a great new idea is not enough;

transforming the idea into a------- product, service, or business venture is the
next step.
A) Plausible
B) Legible
C) Intangible
D) tangible
9. Which one of the following is NOT a small business innovation enabler,

according to Intuit?
A) Compassion
B) Customer connection
C) Agility and adaptation
D) All are enablers
10. Some small businesses create innovations ________ in response to customer

feedback or changing market conditions.
A) Responsibly
B) Compassionately
C) Reactively
D) Proactively
11. Some small businesses create innovations ________ by spotting

opportunities on which to capitalize.
A) Responsibly
B) Compassionately
C) Reactively
D) Proactively
12. Innovation is ________ when it creates market-changing, disruptive

breakthroughs that are the result of generating something from nothing.
-9-
A) mandatory
B) Perfunctory
C) Evolutionary
D) revolutionary
13. More often, innovations are--------

A) Evolutionary
B) Revolutionary
C) Proactive
D) All of the above
14. The iPod is an example of a (n) ________ innovation.

A) revolutionary
B) Evolutionary
C) Proactive
D) Perfunctory
15. ________ thinking is going from one logical conclusion to the next.
A) Vertical
B) Lateral
C) Simultaneous
D) Parallel
16. ________ thinking is considering a problem from all sides and jumping into
it at different points.
A) Vertical
B) Lateral
C) Simultaneous
D) Parallel
17. Another word for vertical thinking is -------thinking.

A) Lateral
B) Linear
C) Parallel
D) Simultaneous
18. The ------- brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion.

A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
- 10 -
19. The ________ brain processes information intuitively.
A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
20. Which brain handles language, logic, and symbols?

A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
21. Which brain takes care of the body's emotional, intuitive, and spatial
functions?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
22. Which one of the following is a barrier to creativity?

A) Searching for the one "right" answer
B) Focusing on being "logical"
C) Blindly following the rules
D) All of the above
23. What is the definition of critical thinking?

A. limited encouragement
B. being negative about a situation
C. the process of reasoned judgment
D. having a critical worldview
24. Which of the following statements about critical thinking is true?

A. We all possess the same amount of critical thinking skills and must choose to use
it in our daily lives.
B. Some people are born without any critical thinking skills and, therefore, cannot
be expected to think critically.
C. We all have some level of skill in critical thinking and we have the capacity
to improve those skills.
D. Critical thinking skills cannot be improved over time. You must simply do the
best with what you have.
- 11 -
25. Which of the following statements about risk and uncertainty is true?
A. Nobody can escape life’s risks and uncertainties.
B. Some people are exempt from risk and uncertainty.
C. If you don’t take risks, there will be no uncertainty in your life.
D. Men are more prone to risk and uncertainty than women.
26. What is the definition of perception management?

A. the provision of technological resources to low-income populations
B. the act of presenting equal information regarding all sides of an issue
C. the process of helping individuals make their own educated decisions about issues
at hand.
D. the carefully choreographed manipulation of the beliefs and feelings of large
numbers of people.
27. What does self-regulation mean?

A. an individual’s capacity to monitor his/her own thinking process
B. the government’s responsibility to regulate risk
C. a boss’s role of overseeing his/her employees
D. the practice of reading only information you agree with
28. Poor critical thinking typically results in

A. well-reasoned decisions.
B. failure to reach one’s goals.
C. lucky second chances.
D. accurate and educated opinions.
29. Understanding the concept of process of judgment is directly related to

A. perception management.
B. information deregulation.
C. judgment deficit disorder.
D. outcomes of critical thinking.
30. In general, which of the following is an adjective that can be used to describe
critical thinkers?
A. negative
B. skeptical
C. uninformed
D. nitpicky
31. To be an effective critical thinker, one must possess critical thinking skills
and
- 12 -
A. be disposed to use these skills.
B. have an adequate income.
C. attend a four-year college.
D. enjoy a stable home life.
32. Tara decides not to vaccinate her child. Tara’s child contracts measles and
infects a newborn baby who dies from the disease. This is an example of which
concept from the book?
A. effective critical thinking skills
B. individual decisions with a far-reaching impact
C. the effects of information deregulation
D. harmonious social law theory
33. Jeff runs a small business that is experiencing financial difficulty. At the
height of his stress, he sends out an email to three employees, telling them their
services will no longer be needed, without reevaluating his budget. This is an
example of
A. good critical thinking.
B. poor critical thinking.
C. using critical thinking technology.
D. critical human resources.
34. What is one of the characteristics of critical thinking in a free society?

A. access to information
B. rampant censorship
C. limited choices
D. government filters
35. In what way is critical thinking similar to playing an instrument? Both

require
A. money.
B. censorship.
C. nit-picking.
D. practice.
36. Critical thinking thrives in an environment

A. in which there is uniformity of belief.
B. in which information flows freely.
C. in which censorship prevails.
D. in which those in authority control information.
- 13 -
37. Ned has not been to the dentist in 5 years. He has a painful tooth, but he has
decided not to go to the dentist because he is afraid of drills. He is making his
decision based on
A. critical thinking.
B. unbiased judgment.
C. emotional reasoning.
D. health regulations.
38. Kim believes all Mexicans are lazy. Even though she has met several
hardworking Mexicans, she refuses to re-evaluate her beliefs. She is lacking in
A. self-regulatory judgment.
B. information bias.
C. stereotypical thought.
D. thought processes.
39. Karla decides to go to work even though she is very ill with pneumonia. Her
decision
A. may be the result of government regulations.
B. is the result of good critical thinking.
C. is nobody’s business but her own.
D. may impact more people than just her
40. Marlene is a college professor who is teaching a critical thinking course.

What is something she would say in her lecture?
A. To be an effective critical thinker, you must be mentally disciplined.
B. Effective critical thinking requires you to be judgmental.
C. Critical thinking is about finding the Truth (with a capital T).
D. Only Americans practice critical thinking.
41. Some psychologists describe problem solving as a process of searching.

Which of the following is NOT part of this description?
a) the problem’s initial state
b) the problem’s goal state
c) the problem’s path conflicts
d) the problem’s operators
c) The problem’s path conflicts
42. An ill-defined problem is one in which

a) the problem does not have clearly defined sub-goals.
b) There is initially some uncertainty about which operators are available and
which path constraints are in place.
- 14 -
c) Neither analogies nor heuristics will lead to a problem solution.
d) There is more than one path available that will lead to the goal.
43. Which of the following is NOT a benefit received from using a means-end
analysis to solve a problem?
a) It encourages the person to move away from the goal initially, so as to get to the
goal faster.
b) It provides guidelines for what a person should do to solve the problem.
c) It often leads a person to break a problem into sub-problems.
d) Means-end highlights the differences between the current state and the goal state.
44. In many studies, participants fail to use analogies as an aid to problem solving.
Of the following, which is the MOST plausible explanation of this fact?
a) Participants are unable to use analogies even when explicitly instructed to do so.
b) Participants seem unable to use analogies even when explicitly instructed to do so.
c) Participants pay too much attention to the deep structure of a problem, and so they
fail to see the features that lead to analogy.
d) Participants search their memories based on the surface structure of the
problem and thus fail to think of many useful analogies.
45. In order to solve a problem, people make use of operators. These are
a) actions or tools used to help change a person’s current state in relation to the
problem.
b) Units of knowledge that a person has at the beginning of the problem.
c) A set of constraints or limitations ruling out some solutions to the problem.
d) Equivalent to a person’s IQ.
46. A problem-solving heuristic is

a) a strategy that guides a search through the problem space.
b) needed for unfamiliar problems but not for familiar problems.
c) Guaranteed to find a problem solution, if one exists.
d) Likely to be less effective than a strategy such as hill climbing or means-end analysis.
47. Which of the following is NOT a heuristic used in problem solving?

a) Framing
b) means-end analysis
c) working backward from the goal state
d) hill climbing
48. The stage in the product planning and development process in which actual
sales results are available is the:
A) Idea stage.
B) Concept stage.
- 15 -
C) Product development stage.
D) Test marketing stage.
49. A problem-solving set

a) is an obstacle for novice problem solvers but not for experts.
b) Is generally a deterrent to problem solving, so one should seek to approach a problem
without a set.
c) is crucial for well-defined problems but cannot help with ill-defined problems.
d) Often helps because the set leads us to ignore a number of options that obviously
will not lead to the goal.
50. Two groups of participants are given sets of training problems to solve. One
group of participants is told to try to understand the structure of the problem,
while the other group is asked to try to memorize the problem. They are later given
test problems. Based on previous evidence, what results would you expect to see at
testing?
a) The “memorize” group will solve more problems.
b) The formal group will solve more problems.
c) The “structure” group will solve more problems.
d) The groups will solve the same number of problems.
51. In order to teach students to be better problem solvers, we should do all of the
following EXCEPT
a) teach some of the general-purpose heuristics, such as means-end analysis or working
backward.
b) Encourage students to approach their training with attention to deep structure rather
than to surface details.
c) Provide students with experience in the relevant domains so that they will have a
basis from which to draw analogies.
d) Teach students that it is better to memorize related problems rather than
understand them.
52._____ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while _____

intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills.
a) Crystallized; fluid
b) fluid; crystallized
c) general; specific
d) general; learned
53. Which of the following statements does NOT support the notion that the
environment influences intelligence?
a) IQs are more similar among brothers who are close in age than brothers who are very
different in age.
- 16 -
b) IQs are lower overall among children who come from impoverished environments.
c) IQs are more similar among MZ twins than among DZ twins.
d) Changing the environment can lead to an improvement in IQ score.
54. Compared to novices, chess experts are MORE likely to have

a) better memory for the positions of pieces on a chess board if the pieces are
arranged in a fashion that respects the rules of chess.
b) No memory advantage.
c) Better memory for the positions of pieces on a chess board, no matter how the pieces
are arranged.
d) Better visual memory in general.
55. An 8-year-old child who scored like an average 10-year-old on an intelligence

test would have a mental age of ________ and an IQ of ________.
A.8; 80
B.8; 125
C.10; 100
D.10; 125
56. Experts seem able to break a problem into meaningful chunks. This strategy
provides all of the following advantages EXCEPT for
a) highlighting the organization of the problem’s elements, making it easier to see the
problem’s structure.
b) Making it easier to remember the various elements of the problem.
c) Helping in the identification of sub-problems and therefore in the creation of sub-
goals.
d) Drawing the expert’s attention to the problem’s microstructure.
57. ------is not desirable when brainstorming is in process.

A) "Freewheeling"
B) Criticism
C) Generating a large quantity of ideas
D) Idea combination and improvement
58. People often compare experts to novices. Which of the following claims about
this comparison is NOT true?
a) Experts tend to be more-skilled problem solvers in general, so they have an
advantage even with unfamiliar problems.
b) Expert knowledge is more heavily cross-referenced and is therefore more easily
accessible.
c) Experts have a much larger knowledge base, including a large set of exemplars on
which they can draw.
- 17 -
d) Experts are more familiar with the higher-order patterns common in the area of
expertise.
59. Which of the following problems is ill-defined?

a) Sheila cannot decide whether to go to a movie this evening or study in the library.
b) Samantha is having trouble choosing which courses to take next semester.
c) Sarah is trying to think of a way to impress her boss.
d) Susan is trying to decide which route to take to the soccer game.
60. Which of the following is NOT true of the nine-dot problem?

a) People perform much better when given a hint.
b) People fail to break out of their problem-solving set.
c) People often suffer from a type of functional fixedness and fail to see the solution.
d) It is likely the source of the cliché, “Think outside the box.”
61. Bob works in marketing and wants to be creative at his work. Which of these
is LEAST likely to be a prerequisite for his creativity?
a) being able to ignore criticism and tolerate ambiguous findings
b) being strongly motivated by external rewards rather than taking pleasure in his
work
c) being willing to take risks and not follow the crowd
d) having knowledge about his domain in marketing
62. The tendency to be rigid in how one thinks about an object’s function is called
a) functional narrowness.
b) Narrow focus.
c) Functional fixedness.
d) Mental stickiness.
63. Imagination is to creativity as:

A. Candy is to a diet.
B. The motor is to an automobile.
C. A comb to a bald man.
D. Coal is to an air conditioner.
64. A problem’s “initial state” refers to the

a) first goal one must move toward in solving the problem.
b) Knowledge and resources, one possesses at the outset of the problem.
c) Participant’s circumstances before he or she has understood the problem.
d) Actual statement of the problem.
65. If you are trying to help a friend use analogy in problem solving, which piece
of advice should you NOT give?
- 18 -
a) You should attend to the deep structure of the problem.
b) Memorize as many problems as you can.
c) Search your memory for content related to the deep structure of the problem, not
surface details.
d) Try to see the mapping between problems you already know and test problems.
66. The first part of the creative process is:

A. Testing.
B. Evaluating.
C. Using learned skills.
D. Discovery.
67. Dr. Smarts is giving a test to a few students in his class. The test is very simple:
he presents two objects and asks the students to reply as quickly as possible if they
match (yes or no). Student 1 replies faster than student 2. What does this indicate
about the students’ intelligence levels?
a) Reaction time on this task is not correlated with intelligence.
b) Student 1 is more intelligent than student 2.
c) Student 2 is more intelligent than student 1.
d) Both students are likely to have above average intelligence.
68. Studies of analogy use indicate that participants

a) are more likely to use analogies in solving spatial problems than they are in solving
verbal problems.
b) Use analogies spontaneously in a wide range of problems.
c) Are more likely to use analogies if there is a superficial resemblance between
the problem being solved and the problem serving as the base for the analogy.
d) Use analogies only if they are experts in the domain of the problem.
69. Which of the following is NOT a procedure that makes analogy use more
likely?
a) Participants are given several training problems and asked to compare the problems
to one another.
b) Participants are given financial bonuses for each one of the test problems they
are able to solve.
c) Participants are given two analogous problems, rather than just one, before the test
problem.
d) Participants are encouraged to work at understanding the solutions of the training
problems so that they can explain the solutions later on.
70. Participants’ use of “hill climbing” is evident in that

a) Problem solving often gets stalled if a problem requires the participant to move
briefly away from the goal state in order (ultimately) to reach the goal.
- 19 -
b) Participants solve problems more quickly if they can divide the problem into smaller
sub-problems.
c) Participants are often confused unless the problem’s path constraints are clearly
specified.
d) Participants are disrupted in their problem solving if they are asked to think out loud
as they proceed.
71. Herbert solved the “tumor” problem by using an analogy with the “general
and fortress” problem. In doing this, he realized that “tumor” corresponds to
“fortress,” “radiation” corresponds to “attacking army,” and so on. The process
of determining these correspondences is called
a) translating.
b) Mapping.
c) Parsing.
d) Analogizing.
72. In some procedures, participants are helped by an interruption during their

attempts at solving a problem. In explaining this effect, which of the following
hypotheses seems LEAST plausible in light of the available evidence?
a) The interruption provides an opportunity for frustration or fatigue to dissipate.
b) The interruption allows participants to forget their earlier approaches to the problem,
thus enabling a fresh start.
c) The interruption provides an opportunity for participants to gather further
information about the problem.
d) The interruption allows an opportunity for unconscious problem solving to
occur.
73. Brainstorming groups should:

A) Contain an expert in the field to be discussed.
B) Be serious and work-oriented.
C) Try to generate as many ideas as possible.
D) Encourage criticism of ideas from other participants in the group.
74. Many years ago, Wallas argued that creative thought proceeds through four
stages. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages?
a) Incubation
b) preparation
c) articulation
d) illumination
75. As Vanessa worked on the problem, she reported out loud: “No, that option
doesn’t seem to work. No, that doesn’t work either.” Then Vanessa abruptly
shouted, “I think I’ve got it!” These reports seem to capture the phenomenon
- 20 -
called
a) illumination.
b) Preparation.
c) Representation
d) incubation.
76. Eric is trying to solve a problem but must put the problem down for a lunch
meeting. At the meeting, he suddenly thinks of a potential solution. Which of the
following is NOT consistent with Eric’s revelation?
a) Eric was suffering from something like the “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon, and an
event at lunch cued the correct answer, which he knew all along.
b) Lunch provided Eric time to think of new tactics that were outside of his original
problem-solving set.
c) Lunch provided Eric time to forget his previous strategies.
d) Lunch provided an incubation period.
77. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by visualizing a problem

via a mental image?
a) The image depicts the problem in a concrete way, and this often makes the problem
easier to remember.
b) One can easily make new discoveries about the imaged form, including
discoveries that involve an entirely new understanding of the form.
c) The image often makes it easy to discern how the elements of the problem are related
to one another.
d) It is usually easy to rearrange the elements of an image to explore other
configurations.
78. All of the states one can reach in solving a problem together make up the
a) problem space.
b) Operators.
c) Pathways.
d) Problem definition.
79. In general, a training procedure will promote subsequent analogy use if the
procedure
a) teaches the participants general principles about how analogies function.
b) Makes the value of analogy use clear to participants.
c) Helps participants to remember the exact formulation of the training problems.
d) Encourages participants to pay attention to the training problem’s deep
structure.
80. Creative synthesis is an important aspect of the _____ method of creative

problem solving.
- 21 -
A) Brain writing
B) Forced association
C) Attribute listing
D) Parameter analysis
81. Focus groups use which of the following methods?

A) A moderator leads the group in an open, in-depth discussion.
B) A moderator asks each individual in the group questions, interview style.
C) Each participant fills out a questionnaire, followed by individual exit interviews.
D) Each participant obtains new ideas and solutions by focusing on problems.
82. One plan for solving a problem would be to consider every possible option,
searching for the best solution. This broad plan is
a) usually ruled out by the sheer number of possible states within the problem
space.
b) More effective with ill-defined problems.
c) Often the only plan available.
d) Usually, the best way to proceed for solving complicated problems.
83. Experts have several advantages in problem solving. Which of the following is
NOT an advantage mentioned in this textbook?
a) Advanced degrees
b) more efficient ways of accessing their knowledge
c) at least 10 years of experience
d) years of deliberate practice
84. According to Wallas’s theory of creativity, the initial period in which a problem
solver gathers information is known as
a) verification.
b) Preparation.
c) Incubation.
d) Initialization.
85. the most important thing to realize about creativity is that:

A. It involves both convergent and divergent thinking.
B. Everyone possesses a certain amount of it.
C. It involves many kinds of thought processes.
D. It involves both convergent and divergent thinking, everyone possesses a
certain amount of it, and it involves many kinds of thought processes.
86. Which of the following is NOT an explanation that is supported by evidence

for the IQ discrepancies between blacks and whites?
- 22 -
a) Economic factors lead to higher IQ scores among whites than blacks.
b) Stereotype threat causes black students to score lower on intelligence tests.
c) Genetic factors cause whites to be more intelligent than blacks.
d) IQ scores among blacks can be improved by reducing stereotype threat.
87. In this method, instead of generating new ideas themselves, consumers are
provided with a list of problems in a general product category. What method is
the author referring to here?
A) Reverse brainstorming
B) Problem inventory analysis
C) Brainstorming
D) Focus groups
88. Analogies are

a) often misleading, since an analogy depends on a problem’s surface structure.
b) An effective way to promote understanding and problem solving.
c) Relevant only for a narrow set of problems.
d) Relatively ineffective for solving problems, unless the problem is a familiar one.
89. Which problem-solving heuristic is MOST likely to involve a question such as,
“What do I have available to get from my current state to my goal state?”
a) problem-solving set
b) working backward
c) means-end analysis
d) hill climbing
90. Expert problem solvers

a) use analogies less often than do novices.
b) Do not need to rely on mapping in their use of analogies.
c) Tend to categorize problems in terms of their deep structure.
d) Focus on the surface of a problem rather than on its deep structure.
91. One way to turn an ill-defined question into a well-defined question is to

a) add extra constraints or assumptions to the problem so that it has more
structure.
b) Make the question less specific.
c) Make the question rhetorical.
d) Remove any clear or concrete goal state from the problem.
92. This problem-solving method involves developing new ideas by thinking

without constraints.
A) Value analysis
- 23 -
B) Attribute listing
C) Brain writing
D) Big-dream approach
93. Probably the most well-known and widely used technique for creative
problem solving is:
A) Focus groups.
B) Brainstorming.
C) Forced relationships.
D) Scientific method.
94. Experts have an advantage in problem solving and remembering certain

information (like the position of chess pieces) for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT that they
a) break down chunks to create sub-goals.
b) Think of units that can be used to set sub-goals.
c) Avoid getting bogged down in the details by organizing the information.
d) Create higher-order units that have a purpose.
95. The ability to acknowledge and take responsibility for one's role in cultivating
relationships and in communicating efficiently with others is called____.
A. interpersonal effectiveness
B. creativity
C. cultural intelligence
D. self-aware
96. Which of the following statements about relationship between self-

awareness and interpersonal effectiveness is true?
A. a greater awareness of others can, in turn, lead to a lesser awareness of oneself
B. self-awareness and interpersonal effectiveness are not related in any way
C. in most cases, a lesser awareness of others leads to a greater awareness of oneself
D. a greater awareness of others, in turn, lead to greater awareness of oneself
97. Creative children:

A. Possess many unlikable traits.
B. Possess many likable traits.
C. Can be frustrating to work with.
D. Can be frustrating yet a joy to work with.
98.____ is defined as the ability to combine or link ideas in new ways to generate
novel and useful alternatives.
A. contextual intelligence
- 24 -
B. analytical thinking
C. lateral thinking
D. emotional intelligence
99. Creativity can be encouraged by helping children:

A. Feel joy in their creative productions.
B. Develop perseverance.
C. Learn to judge others’ artworks.
D. Feel joy in their creative productions and develop perseverance.
100. Of the three indices of creativity, fluency is defined as:

A. the ability to change approaches to a problem
B. the ability to acknowledge and take responsibility for one's role in cultivating
relationships
C. the ability to generate novel or unique propositions, ideas, or solutions
D. the ability to generate many solutions that fit some requirement
101. Which of the following indices of creativity involves the ability to change
approaches to a problem?
A. flexibility
B. fluency
C. originality
D. adaptability
102. Creativity declines with

A) Training and tradition.
B) Education and work experience.
C) Age, education and lack of use.
D) Mental health and work experience.
103. The capacity for recognizing one's own feelings and those of others, for
motivating themselves and for managing relationships in a productive manner
is known as ____ intelligence.
A. cultural
B. emotional
C. contextual
D. analytical
104. Orders and sensitive information should be transferred:

A) Through credit card companies.
- 25 -
B) By banner ads.
C) Over secure servers.
D) Through open telephone lines.
105. Jim is a firm's marketing manager who is confident of himself and is more
open to feedback. Moreover, he has the ability to motivate himself despite
obstacles to achieve his goals. His employees adore him since he takes active
interest in their concerns and constructively manages any conflict that arise.
From this description, it can be said that Jim demonstrates _______.
A. divergent thinking
B. contextual intelligence
C. analytical thinking
106. John is a foreign journalist who was expelled from a country led by a
totalitarian regime. His expulsion is an example of which concept discussed in
the book?
A. the credentialing of international journalists
B. the effects of foreign critical thinking
C. the limitation of accurate information
D. the impact of governmental deregulation
107. Martha encourages her daughter to audition for the school play, even
though her daughter is very nervous to do so. In the context of critical thinking,
Martha is teaching her daughter to
A. ignore her fears.
B. focus on academics.
C. take healthy risks.
D. avoid uncertainty.
108. Children enjoy creativity and benefit from it in many ways, including:
A. Developing their potential to think.
B. Developing new skills.
C. Learning to seek the right answer to a problem.
D. Developing their potential to think and developing new skills.
109. Some characteristics of creative children are that they are:

A. Easily discouraged and self-deprecatory.
B. Easily pleased.
C. Discontented.
D. Stubborn, discontented, and self-satisfied.
- 26 -
110. A creative behavior is an act that is:
A. Performed only once by an individual.
B. Valued only by the doer and not by others.
C. Original for the individual on a one-time basis.
D. Original for the individual and valued by that person or others.
111. Teachers can help children express their creativity by helping children:
A. Appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules.
B. Learn to judge and accept their own feelings.
C. Recognize that there is usually one best answer to a problem.
D. Both appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules and learn to judge and
accept their own feelings.
112. Some characteristics of a creative child are:

A. Determination, curiosity, and a willingness to take risks.
B. Needs companionship for enrichment.
C. Enjoys participation in general.
D. Stubbornness, fear, and neatness.
113. Teachers benefit from encouraging creativity in such ways as:

A. Being able to use a more standardized curriculum.
B. Learning to recognize children for their unique skills.
C. Being able to plan fewer lessons.
D. Being able to turn the curriculum over to the children.
114. Mrs. White was very disappointed when James began to use his Popsicle
sticks for a car ramp instead of using them to make the holiday picture frame
she had planned. On the basis of information on creativity in your text, Mrs.
White:
A. Should not plan activities using dangerous objects such as Popsicle sticks.
B. Has more concern for process than for product?
C. Need not be concerned as long as James is happy and busy.
D. Has more concern for product than for process and convergent thinking?
115. Children are being creative when they are:

A. Redefining situations, demonstrating stubbornness, and solving problems.
B. Solving problems, being adventurous, and giving the correct answer.
C. Solving problems, redefining situations, and demonstrating flexibility.
D. Demonstrating flexibility, being rational, and solving problems.
116. Frequent evaluation:

- 27 -
A. Smother’s creativity.
B. Keeps a child on task.
C. Helps improve performance.
D. Smother’s creativity, keeps a child on task, and helps improve performance.
117. Learning the “way things are done” is an example of:

A. Convergent thinking and an important part of creativity.
B. Divergent thinking and an important part of creativity.
C. A part of creativity involving discovery.
D. A part of creativity involving process and discovery.
118. Creativity with older children involves:

A. The generation of ideas and products.
B. The creation of ideas and products.
C. the creation of original products and original solutions
D. the creation of original ideas and products
119. An example of creativity is:

A. Making a puppet out of a new kind of paper.
B. Using paper for the first time to make bumps on a collage.
C. Using red for a tree.
D. Using pencils and crayons in her drawing.
Second: True/False Questions

1. Members of the distribution channel are usually not good sources of ideas for new
products. (F)
2. The files of the U.S. Patent Office are kept confidential and entrepreneurs cannot
study their contents. (F)
3. The largest source of new ideas is the U.S. Patent Office. (F)
4. Focus groups consist of 15 to 25 participants who are asked specific objective
functions. (F)
5. The focus group is an excellent method for initially screening ideas and concepts.
(T)
6. The drawback with problem inventory analysis is that it cannot be used to test a
new product idea. (F)
7. Unlike the focus group, problem inventory analysis focuses on specific problems
in a general product category. (T)
8. Creativity tends to increase with age. (F)
9. Brainstorming is an unstructured process used for generating possible ideas about
a problem within a limited time frame through the spontaneous contributions of
participants. (T)
- 28 -
10. In reverse brainstorming, the focus is on the positive, all the things that are right
about an idea. (F)
11. Brain writing is silent, written generation of ideas by a group of people. (T)
12. The Gordon method, in contrast with the other methods, begins with group
members not knowing the exact nature of the problem. (T)
13. Forced relationships is a method of forcing confrontations in focus groups. (F)
14. Using the big-dream approach, a new idea is developed through a list of related
issues or suggestions. (F)
15. The big-dream approach requires the entrepreneur to dream about the problem
and its solution, thinking big. (T)
16. Creative synthesis is closely connected to the technique of parameter analysis.
(T)
17. The entrepreneur's ability to recognize a business opportunity is a result of his
or her knowledge and experience. (T)
18. When evaluating new product development, the criteria should be inclusive and
Quantitative. (T)
19. One evaluation method successfully used in the concept stage is the systematic
market evaluation checklist. (F)
20. In the concept stage of product planning, the refined product idea is tested to
determine customer acceptance. (T)
21. Only the test marketing phase of product planning provides actual sales results
to judge the product's customer appeal. (T)
22. In the product development stage, consumer reaction to the physical
product/service is determined. (T)
23. The entrepreneur should always design and build his own webpage to maintain
Strategic control. (F)
24. An online company's back-end operations involve integration of customer orders
with distribution channels. (T)
25. Every website should have search capabilities. (T)
26. E-Commerce online sales and long-distance deliveries for fresh fruits and
vegetables for individual consumers is a fast-growing segment. (T)
27. Using electronic databases to track customer information violates federal laws
regarding individual privacy. (F)
28.The least important thing to realize about creativity is that only very few people
possess it. (T)
29. One definition of creativity is the process of bringing something new into being.
(T)
30. Convergent thinking usually results in many answers or solutions to a question
or problem. (F)
- 29 -
CHAPTER TWO
UNDERSTANDING CRITICAL THINKING
1. What does the critical thinking self-rating form measure?
A. your overall disposition toward critical thinking over the past two days
B. your aptitude for critical thinking in general, throughout your life
C. your overall capacity for being judgmental when making decisions
D. your critical thinking skills for the next five years

A. It works 50% of the time.
B. It always results in success.
C. It is about how you approach problems.
D. It only applies to emergency situations.
3. A person with a strong disposition toward critical thinking has

A. interest in the supernatural.
B. emotional outbursts.
C. limited time to read.
D. consistent internal motivation.
4. A combination of ______, _______, and ______ forms the habits of mind that
dispose a person toward critical thinking.
A. questions, answers, conclusions
B. values, beliefs, intentions
C. judgments, perceptions, preconceptions
D. calculations, assumptions, thoughts
5. What is one of the seven positive critical thinking habits of mind?

A. spiritual
B. apologetic
C. systematic
D. apathetic
6. Good critical thinkers are

A. always successful in life.
B. not necessarily good people.
C. highly moral people.
D. not always skeptical.
- 30 -
7. Which of the following is one of the approaches to life that characterizes a
good critical thinker?
A. over-confidence in his or her opinions
B. open-mindedness to divergent worldviews
C. extreme concern with being right at all costs
D. unwillingness to discuss options
8. According to the book, strong critical thinkers strive for

A. justice.
B. regulation.
C. precision.
D. peace.
9. According to the book, having a “critical spirit” means one is

A. negative.
B. skeptical.
C. cynical.
D. joyful.
10. Matt prides himself on being well-informed on a variety of subjects, and he

is always seeking out ways to supplement or increase his knowledge. Based on
this information, one could say that Matt is a (n) ________ person.
A. emotional
B. judgmental
C. caring
D. inquisitive
11. Marlene is in the middle of the critical thinking process. She has just
evaluated the problem. Her next step is to
A. use perception to identify the issue at hand.
B. use stereotyping to make judgment calls.
C. use self-regulation to check herself for accuracy.
D. use analysis to do research.
12. Anna is a college professor teaching a course on critical thinking. If one of

her students said that critical thinking could be reduced to a list of skills, how
would she respond?
A. That is a misleading oversimplification.
B. That is absolutely correct.
C. That is complicating the issue.
D. That is not a valid thought.
- 31 -
13. Asking a question like “What are some of the known harmful effects of using
aerosol cans?” promotes
A. narrow-mindedness.
B. self-regulation.
C. judgment.
D. interpretation.
14. Asking a question like “Does my experience as a pediatrician cause me to

have a biased reaction to the research findings?” is an example of exercising
A. free will.
B. self-regulation.
C. your options.
D. freedom of speech.
15. When Jean opens the refrigerator, she hears a humming sound. She
remembers she had a similar problem with another refrigerator and it turned
out to be the compressor. Therefore, she figures she has a problem with the
compressor on her current refrigerator. Jean used _____ to figure this out.
A. interpretive reasoning
B. inductive reasoning
C. deductive reasoning
D. circular reasoning
16. Jane’s professor asked her to give the definition of “epidemiology.” This is
an example of a _________ question.
A. critical thinking
B. quantitative knowledge
C. technical term
D. inductive reasoning
17. Minnesota is cold in the winter. St. Paul is the capital of Minnesota. St. Paul
is in Minnesota. St. Paul must be cold in the winter. This is an example of
A. perceptive reasoning.
B. inductive reasoning.
C. geographical reasoning.
D. deductive reasoning.
18. Marcus has always believed that vaccines cause autism. Recently, he read a
scientific article stating all evidence pointed to the contrary. He is willing to
revise his previously held belief based on this new information. According to
the book, Marcus is a (n)
- 32 -
A. pushover.
B. staunch believer.
C. truth-seeker.
D. advocate.
19. Annabelle is a novelist who has crafted a protagonist with strong critical
thinking skills. What is something her protagonist would say?
A. It is possible for problems to have more than one possible solution.
B. There is only one right way to view the world.
C. All problems are black and white.
D. Foresight only serves to confuse the issue.
20. Jason is a straight-A student. He is very organized in his approach to solving

problems (i.e., getting good grades). His approach includes hiring an excellent
writer to write his term papers. Jason is an example of
A. an ethical critical thinker.
B. an unethical critical thinker.
C. a deductive critical thinker.
D. an inductive critical thinker.
21. Jessica is always looking for ways to use her critical thinking skills in her
job. According to the book, which of the following statements is true about her?
A. She is not serious about critical thinking.
B. She is an unethical critical thinker.
C. She has externalized values.
D. She is actively building positive habits of mind.
22. In Ella’s 5th grade classroom, the students only memorize information and
repeat it back to the teacher. This environment is
A. not conducive to critical thinking.
B. inspired by critical thinking.
C. influenced by ethical decision making.
D. not a place where rote learners thrive.
23. Jeff is determined to be more organized in his daily life. He has started
making lists and drawing up daily schedules. According to the book, he is
working to improve his
A. analyticity.
B. flexibility.
C. systematicity.
D. simplicity.
- 33 -
24. When Michael is faced with a challenge at work, he envisions all of the
consequences of various ways in which he could resolve the problem. One could
say that Michael is
A. judgmental.
B. persuasive.
C. closed-minded.
D. analytical.
25. Marianne had decided to take her 1-year-old to see Santa on Saturday.
When she wakes up that morning, it is sleeting and snowing heavily. She decides
to revise her decision. This is an example of which concept from the test?
A. judiciousness
B. open-mindedness
C. solubility
D. systematicity
26. Geraldine is very open-minded. Given this information, which of the

following statements are also most likely true about her?
A. She is a truth-seeker.
B. She respects the beliefs of other cultures.
C. She does not accept other viewpoints.
D. She rarely asks others’ opinions.
27. Jill and Marcia are both systematic people. This means they
A. approach problems in an organized way.
B. think about the world in the same way.
C. are open-minded about others’ views.
D. approach questions in exactly the same way.
28. Some psychologists suggested that the speed with which cognitive units or
knowledge can be retrieved from long term memory improves with age, making
it possible for older children to integrate elder and newer information during
the process that is called:
(a) Working memory
(b) Short-term memory (STM)
(c) Rote memory
(d) Long-term memory (LTM)
29. Short-term memory (STM) lasts about:

(a) 20 Seconds
(b) 30 Seconds
- 34 -
(c) 15 Seconds
(d) 10 Seconds
30. A larger working-memory capacity makes it possible to solve more complex

problems. With the development, there is:
(a) Growth in the ability to hold information in working memory.
(b) Complexity in the ability to hold information in working memory.
(c) Understanding of concepts and syllables
(d) Imitation of behavior of parents
31. Symbolic concepts become more readily available for use in:
(a) Dreams
(b) Imagination
(c) Learning
(d) Thought
32. Concepts are not static unit of knowledge. These are:

(a) Dynamic and constantly changing
(b) Complex and developing
(c) Flexible and simple
(d) Highly convertible
33. Children’s knowledge about memory processes is called:

(a) Meta-memory
(b) Learning
(c) Strategy
(d) Inference
34. Which term refers to the mental activities involved in the acquisition,
processing, organization and use of knowledge?
(a) Emotion
(b) Cognition
(c) Feeling
(d) Imagination
35. In which type of memory, the materials are stored for later retrieval?
(a) Rote memory
(b) Sensory memory
(c) Short-term memory (STM)
(d) Long-term memory (LTM)
- 35 -
36. The capacity to learn and adapt to the requirements for survival in one’s
culture is called:
(a) Intelligence
(b) Memory
(c) Emotion
(d) Learning
37. According to Spearman, the capacity for activities like reading a novel,
speaking fluently, planning the train route from a map etc. involve:
(a) The manifestation of general intelligence in greater degree
(b) The manifestation of specific intelligence in greater degree
(c) Abstract level of intelligence
(d) Primary mental ability
38. When a young infant shapes a rattle to hear it make a sound, PJ would argue
that the infant is in which stage of cognitive development?
A. sensorimotor
B. preoperational
C. concrete
D. formal
39. The term “intelligence” is derived from a Latin word, framed by Cicero to
translate a Greek word used by Aristotle to include:
(a) All cognitive processes
(b) All effective processes
(c) Specific cognitive processes
(d) Specific effective processes
40. The simultaneous existence of two opposed emotions, motivations or

attitudes e.g., love- hate, approach-avoidance is called:
(a) Ambivalence
(b) Narcissism
(c) Rationalization
(d) Instinct
41. The proverbial story of milkmaid’s daughter is an illustration of:

(a) Dream
(b) Creative Thinking
(c) Fantasy
(d) Divergent Thinking
- 36 -
42. An organized imagination around a certain theme or extent or problem is
known as:
(a) Fantasy
(b) Dream
(c) Image
(d) Creative Thinking
43. If we sit down and start visualizing about heaven, the pleasures there in, this
would be:
(a) Fantasy
(b) Dream
(c) Day-dreaming
(d) Imagination
44. If we start visualizing that we will go to heaven and start experiencing all
the pleasures therein, this would be:
(a) Dream
(b) Fantasy
(c) Day-dreaming
(d) Imagination
45. The difference between day-dreams and fantasy is that the former are much
more organized and relate to the:
(a) Conscious mental activity of the individual
(b) Unconscious mental activity of the individual
(c) Subconscious mental activity of the individual
(d) Both conscious and unconscious activities of the individual
46. The temporary ego-centered holidays from reality is known as:

(a) Fantasy
(b) Day-dreams
(c) Images
(d) Concepts
47. Delusions can be classified into two types and these are:
(a) Grandeur and persecution
(b) Direct and indirect
(c) Systematic and unsystematic
(d) Transitory and permanent
48. Some delusions are there which are brief or fleeting. These are called:
- 37 -
(a) Transient Delusions
(b) Delusion of Grandeur
(c) Chronic Delusions
(d) Delusion of Persecution
49. “Sometimes an individual feet’s that he is being harassed, persecuted and

plotted against by everyone. He is obsessed with the idea that everybody around
is out to get him, harm him, kill him and he is a victim of domestic, national and
international conspiracies”. This is an example of:
(a) Delusion of Grandeur
(b) Delusion of Persecution
(c) Transient Delusions
(d) Systematic Delusions
50. The ideas which were interfering with the solution of the problem tend to
fade in:
(a) Evaluation Period
(b) Incubation Period
(c) Verification Period
(d) Preparation Period
51. The last stage of Creative Thinking is:

(a) Verification
(b) Evaluation
(c) Incubation
(d) Preparation
52. Our ability to compare objects, recall visual objects, and understanding the
relationship between objects relates to:
A. visual illusions
B. visual perception
C. emotional intelligence
D. cultural intelligence
53. In Western thinking, when young children think intuitively rather than
logically about the world, they are in which of Piaget’s cognitive stages?
A. sensorimotor
B. preoperational
C. concrete
D. formal
- 38 -
54. Self-condemnatory delusions generally reflect a need for:
(a) Punishment
(b) Reward
(c) Reinforcement
(d) Affection
55. Jean Piaget used the term “Schemata” to refer to the cognitive structures
underlying organized patterns of:
(a) Concept
(b) Behavior
(c) Experience
(d) Temperament
56. Piaget’s studies revealed that there is a gradual shift with age and
experience from mental activities based on overt behaviour to symbolically
represented “Schemata”. In older children, schemata are more internalized
and more mental. He called these mental equivalents of behavioural schemata
as:
(a) Organizations
(b) Operations
(c) Adaptations
(d) Assimilations
57. In which developmental stage, according to Piaget, the child generally comes
to see the relation between goals and the means to attain those goals?
(a) Preoperational Period
(b) Formal operation Period
(c) Sensorimotor Period
(d) Concrete Operation Period
58. Piaget speaks of the “plane of action” in the sensorimotor phase preceding
and being essential for the later development of the:
(a) Concept formation
(b) Plane of thought
(c) Image
(d) Personality
59. In which sub-stage of Sensorimotor Period, the infant repeats and modifies
actions which initially may have occurred by chance and which the child finds
to be satisfying or pleasurable?
(a) Tertiary circular Reaction
- 39 -
(b) Secondary circular Reaction
(c) Primary circular Reaction
(d) Coordination of secondary schemata
60. The major characteristic of the preoperational phase is the development of

systems of representation, such as language, which Piaget calls the:
(a) Communicative cues
(b) Symbolic function
(c) Implicit function
(d) Explicit function
61. A psychologist asked a four-year-old child:

” Do you have a brother?” ‘Yes’ “What’s his name?”: “Amit”. “Does Sunny have a
brother?” “No”.
This is one of the illustrations of:
(a) Conservation
(b) Transformation
(c) Irreversibility
(d) Assimilation
62. The child’s cognitive structure reaches maturity during:

(a) Sensorimotor period
(b) Preoperational period
(c) The period of formal operations
(d) Concrete operational period
63. When we make use of many experiences and examples for arriving at a
generalized principle or conclusion, it is known as:
(a) Deductive Reasoning
(b) Divergent Thinking
(c) Convergent Thinking
(d) Inductive Reasoning
64. When we just start completely agreeing with some deduced results or
principles and try to apply to particular cases, it is known as:
(b) Inductive Reasoning
(c) Divergent Thinking
(d) Convergent Thinking
- 40 -
65. Some people have almost photographic visual imagery. They only look at
something and recall what they have seen in detail. Such imagery is called:
(a) Synesthesia
(b) Memory Image
(c) Eidetic Imagery
(d) Verbal Imagination
66. The concept of an automobile is:

(a) A conjunctive concept
(b) A disjunctive concept
(c) A haphazard concept
(d) An image
67. A disjunctive concept separates objects into a class by reason of their

possession of:
(a) Any two characteristics
(b) Any one characteristic
(c) Any three characteristics
(d) Any four characteristics
68. The concepts which refer to relationship between two elements in a situation
is known as:
(a) Conjunctive Concepts
(b) Disjunctive concepts
(c) Relational Concepts
(d) Simple concepts
69. Many studies in thinking have been devoted to find out how we learn or
form concepts. Such studies are popularly known as:
(a) Study of symbols
(b) Concept attainment studies
(c) Study on Images
(d) Language Development Studies
70. “Problem Solving” and “Creative Thinking” are two main forms of:
(a) Autistic Thinking
(b) Directed Thinking
(c) Image
(d) Realistic Thinking
- 41 -
71. Psychologists believe that people have ways of thinking in their peculiar and
more or less in a fixed way. They call these as:
(a) Thinking sets
(b) Concepts
(c) Images
(d) Fantasies
72. A German Psychologist, Karl Duncker, first proposed the concept of:
(a) Sub vocal talking
(b) Functional Fixity
(c) Realistic Thinking
(d) Implicit Speech
73. We have a tendency to make normal use of certain household articles, but
it is difficult for us to put them to some novel use. Psychologists have named
this tendency as:
(b) Abstraction
(c) Functional fixedness
(d) Generalization
74. “Functional Fixedness” is an important factor in:

(a) Thinking
(b) Imagination
(c) Problem Solving
(d) None of the above
75. Ordinary people can distinguish between 8 (eight) vowel sounds and 12 to
15 consonantal sounds approximately. Such sounds are called:
(a) Phonemes
(b) Morphemes
(c) Concepts
(d) Slurring
76. The “clause or phrase” is a unit of perception of:

(a) Language
(b) Thought
(c) Concept
(d) Image
- 42 -
77. The range between the loudest and the weakest sounds that an individual
can make is called:
(a) Pitch range
(b) Dynamic range
(c) Auditory range
(d) Sensory range
78. The “Information Processing Theory” explains language learning by

analogy with:
(a) EEG model
(b) Computer model
(c) Animal model
(d) Polygraph model
79. The information processing theory emphasizes the contribution of the child
rather than the role of reinforcement as emphasized by the:
(a) Classical conditioning model
(b) Operant model
(c) Trial-and-Error model
(d) Insightful learning model
80. Woodworth has called thinking as:

(a) Mental Exploration
(b) Problem solving behavior
(c) Covert manipulation
(d) Sub vocal Talking
81. In reasoning, the association begins with a problem and end with a/an:
(a) Problem
(b) Solution
(c) Image
(d) Dream
82. “Mental Trial and Error” is otherwise known as:

(a) Perception
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
(d) Sensation
83. The “Central Theory of Thinking” holds that we think only with the help of
our:
- 43 -
(a) Brain
(b) Central Nervous system
(c) Peripheral Nervous system
(d) Spinal Cord
84. “Peripheral theory of thinking” is otherwise known as:

(a) Affective approach of Thinking
(b) Cognitive approach of Thinking
(c) Motor Theory of Thinking
(d) Stimulus Response Theory of Thinking
85. J. B. Watson, the founding father of Behaviorism, held that thinking is

nothing but:
(a) Sub vocal talking
(b) Silent talking
(c) Meditation
(d) Yoga
86. Experimental Evidences indicate that thinking is accompanied by minute

muscular contractions occurring during thought are called:
(a) Explicit speech
(b) Spasm
(c) Implicit speech
(d) Muscle contractions
87. What is the definition of a language community?

A. a community of people who majored in English
B. a community of people who all speak different languages
C. a community of people who understand the same words and icons
D. a community of experienced language professors
88. According to the book, what is the most logical way to finish this sentence?
“Critical thinking within a disciplinary language community is like_________.”
A. critical thinking within any community
B. talking with someone who doesn’t speak English
C. using IDEAS without the “E” or the “S”
D. being surrounded by heuristic thinkers
89. Which of the following sentences about wise judgment is true?

A. It should not always be used.
B. It is a birthright.
- 44 -
C. It is worth pursuing.
D. It is used by all people.
90. What is the definition of problematic ambiguity?

A. a failure to self-regulate and scrutinize
B. a word or expression having more than one meaning
C. a community that cannot be defined
D. a university degree program
91. Mary strives to be a “fair” teacher. However, the term “fairness” can mean
different things to different students. This is an example of which concept from
the book?
A. unfair treatment
B. problematic ambiguity
C. vague teaching
D. critical terminology
92. Jim is in the process of purchasing a new home. He is going back and forth
with the sellers, trying to settle on a price. Jim is engaging in
A. cold negotiation.
B. interest-based negotiation.
C. positional negotiation.
D. altruistic negotiation.
93. Jessie, Marcus and Brian have secret code words that only they understand.
The three of them are an example of which concept from the book?
A. group of pranksters
B. language community
C. propagators of vagueness
D. linguistic tribe
94. When drawing up a contract, it is important to be very specific about

terminology to make sure that everyone is on the same page. What concept from
the book could be applied to this situation?
A. answering each question
B. encouraging situational vagueness
C. dissipating negotiating stress
D. stipulating the meaning
95. Holistic styles correlate with which of the following?

A. analytic cognition
- 45 -
B. field-independence
C. field-dependence
D. bicultural thinking
96. Wanda is researching an aboriginal group in New Zealand. She is making

a concerted attempt to learn the group’s symbols and language. She is trying to
become part of their:
A. religious community.
B. critical community.
C. language community.
D. heuristic community.
97. Pamela has been working on her interpretation skills for many years. Based
on the information presented in the book, what is most likely true about her?
A. She needs to work on her critical thinking skills.
B. She can function within multiple academic communities.
C. She is a chemist who focuses only on her career.
D. She is notorious for making snap judgments.
98. John impresses his friends by accurately interpreting all sorts of situations.
What is the “secret” to his success?
A. He never asks questions.
B. He works to resolve problematic vagueness.
C. He doesn’t believe in language communities.
D. He practices telepathy.
99. Which of the following is a cultural bias in standardized intelligence testing?

A. they are culture fair
B. they are culture free
C. these tests only measure practical knowledge needed to solve a problem in
a particular setting
D. they are based on indigenous concepts and knowledge
100. Sternberg and his colleagues explored how cultural context and
educational experiences shape our cognitive abilities and performance on
standardized intelligence tests. In one task, the research team measured the
children’s tacit knowledge. Tacit knowledge relates to:
A. knowledge acquired without direct instruction through observation and
participation
B. intelligence that helps you make connections between learned material
C. problem solving that helps us adapt to our environment
- 46 -
D. intelligence that connects to emotional development
101. One likely explanation for increased scores worldwide on non-verbal test
scores is:
A. apprenticeships
B. greater attention to possessing mechanical skills for employment
C. increased access to technology
D. an increase in visual perception skills
102. Which of the following IS NOT true regarding cognitive thinking styles?
A. They are mental guides which help us process information
B. They are mental guides which help us problem solve in specific contexts
C. They are important to the way we think, perceive, and organize information in
our daily social interactions
D. They are an accurate way to measure intelligence and problem-solving skills
103. Julia seeks out social situations and enjoys interacting with people. She
uses facial cues to help her make sense of her social world and trusts in the
decisions her caregivers make for her. Julia identifies with which cognitive
thinking style?
A. field-independent
B. field-dependent
C. field-emotionally dependent
D. field –emotionally independent
104. Which of the following IS TRUE regarding cognitive thinking styles?

A. thinking styles are permanent and fixed at birth
B. you cannot develop new cognitive styles
C. bicultural individuals often use different thinking styles depending upon
situational contexts
D. thinking styles do not change depending upon physical or cultural settings
105. Analytic styles correlate with which of the following?

C. field-dependence
106. Emily was born in Brazil and moved to the US as a young adult. When
processing perceptual fields Emily is most likely to:
A. always use holistic styles
- 47 -
B. always use analytic styles
C. always use a collectivist style
D. change styles depending upon the situational context
107. According to Sternberg, intelligence involves:

A. the ability to adapt to the environment
B. mechanical abilities
C. musical abilities
D. being obedient and respectful of others
108. Jordyn is able to connect material she is learning in her cultural psychology
course to material she learned in her anthropology course. This process relates
to which ability?
A. crystallized intelligence
B. fluid intelligence
C. tacit knowledge
109. Definitions of intelligence are culture-specific and dependent. Among the

Baoulé, local meanings of the language term n’glouèlȇ include all the
following EXCEPT:
A. responsibility
B. obedience
C. memory
D. creativity
110. Psychometrics connects to:

A. qualitative changes in intelligence
B. cultural qualities
C. quantitative measures of intelligence
D. social qualities
111. The intelligence factor, g refers to:

A. emotional intelligence
C. practical intelligence
D. general intelligence
112. Sternberg’s view of intelligence differs from Gardner’s because Sternberg

focused upon:
A. intellectual processes
- 48 -
B. domains of intelligence
113. Santino just developed a new app that helps children with physical
disabilities participate in sports play. Sternberg would place Santino’s ability
to develop this new app with which intellectual ability?
A. practical
B. fluid
C. creative
D. analytical
114. Which of the following IS NOT part of Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of

Intelligence?
A. creative
B. analytical
C. practical
D. logical-mathematical
115. To accommodate his view that intelligence and cultural context are
separable, Sternberg later added which intellectual process to his model of
intelligence?
A. logical-mathematical intelligence
B. cultural intelligence
D. successful intelligence
116. Andrew’s school counselor believes he has high emotional intelligence.

Andrew most likely possesses which of the following skills:
A. analytical reasoning
B. perceiving and monitoring feelings
C. interacting with people
D. communication and language skills
117. Cultural intelligence refers to:

A. a person’s ability to function in diverse cultural contexts
B. a person’s ability to speak multiple languages
C. a person’s ability to problem solve
D. a person’s ability to read another’s emotions
118. Cultural intelligence involves all the following dimensions EXCEPT:

- 49 -
A. metacognitive
B. emotional
C. motivational
D. behavioral
119. Jazmyn was born in Peru but has expansive knowledge about cultural
communities in Asia, Africa, and Australia. In which cultural intelligence
dimension does she excel?
A. metacognitive
B. cognitive
C. motivational
D. behavioral
120. Diago seems to know the right things to say and do in any cultural situation
in which he interacts. In which cultural dimension does he excel?
A. metacognitive
B. cognitive
C. motivational
D. behavioral
121. For which individual would cultural intelligence be a highly desirable skill?
A. a local elementary school with a homogenous student population
B. a business manager in a multinational company
C. a local eatery that serves neighborhood residents
D. a local pharmacy that serves neighborhood residents
122. Which field introduced the term ‘cultural intelligence’ into the literature?
A. health care
B. international business
C. anthropology
D. psychology
123. Good global leaders working in a multinational company should possess

the following abilities EXCEPT:
A. the ability to learn from experience
B. a learning style that emphasizes creativity
C. the ability to problem solving
D. seek traditional rather than imaginative ideas
124. Piaget believed children demonstrate their ability to adapt to their

environment by moving between which of the following process pairs?
- 50 -
A. assimilation and accommodation
B. equilibrium and disequilibrium
C. assimilation and equilibrium
D. accommodation and equilibrium
125. Rebecca knows how to play the clarinet and wants to learn how to play the
flute. She is relying on what she already knows about playing the clarinet to
learn the new instrument. This is an example of:
A. assimilation
B. equilibrium
C. accommodation
D. disequilibrium
126. What is the Flynn effect?

A. IQ scores increased over time in successive generations in all countries
B. IQ scores increased over time worldwide but only on verbal tests
C. verbal SAT scores increased dramatically in the US during this time period
D. verbal SAT scores increased worldwide during this time period
Second: True and False

1. A claim is what you use to state an opinion or a belief. (T)
2. Critical thinking consists in attacking other people's ideas. (F)
3. Whether a passage contains an argument depends on how long it is. (F)
4. When a question has been asked, an issue has been raised. (T)
5. All arguments have a premise. (T)
6. All arguments have a conclusion. (T)
7. You can reach a conclusion without believing it is true. (F)
8. Beliefs, judgments, and opinions are the same thing. (T)
9. All opinions are subjective. (F)
10. All factual claims are true. (F)
- 51 -
CHAPTER THREE
CREATIVE AND CRITICAL
THINKING IN BUSINESS
First: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. ___ is the general term given to a wide range of cognitive skills and
intellectual dispositions needed to effectively identify, analyze, and evaluate
arguments and truth claims; to discover and overcome personal preconceptions
and biases; to formulate and present convincing reasons in support of
conclusions; and to make reasonable, intelligent decisions about what to believe
and what to do.
A) Logic
B) Critical thinking
C) Rationality
D) Intelligence
2. Which of the following critical thinking hindrances is not discussed in detail

in this chapter?
A) Prejudice
B) Egocentrism
C) Sociocentrism
D) Wishful thinking
3. Which of the following is true of tribalism?

A) Extreme tribalism is easy to recognize as it is usually a conscious and voluntary
emotion.
B) The emotion is usually pronounced during periods of stress or perceived
threat.
C) It is considered to be a form of superiority bias.
D) It refers to individuals dissociating themselves from their social group.
4. Conformism is a form of-----

A) Rationalization
B) Sociocentrism
C) Provincialism
D) Short-term thinking
5. Self-interested thinking is a form of ________.

- 52 -
A) Emotive thinking
B) Short-term thinking
C) Sociocentrism
D) Egocentrism
6. The researcher who used electrical shocks to demonstrate the power of

conformism was----- _____
A) Jean Piaget
B) Stanley Milgram
C) Solomon Asch
D) Abraham Maslow
7. Critical thinking is marked by------

A) Clarity
B) Completeness
C) Consistency
D) All of the answers are correct
8. A course in critical thinking can improve students' ability to _____.

A) Understand course materials
B) Critically evaluate course materials
C) Argue effectively for their own views on course topics
9. Which of the following reflects group-centered thinking?

A) Egocentrism
B) Sociocentrism
C) Group bias
D) The herd instinct
10. ________ is the tendency to overrate oneself.

A) Superiority bias
B) Egocentrism
C) Sociocentrism
D) Vanity
11. ________ is the tendency to conform, often unthinkingly, to authority or to

group standards of conduct and belief.
A) Authoritarianism
B) The lemming instinct
C) Sociocentrism
- 53 -
D) Conformism
12. ________ are generalizations about a group of people in which identical

characteristics are assigned to all or virtually all members of the group, often
without regard to whether such attributions are accurate.
A) Stereotypes
B) Biases
C) Assumptions
D) None of the answers are correct
13. Amber notices that a few currency notes are missing from her purse kept
on her coffee table. She immediately holds Lily, the housemaid, accountable for
it because the previous housemaid who was from the same village as Lily had
stolen money from Amber's house. In this case, Amber's thought process
reflects __.
A) Hasty generalization
B) Superiority bias
C) Narcissism
D) Relativistic thinking
14. ________ is the view that truth is a matter of individual opinion.

A) Relativism
B) Subjectivism
C) Emotivism
D) Individualism
15. ________ is the view that truth is a matter of social or cultural opinion.
A) Cultural relativism
B) Subjectivism
C) Non-absolutism
D) Majoritarianism
16. ________ is the view that what is morally right and good for an individual
is whatever that person believes is morally right and good.
A) Conventionalism
B) Moral anti-realism
C) Moral subjectivism
D) Preferentialism
17. Relativism ________.

A) Makes it impossible for us to correctly criticize other cultures' customs and values
- 54 -
B) Makes it impossible for us to correctly criticize our own societies' customs and
values
C) Can lead to conflicting moral duties
18. The fact that there is deep disagreement about ethical issues shows that __.
A) There is no objective truth in ethics
B) Ethics is just a matter of opinion
C) There is no right or wrong
19. Which of the following barriers to critical thinking is highlighted in this

Chapter?
A) Selective memory
B) Wishful thinking
C) Provincialism
D) The availability biases
20. Believing something because it makes one feel good, not because there is
good reason for believing that it is true, is referred to as ________.
A) Practical inconsistency
B) Egocentrism
C) Wishful thinking
D) Divergent thinking
21. The following statement is an example of _____. "This generous pension

package benefits me; therefore, it's good."
A) Sociocentric thinking
B) Self-interested thinking
C) Group bias
D) Superiority bias
22. Aleesha, who wants to have two biological children, is extremely happy with
the government's decision to relax the one-child policy in her country. Her
country is struggling with the problem of overpopulation, but Aleesha does not
want the government to recall this decision. This scenario illustrates _____.
A) A self-fulfilling prophecy
B) Self-interested thinking
C) Conformism
D) Elitism
- 55 -
23. Uncritical thinkers tend to ________.
A) be closed-minded and resist criticisms of beliefs and assumptions
B) Think illogically and draw unsupported conclusions from evidence and data
C) Base beliefs on mere personal preference or self-interest
24. According to the opening Vignette, John Goscha can best be described as
a/an
(A) Franchiser
(B) Entrepreneur
(C) Corporate business manager
(D) Small business manager
25. Rubin's day-to-day job as a business owner involves identifying

opportunities for which marketable ideas exist and assuming the risk to make
these ideas happen. Rubin can best be described as a/an
(A) Innovator
(B) Marketer
(C) Entrepreneur
26. Jasper has developed a concept for a start-up company that involves
developing a new process for priming and painting automobile panels. Based
on this example, Jasper is focusing on which entrepreneurial behavior?
(A) Creation
(B) Innovation
(C) Risk assumption
(D) Performance intention
27. Which of the following behaviors was not cited as being included in most
definitions of an entrepreneur?
(A) Controlling
(B) Creation
(C) Innovation
(D) Risk assumption
28. A small business manager faces which of the following environmental

forces?
(A) Finding opportunities
(B) Prompting creativity
(C) Locating an incubator
- 56 -
(D) Hiring and retaining employees
29. ____ is the entrepreneurial behavior that involves the expectation of high
levels of growth or profit.
(A) General management
(B) Supply chain
(C) Risk assumption
30. Entrepreneurship primarily involves which phase of business?

(A) The startup processes
(B) Hiring of key employees
(C) Maintaining a positive cash flow
(D) Building and maintaining a sufficient customer base
31. The entrepreneurial process in the startup process model begins with
(A) A visit to the local banker for startup funds
(B) A visit to the local library for more information on the business
(C) A visit to a favorite business professor for advice
(D) An innovative idea that is refined as the idea is thought through
32. The entrepreneurship process begins with

(A) An innovative idea
(B) A triggering event
(C) Implementation
(D) Growth
33. Sue Pollen is a partner in a cake-decorating company. Her role within the
company is to identify new markets for growth and sustaining the company's
long-term financial health by maintaining all financial records. As such, Sue
can best be described as a/an
(A) Entrepreneur
(B) CEO
(C) Nonprofit manager
34. The time span for the innovation phase may be

(A) One month or less
(B) One year or more
(C) Several months or even several years
(D) Five years or more
- 57 -
35. The phase of implementation in the entrepreneurial process involves all but
which of the following?
(A) Introducing new products
(B) Opening new markets
(C) Industrial reorganization
(D) Developing an advertising campaign
36. which of the following is the key element needed to bring the entrepreneurial
idea to reality during the implementation stage?
(A) Capital/money
(B) Commitment
(C) Management expertise
(D) A college education
37. When does the entrepreneurship stage end and the small business
management stage begin?
(A) When the maturity stage ends
(B) When the growth stage ends
(C) After the entrepreneurial event ends
(D) When the triggering event ends
38. Which stage of the startup process is characterized by relative certainty that
the business will survive?
(A) Growth
(B) Maturity
(C) Harvest
(D) Implementation
39. The stage in the startup process model in which the small business owner
removes himself/herself from the business is which of the following?
(A) Growth
(B) Maturity
(C) Implementation
(D) Harvest
40. In the growth stage of the startup process model, what is the primary goal
of the small business?
(A) Regulations
(B) Employees
(C) Vendors
(D) Reaching critical mass (survival)
- 58 -
41. Forces that occur outside of the business that affect the business and its
owner are referred to as
(A) Financial factors
(B) Controlled factors
(C) Environmental factors
(D) Internal factors
42. In the triggering event and the implementation stages of the startup process
model, which of the following environmental factors will affect the small
business?
(A) Role models
(B) Suppliers
(C) Bankers
(D) Competition
43. An entrepreneur faces which of the following environmental forces?

(A) Hiring and retaining employees
(B) Dealing with vendors and suppliers
(C) Fighting government regulations
(D) Identifying product opportunities
44. In the ____ stage of the business management process, attention is placed
on team building, setting strategies, and creating a structure and culture of the
business.
(A) Harvest
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Innovation
45. In the triggering event stage of the startup process model (Figure 2.3), which
of the following personal characteristics are needed by the small business
owner?
(A) Leadership
(B) Vision
(C) Commitment
(D) Boredom
46. in the innovation and triggering event stages of the startup process model
which of the following personal characteristics are needed by the small business
owner?
(A) Better opportunity
- 59 -
(B) Planning
(C) Commitment
(D) Risk taking
47. In the growth stage of the startup process model (Figure 2.3), which of the
following organizational characteristics is needed?
(A) Strategy
(B) Marketing
(C) IPO
(D) Operation management
48. About half of all business owners choose to go into business for themselves
because they
(A) Want to earn lots of money
(B) Like the challenge
(C) Want to avoid hard work
(D) Want to fulfill others' expectations
49. The primary reason most people start their own business is to
(A) Build for their family
(B) Earn large sums of money
(C) Use their skills/abilities
(D) Live where they like
50. Some of the risks assumed through self-employment include all of the
following except
(A) Income uncertainty
(B) Long work hours
(C) Personal liability
(D) A change in the owner's personality
51. Which of the following is not prerequisite for becoming a successful

entrepreneur?
(A) Passion
(B) Determination
(C) Knowledge
(D) Education
52. The personal quality linked to entrepreneurship in which people are

motivated to excel and choose situations where success is likely is known as
(A) Locus of control
- 60 -
(B) Need to achieve
(C) Need to succeed
(D) High performance goals
53. The ability to control one's own fate is known as

(A) Locus of control
(B) Self-determination
(C) Perseverance
(D) Need to achieve
54. The ability to see, conceive, and create new and unique products, services,
and processes is known as
(A) Innovation
(B) Risk taking
(C) Product development
(D) Locus of control
55. A characteristic of entrepreneurial personality that leads one to avoid goals

that would be extremely difficult to achieve or goals with success almost
guaranteed is called
(A) Internal locus of control
(B) A high desire for risk
(C) Flexibility
(D) A high need to achieve
56. After spending 15 years working in the restaurant industry, Alex has
decided to open a restaurant of his own. His 15 years of experience will allow
him to capitalize on which of the following?
(A) Passion
(B) Determination
(C) Trustworthiness
(D) Knowledge
57. The one overriding characteristic needed to be a successful small business

owner is which of the following?
(A) Confidence
(B) Energy
(C) Vision for the future
(D) Incredible tenacity
- 61 -
58. Which two areas of coursework are the fastest growing subjects in business
schools?
(A) Management and Marketing
(B) Entrepreneurship and Small Business Management
(C) Operation Management and Finance
(D) Management and Finance
59. Which of the following is more important in the future development of a

small business owner than the formal education received in school?
(A) Financial backing
(B) Management expertise
(C) Lifelong learning
(D) Technical skills
60. The three forms of business ownership include all but which of the
following?
(A) Sole proprietorships
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Joint ventures
61. Which of the following is the most common form of business ownership?
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Joint ventures
62. Which of the following forms of business ownership brings in the most
business-generated revenue?
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Acquisitions
63. The trends for small businesses in the United States from 1980 to 2003 show
the greatest increase in the number of
(A) Partnerships
(B) Public corporations
(C) Very small businesses
(D) Private corporations
- 62 -
64. Which form of business ownership grew most rapidly from 1980 to 2006 as
evidenced by the number of business tax returns filed?
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Mergers
65. The single biggest disadvantage of sole proprietorships is which of the

following?
(A) Limited resources
(B) Limited skills
(C) Unlimited liability
(D) Double taxation
66. Which disadvantage of sole proprietorships centers around the fact that
capital is difficult to raise?
(A) Limited resources
(B) Limited skills
(C) Unlimited liability
(D) Lack of continuity
67. Which of the following is created to complete a specified purpose and is

limited in duration?
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Joint Venture
(C) C Corporation
(D) S Corporation
68. The following are advantages of which form of business ownership: pooled
talent, pooled resources, easy to form, tax advantages?
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Acquisitions
69. A business structure in which the business owners share the management
and all of the risk of a business is called a
(B) General partnership
(C) Limited partnership
(D) Corporation
- 63 -
70. The following are disadvantages of which form of business ownership:
unlimited liability, management conflict potential, and less independence?
(B) Partnerships
(C) Corporations
(D) Mergers
71. In a limited partnership, at least one partner

(A) Has unlimited liability
(B) Has limited liability
(C) Has raised 50 percent more capital than the other partners
(D) Has given up any tax advantages
72. Corporations that sell shares of stock to the public and are listed on the
stock exchange are referred to as
(A) Divested corporations
(B) Entrepreneurial corporations
(C) Closely held corporations
(D) Public corporations
73. Which of the following forms of business ownership has the following
advantages: limited liability, increased access to resources, and easy transfer of
ownership?
(B) Partnership
(C) Corporation
(D) Joint venture
74. Which of the following forms of business ownership has the following
disadvantages: expensive to start, complex to maintain, and double taxation?
(B) Partnership
(C) Corporation
(D) Closely held corporation
75. A type of corporation that taxes the owners as partners yet provides more
flexibility is called a/an
(A) Non-profit corporation
(B) S corporation
(C) Limited partnership
(D) Limited liability’s company
- 64 -
76. What types of corporations largely depend on grants from private
foundations and public donations to meet expenses?
(A) Nonprofit corporations
(B) Limited-liability companies
(C) S corporations
(D) C corporations
77. Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?
a) Business model
b) Modeling
c) Creative flexibility
d) Innovation
78. Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help
to market new products?
a) Existing products and services
b) Federal government
c) Distribution Channels
d) Consumers
79. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an

international market before making a major commitment?
a) Merger
b) Minority Interest
c) Joint venture
d) Majority interest
80. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without

regard to resources they currently control?
a) Startup management
b) Entrepreneurship
c) Financial analysis
d) Feasibility planning
81. Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is

called:
a) Joint Venture
b) Majority interest
c) Minority interest
d) Exporting
- 65 -
82. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new
products that over time make current products obsolete?
a) New business model
b) Anatomization
c) None of the given options
d) Creative destruction
83. Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship
b) Entrepreneurship
c) Act of stating a new venture
d) Offering new products by an existing company
84. Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known
as which of the following?
a) Moral-support network
b) Role model
c) Professional support network
d) Support system
85. The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:
a) Motivation
b) Business skills
c) Departure point
d) Goal orientation
86. The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:

a) Financial status
b) Qualification
c) Social status
d) Achievement
87. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to
their familiarity with the needs of market?
b) Distribution channels
c) Federal government
d) Consumers
88. Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas
because:
- 66 -
a) They earn a handsome profit from new business
b) They are familiar with the needs of the market
c) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
d) They have well-developed sales force
89. Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a

successful business website?
a) Innovation
b) Speed
c) Graphics
d) Products
90. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product
Planning and Development Process?
a) Idea Stage
b) Product Planning Stage
c) Product Development Stage
d) Test Marketing Stage
91. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new

venture?
a) To identify possible sources of funds
b) To see if there are possible barriers to success
c) To estimate the expected sales
d) To explore potential customers
92. Information regarding all of the following is related to operations,

EXCEPT:
a) Location
b) Promotion
c) Raw materials
d) Labor skills
93. Venture capital is concerned with:

(a) New project having potential for higher profit
(b) New project of high technology
(c) New project having high risk
(d) All the above.
94. Which of the following is one of the goals of critical listening?

A) To understand the information
- 67 -
B) To retain the information of the speaker's message
C) To identify organizations for innovation
D) To evaluate the strength of the evidence
95. What type of listening skills allows a speaker to use a calm, clear-headed
approach in speaking?
A) Empathic
B) Content
C) Critical
D) Active
96. Which listening skill is being used when biases are minimized and there is
an attempt to understand what the other party is saying?
A) Persuasive
B) Active
C) Content
D) Empathetic
97. During which phase of the listening process does the listener acknowledge
hearing the message through nonverbal clues?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
98. Which of the following is the process of assigning meaning to sound, based
on your values and beliefs?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
99. During which phase of the listening process do you store information for
future use?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
100. Which type of listening skill requires applying critical thinking skills and
evaluating the quality of evidence?
- 68 -
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
101. Which of the following is the stage of the listening process where the
listener reacts to the message?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Responding
102. Which of the following is an outcome of selective listening?

A) Passive listening
B) Extensive questions
C) Remembering what you think the speaker probably said
D) More focus on the speaker
103. which of the following is a tool used by effective listeners to increase focus
on the speaker?
B) Taking as few notes as possible
C) Using the same style in all situations
D) Staying focused on the speaker and content
104. Which of the following can be used to improve listening skills?

A) Assume you already know everything that is important on the subject
B) Make little or no eye contact
C) Multitask
D) Overlook stylistic differences and focus on the message
105. Which of the following takes place when the listener makes up their mind
about a message before fully hearing the message?
A) Defensive listening
B) Misinterpreting
C) Paraphrasing
D) Categorizing
106. Which of the following can help when trying to store information in long-
term memory?
A) Use passive listening techniques
- 69 -
B) Categorize new information into logical groups
C) Overlook stylistic differences
D) Make distinctions between main points and supporting details
107. Which of the following can improve your understanding of a message when
you and the speaker don't share enough of the same language?
A) Create acronyms and rhymes for key ideas
B) Visualize words and ideas as pictures
C) Paraphrase the idea and have the speaker confirm what you think you heard
D) Give the speaker nonverbal cues
108. If you are listening mainly to understand the speaker's message, you are
engaging in
A) Content listening.
B) Critical listening.
C) Empathic listening.
D) Active listening.
109. An effective listener tries to practice ________ in an effort to hear and

understand what the other party is saying.
A) Emphatic listening
B) Critical listening
C) Active listening
D) Content listening
110. Some people use ________ to tune out anything that doesn't conform to
their beliefs or their self-images.
A) Empathetic listening
B) constricted listening
C) Egocentric listening
D) Defensive listening
111. The goal of ________ is to understand and evaluate a speaker's message

based on elements such as logic, evidence, and validity, as well as the speaker's
intentions and motives.
A) Cerebral listening
B) Content listening
C) Critical listening
D) Covert listening
- 70 -
112. Which of the following is defined as the process of sending and receiving
information without using written or spoken language?
A) Listening
B) Etiquette
C) Focus
D) Nonverbal communication
113. Which nonverbal signal indicates the intensity of feelings and conveys
emotions?
A) Time and space
B) Slouching
C) Personal appearance
D) Facial expression
114. How can a communicator intentionally influence messages using vocal

characteristics?
A) By controlling pitch, pace, and stress
B) By adopting their style to match those whom they wish to impress
C) By supporting the message with touch that conveys warmth and reassurance
D) By asserting authority and implying intimacy
115. Which of the following nonverbal communication cues can be altered in

order to adopt the style of the people you want to impress?
A) Listening
B) Empathy
D) Technology
116. Which of these nonverbal cues helps to reveal the intensity of a speaker's
feelings?
A) Listening
B) Etiquette
C) Time management
D) Eye contact
117. Which of the following is one way to improve your understanding of

nonverbal communication?
A) Separate nonverbal signals from the communication process
B) Avoid replacing words with cues
C) Avoid physical touch if warmth and understanding needs to be displayed
D) Watch for cues from gestures and posture
- 71 -
118. Which of the following nonverbal cues is being sent when a group member
arrives promptly to a meeting as a show of respect?
A) Time and space
B) Personal appearance
C) Vocal characteristics
D) Gestures and postures
119. Body movement can send an unintentional message based of which

nonverbal cue?
A) Facial expression
B) Gesture and posture
D) Personal appearance
120. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is FALSE?

A) Facial expressions are a primary means of conveying emotions.
B) A person's voice carries both intended and unintended nonverbal cues.
C) Nonverbal signals can be used to assert both authority and intimacy.
D) Mastering nonverbal signals will allow you to "read someone like a book."
121. Nonverbal signals can ________ a verbal message.

A) Strengthen
B) Weaken
C) Replace
D) all of the above
122. What are the variety of behaviors, manners, and habits used in the
workplace referred to as?
A) Grooming
B) Professionalism
C) Nonverbal skills
D) Etiquette
123. Because phone calls lack the visual richness of face-to-face conversations,
which of the following can be used to convey professionalism?
A) Etiquette
B) Gestures and posture
C) Listening skills
D) Attitude and tone of voice
- 72 -
124. Which of the following is needed when practicing business etiquette when
in teams and in meetings?
A) Mutual respect and consideration among participants
B) Integration of mobile communication and social media
C) Participative management
D) Creativity
125. Which of these is an example of courteous phone behavior?

A) Vary pitch and inflection
B) Increasing the audience's knowledge level
C) Verify you are calling at a good time
D) Forward all calls you cannot answer directly
126. Which of the following is a good example of business etiquette in a social

situation?
A) Don't look guests from other cultures in the eye
B) Only shake hands when someone else extends their hand first
C) Finishing a text message while introducing yourself to someone
D) Briefly describe your role in the company when you introduce yourself
127. Which of the following is an important etiquette guideline when you are
representing your company online?
A) Only use personal attacks on blog postings and social media sites
B) Strongly state your opinions so they sound like facts
C) Use texting style whenever possible to keep messages short and to the point
D) Stay focused on the original topic; if you need to change the subject, start a
new message thread
128. If you want to change the subject of an ongoing email thread, which of
these steps should you take?
A) Start a new message thread
B) Do not use the "Reply All" function
C) Change the text in the subject line
D) Indicate who the new message goes to by inserting their name above the message
129. When using digital media, how can you be sure you are presenting facts
instead of your opinion?
A) Include links to Wikis
B) Include supporting evidence
C) Open a discussion forum
D) Assume others will view the message
- 73 -
130. When conducting business over a meal, when does the business aspect of
the meal begin?
A) After drinks
B) After small talk about religion or politics
C) After the entrée is finished
D) After getting to know your guest by asking about personal matters
131. When working with people from other cultures, which of the following will
help ensure proper etiquette in social settings?
A) Don't shake hands unless invited to
B) Introduce yourself with a humorous comment
C) Explain your role in the organization
D) Learn about the customs of the other cultures
132. When leaving a voicemail message, which of these should you be sure to
include?
A) The best time to return your call
B) Detail questions or instruction
C) Who else you are calling
D) A list of all issues that need to be covered
133. Which of the following is an example of a way to increase the clarity of

communication and display courtesy when ending a business call?
A) Indicate that the follow up will be complicated
B) Make an appointment to continue the phone call at a later date
C) Close with a personal comment about your working relationship
D) Double-check vital information such as meeting times and dates
134. Which of the following steps should be taken when you have an important
or complicated message to deliver by phone?
A) Plan what you want to say before calling
B) Establish the needs of the person you are calling
C) Leave a detailed voice message describing when you will call and what the
discussion will be about
D) Be courteous
135. Successful teamwork, productive meetings, effective listening, and

nonverbal communication all depend on ________ among all participants.
A) Face-to-face contact
B) Mutual respect and consideration
- 74 -
C) Common cultural reference points
D) The use of the latest communication technology
136. A new coworker from Russia asks you about North American greeting
customs. You explain that in most business contexts,
A) Women are not expected to shake hands.
B) It is not necessary to stand up before shaking hands if you are already seated.
C) Shaking hands is an outdated custom in North America.
D) a firm handshake is expected when two people meet.
137. When you're using a mobile device, making any of the following choices
EXCEPT ________ will reflect negatively on your professionalism.
A) Talking loudly in open offices or public places
B) Texting during a meal or while someone is talking to you
C) Allowing incoming calls/texts to interrupt meetings or discussions
D) Asking for permission before using your device's camera
138. Because phone calls lack the visual richness of face-to-face conversations,
you'll need to use ________ to convey confidence and professionalism.
A) Questions and social media
B) Smartphones and apps
C) Context and subject matter
D) Attitude and tone of voice
Second: TRUE / FALSE

1. A small business manager and an entrepreneur perform the same functions. (F)
2. Entrepreneurs recognize an opportunity and start a business to take advantage of
it. (T)
3. Entrepreneurship and small business management are processes, not isolated
incidents. (T)
4. Financial risks, material risks, and psychological risks are all risks faced by the
entrepreneur. (T)
5. Mergers, IPOs, and ESOPs are all forms that can be taken in the harvest stage of
the startup process model. (T)
6. A triggering event is a specific event or occurrence that sparks the entrepreneur
to proceed from thinking to doing. (T)
7. In the end, every business will eventually reach the harvest stage. (F)
8. Environmental factors are the traits possessed by the business owner that affect
the development of the small business. (F)
9. Personal characteristics vary as a business evolves from one stage to another. (T)
- 75 -
10. There is only one factor that could be called a triggering event.
11. Personality characteristics are not useful in predicting who will be a successful
entrepreneur. (T)
12. The primary reason most people go into business for themselves is to gain the
respect of others. (F)
13. Independence and control over their own lives are reasons many people begin
small businesses. (T)
14. More than 50 percent of business owners started their own business in order to
earn large sums of money. (F)
15. Individuals who prefer steady pay and a normal nine-to-five work schedule also
tend to gravitate toward self-employment. (F)
16. Income uncertainty is one of the most challenging aspects of starting a new
business. (T)
17. The conclusion after more than 30 years of research on personal characteristics
is that successful entrepreneurs cannot be predicted. (T)
18. The typical entrepreneur tends to accept moderate risk only after careful
examination. (T)
19. The three most important characteristics that every successful entrepreneur
possesses are perseverance, needed technical skills, and a deep belief in
himself/herself. (T)
20. Entrepreneurs tend to have a weaker internal locus of control than do people in
general. (F)
21. One's own efforts are the most important factor to a person with a strong locus
of control. (T)
22. Over 25 percent of all new business owners have an MBA or other professional
degree. (F)
23. Entrepreneurs and small business owners typically have higher education levels
than the general public. (T)
24. the most common form of business in the United States today is the corporation.
(F)
25. A sole proprietorship is owned by two or more persons. (F)
26. A major advantage of a sole proprietorship is that the owner has complete control
over the business. (T)
27. The major disadvantage of a sole proprietorship is limited liability. (F)
28. The biggest advantage of partnerships is the pooling of talents and resources. (T)
29. In a partnership, if both partners bring the same qualities to the business, then
one of them is probably not needed. (T)
30. Although the ability to raise capital is better with a partnership than with a
proprietorship, a partnership still cannot usually gather as many resources as a
corporation. (T)
- 76 -
31. In a partnership, the partners will be held liable only for their own negligence.
(F)
32. If a partner leaves, the partnership is dissolved and the remaining partners can
either find a new partner or terminate the business. (T)
33. One of the most serious problems that can threaten a partnership is managerial
conflict. (T)
34. Foresight in writing articles of partnership can solve many partner problems in
the future. (T)
35. A closely held corporation publicly trades its shares of stock on a major auction
market. (F)
36. A form of business ownership where the business is owned by a limited group
of people and the stock is not traded publicly is called a closely held corporation. (T)
37. Limited liability is the major advantage of forming a business as a corporation.
(T)
38. C corporations and S corporations are taxed the same. (F)
39. A document describing a business that is filed with the state in which a business
is formed is referred to as articles of incorporation. (T)
40. C corporations provide individuals with limited-liability protection of a
corporation while allowing the tax advantages of a partnership. (F)
41. LLCs can be an attractive form of ownership for small businesses. (T)
42. now that technology is so vital in the workplace, few executives view listening
as an important skill. (F)
43. The primary goal of empathic listening is to solve the speaker's problem. (F)
44. Your ability to listen effectively will have little effect on your long-term career
prospects. (F)
45. One reason listening is often difficult is because people speak faster than the
listener can think. (F)
46. People are often judged based on the way they dress. (T)
47. The business aspect of a dinner meeting usually begins after entrée plates have
been removed. (T)
48. The habits you exhibit while using your mobile device exemplify your attitude
toward the people around you. (T)
49. When we use the word "critical" in reference to critical thinking, we mean
"negative and fault-finding." (F)
50. Wishful thinking is the tendency to accept and defend beliefs that accord with
one's own self-interest. (F)
51. Stereotypes are generalizations about a group of people in which identical
characteristics are assigned to all or virtually all members of the group, often without
regard to whether such attributions are accurate. (T)
52. One common form of sociocentrism is group bias. (T)
- 77 -
53. A person is guilty of practical inconsistency when he or she is hypocritical or
fails to practice what he or she preaches. (T)
54. College tends to emphasize higher-order thinking. (T)
55. According to Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman, the availability heuristic
describes the common tendency to make an estimate based on an initial starting point
and then fail to adjust sufficiently from that starting point. (F)
56. One form of egocentrism is the superiority bias. (T)
57. Precision is an important critical thinking standard. (T)
58. One important critical thinking disposition is intellectual humility. (T)
59. Egocentrism is group-centered thinking. (F)
60. Group bias is a form of egocentrism. (F)
61. Conformism is the tendency to see one's culture or group as being better than
others. (F)
62. Unwarranted assumptions are things we take for granted without good reason.
(T)
63. Relativistic thinking is based on the idea that there is no objective or absolute
truth because truth is simply a matter of opinion. (T)
64. Logical inconsistency involves saying or believing two or more things that
cannot all be true. (T)
65. Logical correctness is a matter of drawing well-founded conclusions from a set
of beliefs. (T)
66. Thinking is "fair" when it is open-minded, impartial, and free of distorting biases
and preconceptions. (T)
67. Clarity is the same thing as precision. (F)
68. Relativism can lead to conflicting moral duties. (T)
69. Self-interested thinking is the tendency to see one's own group (nation, tribe,
sect, peer group, etc.) as being inherently better than others. (F)
70. Superiority bias is the tendency to overrate oneself, which means to see oneself
as better in some respect than one actually is. (T)
71. Egocentrism is the tendency to see reality as centered on oneself. (T)
72. An assumption is something we take for granted, something we accept as true
without any proof or conclusive evidence. (T)
73. Subjectivism is the view that truth is a matter of social or cultural opinion. (F)
74. Relativism rules out the idea of moral progress. (T)
- 78 -
THIRD: SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS
(1) List at least three benefits of effective listening in business.
Answer: Effective listening strengthens organizational relationships, alerts an
organization to opportunities for innovation, and allows the organization to manage
growing diversity both in the workforce and in the customers it serves.
(2) Discuss ways to retain information when the information is important and
might be used later.
Answer: If the information you hear will be important to use later, write it down or
otherwise record it. Don't rely on your memory. If you do need to memorize, you
can hold information in short-term memory by repeating it silently or organizing a
long list of items into several shorter lists. To store information in long-term
memory, four techniques can help: (1) associate new information with something
closely related (such as the restaurant in which you met a new client), (2) categorize
the new information into logical groups (such as alphabetizing a list of names), (3)
visualize words and ideas as pictures, and (4) create mnemonics such as acronyms
or rhymes.
(3) Identify five ways to become a more effective listener.

Answer: There are 11 ways to improve your listening skills. Those include:
1. Listen actively.
2. Take careful and complete notes, when applicable.
3. Make frequent eye contact with the speaker (depends on culture to some
extent).
4. Stay focused on the speaker and the content.
5. Mentally paraphrase key points to maintain attention level and ensure
comprehension. Adjust listening style to the situation.
6. Give the speaker nonverbal cues (such as nodding to show agreement or
raising eyebrows to show surprise or skepticism).
7. Save questions or points of disagreement until an appropriate time.
8. Overlook stylistic differences and focus on the speaker's message.
9. Make distinctions between main points and supporting details.
10.Look for opportunities to learn.
(4) Identify and explain the five steps in the listening process.
Answer:
1. Receiving. You start by physically hearing the message and acknowledging it.
Physical reception can be blocked by noise, impaired hearing, or inattention. Some
experts also include nonverbal messages as part of this stage because these factors
influence the listening process as well.
- 79 -
2. Decoding. Your next step is to assign meaning to sounds, which you do according
to your own values, beliefs, ideas, expectations, roles, needs, and personal history.
3. Remembering. Before you can act on the information, you need to store it for
future processing. Incoming messages must first be captured in short-term memory
before being transferred to long-term memory for more permanent storage.
4. Evaluating. The next step is to evaluate the message by applying critical thinking
skills to separate fact from opinion and evaluate the quality of the evidence.
5. Responding. After you've evaluated the speaker's message, you react. If you're
communicating one-on-one or in a small group, the initial response generally takes
the form of verbal feedback. If you're one of many in an audience, your initial
response may take the form of applause, laughter, or silence. Later on, you may act
on what you have heard.
(5) List at least three general categories of nonverbal communication.

Answer: The general categories of nonverbal communication include
(1) Facial expression,
(2) Gesture and posture,
(3) Vocal characteristics,
(4) Personal appearance,
(5) Touch, and
(6) Use of time and space
(6) If you are new to a company, what is the best way to decide what type of
dress is appropriate in that organization?
Answer: The best way to learn what type of dress is right for those who work in a
particular organization is to pay attention to the style of dress of other employees
and adjust your style to match. If you're not sure, dress moderately and simply.
(7) List and briefly explain the three roles nonverbal communication plays in
communication.
Answer: The first role of nonverbal communication is complementing verbal
language. Nonverbal signals can strengthen, weaken, or even replace verbal
messages. The second role is revealing truth. It is much more difficult to deceive
others with nonverbal signals than with verbal ones. Finally, nonverbal
communication conveys information efficiently, since nonverbal signals can convey
both nuance and rich amounts of information in an instant.
Diff: 3
(8) Discuss how nonverbal communications skills can affect your speaking and
listening skills.
- 80 -
Answer: Paying attention to nonverbal cues will make you a better speaker and a
better listener. When you're talking, be more conscious of the nonverbal cues you
could be sending. Also consider the nonverbal signals you send when you're not
talking—the clothes you wear, the way you sit, the way you walk. Whether or not
you think it is fair to be judged on superficial matters, the truth is that you are judged
this way. Don't let careless choices or disrespectful habits undermine all the great
work you're doing on the job. When you listen, be sure to pay attention to the
speaker's nonverbal cues.
(9) Identify and discuss the 6 types of nonverbal communication signals.

Answer:
1. Facial expression. Your face is the primary vehicle for expressing your emotions;
it reveals both the type and the intensity of your feelings.
2. Gesture and posture. The way you position and move your body expresses both
specific and general messages, some voluntary and some involuntary.
3. Vocal characteristics. Voice carries both intentional and unintentional messages.
A speaker can intentionally control pitch, pace, and stress to convey a specific
message.
4. Personal appearance. People respond to others on the basis of their physical
appearance, sometimes fairly and other times unfairly.
5. Touch. Touch is an important way to convey warmth, comfort, and reassurance—
as well as control. Touch is so powerful, in fact, that it is governed by cultural
customs that establish who can touch whom and how in various circumstances.
6. Time and space. Like touch, time and space can be used to assert authority, imply
intimacy, and send other nonverbal messages.
(10) While having lunch with a client, what should you do with the business
papers you brought to discuss? Why?
Answer: Since the business part of most meals does not begin until after entrée
plates have been removed, you should place the papers under your chair or under the
table until then.
(11) Identify and discuss five tips that can help you use the phone confidently
and professionally.
Answer: When you're using the phone at work, you have to rely on your attitude
and tone of voice to convey confidence and professionalism. Here are some tips that
can help: Be conscious of how your voice sounds. Avoid monotone; vary your pitch
and inflections. Slow down when talking with people whose native language isn't
the same as yours. Be courteous when you call someone. Identify yourself and your
organization, briefly explain why you're calling, verify that you've called at a good
time, and minimize the noise level in your environment. Convey a positive,
- 81 -
professional attitude when you answer the phone. Answer promptly (with a
smile), and identify yourself and your company. Determine the caller's needs by
asking, "How may I help you?" If you can't answer the caller's questions, forward
the call to a colleague who can or tell the caller how to get his or her questions
resolved. If you plan to forward a call, put the caller on hold and verify that the
colleague is available. Close in a positive manner and double-check all vital
information. Use your own voicemail features to help callers. Record a brief,
professional-sounding outgoing message for regular use. When you'll be away from
the phone for an extended period, record a temporary greeting that tells callers when
you'll respond to messages. If you don't check your messages regularly or at all,
disable your voicemail. Be considerate when leaving voicemail messages. Unless
voicemail is the best or only choice, consider leaving a message through other
means, such as text messaging or email. If you leave a voicemail, keep it brief: your
name, number, reason for calling, and times you can be reached.
- 82 -
CHAPTER FOUR
CREATIVITY AND SOCIOEMOTIONAL
INTILLEGENCE
First: Description of Emotions
1. Emotions are:
A. objective responses to experiences in our environment
B. subjective responses to experiences in our environment
C. physiological changes to experiences in our environment
D. behavioral changes to experiences in our environment
2. Which of the following statements aligned with the James-Lang theory of

emotion?
A. emotions are objective responses to experiences in our environment
B. emotional experiences are dependent upon physiological responses
C. emotional experiences are dependent upon physiological responses and how
a person interprets those responses
D. emotions are the result of an individual’s emotional intelligence
3. The James-Lang theory of emotion would predict that:

A. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face you should
experience anger
B. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face should experience
happiness
C. if your blood pressure rises and you interpret this behavior positively you will
experience happiness
D. if your blood pressure rises and you get red in the face not all individuals will
experience anger
4. Which of the following statements aligned with the Two Factor theory of
emotion?
5. The Two Factor Theory of emotions would predict that:

A. emotional responses are universal
- 83 -
B. if your heartbeats rapidly because you have to speak in public, you will
experience fear
C. situational and contextual factors shape our interpretations of our
emotional experience
D. cognitive interpretation has no place in emotional experience
6. The term emoting refers to:

B. the universal experience of emotion
C. the culturally specific experience of emotion
D. the embedding of emotions and social relationships
7. The phrase “acting in context” connects to which of the following concepts:

B. the James-Lange theory of emotions
C. emoting
D. the Two Factor theory of emotions
8. Which of the following is an example of emoting in infancy?

A. an infant smile at a caregiver and the caregiver continues playing with the
infant
B. a newborn cry because he or she is tired
C. newborn laughs at a social stimulus
D. a caregiver feeds and infant who is hungry
9. In early childhood, children learn about their emotions through all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. observing adults
B. conversations with adult partners
C. childrearing practices
D. their intuitive thinking about the world
10. All of the following shape emoting EXCEPT:

A. gender roles
B. culture
C. power
D. language
11. In societies that value the connectedness of individuals, shame is an

emotional response that encourages the development of all of the
following EXCEPT:
- 84 -
A. failure
B. humility
C. obedience
D. interdependency
12. Mesquita’s view of emoting parallels which of the following views?

A. emotions are subjective responses
B. emotions are objective responses
C. culture in mind
D. culture and mind mutually constitute one another
13. Among the Tamang, shame connects to:

A. humility
B. anger
C. dominance
D. weakness
14. The same emotion may not have the same function or meaning in different
cultural communities. Among the Brahmans, shame connects to:
A. humility
B. anger
C. dominance
D. weakness
15. Emotion regulation relates to:

A. how we adjust our emotional experiences in particular situations
B. how we adjust our behavior to particular situations
C. how we process, manage, and adjust our emotions
D. how we learn to act in context
16. Our ability to compare objects, recall visual objects, and understanding the
relationship between objects relates to:
A. visual illusions
17. The cultural psychologist, Richard Shweder suggests one way to understand
emotions is to:
A. observe emotional responses in people’s daily social interactions
- 85 -
B. break emotions into smaller parts to compare these parts across cultural
communities
C. study the connection between physiological activity and emotional responses
D. study the connection between emotions and social relationships
18. In his work on the “Expression of emotions in man and animals” Darwin
argued that:
A. emotional expressions are innate, inherited characteristics
B. humans and non-human primates use different facial expressions to convey
similar emotions
C. humans and non-human primates communicate emotions in different ways
D. there was no need to attend to variability in emotional expression
19. In one of the first study on emotions, Darwin used:

A. real participants to convey emotional expression
B. a single blind study
C. electrical stimulation to move participants’ facial muscles
D. both human and non-human participants
20. In Western thinking, when young children think intuitively rather than
logically about the world, they are in which of Piaget’s cognitive stages?
A. sensorimotor
B. preoperational
C. concrete
D. formal
21. Which of the following IS NOT true regarding Darwin’s research on

emotions?
A. his finding suggested there are only several universal emotions
B. he used a double-blind study
C. he used visual stimuli like photographs to show his participants
D. he studied conducted research in several different cultural communities
22. What commonality was present in Darwin, Ekman, and Izard’s emotion
research?
A. they all used a single blind study
B. they all electrically stimulated facial movements
C. they all used photographs of posed individuals displaying facial expressions
D. they all studied numerous cultural communities
- 86 -
23. Which of the following WAS NOT a limitation of Ekman and Friesen’s
cross-cultural research on emotions?
A. not all participants viewed photographs, some heard a story
B. literate participants received a list of emotions terms only in English
C. they relied on still photographs
D. they studied numerous cultural communities on different continents
24. Good global leaders working in a multinational company should possess the
following abilities EXCEPT:
C. the ability to solve problem
25. William, a senior executive, understands that in order to grasp the attention
of his juniors he needs to train himself in the use of new technology and
software. Which of the following does this indicate?
a) Self-awareness
b) Freezing
c) Masking
d) Refreezing
26. If you are experiencing success and feeling superior to other peers, you are
most likely experiencing which type of emotion?
A. socially engaging negative emotion
B. socially engaging positive emotion
C. socially disengaging positive emotion
D. socially disengaging negative emotion
27. If have just become a member of an athletic team and experiencing a sense
of belonging and friendliness. You will most likely experience which type of
emotion?
D. socially disengaging negative emotion
28. You disappointed your caregivers when you did not behave appropriately
at a family dinner. You experienced guilt at that moment. Guilt is which type
of emotion?
A. socially disengaging negative emotion
- 87 -
D. socially engaging negative emotion
29. In communities that support an interdependent self, socially engaging

emotions reinforce which of the following cultural value?
A. self-expression
B. independence
C. social harmony
D. uniqueness
30. Cultural affordance relates to:

B. being sensitive to individuals from other cultural heritages
C. the ability of cultural settings to evoke particular emotional responses
D. cultural variability in universal emotion expression
31. Ego-focused emotions relate to:

A. personal attributes, goals, wants, and needs
B. other people’s needs and wants
C. external traits and abilities
D. physical and social settings
32. Michaela is angry because she was not able to get tickets to her favorite
reality show. Anger is which type of emotion?
C. ego-focused emotion
D. other focused emotion
33. Helena lives in a home with caregivers who want her to acquire autonomy
and self-expression. It is likely that her caregivers will use socialization practice
that reinforce which type of emotions?
C. ego-focused emotion
D. other focused emotion
34. For a person with an independent self, which of the following emotions is
both egos focused and socially engaging?
A. guilt
- 88 -
B. shame
C. pride
D. humility
35. In people with an independent self, which emotion is likely to increase self-
esteem?
A. a sense of belonging
B. pride
C. shame
D. anger
36. Which of the following IS TRUE regarding the connection between

emotion, cultural values, and interdependent self-construal?
A. pride is a desirable emotion in many social situations
B. anger is a desirable emotion in many social situations
C. humility is a desirable emotion in many social situations
D. suppressing pride is never desirable
37. Cultural models:

A. help us make sense of our feelings, thoughts, and actions
B. help us imitate adult role models
C. help us acquire language
D. help us learn particular skills
38. in communities that support an interdependent self:

A. happiness connects to individual achievement
B. happiness connects to being the best
C. happiness connects to the relationships people have with others
D. happiness connects to uniqueness
39. Alexandra lives in a household that values autonomy and self-expression. In

an individualistic emotional competence model, her caregivers would most
likely:
A. provide her with opportunities to learn these values
B. ignore her when she displays negative emotions
C. provide support when she displays emotions such as anger and pride
D. use direct teaching approaches
40. Freud believed pretend play for children functioned to help children:
A. express feelings and impulses through symbols
B. enjoy an altered state of reality where they could practice emotions
- 89 -
C. reduce anxiety and cope with real life problems
D. develop cognitive and social skills
41. The anthropologist, Gregory Bateson believed pretend play for children
functioned to help children:
A. express feelings and impulses through symbols
B. enjoy an altered state of reality where they could practice emotions
C. reduce anxiety and cope with real life problems
D. develop cognitive and social skills
42. The Display Rule Assessment Inventory (DRAI) measures:

A. emotional expression
B. facial muscle movement
C. cultural competence
D. behavioral responses to emotional experience
D. cultural values of autonomy and self-expression
43. Gaskins and Miller’s cross-cultural study on children’s play suggested that:
A. European American children rarely display anger in their pretend play
B. Yucatec children often pretend play in solitude
C. pretend play helps Mayan children work through their emotional needs
D. emotional expression in pretend play connects to cultural values and real-
life social interactions
44. Which of the following IS NOT true regarding cultural display rules?
A. prescriptions for how we manage, adjust, and express emotions
B. most likely innate
C. context dependent
D. similar to gender roles
45. _____ is a form of social intelligence that involves the ability to monitor
one’s own and others’ feelings, to discriminate among them, and to use this
information to guide one’s thinking and action.
a) Emotional intelligence
b) Diligence
c) Intelligence quotient
d) Self-image
46. _____ is the measure of intelligence based on a score derived from an

intelligence test.
a) Intelligence quotient
- 90 -
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Social ineptness
d) Psychological capital
47. Intelligence quotient (IQ) differs from emotional intelligence (EQ) in that
EQ:
a) is stable over a lifetime.
b) Measures intelligence based on a score derived from intelligence tests.
c) Can grow and develop.
d) Is not a good predictor of job performance, happiness, or success?
48. Intelligence quotient differs from emotional intelligence in that IQ:

b) Involves the ability to monitor one’s own and others’ feelings and emotions.
c) Is the ability to discriminate between feelings and emotions?
d) Is the best predictor of job performance?
49. Which of the following is true about IQ?

a) It can grow and develop over time.
b) It is a good predictor of job performance.
c) It is a good predictor of happiness.
d) It is based on scores derived from tests.
50. Which of the following is true about EQ?

a) One cannot be a high performer at work without EQ.
b) EQ is not a good predictor of job performance, happiness, or success.
c) EQ is stable over a lifetime.
d) EQ is the strongest driver of leadership and personal excellence.
51. _____ refers to a person’s ability to understand their feelings from moment
to moment.
a) Self-awareness
b) Social awareness
c) Psychological capital
d) Self-efficacy
52. _____ refers to our ability to control our emotions and is dependent on our
self-awareness ability.
a) Self-efficacy
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
- 91 -
d) Self-talk
53. __ is our ability to understand general cues that may affect others around
us.
a) Self-awareness
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
d) Optimism
54. _____ refers to our ability to communicate clearly, maintain good

relationships with others, work well in teams, and manage conflict.
a) Social awareness
b) Psychological capital
c) Contrivance
d) Relationship management
55. _____ refers to positive emotions which result in higher confidence and
resilience.
a) Emotional bank
b) Social awareness
c) Preeminent coffer
56. Which of the following would be the best way to increase self-awareness
skills?
a) Spend time thinking about our emotions
b) Not look at those things that cause a strong reaction
c) Avoid self-talk
d) Observe others’ actions
57. Which of the following would be the best way to increase self-management
skills?
a) Focus on the negative instead of the positive
b) Count to ten before reacting
c) Observe others’ actions
d) Watch people to get a good sense of how they are reacting
58. Strategies for _____ include being open, acknowledging another’s feelings,
and showing that one cares.
a) Self-talk
b) Self-awareness
- 92 -
c) Optimism
59. Which of the following is positive self-talk?

a) I am not good at this.
b) I cannot learn this process.
c) It will take longer than I had thought.
d) It will never get completed.
60. Which of the following is negative self-talk?

a) I need a training to carry this out.
b) I made a mistake.
c) I need to develop my soft skills.
d) I will never be able to do so much.
61. Which of the following is a method of setting goals?

a) SMART philosophy
b) Johari window
c) BCG matrix
d) SWOT matrix
62. Which of the following is a specific goal?

a) I want to become a rich man.
b) I want to travel the world.
c) The company wants to increase its sales.
d) I want to jog an hour every morning.
63. According to the SMART philosophy to setting goals, goals need to be _____.
a) speculator
b) Mechanical
c) Attainable
d) Regulatory
64. According to the SMART philosophy to setting goals, goals need to be _____.
a) Sporadic
b) Measurable
c) Accumulative
d) Random
65. Which of the following is a measurable goal?

a) The company wants to spread its marketing efforts.
- 93 -
b) The company wants to best in retailing.
c) I want to sell more insurance policies.
d) I want to save $100,000 by the end of the year.
66. Peter wants to become a doctor. In this context, which of the following would
be a short-term goal for Peter?
a) Get a job as a medical practitioner
b) Take two classes a week in astrophysics
c) Get lessons in soft skills
d) Obtain a degree in medicine
67. _____ are the shorter-term goals one must do in order to accomplish one’s
bigger goals.
a) Strategic plans
b) Objectives
c) Shorties
d) Term indices
68. Which of the following should be considered while setting goals?

a) Goals have to be set by peers.
b) Goals once set have to be met.
c) Goals need to be rigid so we do not get distracted.
d) Goals need to be flexible.
69. Which of the following can be a barrier to time management?

a) Prioritizing
b) Making to-do lists
c) Being overworked
d) Multitasking
70. Which of the following can help one manage time better?
a) Making sure the most important things are done last
b) Working on various tasks simultaneously
c) Spending more time managing to-do lists than actually doing the work on them
d) Scheduling time for breaks and spending time doing things one enjoys
71. Which of the following is true about change?

a) Leadership in organizations provides all of the information needed about change.
b) People are not typically concerned about financial loss when a change is
introduced.
c) Status quo is laborious.
- 94 -
d) People are afraid the change will affect the value of their skills.
72. Which of the following can help reduce resistance to change?

a) Avoiding defensiveness and “going along with the crowd”
b) Avoiding multitasking
c) Understanding one’s working style
d) Finding ways to improve concentration
73. Which of the following do people experience first when change occurs?
a) Resistance
b) Denial
c) Abstinence
d) Exploration
74. Ralph cannot believe that a new process has been adopted in his company.
He insists on doing things the old way and doesn’t want to know about the new
process. Which of the following phases of the change process is Ralph
experiencing?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Unfreezing
d) Refreezing
75. Which of the following best describes the resistance phase people experience
when change occurs?
a) People do not want to move on to the future.
b) People begin to accept the change but with some reservations.
c) People wistfully think about how great things were before the change.
d) There is confusion as people start to clarify expectations.
76. Lawrence is annoyed over the new processes introduced in his company. He
feels distressed and keeps talking to his colleagues about how things were better
before. Which of the following phases of change is Lawrence experiencing?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Unfreezing
d) Exploration
77. Which of the following is the final phase people experience when change
occurs?
a) Denial
- 95 -
b) Resistance
c) Exploration
d) Commitment
78. In which of the following phases of change do people begin to accept the
change but with some reservations, and there is confusion as people start to
clarify expectations?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Acceptance
d) Exploration
79. Harold has started to incorporate the changes in his work. Yet, he doesn’t
really feel comfortable with it. He is curious to know how the change will affect
his outcome. Which of the following phases of change is Harold going through?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Commitment
d) Exploration
80. After clarifying his doubts about the new process, Pam feels confident that
it is actually a well-thought-out process. She understands that it will benefit
everybody in the company, and helps her colleagues understand it. Which of
the following phases of change is Pam going through?
a) Commitment
b) Resistance
c) Denial
d) Exploration
81. According to Lewin’s Model of Change, which of the following is the first
phase of handling change?
a) Unfreezing
b) Denying
c) Stabilizing
d) Freezing
82. _____ involves the process of constantly trying to update skills and learn
new ones.
a) Unfreezing
b) Stable freezing
c) Refreezing
- 96 -
d) Continuous learning
83. _____ means one may have to let go of an old way of doing something that
may have worked for a long period of time.
a) Launching
b) Masking
c) Freezing
d) Unlearning
84. William, a senior executive, understands that in order to grasp the attention
of his juniors he needs to train himself in the use of new technology and
software. Which of the following does this indicate?
a) Self-awareness
b) Freezing
c) Masking
d) Refreezing
85. Buono café, an Italian eatery chain, has regular training sessions on new
ways and techniques in cooking, presentation, and service etiquettes. Which of
the following would this be an example of?
a) Unfreezing
b) Continuous learning
c) Masking
d) Constant reinforcement
86. Sternberg and his colleagues explored how cultural context and educational
experiences shape our cognitive abilities and performance on standardized
intelligence tests. In one task, the research team measured the children’s
practical intelligence. Practical intelligence relates to:
A. knowledge acquired through direct instruction
B. intelligence that helps you make connections between learned material
C. problem solving that helps us adapt to our environment
D. intelligence that connects to emotional development
87. Sternberg and his colleagues found that children who performed well on
cultural knowledge tasks also performed poorly on vocabulary tests. They
explained their findings as:
A. children benefit from formal schooling when taking Western intelligence tests
B. children participating in apprenticeships did better than children who did not
C. all cognitive abilities are universal
- 97 -
D. Kenyan parents do not emphasize formal schooling experiences because this
will not help their children learn how to be farmers
88. Which of the following IS NOT true regarding cognitive thinking styles?
A. They are mental guides which help us process information
B. They are mental guides which help us problem solve in specific contexts
C. They are important to the way we think, perceive, and organize information in
our daily social interactions
D. They are an accurate way to measure intelligence and problem solving skills
89. Which of the following IS TRUE regarding cognitive thinking styles?

A. thinking styles are permanent and fixed at birth
B. you cannot develop new cognitive styles
C. bicultural individuals often use different thinking styles depending upon
situational contexts
D. thinking styles do not change depending upon physical or cultural settings
90. Analytic styles correlate with which of the following?

C. field-dependence
91. Rekha lives in a community in which socialization practices reinforce

interconnected relationships, respect for elders, and being sensitive to others.
Rekha’s cognitive style most likely identifies with which of the following?
A. holistic
B. analytic
C. individualistic
D. collectivist
92. Emily was born in Brazil and moved to the US as a young adult. When
processing perceptual fields Emily is most likely to:
A. always use holistic styles
B. always use analytic styles
C. always use a collectivist style
D. change styles depending upon the situational context
93. According to Sternberg, intelligence involves:

A. the ability to adapt to the environment
B. mechanical abilities
- 98 -
C. musical abilities
D. being obedient and respectful of others
94. Jordyn is able to connect material she is learning in her cultural psychology
course to material she learned in her anthropology course. This process relates
to which ability?
A. crystallized intelligence
C. tacit knowledge
95. Definitions of intelligence are culture-specific and dependent. Among the

Baoulé, local meanings of the language term n’glouèlȇ include all the
following EXCEPT:
A. responsibility
B. obedience
C. memory
D. creativity

D. social qualities

98. Sternberg’s view of intelligence differs from Gardner’s because Sternberg

focused upon:
A. intellectual processes
B. domains of intelligence
99. Santino just developed a new app that helps children with physical
disabilities participate in sports play. Sternberg would place Santino’s ability
to develop this new app with which intellectual ability?
- 99 -
A. practical
B. fluid
C. creative
D. analytical
100. Which of the following IS NOT part of Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of

Intelligence?
A. creative
B. analytical
C. practical
D. logical-mathematical
intelligence?
102. Andrew’s school counselor believes he has high emotional intelligence.

Andrew most likely possesses which of the following skills:
A. analytical reasoning
B. perceiving and monitoring feelings
C. interacting with people
D. communication and language skills


A. metacognitive
B. emotional
C. motivational
D. behavioral
- 100 -
105. Jazmyn was born in Peru but has expansive knowledge about cultural
communities in Asia, Africa, and Australia. In which cultural intelligence
dimension does she excel?
A. metacognitive
B. cognitive
C. motivational
D. behavioral
106. Diego seems to know the right things to say and do in any cultural situation
in which he interacts. In which cultural dimension does he excel?
A. metacognitive
B. cognitive
C. motivational
D. behavioral
108. Which field introduced the term ‘cultural intelligence’ into the literature?
A. health care
B. international business
C. anthropology
D. psychology
109. Rationalism is to----- as empiricism is to------ ____

A. empirical evidence; theory
B. theory; empirical evidence
C. manipulation; measure
D. hypothesis; theory
110. An empiricist
A. Believes that knowledge is acquired through experience and observation.
B. Is a follower of Plato’s rationalist philosophy?
C. Supports the idea of mind-body dualism.
D. Believes that the mind and the body are separate entities.
- 101 -
b) Diligence
112. _____ is the measure of intelligence based on a score derived from an

intelligence test.
a) Intelligence quotient
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Social ineptness
113. Intelligence quotient (IQ) differs from emotional intelligence (EQ) in that
EQ:
b) Measures intelligence based on a score derived from intelligence tests.
c) Can grow and develop.
d) Is not a good predictor of job performance, happiness, or success?
114. Intelligence quotient differs from emotional intelligence in that IQ:

b) Involves the ability to monitor one’s own and others’ feelings and emotions.
c) Is the ability to discriminate between feelings and emotions?
d) Is the best predictor of job performance?


to moment.
- 102 -
a) Self-awareness
b) Social awareness
d) Self-efficacy
a) Self-efficacy
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
d) Self-talk
119. _____ is our ability to understand general cues that may affect others
around us.
a) Self-awareness
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
d) Optimism
120. _____ refers to our ability to communicate clearly, maintain good

a) Social awareness
b) Psychological capital
c) Contrivance
121. _____ refers to positive emotions which result in higher confidence and
resilience.
a) Emotional bank
b) Social awareness
c) Preeminent coffer
skills?
a) Spend time thinking about our emotions
b) Not look at those things that cause a strong reaction
c) Avoid self-talk
d) Observe others’ actions
- 103 -
123. Which of the following would be the best way to increase self-management
skills?
a) Focus on the negative instead of the positive
b) Count to ten before reacting
c) Observe others’ actions
d) Watch people to get a good sense of how they are reacting
a) Self-talk
b) Self-awareness
c) Optimism
125. Which of the following is positive self-talk?

a) I am not good at this.
b) I cannot learn this process.
c) It will take longer than I had thought.
d) It will never get completed.

127. Which of the following is a method of setting goals?

a) SMART philosophy
b) Johari window
c) BCG matrix
d) SWOT matrix
128. According to the SMART philosophy to setting goals, goals need to be

a) speculator
b) Mechanical
c) Attainable
d) Regulatory
129. According to the SMART philosophy to setting goals, goals need to be __.
a) Sporadic
b) Measurable
- 104 -
c) Accumulative
d) Random
130. Which of the following is a measurable goal?

a) The company wants to spread its marketing efforts.
b) The company wants to best in retailing.
c) I want to sell more insurance policies.
d) I want to save $100,000 by the end of the year.
131. _____ means one may have to let go of an old way of doing something that
may have worked for a long period of time.
a) Launching
b) Masking
c) Freezing
d) Unlearning
132. _____ are the shorter-term goals one must do in order to accomplish one’s
bigger goals.
a) Strategic plans
b) Objectives
c) Shorties
d) Term indices


a) Prioritizing
c) Being overworked
d) Multitasking
135. Which of the following can help one manage time better?
a) Making sure the most important things are done last
b) Working on various tasks simultaneously
c) Spending more time managing to-do lists than actually doing the work on them
d) Scheduling time for breaks and spending time doing things one enjoys
- 105 -
introduced.

138. Which of the following do people experience first when change occurs?
a) Resistance
b) Denial
c) Abstinence
d) Exploration
139. Ralph cannot believe that a new process has been adopted in his company.
He insists on doing things the old way and doesn’t want to know about the new
process. Which of the following phases of the change process is Ralph
experiencing?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Unfreezing
d) Refreezing
140. Which of the following best describes the resistance phase people
experience when change occurs?
a) People do not want to move on to the future.
b) People begin to accept the change but with some reservations.
c) People wistfully think about how great things were before the change.
d) There is confusion as people start to clarify expectations.
141. Lawrence is annoyed over the new processes introduced in his company.
He feels distressed and keeps talking to his colleagues about how things were
better before. Which of the following phases of change is Lawrence
experiencing?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
- 106 -
c) Unfreezing
d) Exploration
142. Which of the following is the final phase people experience when change
occurs?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Exploration
d) Commitment
143. In which of the following phases of change do people begin to accept the
change but with some reservations, and there is confusion as people start to
clarify expectations?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Acceptance
d) Exploration
144. Harold has started to incorporate the changes in his work. Yet, he doesn’t
really feel comfortable with it. He is curious to know how the change will affect
his outcome. Which of the following phases of change is Harold going through?
a) Denial
b) Resistance
c) Commitment
d) Exploration
145. After clarifying his doubts about the new process, Pam feels confident that it is
actually a well-thought-out process. She understands that it will benefit everybody
in the company, and helps her colleagues understand it. Which of the following
phases of change is Pam going through?
a) Commitment
b) Resistance
c) Denial
d) Exploration
146. Gerald doesn’t like the service at the clinic he has been visiting for a year. He
has started feeling that the new nurses do not give him attention. One of his friends
recommends another hospital that provides better services. All Gerald needs to do is
inform his insurance company for a transfer. Which of the following phases of
Lewin’s Model on Change is described here?
a) Refreezing
- 107 -
b) Freezing
c) Unfreezing
d) Changing
147. Brandon decides to lose weight and starts jogging in the mornings. Which
of the Following phases of Lewin’s Model on Change is Brandon in?
a) Unfreezing
b) Freezing
c) Refreezing
d) Change
148. Which of the following is the final phase of Lewin’s Model on Change?
a) Freezing
b) Changing
c) Refreezing
d) Unchanging

1. Emotional intelligence measures intelligence based on a score derived from
intelligence tests. (F)
2. The difference between EQ and IQ is that IQ is stable over a lifetime, while EQ
can grow and develop over time. (T)
3. IQ is not a good predictor of job performance, happiness, or success. (T)
4. Self-management refers to a person’s ability to understand their feelings from
moment to moment. (F)
5. To increase our self-awareness skills, we should spend time thinking about our
emotions to understand why we experience a specific emotion. (T)
6. The more specific a goal, the more we are able to determine if we were successful
in that goal. (T)
7. According to the SMART philosophy, a goal can be someone else’s goal. (F)
8. Objectives are the shorter-term goals we must do in order to accomplish our bigger
goals. (T)
9. As we change, and situations change, we need to be rigid with our goals. (F)
10. There should not be a timeframe attached to a specific goal. (F)
11. Time management refers to our ability to communicate clearly, maintain good
relationships with others, work well in teams, and manage conflict. (F)
12. One of the reasons why people tend to resist change is that status quo is easier.
(T)
13. Continuous learning shows high emotional intelligence in the area of self-
awareness and self-management. (T)
- 108 -
14. From a career perspective, if we choose to learn continuously, we end up being
stale in both our skills and abilities. (F)
15. Organization’s value people who can show their focus and dedication to
continually learning and unlearning. (T)
16. Emotional intelligence measures intelligence based on a score derived from
intelligence tests. (F)
17. The difference between EQ and IQ is that IQ is stable over a lifetime, while EQ
can grow and develop over time. (T)
18. IQ is not a good predictor of job performance, happiness, or success. (T)
19. Self-management refers to a person’s ability to understand their feelings from
moment to moment. (F)
in that goal. (T)
22. According to the SMART philosophy, a goal can be someone else’s goal. (F)
23. Objectives are the shorter-term goals we must do in order to accomplish our
bigger goals. (T)
Relationships with others, work well in teams, and manage conflict. (F)
27. One of the reasons why people tend to resist change is that status quo is easier.
(T)
28. Continuous learning shows high emotional intelligence in the area of self-
awareness and self-management. (T)
29. From a career perspective, if we choose to learn continuously, we end up being
stale in both our skills and abilities. (F)
30. Organization’s value people who can show their focus and dedication to
continually learning and unlearning. (T)
31. Creativity involves the two processes of discovering and producing. (F)
32. Research on creativity has shown that the best motivations for creativity are
structure and organization. (F)
33. An example of “Capital C” creativity is the invention of the light bulb. (T)
34. Creativity with older children involves more of an emphasis on the criteria of
original thinking. (F)
- 109 -
THIED: SHORT ESSAY QUESTION
1. Define the four main components of EQ.
ANSWER: Self-awareness refers to a person’s ability to understand their feelings
from moment to moment. Self-management refers to our ability to manage our
emotions and is dependent on our self-awareness ability. Social awareness is our
ability to understand social cues that may affect others around us. Relationship
management refers to our ability to communicate clearly, maintain good
2. Mention ways to increase one’s social awareness.

ANSWER: Increasing social awareness means to observe others’ actions and to
watch people to get a good sense of how they are reacting. We can gain social
awareness skills by learning people’s names and making sure we watch body
language. Living in the moment can help our interactions with others as well.
Practicing listening skills and asking follow-up questions can also help improve our
social awareness skills.
3. What are the aspects of the SMART philosophy?

ANSWER: SMART philosophy includes goals being specific, measureable,
attainable, realistic, and time-oriented.
4. How can a goal can be made realistic? Explain with the help of an example.
ANSWER: Students’ examples may vary. The goal that is set must be something
one is willing and able to work toward. The goal cannot be someone else’s goal. For
example, earning a business degree because one’s parents want one to may not be
compelling enough to follow through with that goal. The goal should be realistic in
terms of one’s abilities and willingness to work toward the goal. If Kyra decided to
be a WNBA player, this is probably not a realistic goal for her. She is too old; is five
feet two inches tall, and not really willing to put in the time to get better at basketball.
She would most likely not be able to achieve this goal.
5. Mention some tips to time management.

Tips to time management include:
1. Learn how to prioritize.
2. Avoid multitasking.
3. Don’t get distracted while working.
4. Make to-do lists.
5. Don’t overwork yourself.
6. Be organized.
7. Understand your work style.
8. Don’t say yes to everything.
- 110 -
9. Find ways to improve concentration.
6. Give four reasons why people resist change.

ANSWER: Students may give any four of the reasons given below.
There are many reasons why people resist change.
1. People are afraid the change will affect the value of their skills.
2. People are concerned about financial loss.
3. Status quo is easier.
4. Group norms exist.
5. Leadership is required.
7. Explain the phase’s people experience when a change occurs.

ANSWER: When a change occurs or is occurring, people are likely to experience
four phases associated with that change. First, they may experience denial. In this
phase, they do not want to accept the change nor do they want to move on to the
future. In the resistance phase, people may feel angry or hurt. They may wistfully
think about how great things were before the change. In the third phase, exploration,
the person may begin to accept the change but with some reservations. In this phase
there may be confusion as people start to clarify expectations. In the commitment
phase, people have accepted the change, understand how they fit with the change,
know how the change will affect them, and begin to embrace it.
8. What is continuous learning? How does it help improve our chances for
career or personal success?
ANSWER: Continuous learning involves the process of constantly trying to update
skills and learn new ones. This shows high emotional intelligence in the area of self-
awareness and self-management (“I know I need to learn this new skill to be more
valuable to my employee or to be more productive in my personal life”). Having
self-awareness, or knowing our strengths and weaknesses, is the first step in
improving our chances for career and personal success. Once we are aware (self-
aware) of our weaknesses, we can better choose areas in which we would like to
learn.
9. Explain unlearning with the help of an example.

ANSWER: Students’ examples may vary. Unlearning means one may have to let go
of an old way of doing something that may have worked for a long period of time.
For example, Parelli Natural Horsemanship program requires training participants
to start from square one when learning how to train their horse. The idea is they need
to “unlearn” their old ways of training their horse in order to become effective at the
sport. So, no matter if someone has ten years of experience with horses or zero years,
has everyone gone back to basics.
- 111 -
REVISION ON CHAPTERS
ONE TO FOUR
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Person perception is:
A. the process of how we manage, experience, and adjust our emotions
B. the process by which we form impressions and process information about
people
C. the process by which we adjust to different cultural situations
D. the process by which we learn cultural norms and standards of behavior
2. In his work in person perception with Oriya an American participants,

Richard Schweder concluded:
A. many Oriya use abstract thinking models
B. many Americans make sense of their social worlds using concrete terms and
behaviors
C. each participant group described the same type of individuals when asked to
describe a close acquaintance
D. the position of an individual in society shapes the way that individual thinks
about person perception in his or her daily social interactions
3. Jill is having a conversation with her best friend. She is revealing how she
sees herself and includes her attributes, characteristics and qualities. Jill is
revealing information about her:
A. self-concept
B. self-definition
C. the independent self
D. the interdependent self
4. Which of the following is true about our self-descriptions?

A. age is not a factor that shapes our self-descriptions
B. cognitive abilities do not connect to our self-descriptions
C. cultural heritage does not shape our self-descriptions
D. our cultural experiences shape the way we see ourselves and our self-
descriptions
5. In one study, Loving explored how cultural values and parental goals shape
the adjectives Mexican participants used to describe the self. Findings from this
study suggest that:
A. most participants generally focused upon how they see themselves
- 112 -
B. many participants included adjectives that related to material possessions
C. participants provided adjectives such as polite and courteous which
connected to important cultural values
D. many participants described themselves in terms of the work that they did
6. which of the following is a popular measure used to discover differences in

people’s self-concepts?
A. The Interdependent Independent Self-Test
B. The Twenty Statements Test
C. The Self-Definition Test
D. The Self-Concept Test
7. One reason people use the 20 statements test in research is that?

A. it is quick and easy to use
B. it can be given in any language
C. it has few cultural biases
D. participants respond to hypothetical situations with provided adjectives
8. Self-esteem is:
A. our personal attributes
B. the descriptive component of the self
C. the evaluative component of the self
D. our personal preferences
9. Which of the following is true about the working self-concept?

A. the working self-concept functions like working memory
B. the working self-concept operates when we are asleep
C. the working self-concept is not active during social situations
D. the working self-concept operates when we are unconscious
10. Rosa believes that she will be successful in college. Her belief illustrates
which of the following concepts?
A. mastery experiences
B. self-efficacy
C. college self-efficacy
D. parenting self-efficacy
11. There is great deal of cultural variability in the importance and definition
of the concept face. Among many Japanese, the conception of face refers to:
A. gaining a reputation for success
B. drawing attention to one’s wealth and power
- 113 -
C. self-image
D. respect a person can claim for himself from others
12. The sociologist Erving Goffman believed people acquire meaning about
themselves and others in their social world through:
A. the concept of face
B. their ‘performance’ in the presence of others
C. integrity
D. honor
13. There is a great deal of cultural variability in the the definition of the
concept, face. According to Goffman face is:
A. respect
C. self-image
D. the strategies people used to protect our relationships with others
14. The motivation for face in China relates to:

A. social pressure for fulfilling one’s obligations
B. taking pride in one’s qualities as they relate to relationships
C. honor and shame
D. a person’s accomplishments
15. If a person has ‘no face’, this person has:

A. no social standing
B. a sense of belonging
C. a sense of being part of the group
D. a person who matters
16. Which of the following examples illustrates helping someone save face?
A. establishing a social relationship
B. making another child feel inferior
C. helping another child during an embarrassing moment
D. praising a child in public for his or her accomplishments
17. Why would an individual want to give face?

A. for personal gain
B. to obtain group approval
C. to stand out among your peers
D. to pay off a debt
- 114 -
18. Kim, Cohen, and Au explored the connection of face to the way we construct
our self-concepts. Face communities:
A. emphasize the importance of how others evaluate the self
B. emphasize dignity
C. emphasize self-reflection
D. emphasize self-evaluation
our self-concepts. Dignity communities:
B. emphasize the opinions of others in judging the self
D. behave to preserve group harmony
20. Eric Erickson believed that this was a major crisis and task associated with
the development of an individual’s personality. It is:
A. cultural identity
B. bicultural identity
C. identity formation
D. fluid identity
21. Kerry is working on a process in which she incorporates the characteristics,

attitudes, beliefs, and values from individuals in the groups to which she
belongs. This is an example of:
A. socialization
B. enculturation
C. acculturation
D. identification
22. Louis was born in Portugal but when people ask him about his cultural
heritage, he says he is Brazilian. Louis derives his sense of belonging from the
relationships with people he shares common traditions, language, beliefs, and
heritage which for him connects to Brazil. For Lewis being Brazilian connects
to his:
D. fluid identity
23. Which of the following statements is true?

A. cultural identity is permanent
- 115 -
B. cultural identity is fixed at birth
C. an individual can only have two cultural identities
D. cultural identity is fluid
24. The process of identity shifting is similar to the linguistic process of:
A. changing identities
B. becoming bicultural
C. speaking multiple languages
D. code switching
25. Which of the following IS NOT one of the personality dimensions included
in the Five Factor Model of personality?
A. openness
B. conscientiousness
C. extroversion
D. introversion
26. Ella is reliable, responsible, hard-working, and able to stay on task.

According to the five-factor model of personality this connects to which of the
following dimensions?
A. openness
B. agreeableness
C. extroversion
D. conscientiousness
27. Brian has difficulty in controlling his impulses. According to the five factor
model of personality this connects to which of the following dimensions?
A. openness
B. neuroticism
C. extroversion
28. James believes his relationships are important to him. He feels the need to
make contact and maintain his relationships to establish a sense of belonging.
James is expressing his need for:
A. affection
B. social contact
C. affiliation
D. self-esteem
- 116 -
29. The relationship between a caregiver and infant is considered which type of
relationship?
A. intimate
B. friend
C. acquaintance
D. romantic
30. The Relational Model Theory helps us to understand:

A. intimate relationships
B. parent relationships
C. social relationships across cultures
D. the costs and benefits of marriage
31. Two caregivers raising a child, an organization raising funds for a charity,
and individuals who work together to contribute to their family’s well-being all
are participating in this type of relationship?
A. authority ranking
B. communal sharing
C. equality matching
D. market pricing
32. Many children and adults choose friends who share their interests, attitudes
and beliefs. One likely explanation for their choices is the:
A. similarity attraction effect
B. matching hypothesis
C. propinquity effect
D. market pricing effect
33. Cultural values and worldviews connect to romantic relationships. Many

Japanese marry within their social in-group. This decision reinforces the
importance of which of the following cultural values in relationships?
A. love
B. the sacred couple
C. loyalty
D. intimacy
34. Which of the following IS NOT true about bride wealth?

A. it provides benefits for the bride and her family
B. it is often found in matrilineal societies
C. bride wealth links to low social status for women
D. it helps the bride form social bonds with her future in-laws
- 117 -
35. Dowries are most often found in societies:
A. that practice polygamy
B. where women are the primary income earners
C. where there is social stratification
D. that are matrilineal
36. An attitude is:

A. our reaction to events and experiences in our environment that shape our
actions
B. our reaction to events that create emotions responses
C. a perspective present at birth
D. a perspective or belief that is not culture-specific
37. Which of the following is an example of an attitude?

A. I really like your shirt.
B. Our family has a new pet.
C. I am interested in studying cultural psychology.
D. I am thinking of a career in medicine.
38. Prejudice is:

A. our reaction to events and experiences in our environment that shape our actions
B. our reaction to events that create emotional responses
D. a learned attitude that shapes the way we think and act toward other people
and social groups
39. Which of the following is an example of prejudice?

A. only girls should play with dolls
B. I would not hire any person under the age of 30 for this position
C. I like Portuguese food
D. I don’t like old folks
40. Which of the following IS NOT a component of attitudes?

A. cognitive
B. affective
C. personal
D. behavioral
41. A stereotype is:

A. a belief assigned to an entire group
B. present at birth
- 118 -
C. our actions towards entire groups
D. a perceived threat due to cultural differences in beliefs
42. Which of the following IS NOT a function of stereotypes?

A. they help us describe in-groups
B. they help us describe out-groups
C. they help us validate our in-group and undervalue out-groups
D. connect to how we think about people and social groups
43. Which of the following is an example of a stereotype?

A. a perceived threat due to contact with an out-group member
B. anxiety due to contact with a stranger
C. only women make good nurses
D. your negative treatment of an out-group member
44. Discrimination is:

B. present at birth
45. Discrimination differs from prejudice and stereotypes because

discrimination:
A. involves our actions and the way we treat others because of their group
membership
B. is a learned attitude
C. is a belief system present at birth
D. never has negative or damaging consequences
46. One important difference between discrimination, prejudice, and

stereotypes is that discrimination:
A. involves our beliefs about others because of their group membership
D. has an emotional component
47. Inter-group anxiety refers to:

A. unfavorable perceptions we hold about out-group individuals
B. threats we experience due to our experiences
C. anxiety from real or anticipated contact with an out-group individual
D. perceived threats due to cultural differences in beliefs and practices
- 119 -
48. Realistic threats are:
B. threats we experience due to actual experiences with our-group members
49. Symbolic threats are:

D. status and power
50. You are interested in studying stereotypes. Which of the following relates to
the dimension warmth in the Stereotype Content Model?
A. a group’s ability to work cooperatively
B. social status
C. power
D. positive attitudes
51. Which of the following IS NOT true about colorism?

A. it is the biased treatment of individuals based upon skin color
B. it is a type of prejudice
C. it is a type of discrimination
D. it appears in every cultural community worldwide
52. Implicit bias is:

A. an unintentional and unconscious bias towards light-skinned individuals
B. a learned attitude
C. a stereotype
D. a bias on the basis of social status
53. One explanation for the hostility some people feel towards immigrants is:
A. implicit bias
B. prejudice
C. stereotype
D. xenophobia
54. The contact hypothesis helps reduce:

A. stereotypes
B. implicit bias
- 120 -
C. assimilation
D. acculturation
55. Social justice is a construct in which:

A. no individual should receive equal treatment and access to resources in any
society
B. no individual should receive equal care and power in a society
C. no individual should receive equal treatment, care, and access to resources in a
society
D. all individuals should receive equal treatment, care, and access to resources
and power in a society
56. Which of the following is not an overriding theme and social justice?
A. fairness
B. access
C. opportunity
D. individual wealth
57. Intercultural competence is:

A. the ability to communicate with people from different cultural communities
B. the ability to adjust to a new cultural setting
C. learning cultural practices very quickly
D. being sensitive to new cultural customs and practices
58. When German speakers are having a difficult day “keeping it together”,
they would use which of the following words to describe this experience?
A. fear
B. anxiety
C. angst
D. sadness
59. Ricky is assess as having high emotional intelligence. This means he has:
A. skills and abilities that help him understand people from another cultural heritage
B. skills and abilities that help him process, understand, and regulate his
emotions and those of others
C. skills that help them problem solve
D. skills and abilities that help them to acquire language
- 121 -
CHAPTER FIVE
CREATIVITY AND SOCIO-
MANAGERIAL SKILLS
THE FIRST BASIC SKIL”COMMUNICATION”
First: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following skills are noted for being the key components of
success in the business world?
a. nonverbal skills
b. speech ‐writing skills
c. interpersonal skills
d. oral skills
2. Which of the communication skills needed for excellence in an information

age deals with employees being made to feel that they can make a difference in
their company?
a. versatility
b. vision
c. sensitivity
d. creative insight
3. Communication skills are essential for promoting excellence in business and

the professions. Of the four skills listed below, which one involves the capacity
to anticipate change?
a. versatility
b. vision
c. sensitivity
d. patience
4. Which of the following statements best defines the term globalization?

a. It is the tendency for all the organizations in the world to become one big
connected business.
b. It occurs when there is information overload.
c. It means diversity in the marketplace requiring strategic interdependencies
among organizations.
d. It is running the organization as if it were an international organization.
- 122 -
5. What does it mean to say that for communication to be truly effective, it must
be interactive?
a. Communication should always occur over an interactive television.
b. Effective communication should always involve each person listening and
responding to the other.
c. Interactive means that one person speaks and the other person listens.
d. Interactive communication refers to the physical process of organizing elements
of the message for transmission.
6. Leaving memos at the copy machine, trading office gossip about the boss
while waiting for the elevator, and sending confidential files via electronic mail
to the wrong person are all examples of not considering __________in the
interactive communication process.
a. senders
b. feedback
c. encoding
d. receivers
7. The mutual understanding that results when the sender and all intended
receivers interpret the message in the same way is
a. Shared meaning.
b. Encoding.
c. Feedback.
d. Noise.
8. The process by which a receiver translates the words to make sense of a

message they receive is called
a. Encoding.
b. Feedback.
c. Decoding.
d. Entropy.
9. Which of the following communication failures occurs when a manager

withholds pertinent information from her subordinates?
a. poor ‐quality information
b. lack of feedback/follow ‐up
c. information overload
d. inadequate information
10. What is (are) the primary result(s) of communication failure in the business
context?
- 123 -
a. loss of morale
b. decreased productivity
c. inefficiency
d. all of the above
11. Which of the following is a type of Classical theory?

a. human relations theory
b. systems theory
c. scientific management
d. theories “X” and “Y”
12. The classical school of thought, which is still used today in some
organizations, emphasizes
a. A high degree of structure, rules, and control.
b. The interdependence of an organization and its environment.
c. The intrinsic motivation of employees to maintain productivity.
d. The effect of enlightening on employees’ performance.
13. A manager who believes that harmony should be encouraged, science of

work and personal efficiency should be stressed, and maximum output should
be valued is following which organizational theory?
a. bureaucracy theory
b. human relations theory
c. human resources approach theories
d. scientific management theory
14. A manager who stresses that workers will be more productive if they are
happy and are given the proper working conditions is operating under which
organizational theory?
15. Leroy alters his normally informal speech pattern when talking to a
potential employer. What assumption about communication applies to Leroy’s
actions?
a. Communication is crucial to a quality life
b. Communication is limiting
c. Communication is adaptive
d. Communication is ambiguous
- 124 -
16. The notion that the whole is more than the sum of its parts is known as
a. Openness.
b. Hierarchy.
c. Synergy.
d. Equi-finality.
17. In systems theory, the idea that organizational members rely on one another
to accomplish goals, such that if one person is absent or fails to do her/his share
of the work the entire team suffers, is known as
a. Synergy.
b. Openness.
c. Hierarchy.
d. Interdependence.
18. In systems theory, for an organization to succeed, it should strive to be a(n)

----system.
a. open
b. synergistic
c. closed
d. free
19. If two coworkers are talking about how the “old ‐timers” do things, trading
stories about their first days on the job, discussing how communication works
in the office, and musing about those who have succeeded in the organization,
they are really talking about organizational.
a. Values.
b. Culture.
c. Interdependence.
d. Theory.
20. Jack has been with his company for almost two years and has not had an
extended vacation. Feeling tired and experiencing burnout, he asks his boss
(through a memo) for a week of his vacation time. When Jack’s boss fails to
respond to the memo, the boss is engaging in which element of the
communication process?
a. feedback
b. channel selection
c. shared meaning
d. information overload
21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for communication failure?

- 125 -
A. inadequate information
B. information overload
C. incompetent communication
D. insufficient levels of anxiety
22. Using an appropriate channel is extremely important for communication

exchanges to be successful. Which set of factors is most significant in
determining channel appropriateness?
a. communication context (physical, social, chronological)
b. interference (self ‐generated, environmental, external)
c. field of experience (beliefs, values, attitudes)
d. message (verbal, proxemics, tactile)
23. What do organizations generally rely on to help balance the competing

ideas, desires, and objectives of individual employees?
a. attitudes
b. opinions
c. shared values
d. individual beliefs
24. Why is the process of establishing shared organizational values difficult?

a. Each person has his/her own personal value system to guide behavior.
b. Organizations are so diverse that it is almost impossible to get all members to
have the same values.
c. Values are established over a long period of time, which makes the process of
determining them difficult.
d. Values are temporary and therefore can never be accurately assessed.
25. What three processes can organizations use to determine shared values?
a. a list created by upper management, focus groups, and employee
questionnaires
b. focus groups, consultants, and employee questionnaires
c. consultants, public relations specialists, and a list created by upper
management
d. focus groups, consultants, and public relations specialists
26. Maintaining candor, avoiding deception, keeping messages accurate, and

maintaining consistent behavior are some guidelines for sustaining
a. Communication values.
b. Political behavior.
c. Ethical communication.
- 126 -
d. Goal ‐directed behavior.
27. What is the relationship between integrity and ethics?

a. Organizations that compromise their ethics enjoy long ‐term integrity.
b. Organizations that encourage ethical behavior maintain integrity.
c. Organizations do not have to maintain integrity to be ethical.
d. Organizations that have no long ‐term integrity promote unethical behavior.
28. What is one way that ethical behavior is perpetuated in organizations?

a. Competent people migrate toward ethical organizations which results in
a work force that is ethical and competent.
b. When upper management is ethical, all employees will follow its lead.
c. When organizations in the same field are ethical, this promotes ethical
behavior.
d. Ethical behavior is perpetuated when the media are involved.
29. Goals for communication should be

a. Positive, vague, and flexible.
b. Specific, positive, and fixed.
c. General, high, and flexible.
d. Specific, high, and flexible.
30. Evaluate the following goal in terms of the goal ‐setting guidelines: “I want
to complete the weekly schedule at least three days before it is due.”
a. According to the guidelines, this is an appropriate goal.
b. This is not an appropriate goal.
c. A better goal is: “I will complete the weekly schedule and have the supervisor
review it for errors at least three days before it is due.”
d. This goal should read: “I’ll try to have the schedule completed at least a day before
it is due so as to avoid any conflicts with the supervisor.”
31. Organizational structure, organization’s values and ethics, politics, and

communication climate are elements of
a. Competition.
b. Strategic communication.
c. Situational knowledge.
d. Presentational knowledge.
32. What are two primary methods organization members can use to reduce
uncertainty?
a. organizational learning and on ‐the ‐job training
- 127 -
b. on ‐the ‐job training and cleaning out files
c. talks with tenured employees and organizational learning
d. attention to the company manual and maintenance of neat work areas
33. To know how an organization strategically distributes power, resources,

and rewards in its daily functions is to understand its
a. Goals.
b. Competition.
c. Politics.
d. Group processes.
34.Trading favors, appearing successful at tasks, associating with the “right”

people, and making concessions to obtain others’ compliance are some political
strategies you should use only after asking yourself,
a. “What is my motivation or intent in making this decision?”
b. “Will I get promoted by doing this?”
c. “Can I get my way by doing this?”
d. “Is everyone doing it?”
35. According to Charles Redding, what are some of the characteristics of an

ideal communication climate?
a. strategic ambiguity, group interactions, and culture
b. openness, supportiveness, trust, and participative decision making
c. defensiveness, certainty, and neutrality
d. environment, uncertainty, and participative decision making
36. When an organization member takes into account such factors as the desire
to maintain objectivity or sensitivity to personal issues before communicating,
he/she is taking a (n) -----_approach to climate.
a. openness
b. trust
c. competitive
d. contingency
37. When you show that you are interested in what another person has to say
by being receiver ‐oriented, receptive, and responsive to his/her message, you
are demonstrating
a. Openness.
b. Certainty.
c. Neutrality.
d. Supportiveness.
- 128 -
38. What are some of the advantages of communication openness?
a. Supervisors know everything that is going on, upper management can take control
of decisions, and on ‐the ‐job performance improves.
b. Role clarity, organizational performance, and information adequacy are
improved.
c. Everyone knows what everyone else is doing, resulting in fewer
misunderstandings and greater freedom.
d. There are no advantages to communication openness.
39. Communication competence means

a. Knowing the rules of the organization.
b. Communicating the right message appropriately and effectively by
choosing the appropriate message channel.
c. Tricking people into thinking you know what you are talking about.
d. Using the appropriate message.
40. A coworker becomes upset with her colleague, Jack, because he

inadvertently sat in “her seat” next to Ms. Zahn during last week’s update
meeting. The coworker is trying to defend her
a. Ego.
b. Position.
c. Personal goals.
d. Territoriality.
41. Internal communication includes understanding elements such as

a. Downward, upward, and external communication.
b. Upward, downward, and tall versus flat structure.
c. Downward, upward, horizontal, and informal networks.
d. Horizontal networks.
42. Face ‐to ‐face meetings and phone conversations are considered ______ in
media richness.
A. high
B. medium
C. low
D. equal
43. Which of the following channels would be most appropriate for an

organization to use in providing its employees with information about benefits,
salary, and work procedures?
A. e ‐mail
- 129 -
B. public presentation
C. policy manual
D. phone
44. Why is an understanding of communication anxiety so important to the

strategic communication process?
A. Communicating effectively with even the slightest amount of anxiety is
discouraged.
B. Having any amount of communication anxiety will prevent a person from
becoming a strategic communicator.
C. Managing anxiety is not as important as identifying the source of the anxiety.
D. Learning how to manage anxiety in different contexts greatly enhances a
person’s ability to develop effective communication strategies.
45. The communication as relating model emphasizes the role of

communication in influencing or affecting the
A. actual or perceived interdependence between communicators
B. feelings communicators have toward one another
C. attitudes or beliefs communicators have about themselves
D. likelihood of long divorce proceedings
46. When we say that communication is an ongoing process, we mean that we--
-- usually fill silences with verbal non-fluencies
A. self-disclose continuously in all communication situations
B. are simultaneously senders and receivers of messages
C. view communication as a one-way flow of information
47. Saying “I love you” to someone can change the way your partner views the
world. What assumption about communication is represented by this example?
A. Communication is limiting
B. Communication creates our social worlds
C. Communication is adaptive
D. Communication is functional
48. Jamal wants to give a speech about the benefits of recycling even though he
assumes most of his audience is already in favor of recycling and recycles
regularly. Which of the following statements best describes Jamal’s speech?
a. He wants to give an impromptu speech
b. He wants to create noise in his message
c. He wants to give a persuasive speech
- 130 -
d. He wants to avoid analyzing his audience
49. Consideration of community in communication is important because a

community
a. is a group of people who communicate to pursue common goals
b. gains well-being from the amount of sophistry used by members
c. uses persuasion in a less ethical manner than do individuals
d. functions using the information transfer model of communication
50. The process by which an individual makes sense of a message is called

a. transacting
b. channeling
c. transferring
d. decoding
51. Competent communication is communication that is both

a. clear and effective
b. appropriate and effective
c. efficient and appropriate
d. funny and easy to put on Facebook
52. Appropriate communication is communication that

a. is acceptable to the valued norms and expectations of a context
b. is efficient in achieving preferred communicator outcomes
c. achieves the most acceptable understanding among the participants
d. avoids being slapped, dissed, or unfriended
53. You are chatting with your roommate about sleep, and you tell him, “You
know, you snore in your sleep.” Your roommate says, “I do not! You’re just
making that up.” Since you were not making it up, it represents a part of your
roommate’s
a. hidden self
b. blind self
c. unknown self
d. the self that dares not speak its name
54. Effective communication is communication that achieves

a. what the communicator sets out to achieve
b. the most desirable possible outcomes or objectives
c. outcomes most preferable to all communicators in the social context
d. fame, fortune, and a spotlight story on TMZ
- 131 -
55. Communication can be defined as the process of managing messages and
media for the purpose of
a. creating meaning
b. achieving mutually defined communicator tasks
c. collaborative relationship building
d. getting over a million YouTube views
56. The relationship between symbols and the things they refer to is
a. fixed and constant
b. arbitrary
c. determined by strict codified rules (such as revealed in dictionaries)
d. determined by word police
57. Persuasion is the use of communication to _____ an audience’s attitudes,

values, and beliefs
a. reinforce, change, or modify
b. manipulate
c. coerce
d. anticipate, predict, and exploit
58. A word, sound, action, or gesture that arbitrarily refers to an object is called
a
a. meaning
b. symbol
c. source
d. lucky guess
59. When nonverbal behavior takes on common shared meanings, it is

considered a (n)
a. nonverbal symbol
b. agglomerative bridge
c. associative acknowledgment
d. sign of the apocalypse
60. Language is a (n) _____ that allows us to take messages and utterances in
the form of words and translate them into meaning
a. verbal symbol system
b. cognitively codified system
c. class of all possible sentences
d. unpleasant requirement imposed on students throughout their education
- 132 -
61. The view of communication as a transfer of ideas across sources through
channels most represents which model?
a. communication as informing
b. communication as relating
c. communication as collaborating
d. communication as a required course you have to get out of the way so you can
take courses in your major
62. “Noise” is considered any interference

a. coming from the environment
b. solely in the medium of message transfer
c. occurring prior to the message transfer
d. from the lousy music your roommate is playing
Second: TRUE OR FALSE QUESTIONS

1. Creative insight refers to the ability to ask the right questions. (T)
2. The organizational ability to create the future is called focus. (F)
3. A national attitude is an attitude that recognizes both the diversity of its work force
and the diversity of technology. (F)
4. The means by which a message moves from source to receiver is called encoding.
(F)
5. Context is the situation or setting in which communication occurs. (T)
6. Problems with channels are one of the ten reasons listed for communication
failure. (T)
7. Lack of feedback is one of the ten reasons listed for communication failure. (T)
8. That workers have an inherent dislike of work is an assumption of the Theory Y
management approach. (F)
9. Frederick Taylor published The Principles of Scientific Management. (T)
10. Organizational culture is “the social or normative glue that holds an organization
together.” (T)
11. The four areas of strategic communication are goal setting, situational
knowledge, communication competence, and presentational style. (F)
12. Values and ethics are the same. (F)
13. Identifying the problem is the first step in the goal ‐setting process. (T)
14. Organizational structure refers to the actual environment where the organization
is located. (T)
15. Tall organizations are those whose headquarters are in buildings with 30 or more
floors. (F)
16. Communication climate is an aspect of the organization’s character. (T)
17. Strategic ambiguity refers to being receptive and responsive to information from
others. (F)
- 133 -
18. Posting job instructions is an example of downward communication in an
organization. (T)
19. Vertical communication consists of messages exchanged at the same hierarchical
level in an organization. (F)
20. Messages that are exchanged between the organization and the environment are
examples of external communication. (T)
21. Most speakers are anxious in at least some situations. (T)
22. The ability to communicate both appropriately and effectively with other people
is referred to as adaptive learning. (F)
THE SECOND SKILL:

MOTIVATION AND BEHAVIOR
1. Motivation is:
A. our ability to understand and perceive emotions
B. an internal state that guides our behavior to attain the goal
C. our ability to understand cultural norms and values
D. our ability to adapt to our environment
2. Melissa is a good role model for her team mates. She wants to make sure her
team does well and wins the conference championship. Her desire to attain this
goal is described as:
A. intrinsic motivation
B. extrinsic motivation
C. a drive
D. a need
3. Kevin really enjoys riding motorcycles. It gives him great personal

satisfaction. His desire to ride motorcycles connects to which of the following?
A. extrinsic motivation
B. a drive
C. intrinsic motivation
D. a need
4. Human beings seek out a sense of belonging as well satisfying feelings of

hunger and thirst. These are examples of a (n):
A. motivation
B. drive
- 134 -
C. need
D. extrinsic motivation
5. Alia takes morning classes even though she never has time for breakfast. Her
stomach grumbles and feels empty to the point where she feels the need to eat.
This is an example of a (n):
A. motivation
B. drive
C. need
6. Marissa is putting a great deal of energy into her schoolwork. She wants to
make the Dean’s List at her university. The factor motivating her to be a good
student is a (n):
A. incentive
B. motivation
C. drive
D. need
7. Which of the following IS NOT a model of motivation?

A. self-actualization
B. cognitive
C. expectancy value
D. psychoanalytical
8. Maslow believed people strive to lead a fulfilling life. According to his

hierarchy of needs, which of the following IS TRUE?
A. safety and security needs should be met before basic needs
B. belonging and affiliation needs should be met after self-esteem needs
C. aesthetic needs are a higher need then self-actualization
D. transcendence is the ultimate achievement
9. The goal of self-actualization is to:

A. find self-fulfillment
B. reach our maximum cognitive potential
C. understand cultural values and practices
D. achieve ego mastery
10. Which of the following IS TRUE about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A. the model connects to an interdependent model of the self
B. the model connects to an independent model of the self
- 135 -
C. it is relevant to all individuals
D. it parallels Hofstede’s dimensions for cultural comparison
11. You receive verbal praise from your caregivers when you behave
appropriately. This positive reinforcement connects to motivation as a (n):
A. incentive
B. extrinsic motivation
C. drive
D. need
12. Which of the following IS TRUE about Skinner’s reinforcement theory?

A. it emphasizes internal needs
B. it emphasizes internal drives
C. it concentrates on extrinsic motivation
D. it emphasizes intrinsic motivation
13. The three goals of goal theory and achievement motivation include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. mastery goals
B. performance goals
C. social goals
D. intrinsic goals
14. Santino is the best player on his soccer team. He knows that he has better
skills than the other players on his team. According to goal theory and
achievement motivation models, Santino is focusing on which goal?
A. mastery goals
C. social goals
D. intrinsic goals
15. Oliver is a retired engineer. He is returning to school to learn a new

language. His desire to learn a new language connects to which of the following
goals and an achievement model of motivation?
A. mastery goals
C. social goals
D. intrinsic goals
16. Which of the following goals associated with achievement models connects
with intrinsic motivation?
- 136 -
A. mastery goals
C. social goals
D. intrinsic goals
17. Cultural norms and worldviews influence whether people pursue mastery
or performance goals. Which of the following illustrates this point?
A. Michael wants to do better at math so he takes an easier course so that he will
not have difficulty.
B. Michele wants to learn a new language.
C. Stefano does well at school in order to earn a scholarship
D. Jess does well at school to bring honor and integrity to her family
18. In their motivation model, Eccles and colleagues connect the achievement
related choices students make to two sets of perceptual beliefs. The ability self-
concept is:
A. the worth a person attaches to available strategies to achieve a goal
C. learning for one’s own personal interest
D. a person’s expectations for success and ability to perform a task
19. Marissa really enjoys doing Sudoku number puzzles. In the expectancy
value model of motivation this would-be a (n):
A. ability self-concept
B. subjective task value
C. sense of belonging
D. mastery goal
20. Which of the following individuals introduced attribution theory into the
literature?
A. Skinner
B. Weiner
C. Maslow
D. Pandora
21. Cognitive models of motivation explain:

A. people’s extrinsic motivations
B. people’s intrinsic motivations
C. the value people place on performing particular tasks
D. the reasons and/or causes of people successes and failures
- 137 -
22. What are the three primary determinants of behavior in organizations?
A) Profit structure, organizational complexity, and job satisfaction
B) Individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction
C) Individuals, groups, and job satisfaction
D) Individuals, groups, and structure
23. Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior?

A) Motivation
B) Attitude development
C) Conflict
D) Resource allocation
24. Which of the following is not a topic or concern related to OB?

A) turnover
B) Leader behavior
C) Productivity
D) Family behavior
25. Which of the following is not a reason why business schools have begun to
include classes on organizational behavior?
A) To increase manager effectiveness in organizations
B) To help organizations attract top quality employees
C) To expand organizations' consulting needs
D) To improve retention of quality workers
26. There is a connection between companies which have ____ and the
incorporation of organizational behavior principles.
A) High turnover rates
B) Specialized technical processes
C) Superior financial performance
D) long-lasting CEO's
27. ________ is the study of the impact that individuals, groups, and structure
have on behavior within organizations.
A) Leadership
B) Organizational strategy
C) Performance management
D) Organizational behavior
28. In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement your intuitive

opinions with information derived in what fashion?
- 138 -
A) Common sense
B) Direct observation
C) Systematic study
D) Speculation
29. Betty believes that it is best to take the casual or common-sense approach to
reading others. She needs to remember that ________.
A) The casual approach is nonsensical, and should be avoided as much as possible
B) The systematic approach and the casual approach are one and the same
C) Laboratory experiments on human behavior often result in unreliable findings
D) The casual or common-sense approach to reading others can often lead to
erroneous predictions
30. Which of the following explains the usefulness of the systematic approach
to the study of organizational behavior?
A) Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.
B) Human behavior is not random.
C) Human behavior is not consistent.
D) Human behavior is rarely predictable.
E) Human behavior is often not sensible.
31. Basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific support is called.
A) Intuition
B) Organizational process
C) Organizational behavior
D) evidence-based management
E) Conceptual management
32. Which of the following problems would an OB study be least likely to focus
on?
A) An increase in absenteeism at a certain company
B) A fall in productivity in one shift of a manufacturing plant
C) A decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition
D) An increase in theft by employees at a retail store
33. "Big data" has been recently applied to making effective decisions and ----.
A) Managing human resources
B) Creation of surveys
C) Decreasing online sales
D) Marketing campaigns
E) None of the above
- 139 -
34. Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing
conclusions on scientific evidence all constitute aspects of---- study.
A) Organizational
B) Intuitive
C) Theoretical
D) Systematic
E) case-based
35. Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding

individual behavior?
A) Sociology
B) Social psychology
C) Psychology
D) Anthropology
36. Organizational behavior is constructed from all of the following disciplines

except ----
A) Physics
B) Psychology
C) Anthropology
D) Sociology
37. ________ focuses on the study of people in relation to their social

environment.
A) Psychology
B) Sociology
C) Corporate strategy
D) Political science
38. Psychology's major contributions to the field of organizational behavior

have been primarily at what level of analysis?
A) The level of the group
B) The level of the individual
C) The level of the organization
D) The level of culture
39. ________ is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change
the behavior of humans and other animals.
A) Psychiatry
B) Psychology
C) Sociology
- 140 -
D) Political science
40. Jude is a social psychologist. He is working on a concept in social

psychology, which is a major study area, and learning how to implement it and
how to reduce barriers to its acceptance. Jude is studying the concept of __.
A) Culture
B) Ethics
C) Power
D) Change
41. Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles
explain organizational behavior. Nevertheless, it does not mean that OB cannot
offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid
predictions. It does mean that OB concepts must -----
A) Focus on the reliability and validity of research data
B) Attempt to establish cause-and-effect relationships
C) Be consistently applicable across a wide range of situations
D) Reflect situational, or contingency, conditions
42. Which of the following statements best describes contingency variables?

A) They are scientific factors based on universal truths.
B) They are factors that moderate the relationship between two or more events
or situations.
C) There is general consensus among OB researchers that they can be controlled.
D) They are the cause-and-effect principles that tend to apply to all situations that
have been discovered.
43. OB concepts must reflect contingency conditions for all of the following
reasons except---
A) Human beings are complex
B) Our predictions and assumptions are almost accurate all the time
C) One person's behavior change in different situations
D) We are limited in our ability to make sweeping generalizations
44. Which of the following was the most significant change in the United States
labor force during the last half of the twentieth century?
A) Substantial decreases in the number of workers who are under 55
B) Increases in the percentage of United States citizens of Hispanic origin
C) The increasing number of African-Americans at all levels within the workforce
D) The rapid increase in the number of female workers
- 141 -
45. Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between
employees' work life and personal life?
A) The creation of global organizations
B) Communication technology allowing employees to work any time and from any
place
C) Organizations asking employees to put in longer hours
D) Creation of flexible teams
46. Given the climate of "temporariness" in modern organizations, employees

must
A) Continually update their knowledge and skills
B) Be prepared to stay in the same position for longer periods of time
C) Have closer connections with their peers
D) Foster friendship within the work environment
47. ________ is a measure of how organizations are becoming more

heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity.
A) Globalization
B) Workforce diversity
C) Affirmative action
D) Organizational culture
48. As managers oversee the movement of jobs to countries with low-cost labor,
A) They tend to ignore the home country needs
B) They must deal with strong criticism from labor groups
C) They manage less diverse workforces
D) They avoid markets like China and other developing nations
49. Whereas ____ focuses on differences among people from different countries,
___ addresses differences among people within given countries.
A) Workforce diversity; globalization
B) Globalization; workforce diversity
C) Culture; diversity
D) Culturalization; workforce diversity
50. Which of the following statements is not true about work force diversity?
A) Disability is a category of workforce diversity.
B) Managing workforce diversity presents many challenges.
C) Workforce diversity focuses on differences within a country.
D) Workforce diversity is a concern only in the Multinational Companies.
- 142 -
51. Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more
heterogeneous in terms of all of the following except ---
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Domestic partners
D) socio-economic status
52. The common characteristic of service jobs is that they require _____.
A) Substantial interaction with an organization's customers
B) Low pay
C) A focus on productivity
D) Little job knowledge
53. Which of the following is not considered a key quality of an employee in a

customer-responsive culture?
A) Friendly and courteous
B) Accessible
C) Knowledgeable
D) Good computer skills
54. Which of the following factors makes it imperative that organizations be

fast and flexible?
A) Workforce diversity
B) Corporate excess
C) Truncated capacity
D) Globalization
55. The use of temporary work groups and employee rotation has reduced the
----of working in a specific group, as well as the security attached to it.
A) Predictability
B) Spontaneity
C) Autonomy
D) Morale
56. Which of the following is the major challenge to managers in a fully

networked organization?
A) Eliminating the need for paper communication by relying entirely on e-mail, file
transfers, and the like
B) Retaining team members who can easily move to another employer when demand
for their services changes
C) Managing contract and temporary workers
- 143 -
D) Managing people who work together but are geographically separated
57. ______ allow(s) people to communicate and work together even though they
may be thousands of miles apart.
A) Flexible cubicles
B) Stratified work environments
C) Decentralized communication
D) Networked organizations
58. Which of the following is not an action characteristic of an organization in

flux?
A) Replacing temporary workers with permanent ones
B) Reorganizing divisions
C) Downsizing operations
D) Subcontracting noncritical services and operations to other organizations
59. The difference between good and bad management can be the difference
between _----- and -----
A) Profit; loss
B) Employment; success
C) Development; deterioration
D) Collaboration; noncooperation
60. Timothy works with people of various nationalities and faiths. How can he
effectively manage people from different cultures?
A) By adapting his management style to their differences
B) By keeping a straightforward and open communication style
C) By using his own motivations to guide others
D) By treating everyone uniformly, regardless of their background
61. Organizations need to ensure that hiring and employment policies create
equal access and opportunities to individuals, regardless of ________.
A) Gender
B) Experience
C) Educational qualification
D) Computer skills
62. Which one of the following is not an example of globalization?

A) After years of lackluster performance, Boeing realized it needed to change
its business model.
B) McDonald's sells hamburgers in more than 100 countries in six continents.
- 144 -
C) All major automobile makers now manufacture cars outside their borders.
D) At Finland-based phone maker Nokia's renowned research center in Helsinki,
non-Finns now outnumber Finns.
63. Which of the following is not an example of people who can work from home
or other non-office locations?
A) assembly line workers
B) Systems analysts
C) Technical writers
D) Medical transcribers
64. Many employees of global firms are "on call" 24 hours a day for all of the
following reasons except ________.
A) They are able to create and structure their own roles with flexible work
schedules
B) They need to consult with colleagues or customers eight or ten time zones away
C) They can now do their work at home or other non-office locations
D) They are being asked to put in longer hours by their organizations
65. The blurring of the line between work and non-work time has created ___.
A) Personal conflicts
B) A more stable workforce
C) Higher pay scales for more hours worked
D) Dual career households
66. Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong

conduct are termed -------
A) Diversity issues
B) Human resource problems
C) Ethical dilemmas
D) Organizational complexities
67. Which of the following is not an example of an ethical dilemma?

A) Do I allow some employees to work from home, and not others?
B) Do I offer a bribe to land a contract?
C) Do I write a check on a closed account?
D) Do I fire an employee to avoid paying her a big bonus?
68. An ethically healthy climate ________.

A) Exists where employees confront a minimal degree of ambiguity regarding
what constitutes right and wrong behaviors
- 145 -
B) is non-existent in businesses
C) Seldom allows employees to do their work productively
D) Cannot be created by managers, but must be dictated by the organization's
mission
69. Self-efficacy relates to:

A. our ability to seek out activities our own enjoyment
B. our confidence in our own abilities to solve problems
C. our desire to seek self-improvement
D. our relationships and social interactions
70. An employer gives her employees individual bonuses for their work
performance. This is an example of a (n):
A. drive
B. need
C. extrinsic incentive
D. intrinsic incentive
71. Many early childhood educators reward their students with stickers when
the child behaves appropriately. This is an example of a (n):
A. drive
B. need
C. extrinsic incentive
D. intrinsic incentive
72. Which of the following IS TRUE about incentives?

A. the use and effectiveness of incentives varies across cultures
B. extrinsic motivation is often better than intrinsic motivation
C. for many Japanese workers a monetary bonus is more effective as an incentive
than respect
D. for many Latin American workers a monetary bonus more effective as an
incentive than time off to be with family
73. In a classroom setting, a mainstream American approach to motivating

students might include:
A. praising a child in front of his or her classmates
B. criticizing a child in front of his or her classmates
C. pointing out the child’s failure in front of his or her classmates
D. critiquing a child’s work in front of his or her classmates
- 146 -
74. Industrial-organizational psychologists interested in the organizational side
of the subfield work in which of the following areas?
A. employee selection
B. worker productivity
C. job performance
D. hiring practices
75. Increasing worker productivity connects to which of the following concepts?

A. attribution
B. stereotypical threat
C. motivation
D. need
76. All of the following are extrinsic incentives designed to increase productivity
in the workforce EXCEPT:
A. stock options
B. a higher salary
C. a monetary bonus
D. volunteering to work in a company charity event
77. Although many American workers prefer financials incentives, many

Swedish workers prefer vacation time. This suggests that the perception and
experience of incentives:
A. is similar across all cultural context
B. is culturally mediated
C. has no connection to cultural values or norms
D. relates to a community’s economic situation
78. Our body posture, gestures, and eye gaze or examples of:
A. signals
B. nonverbal communication
C. verbal communication
D. computer mediated communication
79. All languages have a system of rules that helps speakers understand how to
combine words to convey meaning. This system of rules is a:
A. semantic
B. symbol
C. grammar
D. syntax
- 147 -
80. You believe that human beings are born with the capacity to acquire
language. Your belief aligns with which of the following models?
A. operant conditioning
B. nativism
C. the language acquisition device
D. reinforcement
81. The ability to communicate in particular cultural learning environments is

an example of:
A. syntax
B. semantics
C. communicative competence
D. radical behaviorism
82. You live in a community that emphasizes directness, logical thinking,

gathering facts, and the value of autonomy. Your community is most likely a:
A. high context culture
B. low context culture
C. traditional community
D. rural community
83. You live in a community that emphasizes interdependent relations,

establishing trust, conforming to social norms, and indirect communication.
Your community is most likely a
D. rural community
84. Individuals who live in high context cultures rarely used direct
communication strategies. Rather they rely on:
A. verbal cues
B. contextual cues
C. direct confrontation
D. direct eye contact
85. Language socialization functions to teach children all of the

following EXCEPT:
A. knowledge about cultural norms
B. knowledge about mind in culture
C. knowledge about cultural practices
- 148 -
D. how to produce speech
86. Which of the following IS NOT a reason why an individual would code
switch?
A. people opt for the language with which they are most comfortable
B. to highlight the native language
C. for group solidarity
D. to help people construct their cultural identity
87. Which of the following IS NOT an example of nonverbal communication?

A. eye gaze
B. hand gesture
C. body posture
D. a video chat
88. Many researchers agree that the connection between nonverbal behavior
and cultural experiences begins?
A. in infancy
B. at birth
C. in childhood
D. later in life
89. When communicating on social media, individuals lose the ability or

opportunity to read all of the following EXCEPT:
A. facial expressions
B. body posture
C. eye gaze
D. text
90. What is one difference between face-to-face interactions and electronic

communication?
A. they involve a sender and receiver
B. you cannot access contextual cues
C. they are similar with respect to voice quality
D. it is easy to distinguish if an individual is serious or joking
Second: TRUE/ FALSE

1. Over the last three decades, business school curricula have focused more on the
technical aspects of management such as economics, accounting, finance, and
quantitative techniques, and less on subjects related to human behavior and people
skills. (F)
- 149 -
2. Organizational behavior is a field of study that helps in measuring, understanding,
and changing attitudes; identifying communication patterns; and building trust. It
has made important contributions to the study of group behavior, power, and
conflict. (F)
3. Behavior is generally unpredictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a
means to making reasonably accurate predictions. (F)
4. Organizational behavior is essentially the study of "people skills". (F)
5. Intuition comes from "gut feelings" about the state of some phenomenon of
interest. (T)
6. Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both
psychology and socialism. (F)
7. Conflict and power have been major topics of concern for social psychologists.
(T)
8. What psychology is to the group; sociology is to the individual. (F)
9. OB (Organizational Behavior) researchers cannot offer reasonably accurate
explanations of human behavior since people act very differently in similar
situations. (F)
10. OB draws from several research-based theories about how people behave in
organizations and contains several straightforward cause-and-effect relationships.
(F)
11. In good economic conditions, understanding how to reward, satisfy, and retain
employees is at a premium, however, in bad times, issues like stress, decision
making, and coping come to the fore. (T)
12. As the world has become more global, managers have to become capable of
working with people from different cultures. (T)
13. Organizational Behavior principles are consistent between networked and non-
networked organizations. (F)
14. Workforce diversity is a topic dealing with how organizations are becoming
more homogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. (F)
15. The common characteristic of manufacturing jobs is that they require substantial
interaction with an organization's customers. (F)
16. Today's managers and employees must learn to cope with temporariness,
flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability. (T)
17. There's an increasing blurring between the work and non-work time. (T)
18. Balancing work and life demand now surpasses job security as an employee
priority. (T)
19. Ethical dilemmas are situations in which employees are required to identify right
and wrong conduct. (T)
20. Determining the ethically correct way to behave is especially difficult in a global
economy because different cultures have different perspectives on certain ethical
issues. (T)
- 150 -
Interpersonal Communication and
Emotional Intelligence
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following terms best describes the process of sending and
receiving verbal and nonverbal messages between two or more people?
A. active listening process
B. verbal communication process
C. interpersonal communication process
D. decoding process
2. Cindy intends to say something to her employee to explain why he is being

transferred to a new project. The thought that Cindy intends to communicate
is known as
A. meaning.
B. message.
C. semantics.
D. encoding.
3. _____ is the process of interpreting messages from others into meaning.

A. Decoding
B. Encoding
C. Translating
D. Filtering
4. Ayesha says, "You're so generous!" in a sarcastic tone. Mario decides that

Ayesha thinks he is cheap. What process has Mario just completed?
A. filtering
B. hijacking
C. encoding
D. decoding
5. Loud shouting coming from the next room or distorted formatting in an email
message are examples of----- noise.
A. physical
B. psychological
C. semantic
D. physiological
- 151 -
6. _____ noise occurs when communicators apply different meanings to the
same words or phrases.
A. Psychological
B. Physical
C. Semantic
D. Cognitive
7. Which of the following is an example of psychological noise?

A. Benito's coworker does not understand what he tells her because nearby
colleagues are speaking too loudly.
B. Benito's coworker does not understand his meaning when he uses technical
accounting terms.
C. Benito's coworker does not understand what he tells her because she has a
pounding headache.
D. Benito's coworker dismisses his product suggestions because she thinks he is
too inexperienced.
8. All outgoing messages are encoded and all incoming messages are decoded
through
A. a filter of lifetime experiences.
B. psychological noise.
C. mitigating information.
D. a motivational value system.
9. Emotional _____ refers to a situation in which emotions control our behavior,

causing us to react without thinking.
A. filtering
B. hijacking
C. blackmail
D. noise
10. Which of the following is the process of accurately understanding one's own
emotions as they occur and how they affect one's behavior and thought?
A. self-management
B. empathy
C. relationship management
D. self-awareness
11. Events that cause strong emotional reactions are called

A. triggers.
B. stressors.
- 152 -
C. noise.
D. distracters.
12. Elena knows that she is especially vulnerable to work stress today because
she had a fight with her husband last night. Therefore, Elena does ten minutes
of meditation on her lunch break, and later when she feels herself getting
frustrated during a meeting, she counts to ten before making a comment. What
quality does Elena's behavior demonstrate?
A. empathy
B. self-management
C. emotional hijacking
D. self-awareness
13. Which of the following involves having the discipline to hold off on current
urges in order to meet long-term intentions?
A. empathy
B. self-awareness
C. self-management
D. relationship management
14. Which of the following domains of emotional intelligence is the "ability to

accurately pick up on emotions in other people and understand what is really
going on with them"?
A. empathy
B. relationship management
C. self-management
D. self-awareness
15. Which of the following is an impact of low self-management on

interpersonal communication?
A. One speaks out constructively about differences of opinion.
B. One seeks to de-escalate interpersonal tensions and resolve issues at hand.
C. One provides indirect and vague feedback and ideas to others.
D. One frequently vents frustrations without a constructive work purpose.
16. Which of the following is an impact of high self-management on

interpersonal communication?
A. One controls emotional impulses that are not aligned with work and
relationship goals.
B. One attempts to understand the feelings, perspectives, and needs of others.
C. One engages in a me-first approach to work with colleagues.
- 153 -
D. One reacts defensively and with a me-first attitude when threats are perceived.
17. Which of the following is an impact of high empathy on interpersonal

communication?
A. One controls emotional impulses that are not aligned with work and relationship
goals.
B. One directs conversations to topics that focus on the needs of others and self.
C. One is aware of triggers and related tendencies to say the wrong thing.
D. One spends a higher percentage of work conversations on work-related topics
with a focus on solutions.
18. While working on team projects, Luisa welcomes feedback and constructive
criticism from her colleagues because she values their opinions and wants to be
a better team member. What aspect of emotional intelligence does this behavior
demonstrate?
A. high empathy
B. high self-awareness
C. high relationship management
D. low self-management
19. Which of the following is a strategy to improve relationship management?

A. Engage in relaxation techniques to clear your mind.
B. Practice self-talk and visualize yourself responding effectively to challenging
interpersonal issues.
C. Constantly evaluate your feelings and moods; attempt to understand your feelings
as they occur.
D. Build up the courage to have a difficult conversation.
20. Which of the following is a strategy to improve self-management?

A. Encourage others who rarely speak up to voice their thoughts and feelings.
B. Think about group dynamics and the related impacts on each team member.
C. Examine strategies for overcoming impulses that compete with achieving
your long-range goals.
D. Think about your last reactions to the following experiences: joy, anger, self-
doubt, frustration.
21. Which of the following is most likely to be true of people who have low
empathy?
A. They direct conversations to topics that are important to themselves.
B. They frequently use meeting time to complain about issues unrelated to the
current task.
- 154 -
C. They go out of their way to explain company procedures to new co-workers.
D. They listen carefully to what others say and then ask questions to clarify what
they heard.
22. Which of the following is a domain of emotional intelligence?

A. shared meaning
B. sympathy
C. self-management
D. semantics
23. When Kwame listens to a customer, he paraphrases the customer's request

or complaint to make sure he understands it. Which active listening skill is he
using?
A. reflecting
B. holding judgment
C. summarizing
D. clarifying
24. During his annual performance review, Blake says to his supervisor, "So
the two main ways that you want me to improve are to double-check my work
for accuracy and to be more of a team player. Is that correct?" What active
listening skill has Blake used?
A. identifying
B. paying attention
C. reflecting
D. summarizing
25. Which active listening skill involves demonstrating a learner mindset rather
than a judger mindset?
A. holding judgment
B. paying attention
C. reflecting
D. summarizing
26. Which of the following statements is a judger statement rather than a

learner statement?
A. Aren't you interested in trying new techniques?
B. How long do you think it will take to implement this new program?
C. What do the studies indicate the environmental impact will be?
D. How much do you estimate this will cost?
- 155 -
27. Which barrier to effective listening involves neglecting listening because of
pressing deadlines?
A. lack of time
B. lack of patience and attention span
C. image of leadership
D. communication technology
28. A series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving

from general to specific are known as----- questions.
A. rapport-building
B. funnel
C. probing
D. closed
29. In a weekly project update meeting, Liza asks the following questions of one
of her employees: "Why were you late meeting your last deadline? Were there
external factors that delayed your work? Did other coworkers get their part of
the assignment to you on time? Do you need more help from me?" What type
of questions are these?
A. closed
B. rapport-building
C. solution-oriented
D. probing
30. Christine's team is having a difficult time developing a team identity. She
thinks the problem might be that the team members all come from different
departments and have not worked together before. What kind of questions can
Christine use to help with this issue?
A. solution-oriented
B. rapport-building
C. probing
D. closed
31. What is the main difference between probing questions and solution-
oriented questions?
A. Probing questions move from general to specific, while solution-oriented
questions move from specific to general.
B. Probing questions tend to be analytical and focused, while solution-oriented
questions tend to be casual and social.
C. Probing questions tend to be closed, while solution-oriented questions tend to be
open-ended.
- 156 -
D. Probing questions seek to uncover root causes, while solution-oriented
questions focus on what should be done.
32. The act of anticipating intentions and moods through the perceptive
examination of nonverbal cues is known as
A. sight-reading.
B. emotional intelligence.
C. shared meaning.
D. relationship management.
33. What does research consistently demonstrate about nonverbal

communication?
A. People are not good at masking their feelings, and most people are highly skilled
in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.
B. People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are incapable of
decoding nonverbal signals.
C. People are good at masking their feelings, but most people still manage to decode
nonverbal signals.
D. People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are
inconsistent in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.
34. During a budget meeting, Eva concludes her part of the talk and points to
her presentation partner. What does this gesture most likely mean in context?
A. She is indicating that it is his turn to speak.
B. She is accusing him of interrupting her.
C. She is blaming him for the poor budget numbers.
D. She is giving him permission to ask a question.
35. When Leo had to tell Tania that her project had lost its funding, he found
himself adopting a slumped posture that was similar to hers. What was Leo
doing?
A. synchronizing body language to mock her
B. synchronizing body language to show empathy
C. faking a mood to change her emotions
D. using visual cutoff to encourage sharing
36. As Cho explains her dissatisfaction with her current salary, her supervisor
abruptly looks away and sighs. What does the supervisor's nonverbal behavior
indicate?
A. strong agreement
B. confusion
- 157 -
C. strong displeasure
D. distraction
37. Focusing on _____ is most likely to help you communicate with a red MVS
in a way that he or she prefers.
A. feelings
B. results
C. teamwork
D. flexibility
38. Which of the following qualities is characteristic of people who are hubs?
A. nurturing
B. decisive
C. analytical
D. flexible
39. Which of the following qualities is more characteristic of introverts?

A. thoughtful
B. charismatic
C. spontaneous
D. lively
40. Which of the following situations would an extrovert prefer?

A. a quiet meeting with two friends
B. a loud party with a large group
C. time alone with a book
D. a work space in a library
41. Elliot needs to assign his team members the following tasks. One of the team
members, Grace, is an extrovert. Which task is most appropriate for Grace?
A. independently analyzing the latest market research report
B. writing an explanation of a new product for senior management
C. checking the proofs of sales brochures for accuracy before they are printed
D. moderating a team meeting to discuss how well the last development cycle
went
42. Introverts can work more effectively with extroverts by

A. speaking up more quickly than feels comfortable to them.
B. allowing conversations to have fewer and more in-depth topics.
C. giving them more opportunities to be alone and recharge.
D. pausing more often and allowing periods of silence that might feel uncomfortable.
- 158 -
43. Tom always drops hand-written reports on his administrative assistant's
desk and says, "Type this right away." What type of incivility is Tom
committing?
A. treating others without courtesy
B. ignoring others
C. disrespecting the dignity and worth of others
D. disrespecting the efforts of others
44. Which of the following is an example of disrespecting the dignity and worth
of others?
A. claiming credit for a co-worker's creative idea
B. criticizing a subordinate in front of others
C. forwarding a confidential email from the boss
D. arriving at a meeting late
45. Which of the following is a guiding principle for improving civility in society
and the workplace?
A. Tell, do not ask.
B. Ignore small things.
C. Disagree graciously.
D. Do not refrain from arguing.
True / False Questions

1. Each person involved in interpersonal communication is both encoding and
decoding meaning. (T)
2. Decoding is the process of converting meaning into messages composed of words
and nonverbal signals. (F)
3. In the interpersonal communication process, communicators encode and send
messages at the same time that they also receive and decode messages. (T)
4. Loud music, nearby conversations, and the sound of traffic are examples of
physiological noise in the communication process. (F)
5. Semantic noise refers to interference due to attitudes, ideas, and emotions
experienced during an interpersonal interaction. (F)
6. All outgoing messages are encoded and all incoming messages are decoded
through a filter of lifetime experiences. (T)
7. High self-awareness includes the ability to manage events that stir strong
responses. (T)
8. Venting negative feelings is one of the most effective strategies for de-escalating
anger. (F)
9. People who have low self-management should avoid doing self-talk because it
makes them too self-centered. (F)
- 159 -
10. People with high self-management react defensively with a me-first attitude
when threats are perceived. (F)
11. Recent business-school graduates rank listening skills among the most important
communication skills. (T)
12. In a conversation with a co-worker, Chin makes sure he completely understands
the other person's point and then explains why he disagrees with it. Chin has failed
to practice the skill of holding judgment. (F)
13. During a conversation with his supervisor, Alec paraphrases something that he
heard her say. This is an example of a judger statement. (F)
14. Sharing your own ideas with your colleagues undermines the active listening
process. (F)
15. Probing questions are intended to create bonds between people. (F)
16. After the marketing team gave a presentation, their manager, Maurice, asked in
frustration, "What were you thinking?" In this context, Maurice's question shows a
learner mind-set. (F)
17. Nonverbal messages, such as posture, are most important when they convey a
different emotion than the spoken message. (T)
18. A person's motivational value system is a blend of the three primary motives of
nurturing, dominating, and autotomizing. (F)
19. A manager who wants to hire an effective leader should focus on applicants who
are extroverts. (F)
20. When a person is treated poorly, responding aggressively potentially de-escalates
a difficult situation and shows that person's character and caring. (F)
Essay Questions
1. Define the interpersonal communication process.
ANSWER: The interpersonal communication process is the process of sending and
receiving verbal and nonverbal messages between two or more people. It involves
the exchange of simultaneous and mutual messages to share and negotiate meaning
between those involved.
2. Explain semantic noise with examples.

ANSWER: Semantic noise occurs when communicators apply different meanings
to the same words or phrases. For example, two people may have different ideas
about what "acceptable profit margin" means. One manager may have a figure in
mind, such as 10 percent. Another may think of a range between 20 and 30 percent.
Semantic noise can be most difficult to overcome when strong emotions are attached
to words or phrases. For example, a term such as "downsize" may invoke positive
emotions for a manager who associates this term with frugality and wise cash
- 160 -
management. However, another manager may view this term with negative emotions
and associate it with callousness and disloyalty on the part of the corporation.
3. How does emotional hijacking hinder effective interpersonal

communication?
ANSWER: Emotional hijacking is a situation in which emotions control our
behavior, causing us to react without thinking. Emotional hijacking prevents you
from engaging in effective interpersonal communication. It can lead to unwanted
behaviors: You may misrepresent your ideas, confuse the facts, say things to others
that you later regret, display frustration or anger, remain silent when you would
prefer to be heard, fail to listen to others, or disengage from working relationships
that are in your best interest.
4. Why is self-awareness particularly important in stressful and uncomfortable
situations?
ANSWER: Self-awareness is particularly important for stressful and unpleasant
situations. People high in self-awareness have the ability to be self-reflective when
they experience strong or even distressful emotions. Often, this involves the ability
to explicitly identify feelings as they occur. For example, a person who becomes
angry with a colleague can simultaneously think, “I’m feeling anger right now.”
Being aware of this can help you avoid dysfunctional behaviors caused by emotional
hijacking.
5. How can individuals use mitigating information to help with self-

management?
ANSWER: Self-management is the "ability to use awareness of your emotions to
stay flexible and to direct your behavior positively." It involves having the discipline
to hold off on current urges in order to meet long-term intentions. Excellent self-
managers know how to use both positive and negative emotions to meet personal
and business goals. One technique self-manager use is to try to understand mitigating
information or favorable explanations for why others behaved in certain ways.
Accepting such explanations can help reduce the urge to act on negative emotions
such as frustration or resentment.
6. What is empathy? What does it include?

ANSWER: Empathy is the "ability to accurately pick up on emotions in other people
and understand what is really going on with them." Empathy also includes the desire
to help others develop in their work responsibilities and career objectives.
7. What are the six skills that make up active listening? Give a brief definition
of each.
ANSWER: The six skills are:
- 161 -
(1) Paying attention, or devoting your whole attention to others;
(2) Holding judgment, or demonstrating a learner mindset to help others feel safe to
express themselves;
(3) Reflecting, or paraphrasing what you are hearing to make sure you understand
it;
(4) Clarifying, or double-checking that you understand the perspective or others by
asking them to elaborate and qualify their thoughts;
(5) Summarizing, or restating major themes of what others say; and
(6) Sharing, or expressing your own perspectives and feelings.
- 162 -
CHAPTER SIX
IMPACT OF CREATIVITY ON
PERSONALITY AND VALUES
1. Which of the following is external to an individual but still affects his or her
behavior and performance?
A. Motivations
B. Role perceptions
C. Situational factors
D. Abilities
2. _____ represents the forces within a person that affect his or her direction,
intensity, and persistence of voluntary behavior.
A. Motivation
B. Personality
C. Norm
D. Ethics
3. Motivation affects a person's _____ of voluntary behavior.

A. direction, intensity, and persistence
B. antecedents, consequences, and perceptions
C. size, shape, and weight
D. aptitudes, abilities, and competencies
4. Which of the following refers to the fact that motivation is goal-directed, not
random?
A. Persistence
B. Direction
C. Intensity
D. Aptitude
5. Which of the following best represents the amount of effort allocated to a

particular goal?
A. Persistence
B. Direction
C. Intensity
D. Aptitude
- 163 -
6. Which of the following refers to the natural talents that help employees learn
specific tasks more quickly and perform them better?
A. Persistence
B. Direction
C. Intensity
D. Aptitude
7. Which of the following concepts consists of aptitudes, skills, and

competencies?
A. Motivation
B. Personality
C. Values
D. Ability
8. The speed at which an employee types words, measured as words per minute
(WPM), is an example of a (n):
A. trait.
B. situational factor.
C. external factor.
D. aptitude.
9. Travel Happy Corporation gives simple accounts to newly hired employees

and then adds more challenging accounts as employees master the simple tasks.
This practice mainly:
A. reduces role perceptions.
B. increases person-job matching.
C. reduces employee motivation.
D. provides more resources to accomplish the assigned task.
10. A company hires several new employees who are motivated, able to perform
their jobs, and have adequate resources. However, the new hires are not sure
what tasks are included in their job. According to the MARS model, these new
employees are most likely to:
A. emphasize the utilitarianism principle in their decision making.
B. perform the job poorly due to poor role perceptions.
C. perform exceedingly well because they are motivated.
D. have above-average organizational citizenship.
11. Which of the following refers to an employee's understanding of preferred

behaviors or procedures for accomplishing the assigned tasks?
A. Natural aptitudes
- 164 -
B. Role perceptions
C. Competencies
D. Locus of control
12. To reduce the amount of non-recyclable waste that employees throw out
each day, a major computer company removed containers for non-recyclable
rubbish from each office and workstation. This altered employee behavior
mainly by:
A. increasing employee motivation to be less wasteful.
B. helping employees to learn how to be less wasteful.
C. altering situational factors so that employees have more difficulty practicing
wasteful behavior.
D. increasing aptitudes that make employees less wasteful.
13. _____ refers to goal-directed behaviors under an individual's control that

support organizational objectives.
A. Organizational citizenship
B. Counterproductive work behavior (CWB)
C. Task performance
D. Maintaining attendance
14. Assisting coworkers with their work problems, adjusting one's work
schedules to accommodate coworkers, and showing genuine courtesy toward
coworkers are some of the forms of:
A. role perception.
B. counterproductive work behaviors (CWB).
C. task performance.
D. organizational citizenship behavior (OCB).
15. Lawrence stole a clock from his workplace. Which of the following refers to
Lawrence's activity?
A. Productive behavior
B. Counterproductive work behavior (CWB)
C. Task performance
D. Organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) ()
16. Absenteeism is higher in organizations which have:

A. weak absence norms.
B. workplace civility.
C. high amounts of presenteeism.
D. high work-related stress.
- 165 -
17. Presenteeism occurs when employees:
A. lack sick leave pay.
B. have financial buffers.
C. have low centrality.
D. have many people dependent on their job performance.
18. _____ is the relatively enduring pattern of thoughts, emotions, and

behaviors that characterize a person, along with the psychological processes
behind those characteristics.
A. Personality
B. Norm
C. Motivation
D. Locus of control
19. An individual's personality:

A. changes several times throughout the year.
B. is formed only from childhood socialization and the environment.
C. is less evident in situations where social norms, reward systems, and other
conditions constrain behavior.
D. does not provide an enduring pattern of behaviors.
20. Personality develops and changes mainly when people are young; it
stabilizes by about----- years of age.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 35
21. According to the "Big Five" personality dimensions, people with low
conscientiousness tend to be:
A. uncooperative and intolerant of others' needs.
B. careless, disorganized, and less thorough.
C. more suspicious and self-focused.
D. poised, secure, and calm.
22. being good-natured, empathetic, caring, and courteous are characteristics

of people with---- as a personality trait.
A. openness to experience
B. agreeableness
C. locus of control
D. emotional stability
- 166 -
23. An organization is in the process of hiring sales professionals, who are
expected to meet the weekly target of at least 25 sales per week. For this role,
the organization is most likely to choose candidates with _____.
A. high neuroticism
B. low conscientiousness
C. high introversion
D. high extraversion
24. Eric is the advertising head of a firm. He is extremely imaginative, creative,

and curious. Which of the following personality dimensions does Eric possess?
A. Customary thinking
B. Openness to experience
C. Resistance to change
D. Neuroticism
25. _____ characterizes people who have high levels of anxiety, insecurity,
depression, and self-consciousness.
A. Extraversion
C. Conscientiousness
D. Neuroticism
26. People with low agreeableness tend to be more:

A. tolerant.
B. flexible.
C. self-focused.
D. helpful.
THINK REFLECTIVELY, STRATEGIES FOR

DECISION-MAKING
1) The ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking at
problems and opportunities is called:
A) Entrepreneurship.
B) Innovation.
C) Creativity.
D) Creative thinking.
2) An entrepreneurial "secret" for creating value in the marketplace is:

A) Applying creativity and innovation to solve problems.
B) Creating new products and services.
- 167 -
C) Learning by doing.
D) Applying lessons learned from history.
3) The ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities to

enhance or to enrich people's lives is called:
B) Innovation.
C) Creativity.
4) Harvard's Ted Levitt says that creativity is ________ new things, and
innovation is ________new things.
A) Thinking; doing
B) Doing; thinking
C) Seeing; doing
D) Thinking; applying
5) Entrepreneurship is a constant process that relies on:

A) Creativity, innovation, and profit.
B) The ability to win over the consumer.
C) Creativity, innovation, and application in the marketplace.
D) Intellectual property rights.
6) ________ is necessary for building a competitive advantage and for business

survival.
A) One single idea
B) A motivated owner
C) Creativity
D) A low-priced product
7) Creativity often involves creating something from nothing. However, it is

more likely to result in:
A) Elaborating on the present.
B) Putting old things together in new ways.
C) Taking something away to create something simpler or better.
D) All of the above
8) When developing creative solutions to modern problems, entrepreneurs

must:
A) Go beyond merely using whatever has worked in the past.
B) Limit the creative process to only profitable ventures.
- 168 -
C) Remember what has worked in the past?
D) Pay attention to limiting factors.
9) Research shows that anyone can learn to be creative. The problem is:
A) Many organizations fail to foster an environment that encourages creativity.
B) Most people never tap into their pools of innate creativity.
C) Most people have never been taught to be creative.
D) All of the above
10) Research into the operation of the human brain shows that each hemisphere
of the brain:
A) Develops symmetrically.
B) Controls similar functions.
C) Does not dominate the other hemisphere.
D) Processes information differently.
11) The left brain is guided by:

A) Kaleidoscopic, lateral thinking.
B) Linear, vertical thinking.
C) Asymmetrical thinking.
D) Intuitive thinking.
12) The right brain is guided by:

D) Logical thinking.
13) Which hemisphere of the brain is responsible for language, logic, and
symbols?
A) Right hemisphere
B) Left hemisphere
C) Lateral hemisphere
D) Intuitive hemisphere
14) Which hemisphere of the brain is responsible for the body's emotional,
intuitive, and spatial functions?
A) Right hemisphere
B) Left hemisphere
C) Vertical hemisphere
D) Logical hemisphere
- 169 -
15) Which hemisphere of the brain processes information in a step-by-step
fashion?
A) Right hemisphere
B) Left hemisphere
C) Lateral hemisphere
D) Intuitive hemisphere
16) Which hemisphere of the brain processes information all at once and by
relying heavily on images?
A) Right hemisphere
B) Left hemisphere
C) Vertical hemisphere
D) Logical hemisphere
17) ________ vertical thinking is narrowly focused and systematic, proceeding

in a highly logical fashion from one point to the next.
A) Left-brained
B) Right-brained
C) Unconventional
D) Intuitive
18) ________ lateral thinking is somewhat unconventional and unstructured.

A) Left-brained
B) Right-brained
C) Systematic
D) Logical
19) All of the following represent barriers to creativity that entrepreneurs

impose upon themselves except:
A) Focusing on being too logical.
B) Being too practical.
C) Blindly following rules.
D) Searching for more than one answer.
20) Entrepreneurs can stimulate their own creativity and encourage it among
workers by:
A) Expecting and tolerating failure.
B) Avoiding problems.
C) Limiting rewards.
D) Not taking chances.
- 170 -
21) Which of the following is not one of the ways entrepreneurs can stimulate
their own creativity and encourage it among their workers?
A) Provide creativity training.
B) Encourage curiosity.
C) View challenges as problems.
D) Develop a corporate culture that both fosters and rewards creativity.
22) Employees must be given the tools and resources they need to be creative.
One of the most valuable set of resources is:
A) Setting limits and providing challenges.
B) Establishing rules and guidelines.
C) Time, support and encouragement.
D) Reinforce traditional problem-solving methods.
23) Hiring a diverse workforce:

A) Helps in enhancing organizational creativity.
B) Allows for different ideas and varying methods of problem solving.
C) Brings in people from different backgrounds, with different cultural experiences,
hobbies, and interests.
D) All of the above
24) The ___ environment has an impact on the level of people's creativity.
A) physical
B) Sounds in the
C) external
D) Internal
25) All of the following are enhancements to individual creativity except:

A) Keeping a journal to record thoughts and ideas.
B) Limiting your reading sources.
C) Taking time off.
D) Allowing yourself to be creative.
26) Which of the following is not an enhancement to individual creativity?

A) Listening to other people
B) Recognizing the creative power of mistakes
C) Keeping a toy box in your office
D) Working without breaks until the project is complete or the problem is
solved
27) Which stage of the creative process includes on-the-job training?

- 171 -
A) Implementation
B) Preparation
C) Illumination
D) Verification
28) This set of experiences may enhance individual creativity.

A) Travel and recognize the creative power of mistakes and accidents
B) Notice what is missing
C) Journal and listen to people and customers
D) All the above
29) Which stage of the creative process requires one to develop a solid
understanding of the problem or decision?
A) Investigation
B) Preparation
C) Illumination
D) Verification
30) Which stage of the creative process involves viewing the similarities and
differences in the information collected?
A) Transformation
B) Incubation
C) Illumination
D) Verification
31) The ability to see the similarities and the connections among various data
and events is called:
A) Convergent thinking.
B) Divergent thinking.
C) Transformational thinking.
D) Illumination.
32) The ability to see the differences among various data and events is called:
D) Illumination.
33) ________ thinking is the ability to see similarities and ________ thinking is
the ability to see differences among various data and events.
A) Divergent; convergent
- 172 -
B) Convergent; divergent
C) Convergent; transformational
D) None of the above
34) During the incubation phase of the creative process, the entrepreneur might
do all of the following EXCEPT which one to let ideas "marinate" in his mind?
A) Do something totally unrelated for a while.
B) Relax and play regularly.
C) Work on the problem or opportunity in a different environment.
D) Don't allow one's self to daydream.
35) at which stage of the creative process does a spontaneous breakthrough

occur, allowing all of the previous stages to come together to produce the
"Eureka factor" or the "light bulb goes on"?
A) Implementation
B) Preparation
C) Illumination
D) Verification
36) "Verification" refers to:

A) Validating the idea as accurate and useful.
B) Possibly conducting experiments, running simulations, and test marketing a
product or service.
C) Possibly asking questions such as "will it work?" and "is it really a better
solution?"
D) All of the above
37) The focus of this step in the creative process is to transform the idea into
reality.
A) Implementation
B) Preparation
C) Illumination
D) Verification
38) ________ is a process in which a small group of people interacts to produce

a large quantity of imaginative ideas.
A) Groupthink
B) Mind-mapping
C) Brainstorming
D) Prototyping
- 173 -
39) Effective brainstorming involves all of the following except:
A) A small group of people.
B) An open, uninhibited environment.
C) An effective method to evaluate ideas.
D) Very little structure.
40) ________ is a graphical technique that encourages thinking on both sides of

the brain, visually displays the various relationships among the ideas, and
improves the ability to view a problem from many sides.
A) Brainstorming
B) Mind-mapping
C) Prototyping
D) Groupthink
41) Mind-mapping is a useful tool for jump-starting creativity. It includes all of

the following except:
A) Sketching a picture to symbolize the problem or area of focus in the center of a
sheet of paper.
B) Writing down every idea that comes into your mind, connecting each idea to the
central picture.
C) Allowing your mind to rest for a few minutes before integrating the ideas.
D) Forcing creativity when ideas start to trickle.
42) The technique of ________ uses three columns that allows the entrepreneur
to weigh both the advantages and the disadvantages of a particular decision and
work to maximize the variables that support it while minimizing those that
work against it.
A) force-field analysis
B) TRIZ
C) Brainstorming
D) Mind mapping
43) The "theory of inventive problem solving" is a left-brained, scientific,

systematic process based on innovative patents and is referred to as:
A) JIT.
B) RP.
C) TQM.
D) TRIZ.
44) The premise behind ________ is that transforming an idea into an actual
model will lead to improvements in its design.
- 174 -
A) Rapid prototyping
B) mind-mapping
C) Brainstorming
D) Inventions
True / False Questions (Group A)

1. According to the MARS model of individual behavior and performance, employee
performance will remain high even if one of the four factors—motivation, ability,
role perceptions, and situational factors—is low in a given situation. (F)
2. The MARS model identifies the four main factors that influence individual
behavior— motivation, ability, role perceptions, and situational factors. (T)
3. Motivation is an external force on a person that causes him or her to engage in
specific behaviors. (F)
4. Intensity refers to the fact that motivation is goal-directed, not random. (F)
5. Persistence is the amount of effort allocated to a goal. (F)
6. Aptitudes are the natural talents that help employees learn specific tasks more
quickly and perform them better than other people. (T)
7. Learned capabilities tend to wane over time when not in use. (T)
8. Aptitudes and learned capabilities are the main elements of competencies. (T)
9. A good match between an employee's abilities and his or her job requirements
tends to increase employee performance and well-being. (T)
10. Role perceptions refer to how clearly people understand the job duties assigned
to them. (T)
11. Role perceptions are important because they represent how good employees feel
about their job and increase motivation. (F)
12. Situational factors are those working conditions that are within an employee's
control. (F)
13. Anita, an employee, anticipates changes at her workplace and adjusts her work
schedule to avoid any time delays because of the changes. In this case, Anita is said
to be more proactive. (T)
14. Task performance refers to goal-directed behaviors under an individual's control
that support organizational objectives. (T)
15. Proficiency refers to how well an employee responds to, copes with, and supports
new circumstances and work patterns. (F)
16. Organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) include various forms of
cooperation and helpfulness to others that support an organization's social and
psychological context. (T)
17. Faran, an employee, often enters into verbal arguments with his colleagues, and
thereby creates unnecessary fights at his workplace. This is an example of
organizational citizenship behavior (OCB). (F)
- 175 -
18. American employees are absent from scheduled work an average of 20 days per
year. (F)
19. Employees who experience job dissatisfaction, workplace incivility, or work-
related stress are more likely to be absent or late for work because taking time off is
a way of temporarily withdrawing from those difficult conditions. (T)
20. Presenteeism is the situation whereby employees show up for work when their
capacity to work is significantly diminished by illness, fatigue, personal problems,
or other factors. (T)
21. Personality is a relatively stable pattern of behaviors and internal states that
explains a person's behavioral tendencies. (T)
22. An individual's personality becomes more unstable over time. (F)
23. Personality is completely determined by heredity. (F)
24. Among the "Big Five" personality dimensions, extraversion and agreeableness
stand out as the best personality predictors of individual performance for most job
groups. (F)
25. the most researched and respected clustering of personality traits is the MARS
model. (F)
26. Phoebe, a manager at a firm, is a conformist and is resistant to trying out new
processes. In this case, Phoebe is most likely to score high on the openness-to-
experience personality dimension. (F)
27. Conscientiousness refers to the extent that people are sensitive, flexible, creative,
and curious. (F)
28. People with a high score on the neuroticism personality dimension tend to be
more relaxed, secure, and calm. (F)
29. Agreeableness, extraversion, and conscientiousness are three of the "Big Five"
personality dimensions. (T)
30. Conscientiousness is one of the best personality traits for predicting job
performance in most job groups. (T)
31. Sensing, feeling, and judging are three of the "Big Five" personality traits. (F)
32. Extraverts are people who are quiet, cautious, and less interactive with others.
(F)
33. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) measures the personality traits
described by Swiss psychiatrist Carl Jung. (T)
34. People with a perceiving orientation are less flexible and effective in their
functioning. (F)
35. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is an excellent predictor of job
performances and is recommended for employment selection. (F)
36. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) instrument is mostly used for team
building and career development. (T)
37. Neuroticism personality dimension is the easiest to estimate from the content of
online sources. (F)
- 176 -
38. Values are stable, evaluative beliefs about what is important in a variety of
situations. (T)
39. People arrange values into a hierarchy of preferences, called a value system. (T)
40. Schwartz's circumplex model has one quadrant called openness to change at one
extreme and another quadrant called conservation at the other extreme. (T)
41. Values and personality traits are essentially the same thing and equally
influenced by socialization. (F)
42. In Schwartz's circumplex model, the value category of self-direction refers to the
pursuit of pleasure, enjoyment, and the gratification of desires. (F)
43. Work environments influence one's behavior, which can sometimes encourage
values inconsistent behavior. (T)
44. Person-organization values congruence occurs when a person's values are similar
to an organization's dominant values. (T)
45. The ideal situation in organizations is to have employees whose values are
perfectly congruent with an organization's values. (F)
46. Utilitarianism suggests that one should choose the option that provides the
highest degree of satisfaction to those affected. (T)
47. Distributive justice is sometimes known as a consequential principle because it
focuses on the consequences of one's actions, not on how he or she achieves those
consequences. (F)
48. One problem with applying the individual rights principle is that most people are
uncomfortable engaging in behaviors that seem unethical to attain results that are
ethical. (F)
49. The distributive justice principle of ethical decision-making advocates that
benefits should be distributed among people irrespective of their abilities and
similarities. (F)
50. Moral sensitivity is the degree to which an issue demands the application of
ethical principles. (F)
51. One type of factor that can change a person's moral sensitivity is expertise or
knowledge of prescriptive norms and rules. (T)
52. Mindfulness refers to the level of empathy people have when referring to their
moral sensitivity. (F)
53. A code of ethical conduct is a statement about desired practices, rules of conduct,
and philosophy about an organization's relationship to its stakeholders and the
environment. (T)
54. Collectivism is a cross-cultural value that describes the degree to which people
in a culture emphasize personal duty to groups to which they belong. (T)
55. Individualism and collectivism are mutually exclusive values found in certain
countries and places. (F)
- 177 -
56. In terms of cross-cultural values, people in the United States tend to have
relatively high individualism, a medium achievement orientation, and medium
power distance. (T)
57. People with high power distance expect relatively equal power sharing. (F)
58. People with a high achievement orientation tend to value assertiveness,
competitiveness, and materialism. (T)
59. One limitation with some research on cross-cultural values is that it incorrectly
assumes that everyone within a specific country holds similar values. (T)
TRUE/FALSE (Group B)
1) Creativity is the ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities
to enhance or enrich people's lives. (F)
2) Innovation is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking
at problems and opportunities. (F)
3) Creativity is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking
at problems and opportunities. (T)
4) Innovation is the ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities
to enhance or enrich people's lives. (T)
5) Successful entrepreneurs come up with ideas and then find ways to make them
work to solve a problem or fill a need. (T)
6) Creativity and innovation are the signature of large, entrepreneurial businesses.
(F)
7) Creativity and innovation are the signature of small, entrepreneurial businesses.
(T)
8) Innovation must be a constant process because most ideas do not work and most
innovations fail. (T)
9) For every 3,000 new product ideas, four make it to the development stage, two
are actually launched, and only one becomes successful in the market. (T)
10) Although creativity sometimes involves generating something from nothing, it
more likely results in elaborating on the present, putting old things together in new
ways, or taking something away to create something simpler or better. (T)
11) Creativity is not only an important source for building a competitive advantage,
but it also is necessary for survival. (T)
12) History is always a reliable predictor of the future of business. (F)
13) Entrepreneurs must embrace traditional assumptions and perspectives about how
things ought to be because they support creativity. (F)
14) Creative thinking involves research into the operation of the human brain and
the roles each hemisphere of the brain plays. (T)
15) Successful entrepreneurship requires left-brain thinking. (F)
16) The left brain is guided by linear, vertical thinking. (T)
- 178 -
17) The left brain relies on kaleidoscopic, lateral thinking. (F)
18) The right brain is guided by linear, vertical thinking. (F)
19) The right brain relies on kaleidoscopic, lateral thinking. (T)
20) While most people see what they have always seen, creative entrepreneurs are
able to see beyond preconceptions. (T)
21) Research shows that each hemisphere of the human brain processes information
differently and that one side of the brain tends to be dominant over the other. (T)
22) The left brain handles language, logic, and symbols. (T)
23) The right brain takes care of the body's emotional, intuitive, and spatial
functions. (T)
24) The right brain processes information intuitively-all at once, relying heavily on
images. (T)
25) Right-brain thinking draws on the power of divergent reasoning, which is the
ability to create a multitude of original, diverse ideas, while left-brain thinking
counts on convergent reasoning, the ability to evaluate multiple ideas and choose the
best solution to a given problem. (T)
26) Entrepreneurship requires both left- and right-brained thinking. (T)
27) The left-brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion. (T)
28) Entrepreneurs need to rely on left-brain thinking to generate innovative product,
service, or business ideas and use right-brain thinking to judge the market potential
of the ideas they generate. (F)
29) A paradigm is a preconceived idea of what the world is, what it should be like,
and how it should operate and this can influence creativity. (T)
30) The left-brain processes information intuitively-all at once, relying heavily on
images. (F)
31) The right brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion. (F)
32) Right-brained individuals tend to challenge tradition, custom, and routine. (T)
33) Left-brained individuals realize that there may be more than one right answer.
(F)
34) Successful entrepreneurs push technological and economic boundaries forward
in creative ways and sometimes make unconventional decisions. (T)
35) The rapidly accelerating rate of change has created an environment in which
staying in a leadership position requires constant creativity, innovation, and
entrepreneurship. (T)
36) Viewing play as frivolous is a mental block that stifles creativity. (T)
37) "Constantly being practical" is a mental block that can stifle creativity. (T)
38) Businesses typically foster an environment that encourages creativity. (F)
39) Ambiguity tends to destroy creativity. (F)
40) Failure is an important part of the creative process, as it provides a chance to
learn how to succeed. (T)
- 179 -
41) Employees tend to rise-or fall-to the level of expectations entrepreneurs have of
them. (T)
42) Research shows that not everyone can be creative. (F)
43) Hiring a diverse workforce makes it more difficult to achieve creativity in the
workplace. (F)
44) Entrepreneurs can encourage creative thinking in their employees by setting
examples of creative behavior and rewarding creative behavior when exhibited by
their employees. (T)
45) Enhancing individual creativity may be cultivated through such activities as
modeling, encouragement, recognition, allowing failure, listening, talking to
children, and taking time off. (T)
46) The creative process involves seven distinct steps including preparation,
investigation, transformation, incubation, illumination, verification, and
implementation. (T)
47) "Convergent thinking" is the ability to see the differences among data and events.
(F)
48) "Divergent thinking" is the ability to see similarities and connections among
various data and events. (F)
49) It may appear in the incubation stage of the creative process that the entrepreneur
is loafing, as he is taking time to reflect on the information collected. (T)
50) The illumination stage of the creative process is often called the "Eureka factor"
and is characterized by a spontaneous breakthrough. (T)
51) The typical entrepreneurial philosophy for implementation is "Ready, aim, aim,
aim" (F)
52) When "brainstorming," individuals should be encouraged to use "idea
hitchhiking," or building new ideas on those already suggested. (T)
53) During a brainstorming session, company rank and department affiliation are
irrelevant. (T)
54) Mind-mapping is a graphical technique that encourages thinking on both sides
of the brain, visually displays the various relationships among ideas, and improves
the ability to view a problem from many sides. (T)
55) Force-field analysis is a useful technique for evaluating the forces that support
and oppose a proposed change. (T)
56) TRIZ is an acronym for a systematic approach to help solve technical problems
based on the study of hundreds of the most innovative patents. (T)
57) Rapid prototyping, transforming an idea into an actual model, typically does not
lead to improvements in design. (F)
58) A patent protects the creator of original works of authorship such as for software.
(F)
59) A patent gives the inventor the exclusive right to make, use, or sell an invention
for 50 years. (F)
- 180 -
60) Trademarks are distinctive words, symbols, designs, names, or logos used for
company identification. (T)
SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS

1) What is the entrepreneurial "secret" for creating value in the marketplace?
Answer: Creativity and innovation should be used in combination to allow the
entrepreneur to solve real-world problems and to exploit opportunities and the
profits that come with them. Creativity should always be directed and complement
the business plan. Creativity is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new
ways of looking at problems and to exploit opportunities that people face every day.
Innovation is the ability to apply creative solutions to those problems and
opportunities to enhance and enrich people's lives.
2) Explain the differences between the left and right sides of the brain.
Answer: The left brain is guided by linear, vertical thinking, whereas the right brain
relies on kaleidoscopic, lateral thinking. The left brain handles language, logic, and
symbols, whereas the right brain takes care of the body's emotional, intuitive, and
spatial functions. The left-brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion,
whereas the right brain processes it intuitively all at once, relying heavily on images.
Left-brained vertical thinking is narrowly focused and systematic, whereas right-
brained lateral thinking is somewhat unconventional, unsystematic, and
unstructured.
3) List five of the barriers that limit creativity.

Answer: The five barriers are a subset of the following list:
1. Search for the one "right" answer
2. Focus on "being logical"
3. Blindly follow the rules
4. Constantly be practical
5. View play as frivolous
6. Become overly specialized
7. Avoid ambiguity
8. Fear looking foolish
9. Fear mistakes and failure
10. Believe that "I'm not creative"
4) List five ways entrepreneurs can stimulate their own creativity and
encourage it among workers.
Answer: The five ways entrepreneurs can stimulate their own creativity and
encourage it is a subset of the following list:
- 181 -
∙ Include creativity as a core company value. Hire for creativity
∙ Establish an organizational structure that nourishes creativity
∙ Embrace diversity. Expect creativity
∙ Expect and tolerate failure. incorporate fun into the work environment
∙ Encourage curiosity. Design a work space that encourages creativity
∙ View problems as opportunities. Provide creativity training
∙ Provide support. Develop a procedure for capturing ideas
∙ Talk and interact with customers
∙ Monitor emerging trends and identify ways your company can capitalize on them
∙ Look for uses for your company's products or services in other markets
∙ Reward creativity. Model creative behavior
5) List five ways individuals can enhance their own creativity.

Answer: The five ways individual creativity can be enhanced should come from the
following list:
1. Allow yourself to be creative.
2. Forget the rules.
3. Travel and observe.
4. Observe products of other companies, especially in completely different
markets.
5. Recognize the creative power of mistakes and accidents.
6. Notice what is missing.
7. Keep a journal handy to record your thoughts and ideas.
8. Listen to other people.
9. Listen to customers.
10. Watch a movie.
11. Talk to a child.
12. Do something ordinary in an unusual way.
13. Keep a toy box in your office.
14. Take note of your "pain points."
15. Do not throw away seemingly "bad" ideas.
16. Read texts on stimulating creativity or take a class on creativity.
17. Take some time off.
18. Be persistent!
6) List and briefly explain the seven steps in the creative process and discuss
the step that you consider to be the most critical.
Answer:
1. Preparation-Get your mind ready for creative thinking through formal education,
OJT, work experience, etc. This helps to build creativity and innovation.
2. Investigation-Develop a solid understanding of the problem or decision.
3. Transformation-View the similarities and differences in the information collected.
- 182 -
4. Incubation-Take time to reflect on the information collected.
5. Illumination-A spontaneous breakthrough occurs, causing the "light bulb to go
on." All of the previous stages come together to produce the "Eureka factor."
6. Verification-Validate the idea as accurate and useful. May include conducting
experiments, running simulations, test marketing a product or service, etc.-to verify
that the new idea will work and is practical.
7. Implementation-Transform the idea into reality.
7) Explain "brainstorming" and list at least five of the guidelines for a

successful brainstorming session.
Answer: Brainstorming is a process in which a small group of people interact, with
very little structure, with the goal of producing a large quantity of novel and
imaginative ideas. The goal is to create an open, uninhibited atmosphere that allows
members of the group to "freewheel" ideas. Five guidelines should come from the
following list:
1. Keep the group small-five to eight members.
2. Make the group as diverse as possible.
3. Encourage members to engage in some type of aerobic exercise first.
4. Communicate that every member of the group is on equal ground - company
rank and department affiliation are irrelevant.
5. Give the group a well-defined problem for the group to address, but do not
reveal it ahead of time.
6. Provide relevant information and invite members before the session to provide
three ideas.
7. Limit the session to 40-60 minutes.
8. Take a field trip.
9. Appoint someone to be the recorder and write every idea on a flip chart.
10. Use a seating pattern that encourages communication and interaction.
11. Throw logic out the window.
12. Encourage all ideas from the team, even wild and extreme ones.
13. Establish a goal of quantity of ideas rather than quality.
14. Forbid evaluation or criticism of any idea during the session.
15. Encourage participants to use "idea hitchhiking" or to "piggyback"/build new
ideas on those already suggested.
16. Dare to imagine the unreasonable.
- 183 -
FIVE AND SIX
people
2. In his work in person perception with Oriya an American participants,

Richard Schweder concluded:
A. many Oriya use abstract thinking models
B. many Americans make sense of their social worlds using concrete terms and
behaviors
C. each participant group described the same type of individuals when asked to
describe a close acquaintance
D. the position of an individual in society shapes the way that individual thinks
about person perception in his or her daily social interactions
3. Jill is having a conversation with her best friend. She is revealing how she
sees herself and includes her attributes, characteristics and qualities. Jill is
revealing information about her:
A. self-concept
B. self-definition
C. the independent self
D. the interdependent self

descriptions
5. In one study, Loving explored how cultural values and parental goals shape
the adjectives Mexican participants used to describe the self. Findings from this
study suggest that:
A. most participants generally focused upon how they see themselves
- 184 -
B. many participants included adjectives that related to material possessions
C. participants provided adjectives such as polite and courteous which
connected to important cultural values
D. many participants described themselves in terms of the work that they did
6. In this model of the self, the self stands alone. It is bounded, separate from its
surroundings, in personal attributes are central to it. Cultural values that
connect to this self-include uniqueness and autonomy. It is the:
A. the interdependent self
B. the independent self
C. the relational self
D. the encompassing self
7. Self-esteem is:
8. Which of the following is true about the working self-concept?

A. the working self-concept functions like working memory
B. the working self-concept operates when we are asleep
C. the working self-concept is not active during social situations
D. the working self-concept operates when we are unconscious
9. Self-efficacy connects to which of the following?

A. self-esteem
B. leadership
C. confidence
D. persuasion
10. Bandura believed that we could accomplish self-efficacy through all of the
following EXCEPT:
B. social modeling
C. social persuasion
D. social values
11. Rosa believes that she will be successful in college. Her belief illustrates
which of the following concepts?
- 185 -
B. self-efficacy
C. college self-efficacy
D. parenting self-efficacy
12 The concept of face connects to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. the way others see us
B. the way others evaluate us
C. the social roles individuals fulfill in their society
D. our confidence
13. There is great deal of cultural variability in the importance and definition
of the concept face. Among many Japanese, the conception of face refers to:
A. gaining a reputation for success
C. self-image
D. respect a person can claim for himself from others
14. The sociologist Erving Goffman believed people acquire meaning about
themselves and others in their social world through:
A. the concept of face
B. their ‘performance’ in the presence of others
C. integrity
D. honor

our self-concepts. Face communities:
B. emphasize dignity
D. emphasize self-evaluation
our self-concepts. Dignity communities:
B. emphasize the opinions of others in judging the self
- 186 -
D. behave to preserve group harmony
18. Eric Erickson believed that this was a major crisis and task associated with
the development of an individual’s personality. It is:
D. fluid identity
19. Kerry is working on a process in which she incorporates the characteristics,

attitudes, beliefs, and values from individuals in the groups to which she
belongs. This is an example of:
A. socialization
B. enculturation
C. acculturation
D. identification
20. The process of identity shifting is similar to the linguistic process of:
A. changing identities
B. becoming bicultural
C. speaking multiple languages
D. code switching
21. Richard Schweder’s view of cultural psychology has emphasized that

culture creates minds and mind creates culture. Which of the following
statements supports this view as it relates to personality?
A. individual personalities are culture specific
B. an individual may have more than one personality
C. individual personalities shape culture and culture shapes the personality
traits we express
D. personalities are not able to adjust and change with each situation
22. Which of the following IS NOT one of the personality dimensions included
in the Five Factor Model of personality?
A. openness
B. conscientiousness
C. extroversion
D. introversion
- 187 -
A. openness
B. agreeableness
C. extroversion
24. Brian has difficulty in controlling his impulses. According to the five- factor
model of personality this connects to which of the following dimensions?
A. openness
B. neuroticism
C. extroversion
25. According to Gordon Allport, ________ is defined as the dynamic

organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that
determine his unique adjustments to his environment.
A) Cognitive dissonance
B) Heredity
C) Personality
D) Descent
26. ________ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and
interacts with others.
A) Talent
B) Skill
C) Knowledge
D) Personality
27. Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan
and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers
understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they
have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in
nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics
about Lugo indicate her--- --
A) Talent
B) Skill
C) Knowledge
D) Personality
- 188 -
28. Which of the following is the most common means of measuring
personality?
A) In-depth interviews
B) Self-report surveys
C) Career portfolio
D) Reference interviews
29. Which of the following is a drawback of self-report surveys?

A) It can hold only a limited number of questions.
B) It involves a large number of people in the evaluation process.
C) It may have biased results if the surveyor's judgement is biased.
D) It may result in the respondent lying to create a good impression.
30. In ________, a co-worker or another observer does an independent

assessment of personality, with or without the subject's knowledge.
A) observer-ratings surveys
B) Paid surveys
C) Knowledge surveys
D) Deviation surveys
31. Tracy Winter works at a publishing firm in London and recently received
an e-mail from the human resource department of her company, asking her to
study a colleague, Cindy Camp's behavior and attention toward her work
without her knowledge. Winter now needs to scrutinize her behavior and notice
if she is free from distractions and pays sufficient importance to her tasks.
Which of the following is winter conducting?
A) observer-ratings survey
B) Informational interview
C) Knowledge survey
D) Participant observation
32. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people

belonging to the ----_type are flexible and spontaneous.
A) Thinking
B) Judging
C) Introverted
D) Perceiving
33. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people

belonging to the judging type----
A) Are quiet, shy and introverted
- 189 -
B) Rely on unconscious processes
C) Prefer their world to be ordered
D) Are flexible and spontaneous
34. Which of the following are characteristics of the intuitive type of people
according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?
A) Preferring routine and order and focusing on details
B) outgoing, sociable, and assertive in nature
C) Relying on unconscious processes and looking at the overall picture
D) Using reason, rationality, and logic to handle problems and situations
35. A virtual group is one which

A. relies on technology to communicate.
B. exists only for a short period of time.
C. lacks a leader.
D. lacks a clear purpose.
36. One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly
everything a person does is a:
a. Global Trait
b. Cardinal Trait
c. Specific trait
d. Central Trait
37. The method of science requires that independent observers must:

a. verify data.
b. state a hypothesis in a form that can be tested
c. derives a hypothesis from theory
d. All of the above
38. The hotter and more humid the weather, the less clothing a person wears
are an example of:
a. moderate correlation
b. low correlation
c. negative correlation
d. high positive correlation
39. Talkative vs. silent; frank, open vs. secretive; adventurous vs. cautious;
sociable vs. reclusive these traits describe which dimension of personality?
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
- 190 -
C. Extraversion
D. Culture
40. When analyzing a past president to describe his personality by coding

letters or speeches he has written, you are using a process called
a. Big Five
b. content analysis
c. personality assumptions
d. Implicit Personality Theory
41. During psychology you are falling asleep. You know last night you only got
three hours of sleep; therefore, you have a valid reason. The person sitting in
front of you is sleeping also. You automatically think that they are lazy and
really don’t care about the class. This is an example of
a. Halo effect
b. Implicit Personality Theory
c. Observer bias
d. stereotype
42. Positive correlations (from 0.01 to 1.00) indicate that, as one factor goes ---,
the other factor goes-----
a. down, up
b. up, down
c. up, up
d. both a and b
43. Which strategy IMPROVES the reliability of a research design?

a. makes the test shorter
b. standardize all circumstances under which the test is administered, including
instructions.
c. delete all items from the test that do not correlate with the other items.
d. b and c only
44. Which of the statements below are FALSE?

A. Since Personality psychology has competing viewpoints, it is considered a
paradigm.
B. Science judges the truth of statements based on the empirical method.
C. Personality encompasses diverse qualities of individuals (e.g., biology, social
influences, childhood experiences, etc.)
D. Science demands that hypotheses be discarded if they are not confirmed by
observation.
- 191 -
45. From the Big Five personality dimensions, behaviors such as speaking
fluently, displaying ambition, and exhibiting a high degree of intelligence is
a. Agreeableness
b. Openness
c. Extraversion
d. Conscientiousness
46. Psychologists seek to understand Rob’s personality through his thoughts,

beliefs and their impact on his behavior in certain situations. This is known as
the
a. trait approach
b. humanistic approach
c. cognitive approach
d. psychoanalytic approach
47. Which of the following would be a phenomenological approach to the study

of personality?
a. emphasizes subjunctive’s feelings
b. emphasizes subject’s thoughts
c. emphasizes the meaning that people ascribe to events, not simply the objective
events themselves
d. All of the above
48. What is the trait approach to personality?

a. Assumes that people are motivated by unconscious emotional conflicts
b. Assumes that each individual has stable personality characteristics
c. Assumes that people’s thoughts and beliefs are central to personality
d. Assumes that people have an innate tendency to become self-actualized.
49. In a communication transaction, feedback represents

a. a group's physical and psychological environment.
b. anything that interferes with or inhibits effective communication.
c. the media through which group members share messages.
d. the response or reaction to a message.
50. The cooperative interaction of several factors that results in a combined

effect greater than the total of all individual parts is referred to as
a. interaction.
b. common goals.
c. interdependence.
d. synergy.
- 192 -
51. A stamp collecting club is an example a
a. self-help group.
b. social group.
c. learning group.
d. service group.
52.Your family is an example of a

a. primary group.
b. social group.
c. public group.
d. service group.
53. Guests who appear on talk shows and interact with other guests for the
benefit of an audience are participating in a
a. symposium.
b. forum.
c. panel discussion.
d. governance group.
54. A college appoints a moderator and holds an open discussion to provide

students with the opportunity to ask questions and express their concerns
regarding a proposed increase in tuition. This setting for group communication
is an example of a
a. symposium.
b. forum.
55. A college's Board of Trustees that makes public policy decisions may be
classified as a
a. symposium.
b. forum.
56. Which of the following characteristics demonstrates one of the

disadvantages of working in groups?
a. Groups make better decisions when working on complex tasks.
b. Working in groups enhances member learning.
c. Groups require significant time, energy, and resources.
d. Groups are often more creative than members working alone.
- 193 -
TRUE AND FALSE
1. Employer’s view proficiency in a field of study as more important than group
communication skills. (F)
2. The basic components of group communication are members, interaction,
independence, goals, and working. (T)
3. As groups grow larger, member satisfaction increases. (F)
4. When group members work together to achieve a common goal, the size of the
group, the physical setting, and the group's role and status in an organization are
components of the communication context. (T)
5. Your biases, distracting thoughts about other activities, fatigue, and hunger can
cause noise in a communication transaction. (T)
6. Unlike the digestive system, a computer system, or even the solar system, groups
do not function as a system because they involve interdependent members
interacting with one another. (F)
7. Synergy refers to a situation in which "the whole is greater than the sum of its
individual parts." (T)
8. Work groups collaborate to achieve specific goals on behalf of a business or
organization. (T)
9. When a task is complex and the answers are unclear, an effective group will
perform better than individuals working alone. (T)
10.Generally, a smart person can generate more innovative ideas and creative
solutions than a group can. (F).
- 194 -
CHAPTER SEVEN
CRITICAL THINKING AND
JUDGMENT
COMPARATIVE REASONING. THINK THIS
IS LIKE THAT
1. What is comparative reasoning?
A. the process of culling the most viable options for a solution from a pool of both
good and bad options
B. the process of placing two elements in front of you and creating a pro/con list for
each of them
C. the process of comparing one expert’s opinion on a subject to another expert’s
opinion on the same subject
D. the process of using what is more familiar to make interpretations,
explanations, or inferences about what is less familiar
2. In the context of making comparisons, how would one define familiarity?

A. the result of consulting with numerous experts about the two objects being
compared
B. the process by which one comes to a decision involving both familiar and
unfamiliar elements
C. the degree of knowledge the listening person has about the object to which
the unknown is being compared
D. the measurement by which a person evaluates only one of the options to a given
issue or problem
3. _____, in the evaluation of comparisons, is the measure of the relative absence

of complexity.
A. Simplicity
B. Controllability
C. Correctness
D. Interpretation
4. _____ is the capacity of comparisons to project consequences that have the

potential to be shown to be false, inapplicable, or unacceptable.
A. Conjecture
B. Negativity
- 195 -
C. Analysis
D. Testability
5. What is the definition of productivity in the context of comparisons?

A. the capacity of a person to generate as many options as possible for a solution to
a specific problem
B. the capacity of a comparison to suggest consequences that go beyond those
mentioned in the initial comparison
C. the capacity of an issue or problem to essentially solve itself given enough time
D. the capacity of an individual to promote his or her agenda when coming up with
solutions to problems
6. What is another term for comparative reasoning?

A. Pro-and-con reasoning
B. Give-and-take conjecturing
C. This-is-like-that thinking
D. Start-from-square-one analysis
7. According to the book, _____ are seldom if ever acceptable proofs of the truth
of their conclusions.
A. comparative inferences
B. analytical functions
C. logical reasons
D. veritable conjectures
8. _______ comparisons are so rich that exploring the comparison more deeply
reveals or suggests additional possible implications.
A. Preconceived
B. Pre-edited
C. Productive
D. Post-analysis
9. When engaging in comparisons, the virtue of simplicity must be balanced

with the importance of
A. relatedness.
B. productivity.
C. allegory.
D. comprehensiveness.
10. The more persuasive the essential similarities are,

A. the more difficult the analysis is.
- 196 -
B. the more relevant the comparison is.
C. the less convincing the argument becomes.
D. the less interesting the options become.
11. If you were asked to list the elements of comparative reasoning, which of
the following would be included on the list?
A. Assertion of useful likeliness or similarity
B. Consideration of all conceivable options
C. Explanation of benefits and deficiencies
D. Construction of available evidence
12. Marsha often uses devices like metaphors and similes to communicate
A. her insights about what “this is like that.”
B. the one correct answer to a situation.
C. her background in linguistics.
D. the pitfalls of comparative reasoning.
13. Janice is teaching a critical thinking course. She explains that people who
use comparative reasoning often employs
A. mnemonic devices.
B. allegoric devices.
C. technological devices.
D. market devices.
14. Jerrod is evaluating a sentence that asserts a comparison. What should he

avoid?
A. Using critical thinking skills
B. Using metaphors or similes
C. Using words like true and false
D. Using nuanced terms
15. Words like insightful, vivid, or apt are examples of

A. terms that one should avoid when thinking critically.
B. ineffective terms for talking about comparisons in any form.
C. effective terms for evaluating sentences that assert comparisons.
D. terms that are reserved for black or white situations.
16. Julie is a strong critical thinker. She knows that comparative inferences are
typically------ in nature.
A. intellectual
B. contradictory
- 197 -
C. conservative
D. inductive
17. Which of the following statements about the four texts of acceptability is
true?
A. They do not apply to comparative reasoning.
B. They must be refined to use with comparative reasoning.
C. They can be used as is with comparative reasoning.
D. They have been proven irrelevant for comparative reasoning.
18. Which of the following statements about comparative inferences is true?

A. Superior comparative inferences are comprehensive.
B. Comparative inferences cannot be superior or inferior.
C. Inferior comparative inferences are simple.
D. All comparative inferences are superior.
19. Anna is trying to determine the superiority of her comparative inference.

Which criterion should she begin with?
A. Familiarity
B. Simplicity
C. Comprehensiveness
D. Plausibility
20. Which of the following statements about comparative inferences is false?

A. They should not be both simple and comprehensive.
B. They should be evaluated according to five criteria.
C. They can be useful if used correctly.
D. They are typically inductive in nature.
21. Asking Jeff to explain his homework is like asking Rousseau to explain
Emile. One could say that this analogy is lacking in which of the five criteria
outlined in the text?
A. Testability
B. Productivity
C. Adaptability
D. Familiarity
22. George uses the phrase “hotter than hell” quite regularly. This phrase is
A. an analytical catchphrase.
B. an obscure reference.
C. an overused cliché.
- 198 -
D. a unique observation.
23. Margene asks the following question: “Does the comparison of teaching high
school students to arresting criminals capture enough of the critical elements?”
She is trying to determine the _______ of the comparison.
A. congeniality
B. correlation
C. calculation
D. comprehensiveness
24. Kathy is a strong critical thinker. She knows that comprehensive

comparisons are more likely to be----- than unfamiliar ones.
A. rejected
B. productive
C. marginalized
D. calculated
25. Ellen is closely examining the comparison of high school students to

criminals in the comparison “Teaching high school students in just like
wrangling criminals.” What is she most likely doing?
A. Rejecting the comparison
B. Pre-editing the comparison
C. Simplifying the comparison
D. Testing the comparison
26. Martin is a critical thinking instructor who is teaching his students about
testing comparisons. What would he most likely tell them to ask?
A. Is element 1 a better choice than element 2?
B. Should an expert be called in to test the comparison?
C. Are the two elements being compared incongruous in any way?
D. Can the comparison be applied to my personal life?
27. As a strong critical thinker, Lois knows that comparing the wind to dancing
A. may be effective in some contexts.
B. will be effective in all contexts.
C. is never an effective comparison.
D. does not need to be effective to serve its purpose.
28. Eli is an engineer. He finds comparative inferences to be effective for

A. testing hypotheses.
B. making initial assumptions.
- 199 -
C. complicating issues.
D. serving as a final proof.
29. As a scientific researcher, Louise uses comparative reasoning to

A. propose hypotheses.
B. make specific recommendations.
C. give precise explanations.
D. test inductive inferences.
30. Gerard is teaching a critical thinking course. He asks his students to give
the five criteria for evaluating comparative inferences. Which of the following
responses would be wrong?
A. Testability
B. Simplicity
C. Productivity
D. Marketability
31. In an argument, the word so indicates

A. a conclusion.
B. a premise.
C. sometimes a conclusion and sometimes a premise.
D. an assumption.
32. Consider: X. Therefore, since Y, Z. Which would go in the Y space?

A. a premise
B. a conclusion
C. an assumption
D. a scope statements
33. In order to be sound, an argument must be

A. valid and strong.
B. deductive and strong.
C. valid and have true premises.
D. inductive and have true conclusions.
IDEOLOGICAL REASONING. THINK
TOP - DOWN
1. Ideological reasoning is a process of thinking that
A. begins with generalizations that express one’s core beliefs.
B. begins with science before moving into the abstract.
- 200 -
C. begins with an assertion based on hours of reasoning.
D. begins with a quote from an expert.
2. Another term for ideological reasoning is

A. side-to-side analysis.
B. idea mining.
C. conjunctive reasoning.
D. top-down thinking.
3. When engaging in ideological reasoning, the argument maker

A. must have reasons to back up the ideological premises.
B. allows experts to attempt to sway their opinion.
C. takes the ideological premises on faith.
D. uses science to convince his or her listeners.
4. Ideological reasoning is----- and------

A. deductive, axiomatic
B. conclusive, logical
C. free, inconclusive
D. careful, reasoned
5. Ideological reasoning is frequently used when discussing issues related to

A. marketing.
B. sports.
C. science.
D. ethics.
6. What is the root of the word ideological?

A. Logic
B. Idea
C. Deo
D. Log
7. When using ideological reasoning, argument makers frequently use ________

evidence.
A. systematic
B. scientific
C. proven
D. anecdotal
8. What is the definition of deductive reasoning?

- 201 -
A. drawing an inference in which it appears that the conclusion cannot possibly
be false if all of the premises are true
B. beginning with a scientific reason and working backwards to prove why it is or is
not true
C. comparing an unfamiliar element to a familiar element and making a decision
based on this comparison
D. using a pro and con chart to come up with reasons why one decision should be
made over another
9. When making ideological arguments, how are outside sources typically used?
A. a brief citation from an “authoritative” source is given
B. data are compared and closely analyzed
C. systematic investigation is conducted
D. only evidentiary sources are provided
10. Which of the following is a feature of ideological reasoning?

A. The ideological premises are absent.
B. It is unethical.
C. It is deductive in nature.
D. The general idea is faulty.
11. Which of the following statements about ideological reasoning is true?

A. It is the same as comparative reasoning.
B. It is widely used.
C. It cannot be used to discuss ethical matters.
D. It is illegal.
12. Mary often makes assertions that she believes are true, independent of
specific circumstances. These are known as
A. circumstantial claims.
B. assertive claims.
C. metaphysical claims.
D. mutable claims.
13. Which of the following statements about how the term ideological reasoning
is used is accurate?
A. It refers to the way in which arguments based on ideologies are made.
B. It refers to the danger of making arguments with bad ideologies.
C. It refers to the merits of making arguments based on good ideologies.
D. It refers to the process of making decisions based on comparisons.
- 202 -
14. Gary is an ideological thinker. That means his arguments
A. are always backed up by multiple sources.
B. move from general ideas to specific applications.
C. start with a conclusion and provide multiple reasons.
D. tend to be expressed using sophisticated vocabulary.
15. Marie is an ideological thinker. Her arguments frequently begin with

A. data.
B. reasons.
C. evidence.
D. axioms.
16. “Children are fundamentally good” is an example of a(n)

A. mutable premise.
B. absolute conviction.
C. critical conclusion.
D. indisputable evidence.
17. Which of the following statements best describes an ideological thinker?

A. She seeks the truth in all circumstances.
B. He thinks his beliefs cannot be disconfirmed.
C. He makes decisions based on comparisons.
D. She relies on scientific data for all decisions.
18. Carly is a strong critical thinker. Which of the following sentences most
likely describes her?
A. She is committed to her axioms, because she knows they are true.
B. She relies on one or two quotes from experts to back up her beliefs.
C. She protects herself from being committed to mistaken beliefs.
D. She uses heuristic thinking to support her long-held convictions.
19. Kaitlin is evaluating her colleague’s ideological thinking. What question will
she do first?
A. Is the argument non-circular?
B. Is the argument logically strong?
C. Are the reasons relevant to the claims being made?
D. Are the ideological premises true?
20. Bruce is an ideological thinker. He considers the truth of his ideology to be

A. self-defeating.
B. non-reflexive.
- 203 -
C. non-functional.
D. self-evident.
21. Mary uses the qualifier “probably” quite often when making arguments.
Given this information, what can accurately be said about her arguments?
A. They are most likely ideological in nature.
B. They are rarely accurate.
C. They are most likely not ideological in nature.
D. They are based on faulty evidence.
22. Jesse is testing the strength of her sister’s ideological argument. Which of
the following is most likely true?
A. Her sister’s argument did not pass the test.
B. Her sister’s argument passed the test.
C. Her sister’s argument is irrelevant.
D. Her sister’s argument is non-circular.
23. Jeremy is a strong critical thinker. He just discovered that two of his long-
held beliefs contradict one another. What will he most likely do?
A. revise or abandon one of his beliefs
B. abandon both of his beliefs
C. hold strong to both of his beliefs
D. ignore the contradiction for the time being
24. When Andrea encounters an idea that runs contrary to her belief system,
she ignores it. What does this indicate?
A. Her beliefs are intrinsically true and should not be questioned.
B. She is a strong critical thinker in most circumstances.
C. She is unable to think critically about her own beliefs.
D. Her beliefs are less important that learning the truth.
25. Keith is a strong critical thinker who is also an ideological thinker. When
he encounters an idea that runs contrary to his belief system, he
A. turns to the experts.
B. abandons his beliefs.
C. abandons the critical thinking process.
D. reframes and modifies key terms.
26. Marcie is a proponent of Christianity. Which of the following statements is

most likely to be true?
A. She believes Christianity is relevant to all domains.
- 204 -
B. She rejects Christianity when it is convenient.
C. She is not capable of thinking critically.
D. She is a member of the clergy.
27. Kristy is a Marxist and her arguments are always circular. Based on this
information and what you read in the text, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Kristy is not a strong critical thinker.
B. All Marxists argue in a circular manner.
C. Kristy is most likely not an ideological thinker.
D. Only religious people engage with circular arguments.
28. Catherine is a mother and a firm and unwavering believer that children
should not be vaccinated. What is one thing her belief system provides for her?
A. a strong understanding of scientific evidence
B. a leg up when it comes to critical thinking
C. a sense of belonging to a group of like-minded parents
D. an opportunity to re-evaluate her axioms
29. Marcy decided to stand up to her uncle, who frequently issues blanket
statements like “Gays should not have the right to marry.” Given this
information, which of the following statements applies to this situation?
A. Marcy is courageous for standing up against her ideologue uncle.
B. Her uncle is a strong critical thinker and Marcy should not confront him.
C. Marcy is an ideologue who cannot keep her thoughts to herself.
D. Her uncle always has evidence to back up his claims.
EMPIRICAL REASONING. THINK

BOTTOM - UP
A. adhering to one ideology that guides one’s thinking in all situations
B. using primarily heuristics to come to decisions about important topics
C. purposeful, reflective judgment in the real world about what to believe or
what to do
D. relying on experts to explain why one should believe one thing over another
2. Empirical reasoning is also called

A. reasoned thinking.
B. lateral thinking.
- 205 -
C. top-down thinking.
D. bottom-up thinking.
3. Which of the following adjectives describes empirical reasoning?

A. deductive
B. illogical
C. inductive
D. closed
4. The empirical reasoning process begins with

A. conclusions based on personal associations with various factors.
B. premises describing interpersonally verifiable experiences.
C. reasons given in support of unverifiable premises.
D. arguments based on ideological components.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of empirical reasoning?

A. It is open to self-corrective reasoning.
B. It is based on overarching ideologies.
C. It typically leads nowhere.
D. It is circular in nature.
6. When engaging in empirical reasoning, investigative inquiry is

A. reserved for experts.
B. subject to ideology.
C. not permitted.
D. a community activity.
7. An empirical investigation begins with a(n)

A. answer.
B. ideology.
C. hypothesis.
D. heuristic.
8. What is one of the advantages of creating specific conditions in a lab?

A. Influences of extraneous factors can be reduced.
B. Ideological thinking thrives in this setting.
C. Heuristic thinkers are prone to distraction.
D. Deductive reasoning can be carefully controlled.
9. What is one of the ways that a researcher’s empirical reasoning can be

evaluated?
- 206 -
A. ideological testing
B. peer review
C. heuristic analysis
D. deductive assessment
10. Which of the following is a step in a scientific investigation?

A. Neutralize all factors.
B. Choose one ideology to follow.
C. Reject the peer review.
D. Identify a problem of significance.
11. Jeremy has just formed a hypothesis that describes what we can expect to
happen under certain conditions. Which step in the scientific investigation will
he do next?
A. Identify all factors related to the hypothesis.
B. Identify a problem of significance.
C. Review scientific literature related to the hypothesis.
D. Assure that experimental conditions can be met.
12. Which of the following statements about the peer review process is true?
A. The review process is infallible.
B. Only quality research is used in the review process.
C. It is possible for poor research to be published.
D. The review process cannot be used by students.
13. Kurt is a scientist who frequently uses empirical reasoning. He knows that
A. making accurate predictions depends on knowing how to explain causes.
B. peer review is not as important as others make it out to be.
C. the steps in the scientific process are frequently done out of order.
D. errors never occur in empirical reasoning.
14. Maggie assumes that findings that have been established with a high level
of confidence can never be rejected. Given the information in the text, how
could one describe this situation?
A. Maggie is correct.
B. Maggie does not have self-confidence.
C. Maggie should always reject findings.
D. Maggie is mistaken.
15. According to the chapter, what is one of the abilities Ingrid would have to
possess to be a strong in empirical reasoning?
- 207 -
A. the ability to be analytical
B. the ability to take shortcuts
C. the ability to take others at their word
D. the ability to be ideological
16. As a scientist, Marcus knows that empirical reasoning has an edge over
comparative or ideological reasoning because
A. of its heuristic bent.
B. of its built-in capacity for self-monitoring.
C. of its ideological nature.
D. of its top-down reasoning.
17. Scientific researchers would agree that

A. ideological reasoning yields more accurate results than comparative or empirical
reasoning.
B. scientists should rely less on the scientific process and more on heuristics in order
to save time.
C. science progresses when the entire scientific community can evaluate the
merits of a scientific investigation.
D. comparative reasoning is used frequently in science, especially when testing
hypotheses.
18. Aileen is teaching a critical thinking class. She explains to her students that
the trajectory of empirical reasoning is
A. top down.
B. bottom up.
C. sideways.
D. circular.
19. How would a scientist explain the purpose of empirical investigation?

A. to come to a decision through careful comparisons between factors
B. to generate new knowledge so we can explain and predict future outcomes
C. to use heuristics to lead us to a well-reasoned conclusion
D. to allow ideologies to lead us to new scientific realities
20. Mary is a strong critical thinker. She knows that

A. not all deductive reasoning is ideological.
B. all deductive reasoning is ideological.
C. all inductive reasoning is empirical.
D. not all inductive reasoning is empirical.
- 208 -
21. Matt is teaching a course on scientific inquiry. He explains to his students
that the scientific process
A. is exhaustively systematic.
B. is full of shortcuts.
C. is rarely accurate.
D. is heuristic in nature.
22. Kyle is a scientist. He insists that scientific investigation is inductive, which

means that
A. there are always two conclusions for each problem.
B. the first conclusion reached is the correct one.
C. the conclusions reached are probabilistic.
D. the comparisons made should be ideological in nature.
23. Catherine, a scientist, has revised her hypothesis several times throughout
the investigation. What can be said about this situation?
A. It is indicative of the self-corrective nature of empirical reasoning.
B. She is clearly not a good researcher.
C. She is definitely not an experienced scientist.
D. It is indicative of the fact that she is not using the scientific process.
24. Mason is a researcher who believes that his premises should be accepted
based on the fact that he has a Ph.D. in chemistry. What can be said about this
situation?
A. If he has a Ph.D. that must mean he is always correct.
B. He is ignoring the important step of independent verification.
C. He respects the basic nature of empirical reasoning.
D. If he is a scientific researcher, he must be prone to using heuristics.
25. Joseph puts forth the following hypothesis: “If a plant is not watered for
three days, it will die.” This hypothesis is phrased as a
A. basic conclusion.
B. question.
C. general statement.
D. hypothetical.
26. Marjorie conducts her experiments in a highly controlled lab. What is one
of the possible effects of conducting an experiment in this type of setting?
A. Extraneous factors cannot easily be reduced.
B. The scientific method loses its validity.
C. The generalizability of the findings may be weakened.
- 209 -
D. The researchers become biased.
27. Credit card interest accounts for $3,000 of the Johnsons’ yearly expenses. If
they paid off their credit cards, they would reduce their yearly spending by
13%. This can be described as a
A. imagined savings.
B. tautological solution.
C. measurable manifestation.
D. real response.
28. Reid is a scientific researcher. Which of the following statements about

error in scientific inquiry is true?
A. It is possible that Reid could introduce error through a conceptual mistake.
B. If Reid uses a lab setting, there is no way error could be introduced.
C. Error is introduced into every investigation, no matter who the researcher is.
D. If Reid is using the scientific process, it could take a long time before the error is
caught.
29. Miles is teaching a course on empirical reasoning. He explains to his

students that the steps in a scientific investigation
A. are not commonly used in “real world” scientific processes.
B. take into account the four tests of an argument’s worthiness.
C. can only be conducted in a lab setting.
D. can be done in reverse if need be.
30. Cassandra is a scientific researcher. She knows that the test for logical
strength
A. is only relevant if she is using a lab for testing.
B. is not a part of scientific inquiry.
C. is a specific step in the scientific process.
D. is built into the research design of her study.


- 210 -

34. A combination of ______, _______, and ______ forms the habits of mind
that dispose a person toward critical thinking.
35. What is one of the seven positive critical thinking habits of mind?
A. spiritual
B. apologetic
C. systematic
D. apathetic
36. Good critical thinkers are

A. always successful in life.
B. not necessarily good people.
C. highly moral people.
D. not always skeptical.
38. Marlene is in the middle of the critical thinking process. She has just
evaluated the problem. Her next step is to
A. use perception to identify the issue at hand.
B. use stereotyping to make judgment calls.
C. use self-regulation to check herself for accuracy.
D. use analysis to do research.
- 211 -
39. Anna is a college professor teaching a course on critical thinking. If one of
her students said that critical thinking could be reduced to a list of skills, how
would she respond?
A. That is a misleading oversimplification.
B. That is absolutely correct.
C. That is complicating the issue.
D. That is not a valid thought.
B. self-regulation.
C. judgment.
D. interpretation.

A. free will.
B. self-regulation.
C. your options.
42. When Michael is faced with a challenge at work, he envisions all of the
consequences of various ways in which he could resolve the problem. One could
say that Michael is
A. judgmental.
B. persuasive.
C. closed-minded.
D. analytical.
43. Marianne had decided to take her 1-year-old to see Santa on Saturday.
When she wakes up that morning, it is sleeting and snowing heavily. She decides
to revise her decision. This is an example of which concept from the test?
A. judiciousness
B. open-mindedness
C. solubility
D. systematicity
44. Mark is trying to decide whether to be a business major or a Spanish major.

This decision falls primarily under which category?
A. physical
- 212 -
B. linguistic
C. vocational
D. spiritual
45. Marcie spent all weekend out with her friends when she should have been
studying for her chemistry exam. She received an F on the exam, her worst
grade this semester. Her poor grade is
A. the proof of her lack of chemistry talent.
B. the result of her actions.
C. an overall problem in her life.
D. an unfortunate coincidence.
46. Carl is trying to become a better decision maker. He is most likely working
on
A. making snap judgments.
B. heuristic thinking.
C. considering all consequences.
D. taking reactive risks.


49. Heidi interprets the word “voice” to mean “singing voice” and Kristine
interprets it to mean “writing voice.” What could be said about Heidi and
Kristine?
A. They are supporters of vague language.
B. They do not understand the definition of “voice.”
C. They are both singers and writers.
D. They belong to different language communities.
50. Jeremiah is a professional translator. When he comes across a word, he

doesn’t understand, he
- 213 -
A. looks it up in the dictionary and chooses the first definition he sees.
B. types only that word into an online translator.
C. considers the context and then looks it up in the dictionary.
D. ignores the context and takes his best guess.
51. What is the definition of reason?

A. the basis provided by the argument maker to show that the claim is true or
probably true
B. the basis provided by the argument maker to show that the claim is false or
probably false
C. the basis provided by the argument maker to show that the audience is not
listening to the statement
D. the basis provided by the argument maker to show that the statement is
unreasonable
52. Fill in the blanks. Each---- is a separate set of----- _

A. argument, conclusions
B. reason, premises
C. claim, laws
D. process, truisms
53. Jessica is giving a reason in support of a claim. What is she doing?

A. developing a premise
B. creating a basis
C. arguing a bias
D. making an argument
54. What is the definition of a premise?

A. the reasons that create the argument
B. the statements that comprise an argument’s reason
C. the root of critical thinking
D. the argument that leads to the conclusion
55. Which of the following statements about premises is true?

A. They should never be contextually assumed.
B. They are only explicitly asserted.
C. They can be explicit or implicit.
D. They are never implicitly constructed.
56. When mapping, what does a hexagon mean?

A. It conveys that a line of reasoning has been abandoned.
- 214 -
B. It symbolizes that an argument has been completed.
C. It represents an imperfect premise that was created.
D. It signifies a six-sided argument that was constructed.
57. In the midst of a constructive conversation with a friend, Michael says

“Therefore…” Based on the information in the text, what can we assume came
after the “therefore”?
A. an analogy
B. an insult
C. a premise
D. a conclusion
58. “France is in Europe and Paris is in France. So, Paris is in Europe.” Is an

example of?
A. a law.
B. an analogy.
C. a promise.
D. a premise.
59. During a conversation with his colleague, Jeff says “Given that…” What we
can assume comes after the “given that”?
A. a conclusion
B. a reason
C. a negotiation
D. a trick
60. Karen draws an oval while mapping. What does this signify?
A. a conclusion
B. a premise
C. a reason
D. a solution
True / False Questions
1-If no reasons have been given for a claim’s acceptance, the claim should always
be rejected. (F)
2-If poor reasons have been given for a claim’s acceptance, the claim should always
be rejected. (F)
3-Sometimes arguments contain only unstated reasons. (F)
4-The reasons that appear in arguments may be either good or bad reasons—if they
are bad reasons, we still have an argument; it’s just a bad argument. (T)
5-Claims may serve any of several purposes, but never more than one purpose at a
time. (F)
- 215 -
6-Even though the issue that people are fussing over may not be important, there
must still be an issue present wherever an argument is present. (T)
7. A valid argument cannot have any false premises. (F)
8. The more support the premise of an inductive argument provides for the
conclusion, the stronger the argument. (T)
9. In an inductive argument, the premise demonstrates or proves the conclusion. (F)
10. An argument can be classified as deductive or inductive based on its ability to
persuade others. (F)
- 216 -
CHAPTER EIGHT
CREATIVE PROBLEM SOLVING
1) Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?
a) Business model
b) Modeling
c) Creative flexibility
d) Innovation Question
2) Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help
to market new products?
b) Federal government
c) Distribution Channels
d) Consumers Question
3) Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an

international market before making a major commitment?
a) Merger
c) Joint venture
d) Majority interest Question
4) GATT is established in 1947, under:

a) German leadership
b) U.S. leadership
c) French leadership
d) U.K. leadership
5) The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:

a) Middle age
b) 17th century
c) 18th century
d) 19th and 20th century
6) What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without

regard to resources they currently control?
a) Startup management
- 217 -
b) Entrepreneurship
c) Financial analysis
d) Feasibility planning
7) Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is

called:
a) Joint Venture
c) Minority interest
d) Exporting
8) Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur
with managerial control is called:
a) Joint venture
c) Horizontal merger
c) Diversified activity merger
9) Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new

products that over time make current products obsolete?
a) New business model
b) Anatomization
c) None of the given options
d) Creative destruction
10) Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S
companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?
a) Entrepreneurship
b) Hyper competition
c) Governmental laws
d) Organizational culture Question
11) Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship
b) Entrepreneurship
12) Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are

known as which of the following?
- 218 -
b) Role model
d) Support system Question
13) The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:
a) Motivation
b) Business skills
c) Departure point
d) Goal orientation
14) The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:

a) Financial status
b) Qualification
c) Social status
d) Achievement
15) Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to
their familiarity with the needs of market?
b) Distribution channels
c) Federal government
d) Consumers Question
16) Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas
because:
a) They earn a handsome profit from new business
b) They are familiar with the needs of the market
c) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
d) They have well-developed sales force Question
17) Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a

successful business website?
a) Innovation
b) Speed
c) Graphics
d) Products
18) Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product
Planning and Development Process?
a) Idea Stage
b) Product Planning Stage
- 219 -
c) Product Development Stage
d) Test Marketing Stage
19) SBA stands for:

a) Small business accountants
b) Small business administration
c) Small business adequacy
d) Small business advisors
20) Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new

venture?
a) To identify possible sources of funds
b) To see if there are possible barriers to success
c) To estimate the expected sales
d) To explore potential customers
21) Information regarding all of the following is related to operations,

EXCEPT:
a) Location
b) Promotion
c) Raw materials
d) Labor skills
22) A performance and credit rating scheme has been launched by the MSME
Ministry to assess creditworthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector.
What is it called?
(a) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme
(b) Zero Defect Zero Effect Certification
(c) Performance and Economy Rating Scheme
23) EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programs) is required to help:

(a) Existing entrepreneurs
(b) First generation entrepreneurs
(c) Future generation’s entrepreneurs
24) Crystal is shopping for a new car. At the first dealership she visits, they are
having a sale on automatics. She had originally intended on buying a car with
manual transmission, but this is a really good sale. What would an effective
critical thinker advise her to do?
- 220 -
A. Purchase an automatic from the first dealership.
B. Research other options before making her final decision.
C. Select a car based on color, not transmission.
D. Use snap judgment to come to a quick decision.
25) Family business always interested to handover the change of his business
to:
(a) Indian Administration Officers
(b) Professional Managers
(c) Next generation
26) Marcy is a college freshman. She is quickly learning that ________ is the
main cognitive skill needed when taking her freshman English essay exams.
A. rote memorization
B. critical thinking
C. quick calculating
D. photographic memory
27) Venture capital is concerned with:

(a) New project having potential for higher profit
(b) New project of high technology
(c) New project having high risk
(d) All the above.
28. What is dominance structuring?

A. a computer program designed to help people make decisions when a situation is
unclear
B. a common fallacy that strong critical thinkers can recognize immediately
C. the physical process through which humans achieve confidence in their
decisions
D. the intentional process of changing your believe system with every decision you
make.
29. Which of the following is one of the phases of dominance structuring?

A. reversing your stereotypes
B. comparing your option with others
C. consulting with an expert
D. identifying one promising option
30. What are decision-critical attributes?

- 221 -
A. inherent personal traits that help one come to a logical decision based on reason
B. criteria the decision maker deems important and relevant for evaluating
options
C. guidelines given by experts that help a person become an even better critical
thinker
D. steps one takes throughout his/her life to become a better critical thinker
31. What is one of the risks of dominance structuring?

A. We can sometimes become locked into an unwise decision.
B. Changing one’s mind so much causes mental health problems.
C. It is unreliable to use a computer to make decisions.
D. It causes us to become something we’re not.
32. What is the sixth critical thinking skill?

A. creativity
B. self-regulation
C. common sense
D. stereotyping
33. ________ and open-mindedness need to be cultivated so that we are

prepared to revisit our opinions with objectivity and judiciousness.
A. Heuristics
B. Creativity
C. Common sense
D. Truth-seeking
34. Reflective decisions

A. frequently involve heuristics.
B. always yield the best response.
C. are based on instinct.
D. are not always good decisions.
35. In the _____ phase, we start by selecting a group of possible options and
attributes.
A. inferring
B. referencing
C. self-regulating
D. pre-editing
36. In the _______ phase, we compare our options in terms of the set of decision-
critical attributes.
- 222 -
A. abandoning preconceived ideas
B. recognizing the complexity of the issue
C. testing the promising options
D. selecting a group of possible options
37. In the fortifying the to-be-chosen option phase, we

A. test the promising options.
B. restructure our appraisals of the options.
C. select a group of possible options.
D. choose the most promising option.
38. Which of the following best describes Phase 2 of the search for dominance?
A. finding one option that is more attractive than the others
B. abandoning judgment for critical instinct and preconceived ideas
C. consulting an expert regarding the complexity of the situation
D. selecting a group of possible options and attributes
39. Which of the following is true about the fortifying the to-be-chosen option
phase?
A. It is always rational.
B. It always involves restructuring.
C. It is never logical.
D. It always involves an expert opinion.
40. Mary is wondering whether her husband’s dominance structuring process

is complete. Which of the following things would indicate to her that it is?
A. He describes the situation as difficult.
B. He describes the choice as easy.
C. He describes himself as having decided.
D. He describes all of the counter-arguments.
41. There is a great chance that Becky’s decision will be wise and well thought
out. Which of the following things did she do?
A. She was extremely leisurely in making her decision.
B. She based her decision on preconceived notions.
C. She was not too hasty in making her decision.
D. She based her decision on the opinions of others.
42. Jeanne is a cognitive scientist. She knows that humans

A. never acts on instinct.
B. are inadequate problem solvers.
- 223 -
C. rely too heavily on reason.
D. seek to establish rationale for decisions.
43. Kristin is teaching a course on critical thinking. She explains to her class
that dominance structuring is
A. something that must be done in groups.
B. best if done prematurely.
C. not something most people do.
D. something most people just do.
44. Jack is good at monitoring his decisions. One could say he is skilled at
A. co-opting.
B. self-regulation.
C. reverse reflection.
D. group talk.
45. Mark is listing a job opening. Which of the following would be an example
of a decision-critical attribute in this situation?
A. level of education attained by the applicant
B. media through which the announcement is advertised
C. timeline from advertising the position to hiring for it
D. type of font used in the job opening listing
46. Jane is in the pre-editing phase of her decision making. She should
A. consults with an expert about what to do.
B. considers every conceivable option.
C. makes a final decision based on her gut feeling.
D. makes deliberative judgments regarding her options.
47. Jerry has just begun to consider a problem. It is important that he

A. champion the best option to all of his friends.
B. assess the strengths and weaknesses of each option.
C. become enamored of one specific option.
D. call in his friends to help him make the decision.
48. Louise’s children, Bob and Lola, are in a fight. Bob thinks it was Lola’s fault
and vice versa. As a disciplined critical thinker, Louise will
A. listen to both sides of the story.
B. trust her gut instinct.
C. have her children sort it out.
D. call her best friend to help her.
- 224 -
49. Marc is trying to decide which car to buy, Car 1 or Car 2. Car 1 is his
favored option. What should he do?
A. Flip a coin to decide which car to purchase that day.
B. If Car 2 is less expensive, he should buy that one instead.
C. Assess if Car 1 has any disadvantages based on his criteria.
D. Ask his wife if she likes Car 1 or Car 2 better.
50. Janine is entering the truth-seeking phase of her decision- making process.
She knows that truth-seeking can be challenging because
A. it always confirms that one’s preferred option is wrong.
B. it can potentially lead one away from one’s preferred option.
C. it requires one to rely on preconceived notions.
D. it cannot be done until three preferred options are identified.
51. Karla is in the final stages of dominance structuring. It is very possible that
she will
A. invent other options that reinforce her beliefs.
B. pre-edit all possible options and rule out two of them.
C. call on an expert to make the final decision.
D. de-emphasize some of her decision-critical criteria.
52. Clarence is prone to bolstering his chosen options. What is one of the critical
thinking dangers he may run into?
A. using self-regulation throughout the process
B. abandoning the problem altogether
C. exaggerating his option’s merits
D. refusing to consult an expert
53. Clara becomes frustrated in group decision-making situations, because

groups have a tendency to decide prematurely. What is something she could
suggest the next time she finds herself in this situation?
A. Decide as a group what must be done before a final decision is made.
B. Agree to make the final decision during the editing phase.
C. Have one person be in charge of making the final decision.
D. Call in a group of experts to make the final decision.
54. Jason’s doctor started him on antibiotics to treat his nagging upper-
respiratory symptoms. When it became obvious that he was not getting any
better, his doctor, being a good critical thinker,
A. continued him on the antibiotic treatment.
B. analyzed his symptoms and made a mid-course correction.
- 225 -
C. told Jason that he could no longer treat him.
D. remained firm on the result of his initial analysis.
55. Cassie is a 5th grade teacher. She wants to cultivate an environment

conducive to critical thinking in her classroom, but she doesn’t know where to
start. What advice would you give her?
A. Acknowledge and reward her students when they exhibit critical thinking
skills and actions.
B. She should focus on other areas, because 5th grade is too young to be a critical
thinker.
C. Tell students that the most important things are getting one’s point across and
being right.
D. Make sure students understand that they must always have an adult’s help when
thinking critically.
56. Bella is teaching a critical thinking course. Which of the following would
she be most likely to say to her students regarding dominance structuring?
A. Dominance structuring is a very simple process.
B. Dominance structuring has very few advantages.
C. Dominance structuring does not involve self-correction.
D. Dominance structuring is a natural tendency for most people.
57. You are giving your colleague advice on how to be a stronger critical
thinker. What would you say about truth-seeking and self-regulation?
A. Self-regulation is only important if you are typically wrong.
B. Truth-seeking is an unattainable goal in most situations.
C. Truth-seeking and self-regulation are key to making good decisions.
D. Truth-seeking and self-regulation are optional in most cases.
58. What is the definition of problem solving?

A. moving from the point at which we realize we have difficulty to the point at
which we consider the difficulty to be resolved
B. avoiding dealing with problems that seem too difficult or overwhelming
C. calling on someone else to help you figure out a plan to resolve the problems in
your life
D. waiting until small problems become big problems before taking action to solve
them on your own
59. What is IDEAS?

A. a liberal arts degree program
B. an open-minded way of viewing the world
- 226 -
C. a judgmental approach to meeting others
D. a general problem- solving process
60. What does the A in IDEAS stand for?

A. Analyze the problem at hand and make a hypothesis.
B. Assess situation and make a preliminary decision.
C. Avoid dealing with and conversing with others.
D. Ask questions and retain a stereotypical view.
61. According to the chapter, which of the following statements about social
relationships is true?
A. Social relationships are unnecessary.
B. Social relationships are black and white.
C. Social relationships are complex.
D. Social relationships are disrespectful.
62. According to the chapter, which of the following statements about success
in college is true?
A. Everyone defines college success in the same way.
B. GPA is the only way to define college success.
C. Only successful students graduate in 4 years.
D. There are many ways to define success in college.
63. When problem solving, why is it important to gather relevant information?

A. Gathering relevant information helps us deepen our understanding of the
problem.
B. Gathering relevant information is a great way to distract oneself from the problem
at hand.
C. Gathering relevant information helps us view the problem in a stereotypic fashion.
D. Gathering relevant information is a good way to improve one’s computer skills.
64. When problem solving, why is it important to enumerate options?

Enumerating options help you
A. focus on consequences that have a greater likelihood of occurring.
B. hold true to your preconceived beliefs.
C. align possible outcomes with pre-existing stereotypes.
D. remember why you are trying to solve this process in the first place.
65. Mark is trying to decide whether to be a business major or a Spanish major.

This decision falls primarily under which category?
A. physical
- 227 -
B. linguistic
C. vocational
D. spiritual
66. Wendy is using the IDEAS process to solve a problem. She just gathered
relevant information. What will she do next?
A. identify the problem and set priorities
B. identify options and anticipate consequences
C. assess the situation and make a preliminary decision
D. scrutinize the process and self-correct
67. Hanna is concerned that her boyfriend does not support her in her decisions.
This is an example of a (n) ________ concern.
A. academic
B. vocational
C. social
D. spiritual
68. Anna has a problem. She has been getting Cs and below on her math tests.
What is a question she could ask herself to help identify the cause of her low
grades?
A. Do I believe in God?
B. Am I eating too much protein?
C. Does my friend love me?
D. Are my study habits effective?
on
70. Patrick is thinking about taking a “gap year.” What is one thing he should
definitely do as he makes this decision?
A. Consider all the possible consequences of his decisions.
B. Socialize a lot with his friends.
C. Become a vegetarian.
D. Obtain an international passport.
- 228 -
71. In the Magpie Sensing case study, the automated collection of temperature
and humidity data on shipped goods helped with various types of analytics.
Which of the following is an example of prescriptive analytics?
A) location of the shipment
B) real time reports of the shipment's temperature
C) warning of an open shipment seal
D) optimal temperature setting
72. In the Magpie Sensing case study, the automated collection of temperature
and humidity data on shipped goods helped with various types of analytics.
Which of the following is an example of predictive analytics?
A. warning of an open shipment seal
B. optimal temperature setting
C. real time reports of the shipment's temperature
D. location of the shipment
73. Which of the following is NOT an example that falls within the four major
categories of business environment factors for today's organizations?
A. globalization
B. fewer government regulations
C. increased pool of customers
D. increased competition
74. Organizations counter the pressures they experience in their business

environments in multiple ways. Which of the following is NOT an effective way
to counter these pressures?
A. reactive actions
B. anticipative actions
C. retroactive actions
D. adaptive actions
75. Which of the following activities permeates nearly all managerial activity?
A. planning
B. decision-making
C. directing
D. controlling
76.Why are analytical decision-making skills now viewed as more important

than interpersonal skills for an organization's managers?
A. because personable and friendly managers are always the least effective
B. because interpersonal skills are never important in organizations
- 229 -
C. because analytical-oriented managers tend to be flashier and less methodical
D. because analytical-oriented managers produce better results over time
77. Business environments and government requirements are becoming more

complex. All of the following actions to manage this complexity would be
appropriate EXCEPT
A. deploying more sophisticated tools and technique.
B. hiring more sophisticated and computer-savvy managers.
C. seeking new ways to avoid government compliance.
D. avoiding expensive trial and error to find out what works.
78. The deployment of large data warehouses with terabytes or even petabytes
of data been crucial to the growth of decision support. All the following explain
why EXCEPT
A. data warehouses have enabled the affordable collection of data for analytics.
B. data warehouses have assisted the collection of data for data mining.
C. data warehouses have enabled the collection of decision makers in one
place.
D. data warehouses have assisted the collection of data from multiple sources.
79.Which of the following statements about cognitive limits of organizational

decision makers is true?
A. Cognitive limits affect both the recall and use of data by decision makers.
B. Only top managers make decisions where cognitive limits are strained.
C. The most talented and effective managers do not have cognitive limitations.
D. All organizational decision-making requires data beyond human cognitive
limits.
80.For the majority of organizations, evaluating the credit rating of a potential

business partner is a(n)
A. structured decision.
B. unstructured decision.
C. managerial control decision.
D. strategic decision.
81.For the majority of organizations, a daily accounts receivable transaction is

a(n)
A. strategic decision.
B. managerial control decision.
C. structured decision.
D. unstructured decision.
- 230 -
82. All of the following may be viewed as decision support systems EXCEPT
A. an expert system to diagnose a medical condition.
B. a system that helps to manage the organization's supply chain management.
C. a knowledge management system to guide decision makers.
D. a retail sales system that processes customer sales transactions.
83.Business intelligence (BI) can be characterized as a transformation of

A. data to information to decisions to actions.
B. Big Data to data to information to decisions.
C. data to processing to information to actions.
D. actions to decisions to feedback to information.
84. In answering the question "Which customers are most likely to click on my
online ads and purchase my goods?", you are most likely to use which of the
following analytic applications?
A. customer attrition
B. channel optimization
C. customer profitability
D. propensity to buy
85.In answering the question "Which customers are likely to be using fake
credit cards?", you are most likely to use which of the following analytic
applications?
A. customer segmentation
B. channel optimization
C. fraud detection
D. customer profitability
86. When Sabre developed their Enterprise Data Warehouse, they chose to use
near-real-time updating of their database. The main reason they did so was
A. to be able to assess internal operations.
B. to aggregate performance metrics in an understandable way.
C. to provide a 360-degree view of the organization.
D. to provide up-to-date executive insights.
87. How are descriptive analytics methods different from the other two types?
A. They answer "what to do?" queries, not "what-if?" queries.
B. They answer "what-is?" queries, not "what will be?" queries.
C. They answer "what-if?" queries, not "how many?" queries.
D. They answer "what will be?" queries, not "what to do?" queries.
- 231 -
88.Prescriptive BI capabilities are viewed as more powerful than predictive
ones for all the following reasons EXCEPT
A. prescriptive models generally build on (with some overlap) predictive ones.
B. only prescriptive BI capabilities have monetary value to top-level
managers.
C. understanding the likelihood of certain events often leaves unclear remedies.
D. prescriptive BI gives actual guidance as to actions.
89.Which of the following statements about Big Data is true?

A. MapReduce is a storage filing system.
B. Data chunks are stored in different locations on one computer.
C. Hadoop is a type of processor used to process Big Data applications.
D. Pure Big Data systems do not involve fault tolerance.
90. Big Data often involves a form of distributed storage and processing using
Hadoop and MapReduce. One reason for this is
A. the processing power needed for the centralized model would overload a
single computer.
B. Big Data systems have to match the geographical spread of social media.
C. centralized storage creates too many vulnerabilities.
D. the "Big" in Big Data necessitates over 10,000 processing nodes.
91.The HP Case illustrates that after analytics are chosen to solve a problem,
building a new decision model from scratch or purchasing one may not always
be the best approach. Why is that?
A) Analytic models work better when they are built from scratch or purchased.
B) A related tool requiring slight modification may already exist.
C) CIOs are more likely to allocate funds to new development.
D) Decision models should never be purchased, only developed in house.
92.Groupthink in a decision-making environment occurs when

A. group members accept the same timeframe for problem solving without
complaining.
B. group members all accept a course of action without thinking for
themselves.
C. group members all use the same analytic tools without having a choice.
D. group members are all working together for the firm's success.
93.All of the following statements about decision style are true EXCEPT
A. heuristic styles can also be democratic.
B. autocratic styles are authority-based.
- 232 -
C. decision styles may vary among lower-level managers.
D. decision styles are consistent among top managers.
94.A search for alternatives occurs in which phase of the decision making/action
model?
A. the intelligence phases
B. the implementation phases
C. the choice phases
D. the design phases
95.All of the following are benefits of using models for decision support
EXCEPT
A. you can find out probable outcomes of an action before actually taking it.
B. using well-designed models always guarantees you success in
implementation.
C. it is easier to manipulate a model than a real system.
D. the cost of a model is usually much lower than manipulating the system in
implementation.
96.In the design phase of decision making, selecting a principle of choice or

criteria means that
A. optimality is not the only criterion for acceptable solutions.
B. if an objective model is used with hard data, all decision makers will make the
same choice.
C. risk acceptability is a subjective concept and plays little part in modeling.
D. using well-designed models guarantees you success in real life.
97.What form of decision theory assumes that decision makers are rational
beings who always seek to strictly maximize economic goals?
A. satisficing decision theory
B. human optimal decision theory
C. normative decision theory
D. the theory of bounded rationality
98.When an Accounts Payable department improves their information system

resulting in faster payments to vendors, without the Accounts Receivable
Department doing the same, leading to a cash flow crunch, what can we say
happened in decision-theoretic terms?
A. cash flow problems
B. profit minimization
C. suboptimization
- 233 -
D. optimization
99.All of the following statements about risk in decision making are correct
EXCEPT
A. all business decisions incorporate an element of risk.
B. decision makers frequently measure risk and uncertainty incorrectly.
C. most decision makers are pessimistic about decision outcomes.
D. methodologies are available for handling extreme uncertainty.
100.The Web can play a significant role in making large amounts of

information available to decision makers. Decision makers must be careful that
this glut of information does not
A. detract from the quality and speed of decision making.
B. take on the same credibility of internally-generated data.
C. increase their enthusiasm for data available on the web.
D. take on the same role as human intuition.
101.All of the following statements about the decision implementation phases

are true EXCEPT
A. ES and KMS can help in training and support for decision implementation.
B. implementation is every bit as important as the decision itself.
C. ERP, CRP, and BPM tools can all help track decision implementation.
D. employees need only the decisions from the CEO, not the rationale.
102.For DSS, why are semi-structured or unstructured decisions the main focus
of support?
A. MIS staff prefer to work on solving unstructured and semi-structured
decisions.
B. There are many more unstructured and semi-structured decisions than
structured in organizations.
C. Unstructured and semi-structured decisions are the easiest to solve.
D. They include human judgment, which is incorporated into DSS.
103.What class of DSS incorporates simulation and optimization?

A. model-driven DSS
B. communications-driven/Group DSS
C. knowledge-driven DSS
D. data-driven DSS
104.When a DSS is built, used successfully and integrated into the company's
business processes, it was most likely built for a(n)
- 234 -
A. one-off decision.
B. unimportant decision.
C. ambiguous decision.
D. recurrent decision.
105.The fact that many organizations share many similar problems means that
in sourcing a DSS, it is often wiser to acquire a(n)
A. offshored DSS.
B. consultant-developed DSS.
C. custom-made DSS.
D. ready-made DSS.
106.The software that manages the DSS database and enables relevant data to
be accessed by DSS application programs is called
A. KWS.
B. CRM.
C. ERP.
D. DBMS.
107.The model management subsystem provides the system's analytical

capabilities and appropriate software management. Which of the following is
NOT an element of the model management subsystem?
A. MBMS
B. model base
C. model execution, integration, and command processor
D. DBMS
108.While Microsoft Excel can be an efficient tool for developing a DSS,

compared to using a programming language like C++, a shortcoming of Excel
is
A. errors can creep into formulas somewhat easily.
B. Excel is not widely understood compared to a language like C++.
C. it cannot be used effectively for small or medium sized problems.
D. it is not widely available for purchase.
109.What type of user interface has been recognized as an effective DSS GUI
because it is familiar, user friendly, and a gateway to almost all sources of
necessary information and data?
A. visual basic interfaces
B. Web browsers
C. ASP.net
- 235 -
D. mainframe interfaces
110.The user communicates with and commands the DSS through the user
interface subsystem. Researchers assert that some of the unique contributions
of DSS are derived from
A. the user being considered part of the system.
B. the intensive interaction between the computer and the decision maker.
C. some DSS user interfaces utilizing natural-language input (i.e., text in a
human language).
D. the Web browser.
111.For those executives who do not have the time to go through lengthy
reports, the best alternative is the
A. last page of the report.
B. raw data that informed the report.
C. charts in the report.
D. executive summary.
112.All of the following are true about external reports between businesses and
the government EXCEPT
A. their primary focus is government.
B. they can be filed nationally or internationally.
C. they are standardized for the most part to reduce the regulatory burden.
D. they can include tax and compliance reporting.
113.Kaplan and Norton developed a report that presents an integrated view of

success in the organization called
A. dashboard-type reports.
B. balanced scorecard-type reports.
C. metric management reports.
D. visual reports.
114.Which component of a reporting system contains steps detailing how

recorded transactions are converted into metrics, scorecards, and dashboards?
A. assurance
B. extract, transform and load
C. data supply
D. business logic
115.Which of the following is LEAST related to data/information visualization?

A. statistical graphics
- 236 -
B. information graphics
C. graphic artwork
D. scientific visualization
116.The Internet emerged as a new medium for visualization and brought all
the following EXCEPT
A. immersive environments for consuming data.
B. new forms of computation of business logic.
C. worldwide digital distribution of visualization.
D. new graphics displays through PC displays.
117.Which kind of chart is described as an enhanced variant of a scatter plot?

A. heat map
B. bubble chart
C. pie chart
D. bullet
118.Which type of visualization tool can be very helpful when the intention is
to show relative proportions of dollars per department allocated by a university
administration?
A. heat map
B. bubble chart
C. pie chart
D. bullet
119.Which type of visualization tool can be very helpful when a data set
contains location data?
A. geographic map
B. tree map
C. bar chart
D. highlight table
120.Which type of question does visual analytics seeks to answer?

A. What is happening today?
B. What happened yesterday?
C. When did it happen?
D. Why did it happen?
121.When you tell a story in a presentation, all of the following are true
EXCEPT
A. stories and their lessons should be easy to remember.
- 237 -
B. a well-told story should have no need for subsequent discussion.
C. a story should make sense and order out of a lot of background noise.
D. the outcome and reasons for it should be clear at the end of your story.
122.Benefits of the latest visual analytics tools, such as SAS Visual Analytics,
include all of the following EXCEPT
A. there is less demand on IT departments for reports.
B. mobile platforms such as the iPhone are supported by these products.
C. they explore massive amounts of data in hours, not days.
D. it is easier to spot useful patterns and trends in the data.
123.What is the management feature of a dashboard?

A. operational data that identify what actions to take to resolve a problem
B. summarized dimensional data to analyze the root cause of problems
C. graphical, abstracted data to monitor key performance metrics
D. summarized dimensional data to monitor key performance metrics
124.What is the fundamental challenge of dashboard design?

A. ensuring that the organization has access to the latest web browsers
B. ensuring that the organization has the appropriate hardware onsite to support
it
C. ensuring that the required information is shown clearly on a single screen
D. ensuring that users across the organization have access to it
125.Contextual metadata for a dashboard includes all the following EXCEPT

A. which operating system is running the dashboard server software?
B. whether any high-value transactions that would skew the overall trends were
rejected as a part of the loading process.
C. whether the dashboard is presenting "fresh" or "stale" information.
D. when the data warehouse was last refreshed.
126.Why is a performance management system superior to a performance

measurement system?
A. because measurement alone has little use without action
B. because performance management systems cost more
C. because performance measurement systems are only in their infancy
D. because measurement automatically leads to problem solution.
- 238 -
CHAPTER NINE
THE POWER OF CRITICAL
THINKING
(A) ANALYZE ARGUMENTS AND DIAGRAM
DECISION
1. What is “mapping” used for?
A. to help understand how someone’s reasoning flows from initial statements
to the conclusion the person regards as being supported by those statements
B. to help understand why people always look up the answer for things that they
should be able to figure out themselves
C. to help understand how to get from one area of town to another area of town that
may or may not be difficult to find
D. to help understand the differences between how children and adults make
decisions
2. What is the definition of a claim?

A. the statement the maker of the argument is seeking to show to be true or
probably true
B. the statement the maker of the argument knows is false, but wants to convince
his/her audience otherwise
C. the statement the maker of the argument wants to be true, but knows that it is
definitely not true
D. the statement the maker of the argument knows is false and is seeking to prove
this to his/her audience
3. Which of these two words essentially mean the same thing?

A. reason, argument
B. statement, fact
C. speaker, idea
D. claim, conclusion

probably true
- 239 -
probably false
unreasonable
5. Brian is an instructor teaching a critical thinking course. When discussing

mapping, he tells his students that maps
A. can display lines of reasoning that have been abandoned.
B. never display inaccurate lines of thinking.
C. are useless when it comes to analysis.
D. always show that people are confident about their conclusions.
6. Which of the following statements about mapping is accurate?

A. Mapping helps us understand thought processes.
B. Only implicit ideas can be mapped.
C. Explicit ideas cannot be mapped.
D. Mapping helps us to become better mind readers.
7. Kesha is part of a language community composed of scientists. According to

the text, the more specialized vocabulary they develop, the
A. harder it is for non-scientists to understand them.
B. more impressive their field seems to others.
C. more difficult it is to map thought processes.
D. less specific the vocabulary becomes.
8. Marion is explaining to her neighbor (also a parent) why she chose to send
her kids to private school. Based on their shared _______, Marion can leave
quite a bit unsaid.
A. premise
B. context
C. mind
D. qualifications
9. Jillian is mapping her coworker’s thought process. She puts a few words in
brackets. What does this mean?
A. The brackets are a short-cut.
B. The brackets mean it’s important.
C. Those words are not in English.
D. Those words clarify the tone of a statement.
- 240 -
10. Marilee is very good at interpreting what people are really saying. Given
the information in the text, one would assume that she is good at
A. making people feel defensive.
B. noticing nonverbal cues.
C. rushing conclusions.
D. defying language communities.
11. Marcia has a big decision to make. She needs some way to visualize all of
the pros and cons of each option. What tool should she use?
A. an analytical chart
B. a decision map
C. a critical thinking note text
D. a circular reasoning chart
12. In the middle of a discussion with her colleagues, Sharon says “never
mind…moving on.” We can safely assume that she has
A. canceled the rest of the meeting.
B. hung up the phone.
C. forgotten how to idea map.
D. abandoned a line of reasoning.
13. Gerry is reading a map and can’t figure out what was added by the analyst.
He has forgotten that
A. analysts never put notations on maps.
B. analysts’ notations go in circles.
C. analysts’ notations go in braces.
D. analysts’ notations are always in code.
14. Mary’s critical thinking professor asks her to define “argument.” Mary
responds that an argument is a claim. She
A. is completely correct.
B. is essentially incorrect.
C. is partially correct.
D. is confused about the question.
15. Emily is explaining mapping to her classmate. She says that one of the
purposes of mapping is to strengthen our ability to analyze people’s claims.
Emily is
A. confused.
B. correct.
C. incorrect.
- 241 -
D. unintelligent.
16. Carol is explaining analyzing to her classmate. “It’s the same as evaluating,”
she says. Carol
A. is a straight-A student.
B. is correct.
C. is not a student.
D. is incorrect.
(B) EVALUATE THE CREDIBILITY OF

CLAIMS AND SOURCES
1. An expert is someone who
A. holds at least a master’s degree in his or her field.
B. is knowledgeable in a subject matter or professional practice area.
C. has worked in the same field for more than twenty years.
D. can use critical thinking skills to reason in a variety of areas.
2. What is the definition of tautology?

A. the study of what is taught in the U.S. and why it is taught
B. a way of viewing the world that relies on ambivalence and stereotyping
C. a statement that is necessarily true because of the meaning of the words
D. the practice of using critical thinking to debunk commonly held cultural myths
3. What is a self-contradictory statement?

A. a sentence that is false because of its grammatical construction and the
meaning of the words in it
B. a statement that is necessarily true because of the grammar and the meaning of
the words in it
C. a statement that relies on tautological evidence to support the flow of the
assumption being made
D. a statement that uses two or more languages to express a central idea or thought
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of a trustworthy source?

A. credentialed in topic X
B. interested in topic X
C. unclear about topic X
D. experienced in topic X
5. The statement “we all start off equal in life” is an example of a (n)
- 242 -
A. critical truth.
B. explicit truism.
C. trustworthy comparison.
D. empty tautology.
6. When evaluating the plausibility of claims, it is important to remain

A. tautological.
B. negative.
C. open-minded.
D. closed-spirited.
7. What is a loaded expression?

A. an expression that forces you to make a decision
B. a statement that carries an emotional charge
C. a saying that doesn’t add up
D. a response that could be positive or negative
8. Which of the following statements about claims is true?

A. They can be confirmed or disconfirmed.
B. They are always true, especially those by experts.
C. They should be taken at face value.
D. They are never true, no matter who says them.
9. What is a commercial’s job?

A. to cause us to be wary of a product because of its side-effects
B. to help consumers make educated decisions
C. to lead us to desire a product in spite of its inherent risks
D. to convince people to question their purchases
10. Which of the following statements about commercials is true?

A. They can be misleading.
B. They are usually straightforward.
C. They are always completely false.
D. They are only on during the nightly news.
11. When presented with a claim, Carl tends to ask a lot of questions. One could
say that Carl has a healthy sense of
A. negativity.
B. skepticism.
C. tautology.
D. expertise.
- 243 -
12. Jason frequently makes claims without supporting reasons. It is probable
that he has
A. prophetic powers.
B. tautological sense.
C. ulterior motives.
D. critical sophism.
13. Micah insists that vaccines cause autism, even though there is no scientific
evidence that proves his point. This is an example of a
A. stubborn refusal to abandon a discredited position.
B. healthy skepticism in the face of conflicting information.
C. tautological response to a logical problem.
D. logical response to a loaded statement.
14. “Man is either mortal or he is not.” This is an example of a

A. critical observation.
B. self-contradictory statement.
C. tautological statement.
D. logical answer.
15. The current trend in the stock market is trendless.” This is an example of a
A. observational response.
B. tautological statement.
C. critical response.
D. self-contradictory statement.
16. Jane tweets, “Blue is the best color.” This is an example of a

A. coherent argument.
B. reasonless claim.
C. true tautology.
D. contradictory falsehood.
17. Kaitlin is five, Josh is eighteen, Mary is twenty-five and Sue is sixty.
According to the book, which of these people is most trusting of authorities?
A. Sue
B. Josh
C. Mary
D. Kaitlin
18. Which of the following statements about Wikipedia is true?

A. Wikipedia should never be used as a source.
- 244 -
B. Good critical thinkers’ fact-check Wikipedia entries.
C. All students should use Wikipedia as a source.
D. Wikipedia is owned by the government.
19. Caryn has already assessed the credibility of the source. As a good critical
thinker, what does she need to do next?
A. assess the plausibility of the claim
B. approve the tautological statement
C. reject all possible options
D. remember self-contradictory statements
20. Josh’s colleague frequently makes claims out of context. As a good critical
thinker, what should Josh do?
A. believe his colleague and assume he/she is an expert
B. never believe what his colleague says
C. question the plausibility of his colleague’s claims
D. patiently answer his colleague’s questions
21. Marilyn is interviewing potential job candidates. As a good critical thinker,

she is wary of candidates who give her
A. resumes without GPAs.
B. claims without reasons.
C. cover letters without photos.
D. heuristics without tautology.
22. Dr. Peterson is a world-renowned physician who is paid by pharmaceutical

companies to promote their drugs to his patients. Given this information, which
of the following statements about Dr. Peterson is true?
A. He is not an expert.
B. He has a conflict of interest.
C. He gets his information from Wikipedia.
D. He is a trustworthy source.
23. Richard read on a blog that the world will end in 2012. As a good critical
thinker, Richard should
A. believe the claim and act accordingly.
B. never visit that blog again.
C. approach the claim with a healthy sense of skepticism.
D. consider the author of the blog to be an expert.
- 245 -
24. Marius is an authority who frequently appears on television. His employer
has made it very clear that there are certain things he cannot say on TV (or else
he will lose his job). One could say that Marius is
A. tautological.
B. constrained.
C. critical.
D. unstable.
(C) EVALUATE ARGUMENTS

1. Sound” is a synonym for
A. tautology.
B. uncomplicated.
C. noise.
D. healthy.
2. What is the definition of a worthy argument?

A. an argument that merits being accepted as a proof that its conclusion is
probably true
B. an argument that is phrased using sophisticated vocabulary and a specific syntax
C. an argument that is devoid of reason or any other extraneous elements
D. an argument given by an expert with a conflict of interest
3. Good argument” is a synonym for a

A. expert argument.
B. marked argument.
C. worthy argument.
D. tautological argument.
4. What is the definition of a fallacy?

A. a deceptive argument that appears logical, but fails to demonstrate its
conclusions
B. a sound argument that uses inference and induction, but not reason
C. a tautological argument that uses information by conflicted sources to back it up
D. an unclear argument that must be subjected to rigorous analysis
5. Which of the following statements about rote memorization is true?

A. It is not a valuable skill.
B. It is not a critical thinking skill.
- 246 -
C. It cannot be learned.
D. It doesn’t actually have to do with memorizing.
6. What is the first test of an argument’s worthiness?

A. test of tautological analytical reasoning
B. test of overall strength of logic
C. test of application of circular reasoning
D. test of truthfulness of the premises
7. The truth of the claim depends on the truth of the reason. This is the test
condition for:
A. test of non-circularity.
B. test of truthfulness.
C. test of relevance.
D. test of logical strength.
8. Which of the following is the best description of circularity?

A. when a claim is being relied on as a part of a chain of reasoning to support
its own reason
B. when an expert is conflicted in his or her thinking about a particular issue
C. when an argument is rational and cannot possibly be debunked by the experts
D. when a claim has so many reasons that one must go through all of them to confirm
its validity
9. What is one of the adjectives that can be used to describe a positive premise?
A. fanciful
B. probable
C. wise
D. circular
10. What is one of the adjectives that could be used to describe a negative
reason?
A. vague
B. irrational
C. plausible
D. factual
11. After listening to his colleague’s argument, William uses the word “well-
applied” to describe which element?
A. a negative premise
B. a positive premise
- 247 -
C. a positive reason
D. a negative reason
12. “But we’ve always had a company holiday party! Why would we change
now?” This is an example of a
A. materialized truth.
B. argument of options.
C. supported reason.
D. fallacy of relevance.
13. Jim’s sister states a claim that seems to be lacking in reason. As a good
critical Thinker, Jim
A. cannot assume that the absence of a reason should count as a reason for her
claim.
B. can safely assume that the absence of a reason can count as a reason against her
claim.
C. can no longer engage in critical conversations that include baseless claims.
D. can assume that his sister just forgot to list her reasons.
14. “Everyone thinks Christmas is the best holiday around. So, this year our
office should have a Christmas party instead of a holiday party.” This is an
example of a
A. office collectivity.
B. critical tautology.
C. bandwagon fallacy.
D. expert opinion.
15. “If you don’t vote for X politician, millions of babies will die as a result of
his prochoice stance.” This is an example of
A. an appeal to emotion.
B. a reasonable request.
C. a heuristic approach.
D. a truthful statement.
16. “Julie is a member of the Anderson family, and they’re just a bunch of
criminals. Nothing she says should be taken seriously.” This is an example of
A. a legal argument.
B. a justifiable statement.
C. an appeal to reason.
D. an ad hominem attack.
- 248 -
17. Erica does a lot of debating on online forums. One of her favorite techniques
is to pick the easiest of her opponent’s reasons to refute, thereby refuting the
entire claim. This is an example of
A. a reason-based fallacy.
B. a straw man fallacy.
C. a creative fallacy.
D. a critical fallacy.
18. Martin often relies on stereotypes and ambiguity when supporting his
claims. This is an example of a
A. straw man fallacy.
B. constructing arguments fallacy.
C. playing with words fallacy.
D. constructive criticism fallacy.
19. “George W. Bush says that broccoli is bad for you. Therefore, I won’t make
my kids eat broccoli.” This is an example of a
A. straw man fallacy.
B. misuse of authority fallacy.
C. constructive expert fallacy.
D. small claims fallacy.
20. Brad has strong critical thinking skills. One can safely assume that he is
good at
A. accepting claims at face value.
B. supporting straw man fallacies.
C. rote memorization.
D. evaluating arguments.
21. When evaluating an argument, Jesse uses the four tests. He often does the
Test of Relevance before doing the Test of Truthfulness. He should
A. keep doing exactly what he’s doing.
B. stop relying on the tests.
C. always do the tests in order.
D. do the Test of Logical Strength first.
22. Angie frequently makes ad hominem attacks. What is true about Angie’s
claims?
A. They assume the person involved has a flaw of some sort.
B. The opposite of her claims is always true, especially when they involve an expert.
C. Her claims do not need to be debunked; they should be believed.
- 249 -
D. They are always based in critical thought and logical reasoning.
23. “When we were discussing thermodynamics the other day, Dave didn’t say
anything. That must mean he doesn’t know anything about the topic.” What
would be the most useful question to debunk this claim?
A. Does Dave have a degree in science?
B. Is there another reason why Dave remained quiet?
C. How long has Dave been working at our company?
D. Is Dave known for his critical thinking skills?
24. Elise is teaching a course on critical thinking. Which of the following

statements about argument making would she be most likely to say to her class?
A. Making an argument can be used to help one come to a decision.
B. Making an argument must always be confrontational.
C. Making an argument is pointless unless you are an expert.
D. Making an argument is the opposite of truth-seeking.
25. Richard has a driving need to win any debate in which he finds himself.
Most likely, Richard’s
A. claims are never backed up by reasons.
B. debate opponents are always right.
C. competitive needs override his quest for knowledge.
D. expertise spans all subject areas.
26. Marlene thinks her colleague’s claim sounds suspicious. As a strong critical
thinker, Marlene will
A. reject the claim outright and ignore her colleague’s reasons.
B. disprove one of the reasons given in support of the claim.
C. debunk all arguments being advanced in support of the claim.
D. ask her colleague to come up with a different claim.
27. Tanya gives two reasons to support her claim. One turns out to be false. As
a strong critical thinker, what should you do?
A. Try to come up with a reason to support her claim.
B. Dismiss the second reason because the first was false.
C. Never believe what Tanya says.
D. Test the second reason before dismissing it.
28. Charlene is a strong critical thinker. Right after she applies the Test of
Truthfulness of the Premises, she
- 250 -
A. tries to imagine a situation in which all of the premises of an argument are
true, but the conclusion is false.
B. provides multiple reasons to support her claim, including statistics and quotes by
experts.
C. calls in an expert to confirm her analysis of the situation thus far.
D. judges whether accepting the claim depends on support derived from that reason.
29. Maria is teaching a critical thinking course. What is she most likely to say
to her students?
A. There is no such thing as a false claim; there is only falsehood itself.
B. The four tests for evaluating arguments must be done in order.
C. Relying on emotional impact is an effective way to support logical thinking.
D. One of the criteria for a good reason is that it is given by an expert.
30. Which of the reasons given below is most similar in style to this one:
“Everybody thinks the blue jerseys look better than the green ones.”
A. If you choose the green jerseys, people will stop coming to your games.
B. Baseball tickets are more expensive than basketball tickets.
C. It’s widely known that most people prefer Coke over Pepsi.
D. Don’t believe anything Marcus says because he’s a liar.
(D) EVALUATE DEDUCTIVE REASONING

AND SPOT DEDUCTIVE FALLACIES
1. What is the definition of a deductively valid argument?
A. an argument such that it is possible for all of its premises to be true and its
conclusion to be false
B. an argument such that it is possible for all of its premises to be false and its
conclusion to be true
C. an argument such that it is impossible for all of its premises to be true and
its conclusion to be false
D. an argument such that it is impossible for all of its premises to be false and its
conclusion to the true
2. Which of the following statements about logic is true?

A. The laws of logic can be suspended at times.
B. None of us can suspend the laws of logic.
C. Only experts can suspend the laws of logic.
D. The laws of logic are not really lawing.
- 251 -
3. What is an inductive argument?
A. an argument that presents its conclusion as true given the truth of the premises
B. an argument that deconstructs its conclusion based on the falsehood of its
premised
C. an argument that presents its conclusion as probabilistic given the truth of
the premises
D. an argument that constructs itself naturally given the falsehood of its claims
4. Affirming the antecedent is a type of

A. truthful fallacy.
B. inductive argument.
C. logical fallacy.
D. deductive argument.
5. What is a disjunctive syllogism?

A. When we are presented with various alternatives and then learn that one or
more of them will not work, it is logical to reduce our options.
B. When we are presented with various falsehoods and then learn that we are looking
for a reason, it is logical to dispute the claim.
C. When we are presented with various truths and then learn that we are not
interested in truthfulness, it is logical to refute our options.
D. When we are presented with various syllogisms and then learn that we want an
analogy, it is logical to drop the line of reasoning.
6. A unless B is a logically equivalent grammatical structure to

A. A only if B.
B. not A unless B.
C. if A then B.
D. A or B.
7. Whenever we have a _________ that asserts that a given characteristic

applies to each of the members of a class of objects, we can logically assert that
a given individual or subgroup of individuals that are members of that class has
that characteristic.
A. statistic
B. generalization
C. inference
D. assumption
8. According to the chapter, the word ______ has the power to change a
sentence depending on where it is placed.
- 252 -
A. before
B. because
C. after
D. only
9. The three relational characteristics we rely on when using deductive

reasoning are Transitivity, Reflexivity, and
A. Proximity.
B. Activity.
C. Identity.
D. Passivity.
10. What is a reflexivity relationship?

A. If x has a reflexive relationship to y, then y has the same reflexive
relationship to x.
B. If x has a reflexive relationship to y, then x also has the same reflexive
relationship to z.
C. If x has a reflexive relationship to y, then y cannot have the same relationship
to x.
D. If x has a reflexive relationship to y, then y must have a reflexive relationship
to z.
11. “All teachers are mean. Karen is a teacher, so she is mean.” This is an
example of
A. applying a generalization.
B. reasoning a claim.
C. avoiding a paradox.
D. employing a criticism.
12. “All crossing guards wear yellow. Jason does not wear yellow. Jason is not
a crossing guard.” This is an example of
A. applying a reason.
B. applying a generalization.
C. applying a paradox.
D. applying an exception.
13. “Mary is smarter than Ellen. Ellen is smarter than Carol. So, Mary is
smarter than Carol.” This is an example of a
A. reflexivity relationship.
B. transitivity relationship.
C. identity relationship.
- 253 -
D. proximity relationship.
14. “Marcia is Kelly’s classmate. So, Kelly is Marcia’s classmate.” This is an

example of a
A. transitivity relationship.
B. proximity relationship.
C. reflexivity relationship.
D. identity relationship.
15. “If I am a good person, I will get rich. I am rich; therefore, I must be a good
person.” This is an example of which type of fallacy?
A. Denying the antecedent
B. False classification
C. Affirming the consequent
D. Composition and division
16. Which of the following statements about facts and logic is true?
A. Facts and logic are two different things.
B. Logic and facts are the same thing.
C. Facts are more valid than logic.
D. Logic is more trustworthy than facts.
17. Alana often uses the deductive argument that relies on the grammatical
power of “if
A, then B” expressions. What deductive argument does she use?
A. Disjunctive syllogism
B. Affirming the antecedent
C. Grammatical equivalencies
D. Applying a generalization
18. Terms like “brother” and “greater than” are examples of

A. marked terms.
B. transitive terms.
C. reflexive terms.
D. relational terms.
19. “If you fail the test, it’s because you didn’t study. You failed the test, so you
must not have studied.” This is an example of
A. cataloguing the differences
B. reflecting the outcome
C. affirming the consequent
- 254 -
D. declaring the claim
20. “Criminals use the telephone. My mother uses the telephone. My mother is
a criminal.” Assuming the mother is not a criminal, this is an example of
A. true causality.
B. correct deduction.
C. marked terminology.
D. false classification.
21. Larry often uses vague subject pronouns such as “it.” This leads to fallacies
of
A. composition and division.
B. mistaken identity.
C. false classification.
D. denying the antecedent.
22. “Kylie, age 8, loves the violin. Professional musicians play the violin.” What
phrase would we add to make this an example of false reference?
A. Therefore, Kylie wants to be a professional musician.
B. Therefore, Kylie is not learning the violin.
C. Therefore, Kylie plays in an orchestra.
D. Therefore, Kylie cannot read music.
23. Mara is teaching a course in critical thinking. In the deductive template’s

unit, she lectures on
A. applying an exception.
B. false classification.
C. affirming the consequent.
D. reversing the outcome.
24. Marcie is using the affirming the antecedent template. She must use which
of the following grammatical structures when constructing her argument?
A. Neither A nor B
B. Both A and B
C. If A then B
D. Not A and not B
25. Olivia is teaching a course on critical thinking. What example would she
give her class to describe applying a generalization?
A. Some students work hard. Mark is not one of these students.
B. All students are slackers. Mark is a student, so Mark is a slacker.
- 255 -
C. Students never study before the test. Mark does, so he is a student.
D. No students like to study. Mark likes to study, so Mark is a student.
26. “Everyone who has worked in a restaurant has made tips. Martin has never
made tips.” Which of the sentences below would make this into an example of
applying an exception?
A. This means Martin is a mediocre waiter.
B. This means Martin works in an office.
C. This means Martin has never worked in a restaurant.
D. This means Martin has made a salary.
27. Emily is a strong critical thinker. When she hears the statement “Maggie is
Susan’s biological sister,” she
A. calls in an expert to confirm the statement.
B. questions the term “sister.”
C. does not take the statement at face value.
D. infers that they have the same mother.
28. Fred tends to rely heavily on identity relationships when forming

arguments. Which of the following would Fred be most likely to say?
A. Jen ate a red fruit. That fruit was a strawberry. Jen ate a strawberry.
B. If all strawberries are red, and Jen ate a red fruit, that means Jen ate a strawberry.
C. All red fruits are red. Strawberries are a red fruit. Strawberries are red.
D. Strawberries are red. Jen ate a green fruit. Jen did not eat a strawberry.
29. Peggy often affirms the consequent when reasoning with declarative
statements. Which of the following would she be most likely to say?
A. Eating vegetables is the same as taking vitamins. So, taking vitamins is the same
as eating vegetables.
B. If you eat vegetables, you will get strong. You are strong, so that means you
ate vegetables.
C. Vitamins are to vegetables as studying is to passing an exam.
D. If you take vitamins instead of eating vegetables, you will never get enough
nutrients.
30. “If you run every day, you will lose weight.” Which of the following
statements should be added to this to make it an example of affirming the
consequent?
A. You lost weight, so you must have run every day.
B. You should keep running to lose more weight.
C. Losing weight is the only benefit of running.
- 256 -
D. Joint pain can be a side effect of running.
(E) EVALUATE INDUCTIVE REASONING

AND SPOT INDUCTIVE FALLACIES
1. What is the definition of an inductively justified argument?
A. an argument such that if all of its premises were false, then its conclusion would
most likely be true
B. an argument such that if all of its premises were true, then its conclusion would
most likely be false
C. an argument such that if all of its premises were true, then its conclusion
would most likely be true
D. an argument such that if all of its premises were false, then its conclusion would
most likely be false
2. Inductive reasoning depends on the

A. evidence at hand.
B. original claim.
C. final conclusion.
D. facts put forth.
3. Deductions depend on
A. the evidence that has been put forth.
B. the meanings of words and rules of grammar.
C. the last conclusion that has been made.
D. the first and third reasons given.
4. An inductively justified argument is the same thing as a

A. common argument.
B. converse argument.
C. unjustified argument.
D. warranted argument.
5. What is the definition of a coincidence?

A. One event following another event
B. Two planned events happening at the same time
C. Two events happening together by chance
D. One event happening a week before another
- 257 -
6. What do correlations describe?
A. the amount of chance needed for something to occur
B. the relationship between stereotypes and outcomes
C. the degree to which two different sets of events are aligned
D. the power of critical thinking in various circumstances
7. “Gambler’s Fallacy” helps us remember that

A. random events are not correlated.
B. random events can be causally related.
C. random events should never be trusted.
D. random events rarely occur.
8. Post hoc, propter hoc refers to

A. answering questions that do not apply.
B. confusing temporal proximity with causality.
C. beginning the critical thinking process.
D. observing random acts from afar.
9. False cause fallacies are often the result of

A. refusing to believe the experts.
B. believing in random events.
C. asking too many questions.
D. confusing outcomes with causes.
10. The ____ makes the false assumption that discrete events are linked together
so that the first step in the process results in a bad event down the road.
A. Random Events Fallacy
B. Erroneous Generalization Fallacy
C. Slippery Slope Fallacy
D. False Dilemma Fallacy
11. “I always wear my lucky necklace. Even though I don’t always have a good
day when I wear it, if I don’t, I just know I’ll have a bad day.” This is an
example of which of the following?
A. Dilemma Fallacy
B. Gambler’s Fallacy
C. Constructive Fallacy
D. Aesthetic Fallacy
12. What is the difference between a real dilemma and a false dilemma?
- 258 -
A. In a real dilemma, all choices are bad. In a false dilemma, one of the choices
is not as bad as we initially imagined it to be.
B. In a real dilemma, someone must die. In a false dilemma, death can easily be
avoided.
C. In a real dilemma, you have to make a choice. In a false dilemma, you can avoid
making a decision altogether.
D. In a real dilemma, all choices are very good. In a false dilemma, at least one of
the choices is really bad.
13. Which of the following statements about generalizations is true?

A. They are always accurate and unbiased.
B. They are always based on systematically gathered data.
C. They can be deceptively fallacious.
D. They are most accurate when based on personal observations.
14. Which of the following statements about evaluating generalizations is true?

A. To evaluate generalizations, one must examine if the sampling of cases is
adequate to support the inferences drawn.
B. To evaluate generalizations, the only thing that needs to be done is to find a
counterexample.
C. When evaluating generalizations, assume that they are correct if they are stated
by your superior.
D. When evaluating generalizations, you only need to ask two key questions to find
out if they are accurate.
15. At the same moment Jim was in a car crash, his wife Linda was struck by
lightning. This is an example of a (n)
A. incident.
B. cause.
C. accident.
D. coincidence.
16. Each time Gary eats peanuts, his face swells. This is an example of a
A. coincidental event.
B. chance occurrence.
C. biological illusion.
D. causal relationship.
17. Which of the following statements about documenting a causal relationship

is true?
- 259 -
A. Documenting a causal relationship is important and intellectually
challenging work.
B. Documenting a causal relationship simply involves demonstrating a correlation
between two events.
C. Documenting a causal relationship is not useful, because it can’t help us predict
future events.
D. Documenting a causal relationship is the most difficult task in the field of critical
thinking.
18. John is teaching a critical thinking class. He explains to the course that the
“Either/Or Fallacy” is another name for the ------ Fallacy.
A. Causal Relationship
B. False Dilemma
C. Remote Generalization
D. Emergent Problem
19. Right after I ate a strawberry, my mom called. My eating the strawberry
must have caused my mom to call. This is an example of
A. post haste reasoning.
B. post action reaction.
C. post hoc, propter hoc.
D. post consumption fallacy.
20. If you smoke a cigarette, you will end up doing hard drugs. This is an
example of the---- Fallacy.
A. Cause and Effect
B. Erroneous Generalization
C. Temporal Reasoning
D. Slippery Slope
21. “If you skip a class in college…” How would you finish this sentence to make
it an example of the Slippery Slope Fallacy?
A. you should ask a classmate for the notes.
B. you must attend the exam.
C. you will never finish your degree.
D. you can’t drop it after a certain date.
22. “When I turn on the radio, my dishwasher stops working.” What would you
have to add to this to make it an example of the False Clause Fallacy?
A. I like listening to loud music vs. soft music.
B. It must be that the radio somehow affects the dishwasher.
- 260 -
C. I should call the dishwasher repairman.
D. I hate it when I can’t get my dishwasher to work.
23. Crystal is teaching a critical thinking class. Which of the following would
she give her class as an example of erroneous generalization?
A. Only female students drop my course after the first day. So, my course must
be too difficult for female students.
B. A female student dropped my course. The next day her car was broken into. It
must have been the result of dropping my course.
C. Female students drop my course most frequently. I sign more drop slips from
female students than from male students.
D. Whenever I assign homework, at least one female student drops my course. I
should assign more homework.
24. Karl is notorious for playing with numbers when presenting information to
his colleagues. Which of the following would he be most likely to say?
A. A total of 50% of all Americans own a home. That means half of all Americans
own a home.
B. The box says 8 out of 10 doctors approve it. That means 80% of all doctors
approve it.
C. Nine out of 10 of our colleagues who were polled approve of the new human
resources policies.
D. The average male makes 20% more than the average female in the same job. That
means men are paid more than women.
25. Marina is a scientist who studies causal relationships. She knows that
A. it is not always possible to move from coincidence to correlation to causal
explanation.
B. causal relationships are often constructed without regard to cause or effect.
C. the answer to a causal question is always the first reason given to support the
claim.
D. it is impossible to move from correlation to causal explanation in science.
26. Elise pays a lot of attention to coincidences. Which of the following is an

example of something she would say?
A. Every time I answer the door, a cold draft enters the house. These two events are
connected.
B. When I meet new people, I make sure to always create a rhyme to remember their
name.
C. As soon as I called my friend, she dialed me. My calling her must have caused
her to call me.
- 261 -
D. I didn’t receive my allowance this week, so I won’t be able to go to the movies
this weekend.
27. Michaela is teaching a course on critical thinking. Which of the following

would she give as an example of an “Either/Or Fallacy”?
A. I opened the refrigerator and saw that I either don’t have enough food or need to
go shopping.
B. I don’t have any food at home. Either I can go to McDonald’s or not eat
tonight.
C. Either I’m not hungry or I’m not hungry at all. So, I should go grocery shopping.
D. Nine out of 10 doctors recommend eating a balanced diet instead of eating at
McDonald’s.
28. Patricia often falls victim to the Gambler’s Fallacy. Which of the following
things would she be most likely to say?
A. Random events do not correlate.
B. Random events are never connected.
C. Random events are typically planned.
D. Random events can be causally connected.
29. Marisa is teaching a critical thinking course. She explains to her class that
________ is a type of argument that fails the test of relevance.
A. an appeal to the mob
B. a numbers modification
C. a steep slope
D. a truthful fallacy
30. Karl is a strong critical thinker. He explains to his friend that a fallacy of
division is one that typically falls under the category of
A. mathematical fallacies that pervade society.
B. fallacies that can sometimes be truthful, depending on the context.
C. fallacies masquerading as valid deductive arguments.
D. arbitrary fallacies that call for further investigation.
- 262 -
CHAPTER TEN
LEADERSHIP AS INSPIRATION OF
EMOTIONS AND REASONING
(A) Collaboration, Interpersonal
Communication, and Business Etiquette
1. As an approach to resolving conflict during team activities, a ________
proposes that both sides can satisfy their goals (at least to some extent) and
seeks to minimize losses for everyone involved.
A) lose-win strategy
B) Lose-lose strategy
C) win-win strategy
D) Break-even strategy
2. Which of the following requires working together to meet complex challenges

and is a key skill in a wide variety of professions?
A) Collaboration
B) Committees
D) Groupthink
3. In participative management
A) Employees are involved in the company's decision making.
B) All top-level managers participate in profit sharing.
C) Teams are discouraged in favor of individual achievement.
D) An authoritarian management model is used.
4. Which of the following is one of the advantages of using cross-functional

teams for problem solving?
A) They have a long-life span and can become part of the organization
B) The diversity of opinions and experiences can lead to better decisions
C) They can lead to increased participative management
D) There can be increased harmony as decisions are over-simplified
5. All of the following EXCEPT ________ are elements of the group

development process.
- 263 -
A) Anticipation
B) Emergence
C) Brainstorming
D) Reinforcement
6. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of teams?

A) Protected information and knowledge
B) Diversity of views
C) Hidden agendas
D) Decreased acceptance of a solution
7. A ________ usually has a long-life span and typically deals with regularly
recurring tasks.
A) Task force
B) Work group
C) Committee
D) problem-solving team
8. Which of the following is an informal standard of conduct shared between

group members, guiding member behavior?
A) Groupthink
B) Agendas
C) Orientation
D) Norms
9. Which one of the following is NOT a dysfunctional team role?

A) Controlling
B) Diverting
C) Initiating
D) Withdrawing
10. Which type of team member role is most likely to work to help a team reach
its goals?
A) Team maintenance
B) Performing
C) Self-oriented
D) Task-oriented
11. Which of the following is NOT a way that teams help organizations to
succeed?
A) Increase information and knowledge
- 264 -
B) Increase groupthink among members
C) Increase performance levels
D) Increase diversity of views
12. In a functional team-maintenance role, what do members use to offer verbal

and nonverbal support to seek input from other team members?
A) Encouragement
B) Compromise
C) Procedure setting
D) Control
13. Groupthink refers to

A) The willingness of individual group members to withhold contrary or
unpopular opinions, even when those objections are legitimate, and to favor
majority opinion.
B) The four-step decision-making process in groups.
C) Software programs that help groups make decisions.
D) The basic rules that underlie a group's behavior and guide the group to make its
decisions.
14. During what phase of team evolution do team members discuss their
opinions on a topic and become assertive in establishing their roles?
A) Orientation
B) Conflict
C) Brainstorming
D) Emergence
15. A hidden agenda refers to

A) A meeting agenda that is not revealed to others outside the meeting group.
B) Individuals harboring motives, which they conceal from the rest of the
group.
C) An agenda that members must look for before they can attend a meeting.
D) An approach to group dynamics that helps facilitate group functioning.
AACSB: Interpersonal relations and teamwork
Learning Outcome: Discuss the challenges and importance of business
communications
16. Which of the following approaches to conflict will allow all sides to satisfy
at least part of their goals, and minimize losses for everyone?
A) Brainstorming
B) Groupthink
- 265 -
C) Win-win
D) Win-lose
17. Which of the following best describes proactive behavior as a way to

successfully resolve conflict?
A) Have those involved in the conflict discuss issues on a regular basis
B) Encourage members to get feelings out in the open
C) Identify factual reasons for the source of the conflict
D) Deal with minor conflicts before they become major issues
18. Group members who are motivated mainly to fulfill personal needs play a
A) team-maintenance role.
B) task-facilitating role.
C) Self-oriented role.
D) Coordinating role.
19. If group members seem resistant to change, which of the following will
encourage them to share their concerns?
A) Brainstorm
B) Use constructive criticism
C) Encourage flexibility
D) Listen
20. During the ________ of the group-development process, the members of a

problem-solving team would begin to discuss their positions and become more
assertive in establishing their roles.
A) Conflict phase
B) Reinforcement phase
C) Orientation phase
D) Brainstorming phase
21. ________ refers to working together to meet complex challenges.

A) Collation
B) Collaboration
C) Gathering
D) Meeting up
22. Sometimes, a group member may have a hidden agenda: a private,

counterproductive motive that will affect the group's interaction. All of the
following EXCEPT the desire to ________ are examples of possible hidden
agendas.
- 266 -
A) Take control of the group
B) Reconcile schedule conflicts for group meetings
C) Undermine someone else on the team
D) Pursue a business goal that runs counter to the group's mission
23. The term ________ refers to the interactions and processes that take place
among the members of a team.
A) Group dynamics
B) Process reconciliations
C) Interpersonal rotations
D) cross-functional interlocutions
24. ____ are informal standards of conduct that members share and that guide
member behavior.
A) Norms
B) Expectations
C) Dynamics
D) Responsibilities
25. During collaboration, what should be the main focus of the team?
A) Team objectives
B) Individual priorities
C) Hidden agendas
D) Technology
26. Which of the following is one of the ways used to encourage collaboration
among new team members?
A) Assume things are going well if there is no negative feedback
B) Allow members bonding time
C) Invite all interested parties to collaborate
D) Encourage each team member to work in a style best suited to their personality
27. Which of the following can be used to improve the collaborative writing
process when working on conventional websites?
A) PDF files
B) Wikis
C) Content management system
D) Virtual communities
28. Which of the following is one of the benefits of using a wiki when writing
collaboratively?
- 267 -
A) Accuracy of material
B) Workflow features for page design
C) Knowledge from multiple experts can be captured
D) Freedom to post and revise material
29. Which of the following is a type of collaborative technology that can help
people work on documents simultaneously, share files, and share the knowledge
of multiple experts?
A) Shared workspaces
B) Virtual communities
C) Communities of practice
D) Groupware
30. Which of the following allows all group members to have access to the same
resources and information through the use of intranets or extranets?
A) Virtual offices
B) Wikis
C) Clouds
D) Communities of practice
31. When an organization links employee with a supplier or customer that

shares their interest, what type of network has been developed?
A) Knowledge organization
B) Community of practice
C) Intranet
D) Multimedia
32. What is the integration of multiple communication channels and capabilities

in a single system called?
A) Fixed web collaboration
B) Cloud computing
C) Unified communication
D) Online brainstorming
33. Which of the following is a type of feedback designed to focus on the process
and outcome of the communication rather than the people involved?
A) Unified
B) Destructive
C) Parliamentary
D) Constructive
- 268 -
34. Which of the following should be the focus of constructive feedback?
A) Suggested changes
B) Flaws in the writer's arguments
C) Providing personal feedback
D) Controllable variables
35. Writing for websites often involves the use of _____, which organize and
control content and support teamwork.
A) Wikis
B) Shared workspaces
C) Word processing software
D) Content management systems
36. When composing collaborative messages, the best strategy is to

A) Assign the writing task to one person or divide larger projects among
multiple writers.
B) Begin by letting all members "do their own thing" and then seeing what they all
produce.
C) Let all members use their own preferred software.
D) Make the team as large as possible so that every possible area of expertise will
be covered.
37. Social networking technologies can help a company create virtual

communities of practice that
A) Allow employees to develop new workplace skills.
B) Encourage disgruntled employees t their frustrations.
C) Discourage socializing so that individual employees can get their work done.
D) Link employees to others with similar professional interests throughout the
organization.
38. ________ focuses on the process and outcomes of communication, whereas

----delivers criticism with no guidance to stimulate improvement.
A) Intuitive feedback; rational feedback
B) Circular feedback; linear feedback
C) Open feedback; closed feedback
D) Constructive feedback; destructive feedback
39. An important aspect of mobile communication in the workplace is _____,

which integrates voice, video, instant messaging, and real-time collaboration
into a single system.
A) Business communication
- 269 -
B) Unified communication
C) Peripatetic communication
D) Digital communication
40. Which of the following should be defined before shaping the direction and
content of the meeting?
A) Purpose
B) Participants
C) Venue
D) Time
41. Which of the following is one of the three key questions to ask in order to
create a productive agenda?
A) Who should be prepared to supply information?
B) What are the goals of the meeting?
C) How long will the meeting take?
D) What will be considered a successful meeting?
42. Which of the following is one of the key responsibilities of a meeting leader?
A) Explaining their knowledge of the subject before allowing others to participate
B) Reciting the agenda
C) Keeping the discussion on track
D) Limiting participation of members
43. Which of the following procedures can be used to run and maintain order
in a formal meeting?
A) Clouding
B) Constructive
C) Unified
D) Parliamentary
44. When acting as a leader of a meeting, how can you best contribute to the
progress of the meeting?
A) Insist on using parliamentary procedures
B) Have an opinion prepared on every agenda item
C) Ask questions often
D) Pay attention to interpersonal dynamics of the group
45. Which of the following is the most important to cover in the close of a
meeting?
A) Remind participants what follow-up work is needed
- 270 -
B) Use a mobile device to send minute notes
C) Close out work on unrelated tasks
D) Ask for input from those who have not participated in the meeting yet
46. Which of the following can be used by participants to verify impressions

and other information after the close of a meeting?
A) Robert's Rules of Order
B) Meeting minutes
C) An agenda
D) Tele-presence
47. Which of the following is a priority when recording meeting minutes?

A) A list of agenda items
B) Those who voiced opinions
C) Key information and assigned responsibilities
D) Identification of those who did not contribute
48. Which of the following is one of the steps to take when preparing for a
meeting to help improve meeting productivity?
A) Encourage participation
B) Put the results to effective use
C) Distribute meeting minutes to participants and other interested parties
D) Make sure the meeting is necessary
49. Which of the following is one of the ways to effectively lead and improve
meeting productivity?
A) Distribute minutes
B) Incorporate technology
C) Select participants carefully
D) Encourage participation
50. Which of the following is one way to put the results of a meeting to effective
use?
A) Make sure the task assignments are clearly communicated
B) Set an agenda
C) Keep the meeting on track
D) Decide the purpose
51. Much of your workplace communication will occur during in-person or

online meetings. If you're leading a meeting, you can help to make sure it's
productive by
- 271 -
A) Preparing carefully.
B) Conducting the meeting efficiently.
C) Using meeting technologies wisely.
D) all of the above.
52. The best time to distribute an agenda for a meeting is

A) Before the meeting.
B) At the start of the meeting.
C) During the meeting.
D) After the meeting.
53. Use of parliamentary procedure

A) Tends to slow meetings down.
B) Contributes to dissent among participants.
C) Helps meetings run more smoothly.
D) is only useful for meetings with more than a dozen participants.
54. At the last staff meeting, someone suggested that using parliamentary
procedure would help make the meetings more efficient. To learn more about
parliamentary procedure, which of the following should you consult?
A) SEC Standards of Ethics
B) Robert's Rules of Order
C) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
D) Fundamental Meeting Management
55. If you're the designated leader of a meeting,

A) Don’t interfere if the discussion departs from the goals of the meeting.
B) Allow introverted participants to disengage from the meeting.
C) Try to simply act as an observer, and let the meeting "run itself."
D) Do none of the above.
56. Formal meetings are conducted according to ____, a time-tested method for
planning and running meetings effectively.
A) Business etiquette
B) Parochial protocols
C) Emily Post's Rules of Order
D) Parliamentary procedure
57. Which of the following would not be a positive, productive way of using a
mobile device during an important meeting, convention, or conference in the
workplace?
- 272 -
A) Jotting down some follow-up questions
B) Taking notes about essential ideas
C) Checking your Facebook or working on unrelated tasks
D) Tweeting key points from a convention speech
58. Which of the following is an advantage of holding virtual meetings?

A) Whiteboards can be accessed
B) Reduced cost
C) Agendas are easier to set and follow
D) There is greater opportunity for participation
59. Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual meeting for teams?

A) Multiple purposes can be accomplished in one meeting
B) The agenda can become more flexible
C) There is access to a wider pool of expertise
D) The close of the meeting is stronger and more effective
60. Which of the following is one of the advantages of virtual meetings for
employees who participate in them?
A) Members can take advantage of selective listening techniques
B) Prejudgment is eliminated
C) Nonverbal communications are more effective
D) There is reduced wear and tear on employees
61. Which of the following is/are the simplest form(s) of virtual meetings?
A) Videoconferencing
B) Tele-presence
C) Virtual whiteboards
D) Instant messaging and teleconferencing
62. Which of the following is an advantage of using tele-presence for virtual

meetings?
A) The ability to convey nonverbal signals
B) The low cost
C) The number of participants that can attend and interact
D) The ability to incorporate a shared workspace
63. Conducting successful virtual meetings requires ____ before the meeting
and ____ during the meeting.
A) Less planning; less diligence
B) More planning; more diligence
- 273 -
C) Less planning; more diligence
D) More planning; less diligence
64. The ability to convey nonverbal subtleties such as facial expressions and
hand gestures makes ----- _particularly good for negotiations, collaborative
problem solving, and other complex discussions.
A) Conference calls
B) tele-presence
C) Instant messages
D) Video blogs
65. Which skill do the majority of top executives say is the most important skill
needed in the workplace?
A) Writing
B) Listening
C) Organizing
D) Speaking
66. Which of the following is an outcome of effective listening in the workplace?

A) Lost opportunities
B) A premium on communication skills
C) Stronger organizational relationships
D) Less temptation to multitask
67. Which of the following is the goal of content listening?

A) To evaluate information
B) To judge speaking style
C) To identify limitations in the communication
D) To understand and retain information

69. What type of listening skills allows a speaker to use a calm, clear-headed
approach in speaking?
A) Empathic
B) Content
C) Critical
- 274 -
D) Active
70. Which listening skill is being used when biases are minimized and there is
an attempt to understand what the other party is saying?
A) Persuasive
B) Active
C) Content
D) Empathetic
71. During which phase of the listening process does the listener acknowledge
hearing the message through nonverbal clues?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
future use?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
E) Responding
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
75. Which of the following is the stage of the listening process where the listener
reacts to the message?
A) Decoding
- 275 -
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Responding
76. Which of the following is an outcome of selective listening?

B) Extensive questions
C) Remembering what you think the speaker probably said
D) More focus on the speaker
77. Which of the following is a tool used by effective listeners to increase focus
on the speaker?
B) Taking as few notes as possible
C) Using the same style in all situations
D) Staying focused on the speaker and content
78. Which of the following can be used to improve listening skills?

A) Assume you already know everything that is important on the subject
B) Make little or no eye contact
C) Multitask
D) Overlook stylistic differences and focus on the message
79. Which of the following takes place when the listener makes up their mind
about a message before fully hearing the message?
A) Defensive listening
B) Misinterpreting
C) Paraphrasing
D) Categorizing
80. Which of the following can help when trying to store information in long-
term memory?
A) Use passive listening techniques
B) Categorize new information into logical groups
C) Overlook stylistic differences
D) Make distinctions between main points and supporting details
- 276 -
engaging in
83. An effective listener tries to practice ___ in an effort to hear and understand
what the other party is saying.
C) Active listening
84. Some people use _____ to tune out anything that doesn't conform to their
beliefs or their self-images.
A) Empathetic listening
B) constricted listening
C) Egocentric listening
D) Defensive listening
85. The goal of ____ is to understand and evaluate a speaker's message based
on elements such as logic, evidence, and validity, as well as the speaker's
intentions and motives.
A) Cerebral listening
B) Content listening
C) Critical listening
D) Covert listening
86. Which of the following is NOT an example of clarifying behavior by a

leader?
A) Explain the reasons for an assignment.
B) Clearly explain what results are expected.
C) Ask the subordinate to set performance goals.
D) Explain the relative priority of different tasks.
87. Which of the following is NOT an example of supporting behavior?

A) Clearly explain what the subordinate is expected to do.
- 277 -
B) Express confidence in a subordinate who has a difficult task.
C) Remember details about a subordinate's interests and family.
D) Help a subordinate deal with a personal problem.
88. Supportive leadership is MOST likely to result in what outcome for

subordinates?
A) stronger organizational commitment
B) stronger satisfaction with the leader
C) better coordination among subordinates
D) better performance by subordinates
89. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an outcome of leader

supporting behavior?
A) better time management for the leader
B) reduced stress for the subordinates
C) more cooperative leader-subordinate relationships
D) lower absenteeism and turnover by subordinates
90.According to Blake and Mouton, effective leaders are MOST likely to have
a
A) high concern for the task and a moderate concern for relationships
B) moderate concern for the task, and a high concern for relationships
C) moderate concern for both the task and relationships
D) high concern for both the task and relationships
91. Which is NOT a method for developing behavior taxonomies?

A) distributive aggregation
B) judgmental classification
C) factor analysis
D) theoretical-deductive approach
92. Which of the following is NOT primarily a change-oriented behavior?

A) communicating an inspiring vision for the organizational unit
B) monitoring the external environment
C) encouraging innovative thinking by subordinates
D) setting specific performance goals for subordinates
93. Which type of behavior is LEAST likely to occur with people outside the
leader's work unit?
A) external monitoring
B) delegating
- 278 -
C) networking
D) representing
94. Which of the following was NOT provided as a guideline for developing
subordinates?
A) Provide constructive feedback about effective and ineffective behavior.
B) Ask specific questions to help the person analyze his or her performance.
C) Provide opportunities to learn from experience.
D) Provide detailed instructions on how to carry out each assignment.
95. Which of the following guidelines was recommended for recognizing?

A) Provide recognition only for outstanding performance.
B) Provide more recognition to people in essential, high-visibility jobs.
C) Actively look for effective behavior or contributions to recognize.
D) Give praise in private to avoid embarrassing the recipient.
96. Which of the following was provided as a guideline for monitoring?

A) Measure only outcomes rather than wasting time trying to assess causal
processes.
B) Develop independent sources of information about the performance of the
work unit.
C) Use prior performance as the primary basis for assessing current performance.
D) Conduct weekly progress review meetings with each subordinate.
97. Which feature was NOT recommended as a guideline for setting

performance goals?
A) Set goals for every task and responsibility.
B) Set goals that are clear and specific.
C) Set goals that include a specific target date.
D) Set goals that are challenging but realistic.
98. Which of the following was NOT recommended as a guideline for coaching?
C) Encourage the person to look at a problem from different perspectives.
99. Which of the following was NOT a suggested guideline for action planning?
A) Identify the optimal sequence for the essential action steps.
B) Determine starting times and deadlines for each action step.
C) Determine who will be accountable for each action step.
- 279 -
D) Identify the best procedure for conducting each action step.
100. To improve problem solving, it is recommended that managers should----

A) concentrate on solving the easy problems first
B) concentrate on solving the most difficult problems first
C) deal with a problem as soon as it is discovered
D) look for ways to solve related problems at the same time
101. There are many divergent taxonomies for behavior ________.

A) so, it can be difficult to translate from one set of behaviors to another
B) but different terms are never used to refer to the same type of behavior
C) although the same term is not defined differently by different theorists
D) however, all the key concepts are covered in the various taxonomies
102. There are ____ taxonomies of the behavior concepts pertaining to

managers and leaders.
A) several almost identical
B) a couple of similar
C) a few slightly different
D) many divergent
103. Behavior categories ________.

A) are tangible attributes of the real world
B) exist in an objective sense
C) are abstractions
D) can be established into an absolute set of correct behaviors
104. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the divergent taxonomies of
leadership behavior?
A) Behavior categories do not exist in any objective sense.
B) Behavior constructs can be formulated at different levels of generality.
C) Theorists keep striving for the absolute set of "correct" behavior categories.
D) Taxonomies are developed using different methods.
105. Two taxonomies that have the same purpose ________.

A) cannot be devised at different levels of abstraction
B) must be framed in the same level of generality
C) may be formulated at different levels of specificity
D) will focus on the same set of objectively correct categories
- 280 -
106. Which is a reason why taxonomies developed to describe leadership
behavior are so different?
A) An absolute set of "correct" behavior categories can be established.
B) Constructs can be formulated at different levels of abstraction.
C) All taxonomies are tangible attributes of the real world.
D) Taxonomies must include all relevant aspects of leader behavior.
107. A key concept in one taxonomy ________.

A) may be absent from another taxonomy
B) must be included in all taxonomies
C) is always easily translated to the corresponding concept in other taxonomies
D) will have the same name in all taxonomies
108. Most of the theories and research on effective leadership behavior involve
________ defined behaviors.
A) one or two broadly
B) at least five broadly
C) exactly three narrowly
D) four or five narrowly
109. ___oriented behavior is primarily concerned with increasing mutual trust,

cooperation, job satisfaction, and identification with the team or organization.
A) Task
B) Relations
C) Change
D) Transforming
110. Task-oriented behavior ________

A) focuses on the accomplishment of an undertaking in an efficient, reliable
way
B) is concerned with increasing trust, cooperation, and identification with the team
C) prioritizes and encourages innovation in the workplace
D) emphasizes consultation and joint decisions
111. Which of the following labels has been used to describe task-oriented
behavior?
A) consideration
B) maintenance behavior
C) initiating structure
D) supportive leadership
- 281 -
112. Which of the following labels has been used to describe relations-oriented
behavior?
A) maintenance behavior
B) concern for production
C) instrumental leadership
D) goal emphasis
113. The ________-oriented categories usually include specific behaviors such

as clarifying work roles and objectives, assigning specific tasks to subordinates,
and planning activities and tasks for the work group.
A) change
B) relationship
C) task
D) transforming
114. Most studies on task-oriented and relations-oriented behavior found that

A) subordinates were more satisfied with a demanding and forceful leader
B) no preference for leadership style was expressed by subordinates
C) a considerate, supportive leader led to greater satisfaction for subordinates
D) an encouraging, thoughtful leader resulted in lower subordinate approval
115. According to studies, leader task-oriented behavior is _____ related to

subordinate satisfaction.
A) consistently
B) not consistently
C) never
D) always
116. Interpretation of overall results from studies on task-oriented and

relations-oriented behaviors is ________.
A) facilitated by differences in the behavior measures employed
B) made challenging by disparities in the types of criteria used
C) enabled by similarities among the research methods utilized
D) not attempted due to overlap among overall objectives
117. Little attention was paid to behaviors directly concerned with _____ in
early leadership theory and research.
A) encouraging and facilitating change
B) accomplishing the task in an efficient and reliable way
C) increasing mutual trust
D) improving job satisfaction and identification with the team
- 282 -
118. Which of the following is a specific type of change-oriented behavior?
A) clarifying work roles
B) monitoring subordinate performance
C) assigning specific tasks
D) encouraging innovation
119. Which of the following is NOT a specific type of empowering decision

procedure?
A) consultation
B) joint decisions
C) clarification of task objectives
D) delegation
120. ____ leadership is another name for the behavior category involving
decision-making procedures that a leader can use to involve others in decisions
about the work.
A) Autocratic
B) Charismatic
C) Democratic
D) Didactic
121. Some of the research on empowering leadership includes other types of

leader behaviors in addition to decision procedures, like ________.
A) proposing an appealing vision of what could be changed
B) sharing information
C) assigning specific tasks
D) withholding resources
122. What is another term for transformational leadership?

A) visionary leadership
B) aspirational leadership
C) participative leadership
D) empowering leadership
123. Which is NOT an example of a specific transformational leadership

behavior?
A) leading by example
B) talking about personal values
C) lobbying for resources
D) making self-sacrifices for the group
- 283 -
124. Making self-sacrifices for the team or organization is associated with ---
leadership.
A) empowering
B) participative
C) democratic
D) transformational
125. Networking is one of the three distinct and broadly defined categories of
________ behavior.
A) external
B) internal
C) visionary
D) proactive
126. Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of external
A) networking
B) clarifying task objectives
C) external monitoring
D) representing
127. Doing favors for peers or outsiders is an example of which category of

external leadership behavior?
B) representing
C) clarifying
D) networking
128. Which of the following behaviors is associated with external monitoring?

A) identifying threats and opportunities for the leader's group or organization
B) using ingratiation
C) socializing with people in other work units
D) using political tactics to influence decisions made by governmental agencies
129. Which of the following behaviors is NOT an example of the representing

category of external behavior?
A) lobbying for resources from superiors
B) promoting the reputation of the leader's group
C) studying the decisions of competitors
D) negotiating agreements with suppliers
- 284 -
130. Conducting market research is an example of ________.
B) representing
C) networking
D) clarifying
131. The representing category of external behavior includes ________.

A) using political tactics to influence decisions made by superiors
B) studying the actions of opponents and competitors
C) attending professional conferences and ceremonies
D) joining social networks
132. Proactive influence tactics----- _

A) cannot be used with people outside the organization, like clients or suppliers
B) are especially important for routine requests
C) can help gain commitment to requests and proposals
D) should not be used for a leader to resist influence attempts made by others
133. Short-term planning of work activities means deciding all of the following
EXCEPT
A) what to do
B) how to do it
C) when it will be done
D) why it should be done
134. The purpose of _____ is to ensure efficient organization of the work unit,
coordination of activities, and effective utilization of resources.
A) planning
B) clarifying
C) monitoring
D) problem solving
135. The purpose of clarifying is to ________.

A) ensure efficient organization of the work unit, coordination of activities, and
effective utilization of resources
B) guide and coordinate work activity and make sure people know what to do
and how to do it
C) gather information about the operations of the manager's organizational unit
D) deal with disruptions of normal operations and member behavior that is illegal,
destructive, or unsafe
- 285 -
136. ________ involves gathering information about the operations of the
manager's organizational unit, including the progress of the work, the
performance of individual subordinates, the quality of products or services, and
the success of projects or programs.
A) Planning
B) Clarifying
C) Monitoring
D) Problem solving
137. What is the purpose of problem solving?

A) to ensure efficient organization of the work unit, coordination of activities, and
B) to guide and coordinate work activity and make sure people know what to do and
how to do it
C) to gather information about the operations of the manager's organizational unit
D) to deal with disruptions of normal operations and member behavior that is
illegal, destructive, or unsafe
SECOND: TRUE AND FALSE QUESTIONS

1. Now that technology is so vital in the workplace, few executives view listening
as an important skill. (F)
2. The primary goal of empathic listening is to solve the speaker's problem. (F)
3. Your ability to listen effectively will have little effect on your long-term career
prospects. (F)
4. One reason listening is often difficult is because people speak faster than the
listener can think. (F)
5. Unproductive meetings are rare in today's business environment. (F)
6. If you want to use a mobile device to take notes during a meeting, it's a good idea
to let the meeting's leader know ahead of time. (T)
7. Meeting minutes are a summary of important information shared during a meeting
and a record of decisions made. (T)
8. Destructive feedback offers criticism but does not stimulate improvement. (T)
9. The outcome of collaborative writing is usually inferior to what a single individual
can produce. (F)
10. Because mobile devices aren't particularly useful for collaborative writing and
other workplace communication projects. (F)
11. When receiving constructive feedback, you should always defend your work to
maintain your professional credibility. (F)
12. All feedback should deliver criticism and allow the receiver to determine how to
improve the process. (F)
- 286 -
13. Conflict between persons or groups in an organization is always destructive and
must be avoided at all costs. (F)
14. Conflict can be a constructive part of teamwork. (T)
15. Virtual meetings offer more visual contact than traditional, face-to-face
meetings. (F)
16. the most sophisticated web-based meeting systems incorporate elements of real-
time communication, shared workspaces, and videoconferencing. (T)
1. List at least three benefits of effective listening in business.
Answer: Effective listening strengthens organizational relationships, alerts an
organization to opportunities for innovation, and allows the organization to manage
growing diversity both in the workforce and in the customers it serves.
2. List at least three strategies to keep your mind from wandering while
listening to a speaker.
Answer: Although people can think faster than they (and others) can speak, several
techniques can help. They include lowering barriers to physical reception, focusing
on the speaker, analyzing what you hear, and keeping an open mind.
3. Discuss ways to retain information when the information is important and

might be used later.
Answer: If the information you hear will be important to use later, write it down or
otherwise record it. Don't rely on your memory. If you do need to memorize, you
can hold information in short-term memory by repeating it silently or organizing a
long list of items into several shorter lists. To store information in long-term
memory, four techniques can help: (1) associate new information with something
closely related (such as the restaurant in which you met a new client), (2) categorize
the new information into logical groups (such as alphabetizing a list of names), (3)
visualize words and ideas as pictures, and (4) create mnemonics such as acronyms
or rhymes.
4. Briefly describe at least three meeting technologies that make it easy for
virtual teams to interact.
Answer: One of the newest virtual tools is online brainstorming, in which
companies conduct "idea campaigns" to generate ideas from people across the
organization. Another example is groupware, an umbrella term for systems that let
people communicate, share files, present materials, and work on documents
simultaneously. Shared workspaces are "virtual offices" that give everyone on a
team access to a variety of materials. Videoconferencing combines audio
communication with live video, enabling team members to see each other,
demonstrate products, and transmit other visual information. Web-based meeting
- 287 -
systems allow teams to collaborate in real time simply by logging on from any
computer or smartphone from almost anywhere in the world.
5. Briefly explain why the ability to work effectively in teams is so important in

business.
Answer: Companies look for employees who work well in teams for a number of
reasons, but primarily because successful teams improve productivity, creativity,
employee involvement, and even job security. Teams also involve employees in
company decision making through participative management.
6. What can be done to show team members you are listening when they are
resistant to ideas or change?
Answer: Whenever you encounter resistance, your first instinct might be to argue
even more forcefully for the proposed change. However, this approach is often
counterproductive because it doesn't get at the roots of the resistance, and the other
party is likely to dig in even deeper. Rather than pushing even harder, stop talking
and start listening. Let people express their reservations about the change, using the
active listening skills. Make sure the other party knows you are listening by choosing
your nonverbal gestures carefully and expressing interest in and sympathy for their
concerns. Listening encourages others to open up about their concerns which can
help you address them and can unveil legitimate issues that you have failed to
consider.
When a line of communication opens, recognize that your primary goal is not to win
the argument but rather to build a relationship that can lead to solving the dilemma
at hand. Even if you have the authority to force the change, you'll create resentment
and probably fail to get the level of emotional agreement needed for true success if
you rely on force alone. As you establish a comfortable working relationship,
continue to listen for elements of resistance that remain unspoken. Ask questions to
make sure you understand the resistance and to confirm your understanding of it,
then acknowledge the other party's concerns.
7. Identify the seven steps that can help minimize conflict in team settings.
Answer:
1. Proactive behavior. Deal with minor conflict before it becomes major conflict.
In team settings, conflict between two people can spread if it isn't addressed
early.
2. Communication. Get those directly involved in a conflict to participate in
resolving it. These participants should choose their words and nonverbal
gestures carefully in order to maintain focus on the problem at hand and to avoid
further inflaming an already uncomfortable situation.
3. Openness. Get feelings out in the open before dealing with the main issues.
- 288 -
4. Research. Seek factual reasons for a problem before seeking solutions.
5. Flexibility. Don't let anyone lock into a position before considering other
solutions.
6. Fair play. Insist on fair outcomes and don't let anyone avoid a fair solution by
hiding behind the rules.
7. Alliance. Get opponents to fight together against an "outside force" instead of
against each other.
- 289 -
SEVEN TO TEN
1. Which of the following refers to the "Great Man" theory?
A. A theory of leadership that explained leadership by examining the traits
and characteristics of renowned leaders of human history
B. A theory in which leaders are more effective depending on the favorability of
leadership situation, which is described by leader-member relations and task
structure
C. a theory of leadership in which leaders treat each member differently, and as a
result, develop unique relationships with each member
D. a theory of leadership that tries to reveal a set of universal traits and skills that
are relevant in all leadership situations
2. A theory of leadership that tries to reveal a set of universal skills that are
relevant in all leadership situations is referred to as the __ theory of leadership.
A. path-goal
B. traits-based
C. contingency
D. Great Man
3. Which of the following is one of the most common leadership traits?

A. self-sacrificing nature
B. sense of humor
C. Contextual intelligence
D. self-confidence
4. __ skills refer to leader's ability to understand the internal and external

environments, use sound reasoning to make decisions, and communicate
effectively.
A. research
B. technical
C. Financial
D. Cognitive
5. Technical skills of leadership refer to:

A. a leader's ability to make decisions with sound reasoning
B. a leader's knowledge about an organization and job-related activities
- 290 -
C. a leader's ability to understand the internal and external environments
D. a leader's ability to interact with others
6. John is an organization’s marketing lead. He has sound knowledge about the

organizational activities and can make effective job-related decisions, However,
his team members are unable to achieve sales target that he sets without and
delay his team members complain that John does not respond or ever pay
attention to their problems and interests. This shows that John lacks _____
skills of leadership.
A. cognitive
B. interpersonal
C. technical
D. intellectual
7. Which of the following statements is true about leadership skills?

A. interpersonal skills refer to leader's ability to interact with others
B. Cognitive skills are developed through experience
C. Technical and interpersonal skills are more innate
D. Cognitive skills refer to a leader’s knowledge about an organization
8. Referring to core values and fundamental beliefs, which of the following

refers to a constant factor that drives behavior in a variable situation?
A. knowledge
B. Cognition
C. Character
D. Personality
9. Which of the following is a core benefit of relations-oriented leadership style?

A. improved performance
B. Employee satisfaction
C. Close monitoring
D. Clearer objectives
10. Which of the following is a benefit of task-oriented leadership style?

A. employee satisfaction
B. more creativity
C. improved performance
D. deeper commitment
11. Which of the following is NOT an example of clarifying behavior by a

leader?
- 291 -
A) Explain the reasons for an assignment.
B) Clearly explain what results are expected.
C) Ask the subordinate to set performance goals.
D) Explain the relative priority of different tasks.
12. Which of the following is NOT an example of supporting behavior?

A) Clearly explain what the subordinate is expected to do.
B) Express confidence in a subordinate who has a difficult task.
C) Remember details about a subordinate's interests and family.
D) Help a subordinate deal with a personal problem.
13. Supportive leadership is MOST likely to result in what outcome for

subordinates?
A) Stronger organizational commitment
B) Stronger satisfaction with the leader
C) Better coordination among subordinates
D) Better performance by subordinates
14. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an outcome of leader

supporting behavior?
A) Better time management for the leader
B) Reduced stress for the subordinates
C) More cooperative leader-subordinate relationships
D) Lower absenteeism and turnover by subordinates
15. According to Blake and Mouton, effective leaders are MOST likely to have
a
A) High concern for the task and a moderate concern for relationships
B) Moderate concern for the task, and a high concern for relationships
C) Moderate concern for both the task and relationships
D) High concern for both the task and relationships
16. Which is NOT a method for developing behavior taxonomies?

A) Distributive aggregation
B) Judgmental classification
C) Factor analysis
D) theoretical-deductive approach
17. Which of the following is NOT primarily a change-oriented behavior?

A) Communicating an inspiring vision for the organizational unit
B) Monitoring the external environment
- 292 -
C) Encouraging innovative thinking by subordinates
D) Setting specific performance goals for subordinates
18. Which type of behavior is LEAST likely to occur with people outside the
leader's work unit?
A) External monitoring
B) Delegating
C) Networking
D) Representing
19. Which of the following was NOT provided as a guideline for developing
subordinates?
C) Provide opportunities to learn from experience.
20. Which of the following guidelines was recommended for recognizing?

A) Provide recognition only for outstanding performance.
B) Provide more recognition to people in essential, high-visibility jobs.
C) Actively look for effective behavior or contributions to recognize.
D) Give praise in private to avoid embarrassing the recipient.
21. Which of the following was provided as a guideline for monitoring?

A) Measure only outcomes rather than wasting time trying to assess causal
processes.
B) Develop independent sources of information about the performance of the
work unit.
C) Use prior performance as the primary basis for assessing current performance.
D) Conduct weekly progress review meetings with each subordinate.
22. Which feature was NOT recommended as a guideline for setting

performance goals?
A) Set goals for every task and responsibility.
B) Set goals that are clear and specific.
C) Set goals that include a specific target date.
D) Set goals that are challenging but realistic.
23. Which of the following was NOT recommended as a guideline for coaching?
- 293 -
C) Encourage the person to look at a problem from different perspectives.
24. Which of the following was NOT a suggested guideline for action planning?
A) Identify the optimal sequence for the essential action steps.
B) Determine starting times and deadlines for each action step.
C) Determine who will be accountable for each action step.
D) Identify the best procedure for conducting each action step.
25. To improve problem solving, it is recommended that managers should __.

A) Concentrate on solving the easy problems first
B) Concentrate on solving the most difficult problems first
C) Deal with a problem as soon as it is discovered
D) Look for ways to solve related problems at the same time
26. There are many divergent taxonomies for behavior ________.

A) So, it can be difficult to translate from one set of behaviors to another
B) But different terms are never used to refer to the same type of behavior
C) Although the same term is not defined differently by different theorists
D) However, all the key concepts are covered in the various taxonomies?
27. There are ________ taxonomies of the behavior concepts pertaining to

managers and leaders.
A) Several almost identical
B) a couple of similar
C) A few slightly different
D) Many divergent
28. Behavior categories ________.

A) Are tangible attributes of the real world?
B) Exist in an objective sense
C) Are abstractions
D) Can be established into an absolute set of correct behaviors
29. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the divergent taxonomies of
A) Behavior categories do not exist in any objective sense.
B) Behavior constructs can be formulated at different levels of generality.
C) Theorists keep striving for the absolute set of "correct" behavior categories.
D) Taxonomies are developed using different methods.
- 294 -
30. Two taxonomies that have the same purpose ________.
A) Cannot be devised at different levels of abstraction
B) Must be framed in the same level of generality
C) May be formulated at different levels of specificity
D) Will focus on the same set of objectively correct categories
31. Which is a reason why taxonomies developed to describe leadership

behavior are so different?
A) An absolute set of "correct" behavior categories can be established.
B) Constructs can be formulated at different levels of abstraction.
C) All taxonomies are tangible attributes of the real world.
D) Taxonomies must include all relevant aspects of leader behavior.
32. A key concept in one taxonomy ________.

A) May be absent from another taxonomy
B) Must be included in all taxonomies
C) Is always easily translated to the corresponding concept in other taxonomies
D) Will have the same name in all taxonomies
33. A hierarchical taxonomy has ________.

A) More than five narrow behavior categories
B) Just one broad behavior with many component behaviors for it
C) Two or fewer component behaviors for each of two or more narrow behaviors
D) Two or more broad behaviors with specific component behaviors for each
broad one
34. Most of the theories and research on effective leadership behavior involve -
---defined behaviors.
A) One or two broadly
B) At least five broadly
C) Exactly three narrowly
D) Four or five narrowly
35. ____-oriented behavior is primarily concerned with increasing mutual trust,

cooperation, job satisfaction, and identification with the team or organization.
A) Task
B) Relations
C) Change
D) Transforming
36. Task-oriented behavior-----

- 295 -
A) Focuses on the accomplishment of an undertaking in an efficient, reliable
way
B) Is concerned with increasing trust, cooperation, and identification with the team
C) Prioritizes and encourages innovation in the workplace
D) Emphasizes consultation and joint decisions
37. Which of the following labels has been used to describe task-oriented
behavior?
A) Consideration
B) Maintenance behavior
C) Initiating structure
D) Supportive leadership
38. Which of the following labels has been used to describe relations-oriented
behavior?
A) Maintenance behavior
B) Concern for production
C) Instrumental leadership
D) Goal emphasis
39. The ________-oriented categories usually include specific behaviors such as

clarifying work roles and objectives, assigning specific tasks to subordinates,
and planning activities and tasks for the work group.
A) Change
B) Relationship
C) Task
D) Transforming
40. Most studies on task-oriented and relations-oriented behavior found that

A) Subordinates were more satisfied with a demanding and forceful leader
B) No preference for leadership style was expressed by subordinates
C) A considerate, supportive leader led to greater satisfaction for subordinates
D) An encouraging, thoughtful leader resulted in lower subordinate approval
41. According to studies, leader task-oriented behavior is _____ related to

subordinate satisfaction.
A) Consistently
B) Not consistently
C) Never
D) Always
- 296 -
42. Interpretation of overall results from studies on task-oriented and relations-
oriented behaviors is ________.
A) Facilitated by differences in the behavior measures employed
B) Made challenging by disparities in the types of criteria used
C) Enabled by similarities among the research methods utilized
D) Not attempted due to overlap among overall objectives
43. Little attention was paid to behaviors directly concerned with _____ in early
leadership theory and research.
A) Encouraging and facilitating change
B) Accomplishing the task in an efficient and reliable way
C) Increasing mutual trust
D) Improving job satisfaction and identification with the team
44. Which of the following is a specific type of change-oriented behavior?

A) Clarifying work roles
B) Monitoring subordinate performance
C) Assigning specific tasks
D) Encouraging innovation
45. Which of the following is NOT a specific type of empowering decision

procedure?
A) Consultation
B) Joint decisions
C) Clarification of task objectives
D) Delegation
46. ________ leadership is another name for the behavior category involving
decision-making procedures that a leader can use to involve others in decisions
about the work.
A) Autocratic
B) Charismatic
C) Democratic
D) Didactic
47. Some of the research on empowering leadership includes other types of

leader behaviors in addition to decision procedures, like ________.
A) Proposing an appealing vision of what could be changed
B) Sharing information
C) Assigning specific tasks
D) Withholding resources
- 297 -
A) Visionary leadership
B) Aspirational leadership
C) Participative leadership
D) Empowering leadership
49. Which is NOT an example of a specific transformational leadership

behavior?
A) Leading by example
B) Talking about personal values
C) Lobbying for resources
D) Making self-sacrifices for the group
50. Making self-sacrifices for the team or organization is associated with ____
leadership.
A) Empowering
B) Participative
C) Democratic
D) Transformational
51. Networking is one of the three distinct and broadly defined categories of
________ behavior.
A) external
B) Internal
C) visionary
D) Proactive
52. Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of external
A) Networking
B) Clarifying task objectives
C) External monitoring
D) Representing
53. Doing favors for peers or outsiders is an example of which category of

external leadership behavior?
B) Representing
C) Clarifying
D) Networking
- 298 -
54. Which of the following behaviors is associated with external monitoring?
A) Identifying threats and opportunities for the leader's group or organization
B) Using ingratiation
C) Socializing with people in other work units
D) Using political tactics to influence decisions made by governmental agencies
55. Which of the following behaviors is NOT an example of the representing

category of external behavior?
A) Lobbying for resources from superiors
B) Promoting the reputation of the leader's group
C) Studying the decisions of competitors
D) Negotiating agreements with suppliers
56. Conducting market research is an example of ________.

B) Representing
C) Networking
D) Clarifying
57. The representing category of external behavior includes ________.

A) Using political tactics to influence decisions made by superiors
B) Studying the actions of opponents and competitors
C) Attending professional conferences and ceremonies
D) Joining social networks
58. Proactive influence tactics ________.

A) Cannot be used with people outside the organization, like clients or suppliers
B) Are especially important for routine requests
C) Can help gain commitment to requests and proposals
D) Should not be used for a leader to resist influence attempts made by others
59. Short-term planning of work activities means deciding all of the following
EXCEPT
A) What to do
B) How to do it
C) When it will be done
D) Why it should be done
60. The purpose of ________ is to ensure efficient organization of the work unit,
A) Planning
- 299 -
B) Clarifying
C) Monitoring
D) Problem solving
61. The purpose of clarifying is to ________.

A) Ensure efficient organization of the work unit, coordination of activities, and
B) Guide and coordinate work activity and make sure people know what to do
and how to do it
C) Gather information about the operations of the manager's organizational unit
D) Deal with disruptions of normal operations and member behavior that is illegal,
destructive, or unsafe
62. ________ involves gathering information about the operations of the

manager's organizational unit, including the progress of the work, the
performance of individual subordinates, the quality of products or services, and
the success of projects or programs.
A) Planning
B) Clarifying
C) Monitoring
D) Problem solving
63. What is the purpose of problem solving?

A) To ensure efficient organization of the work unit, coordination of activities, and
B) To guide and coordinate work activity and make sure people know what to do
and how to do it
C) To gather information about the operations of the manager's organizational unit
D) To deal with disruptions of normal operations and member behavior that is
illegal, destructive, or unsafe
64. Planning
A) Usually occurs in a single behavior episode
B) Is mostly a cognitive activity
C) Has no observable aspects
D) is least observable when a manager takes action to implement plans by
communicating them to others
65. Clarifying behavior is more important when ________.

A) An organization has elaborate regulations regarding how work should be done
B) Subordinates are highly trained professionals
- 300 -
C) There is substantial role ambiguity for members of a work unit
D) The work unit functions harmoniously and is conflict-free
66. Information gathered from monitoring is used to do all of the following

EXCEPT to
A) Identify problems
B) Clarify tasks
C) Formulate objectives
D) Modify policies
67. Which of the following is an example of a reactive problem-solving

behavior?
A) Purchasing generators to be used if there is a disruption in the supply of electricity
B) Creating a contingency plan for operations in the case of a natural disaster
C) Establishing health and safety guidelines for the operation of dangerous
equipment
D) Providing replacements to consumers who received defective merchandise
68. Descriptive research on effective managers suggests that they ________.

A) Pass problems along to others within the organization
B) Involve more people than necessary to ensure that a problem is solved
C) Give priority to important problems that can be solved
D) Focus their time on intractable problems
69. Supportive leadership ________.

A) Includes a wide variety of behaviors that show consideration, acceptance
and concern for the needs and feelings of other people
B) Seeks to guide and coordinate work activity and make sure people know what to
do and how to do it
C) Involves giving praise and showing appreciation to others for effective
performance, significant achievements, and important contribution to an
organization
D) Strives to increase a subordinate's skills and facilitate job adjustment and career
advancement
70. ________ leadership involves giving praise and showing appreciation to

others for effective performance, significant achievements, and important
contribution to an organization.
A) Supportive
B) Developing
C) Recognizing
- 301 -
D) Clarifying
71. Which type of leadership behavior involves increasing a subordinate's skills

and facilitating job adjustment and career advancement?
A) Supportive
B) Developing
C) Clarifying
D) Recognizing
72. Key components of ________ leadership include mentoring, coaching, and

providing developmental opportunities.
A) Supportive
B) Developing
C) Clarifying
D) Recognizing
73. Bolstering a person's self-esteem and confidence is a guideline for ________

leadership.
A) Supportive
B) Developing
C) Clarifying
D) Recognizing
74. Developing ________.

A) Is usually done with a colleague
B) Cannot be done with a boss
C) May be done with a peer
D) Is never delegated to subordinates
75. which of the following is an example of a potential benefit that developing

can offer to the organization?
A) Better job adjustment
B) More skill learning
C) Faster career advancement
D) Higher employee commitment
76. The primary purpose of recognizing, especially when used with

subordinates, is to ________.
A) Strengthen desirable behavior and task commitment
B) Attain task objectives
C) Build and maintain effective interpersonal relationships
- 302 -
D) Increase acceptance and trust of the leader
77. Praise ________.

A) Is the most difficult form of recognition?
B) Is over-utilized by many managers
C) Most often is given publicly
D) May take the form of oral comments
78. Recognition ________.

A) Should not be given for improvement if an individual's level of performance is
still only average
B) Must be limited to successful efforts
C) May be given for personal sacrifices made to accomplish a task
D) Should be limited to a few best performers in each type of job
79. Studies on teamwork originated in the field of:

A. Sociology
B. Business
C. Communication
D. Psychology
80. A team typically handles decision making using the following methods
except:
A. Consultative
B. Authoritarian
C. Democratic
D. Consensus
81. Groups are defined by all of the following characteristics except:

A. The members are mutually dependent on each other.
B. There is recognition that people belong to a collective entity.
C. There are rules and roles that control people’s interactions.
D. Members of the group are dependent on one another to achieve individual
goals.
82. Groups are different from teams because:

A. Groups are typically work-related while teams are sports-related.
B. Teams are typically larger than groups.
C. Teams involve greater interaction and coordination among members to
achieve a common goal.
D. Teams are more hierarchical than groups.
- 303 -
83. The use of teams by organizations is increasing because:
A. Organizations are getting larger.
B. Employees want their jobs to be simplified.
C. Jobs are becoming more complex and interdependent.
D. Organizations are seeking stability.
84. In order to function correctly, the scientific management approach

requires that:
A. Managers think and control and workers act.
B. Managers work alongside workers.
C. Workers perform tasks in teams, without managers present.
D. Workers focus more on quality than quantity.
85. The term equi-finality means:

A. People are easily influenced by social norms.
B. Groups can be best understood by studying the individuals in the group.
C. It is easier to change a group than an individual.
D. There are many ways for groups to operate successfully.
86. The rise of Japan as a manufacturing power in the 1970s resulted in the
creation of:
A. Virtual teams
B. Individualized work processes
C. Increased organizational hierarchy
D. Quality circles
SECOND: TRUE AND FALSE QUESTIONS

1. It is not possible to establish an absolute set of "correct" behavior categories to
organize the behavior descriptions from research over the last half-century. (T)
2. Initiating structure includes behaviors such as assigning tasks to subordinates,
maintaining definite standards of performance, asking subordinates to follow
standard procedures, emphasizing the importance of meeting deadlines, criticizing
poor work, and coordinating the activities of different subordinates. (T)
3. Change-oriented behavior is primarily concerned with understanding the external
environment and finding ways to minimize the amount of adaptive change. (F)
4. The three meta-categories of task-oriented, relations-oriented, and change-
oriented behaviors are independent and unrelated to each other. (F)
5. the most common method for studying effective leadership is an experiment in
which leader behavior is manipulated by researchers to determine how it affects
subordinates. (F)
- 304 -
6. Planning is easy to observe because it mostly involves processing, analyzing, and
deciding that occurs at discrete moments. (F)
7. Clarifying mostly involves the communication of plans, policies, and role
expectations to peers and clients. (F)
8. Monitoring involves gathering information about the progress of the work, the
performance of individual subordinates, and the success of work unit activities and
projects. (T)
9. Developing includes managerial practices such as mentoring and coaching that
are used to increase a subordinate's skills and facilitate job adjustment and career
advancement. (T)
10. Consideration is a behavior category that includes sets of behaviors involving
concern for relationships. (T)
11. In the field of leadership behavior, sometimes different terms are used to refer to
the same type of behavior. (T)
12. Despite the divergent taxonomies used to describe leadership behavior, it is
simple to translate from one set of behaviors to another. (F)
13. One reason for differences among taxonomies is the fact that behavior constructs
can be formulated at different levels of abstraction. (T)
14. All taxonomies are intended to cover the full range of leader behaviors. (F)
15. Task-oriented behavior is primarily concerned with accomplishing the task in an
efficient and reliable way. (T)
16. The task-oriented term "instrumental leadership" is similar to the relations-
oriented term "supportive leadership." (F)
17. Leadership theory and research has from its earliest days focused much attention
on behaviors directly concerned with encouraging and facilitating change. (F)
18. The purpose of planning is to ensure efficient organization of the work unit,
coordination of activities, and effective utilization of resources. (T)
19. Clarifying behavior is likely to be less important when there is substantial role
ambiguity or role conflict for members of the work unit. (F)
20. Key components of the recognizing category of leader behavior are giving praise
and showing appreciation. (T)

1. According to studies, do subordinates prefer leaders who display task-oriented or
relations-oriented behavior? Which type of behaviors are more effective?
Answer: Student answers may vary. Scholars have reviewed and analyzed the
results from the large number of studies on task-oriented and relations-oriented
behaviors, but interpretation of overall results for the two broad types of behavior
was made difficult by differences among studies in the behavior measures, types of
criteria, and research methods that were used. Most studies found that subordinates
- 305 -
were more satisfied with a leader who was considerate and supportive, although the
relationship was weaker when the measures of behavior and satisfaction were not
from the same source. Leader task-oriented behavior was not consistently related to
subordinate satisfaction. In some studies, subordinates were more satisfied with a
structuring leader, but in other studies they were less satisfied or there was no
significant effect on satisfaction. Results are also inconsistent for studies on how the
two broad behaviors are related to indicators of effective leadership. The findings
suggest that all leaders need to use some task oriented and relations-oriented
behaviors, but the effects depend on the leader's ability to identify and use specific
component behaviors that are relevant for the leadership situation. A detailed
description of specific task-oriented and relations-oriented behaviors and guidelines
for their use is presented later in the chapter.
2. Name and describe the type of leadership that encourages the involvement of
subordinates in decision-making.
Answer: Student answers may vary. Empowering and participative leadership
involves decision-making procedures that a leader can use to involve others such as
subordinates or team members in decisions about the work. Terms used to describe
the frequent use of such procedures with subordinates include participative
leadership, empowering leadership, and democratic leadership. Specific types of
empowering decision procedures include consultation, joint decisions, and
delegation. The frequent use of these decision procedures may reflect a strong
concern for relations objectives such as subordinate commitment and development,
as well as for task objectives such as decision quality. Some of the research on
empowering leadership includes other types of leader behaviors in addition to
decision procedures (e.g., sharing information, providing resources).
- 306 -
CHAPTER ELEVEN
CRITICAL THINKING AND HUMAN
DEVELOPMENT
1. As the human population grows, the effects of this increase in humans:
a) affects the environment at the same rate as in previous years
b) affects the environment at a faster rate than in previous years
c) affects the environment at a slower rate than in previous years
d) are completely unrelated to the actual numbers of people
2. The uncontrolled increase in human population numbers seen today has been
referred to as
a) the "ecological bomb"
b) the "population disaster"
c) the "population bomb"
d) the "Greenhouse effect"
3. When a population ecologist classifies an area as a "developed region," what

percentage of the population would you expect to live in urban settings?
a) less than 10%
b) between 12% and 25%
c) between 25% and 50%
d) at least 75%
4. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by an ecosystem

is referred to as the:
a) carrying capacity
b) greenhouse capacity
c) the sustainability quotient
d) the ecological maximum
5. According to the Environmental Science text, if recent human population

growth rates continue, our number will reach approximately 9.4 billion by:
a) 2020
b) 2030
c) 2040
d) 2050
- 307 -
6. The proposal that life has profoundly changed the global environment, and
that these changes have tended to improve the chances for the continuation of
life is referred to as
a) the greenhouse hypothesis
b) the Gaia hypothesis
c) the carrying capacity hypothesis
d) the biological hypothesis
7. According to the Environmental Science text, nearly 6 million children die

each year due to the effects of
a) Cancer
b) parasitic diseases
c) dirty water
d) malnutrition
8. Justification that argues to preserve some aspect of the environment because

of our appreciation of the beauty of nature and our desire to get out and enjoy
it:
a) utilitarian
b) ecological
c) moral
d) aesthetic
9. Justification that has to do with the belief that various aspects of the
environment have a right to exist:
a) utilitarian
b) ecological
c) moral
d) aesthetic
10. Justification that is based on the value of some factor that is essential to
larger life support functions, even though it might not benefit an individual
directly:
a) utilitarian
b) ecological
c) moral
d) aesthetic
11. In Western thinking, the average one-year-old is able to say his or her first
intelligible word this is an example of:
A. a developmental milestone
- 308 -
B. a developmental norm
C. a developmental accomplishment
D. the first cognitive skill to appear in infancy
12. In many traditional societies, teenagers or young adolescents participate in

rituals that mark a transition in their new social status. This is a:
A. rite of passage
B. adolescent achievement
C. a stage of puberty
D. developmental norm
13. Which of the following components IS NOT part of the developmental

niche?
A. the psychological characteristics of caregivers
B. the physical and social settings in which children develop
C. developmental norms the child should be able to accomplish
D. child care and child rearing practices
14. In their work on childbirth Jordan and Davis-Floyd illustrated how

everyday activities shape cultural birthing practices. They highlighted how
Yucatec Mayan midwives relied on cultural rules that shape speech to help
conversational partners. The midwives were using:
A. birthing systems
B. discourse routines
C. shamans
D. the developmental niche
15. The term for the study of how humans use space in specific cultural context
is:
A. the developmental norm
B. rite of passage
C. the developmental niche
D. proxemics
16. The normative infant sleeping arrangement for many middle income
Western European families is:
A. to sleep in bed with the baby
B. to sleep in the same room with the baby
C. to have the baby sleep with any available siblings
D. the baby sleeps in a separate room
- 309 -
17. Worldwide one of the most typical cultural arrangements for parent infant
sleeping is:
A. infants sleep in the same bed with their caregivers
B. infants sleep in a separate room away from the caregivers
C. infants sleep with other child relatives
D. infants sleep in a central location in the home
18. In communities that socialize children to be independent and self-reliant,

this moral principle is likely to shape caregiver decisions about sleeping
arrangements. It is:
A. the autonomy ideal
B. the sacred couple
C. protection of the vulnerable
D. incest avoidance ideal
19. Compared to many other regions, emerging adulthood seems to be

particularly prolonged in Europe. Why?
A. Relaxed parenting practices
B. Poor economic conditions
C. Long-standing philosophical views about what constitutes adulthood
D. Widely available government support for things like education and housing
20. Compared to people from other backgrounds, emerging adults with an

Asian background are more likely to emphasize---- _ as an important criterion
for attaining adult status.
A. Being able to financially support their parents
B. Having a clear career direction
C. Being able to financially support themselves
D. Finishing their education
21. Compared to Europe, Asian cultures traditionally place a heavier emphasis

on _, which influences the experience of emerging adulthood in these cultures.
A. Individualism
B. Collectivism
C. Hedonism
D. Solipsism
22. People in their mid-twenties to mid-forties are considered to be in:

A. Prepubescence
B. Senescence
C. Emerging adulthood
- 310 -
D. Early adulthood
23. The greatest age reached by any member of a given population (or species) is
called:
A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C. Life course
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the same thing
24. The average number of years that members of a population (or species) live
is called:
A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C. Life course
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the same thing
25. Which is longer, life span or life expectancy?

A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C. They are equal in length
D. Life course
26. Worldwide, who lives longer on average, men or women?

A. Men
B. Women
C. They live the same amount of time
D. It depends on health status
27. When looking at large populations, the World Health Organization (2016)
measures how many equivalent years of full health on average a newborn baby
is expected to have. This age takes into account current age-specific mortality,
morbidity, and disability risks and is referred to as the:
A. Adjusted Life Span
B. Prorated Life Expectancy
C. Healthy Life Expectancy
D. Corrected Life Span
28. Children born in the United States today may be the first generation to have
a shorter life span than their parents due to increasing rates of:
A. Obesity
B. Unhealthy eating habits
- 311 -
C. Physical inactivity
D. All of the above
29. Reasons why women tend to live longer than men include:
A. The protective effect of estrogen
B. Men tend to have more dangerous jobs
C. Men are more susceptible to bacterial and viral infections
D. All of the above
30. Older adults between the ages of 65 and 84 comprise the _____ category.
A. Young-old
B. Old-old
C. Oldest-old
D. Centenarian
31. Older adults between the ages of 85 and 99 comprise the---- category.
A. Young-old
B. Old-old
C. Oldest-old
D. Centenarian
32. The innate immune system is composed of the:

A. Skin, mucous membranes, cough reflex, stomach acid, and specialized cells
that alert the body of an impending threat
B. Cellular changes that occur following immunization or exposure to bacteria or
viruses that results in the body developing immunity
C. Tonsils, spleen, bone marrow, thymus, circulatory system and the lymphatic
system that work to produce and transport T cells
D. Antibodies that are produced in a body other than our own, such as the antibodies
transferred from mother to infant through the placenta
33. After age 30, people tend to lose ____ tissue and gain ____ tissue.
A. Lean, fat
B. Fat, lean
C. Lean, lean
D. Fat, fat
34. Emerging adults change jobs, relationships, and residences more frequently
than other age groups. This is an example of why Arnett refers to emerging
adulthood as the age of:
A. Identity exploration
- 312 -
B. Instability
C. Feeling in-between
D. Possibilities
35. Emerging adulthood is often a time of optimism because many of our

dreams have yet to be tested. This is an example of why Arnett refers to
emerging adulthood as the age of:
A. Self-focus
B. Instability
C. Identity exploration
D. Possibilities
36. Emerging adults are likely to answer “yes and no” to the question of
whether or not they fully feel like adults. This is an example of why Arnett
refers to emerging adulthood as the age of:
A. Feeling in-between
B. Possibilities
D. Self-focus
37. Emerging adults often realize that they have few obligations to others and
that this is the time where they can do what they want with their life. This is an
example of why Arnett refers to emerging adulthood as the age of:
A. Self-focus
B. Instability
D. Feeling in-between
38. Humans possess a relatively stable biological disposition that describes how
we characteristically react to our environment. The term that best describes
this is:
A. developmental norm
B. temperament
C. personality
D. personal attribute
39. The match between the child’s temperament and the demands the
environment places upon it is:
A. slow to warm up
B. difficult
C. easy
- 313 -
D. goodness of fit
40. In this process, children come to know and internalize cultural values,
attitudes, and beliefs often times through direct instruction. It is:
A. acculturation
B. socialization
C. enculturation
D. assimilation
41. In this learning process, children utilize observation and imitation without
direct or formal instruction to internalize cultural meaning. It is:
A. acculturation
B. socialization
C. enculturation
D. assimilation
42. In which of the following processes, do children acquire gender knowledge

and the gender roles of their particular cultural community?
A. gender roles
B. gender stereotyping
C. gender identity
D. gender typing
43. In forming his ideas about gender, a child includes information about
appropriate duties for boys by watching his father. This is an example of:
A. gender roles
B. gender schema
C. gender identity
D. gender typing
44. Children learn about gender through the chores their parents assigned to
them. This highlights which of the following processes?
A. identification
B. gender socialization
C. gender typing
D. enculturation
45. Which of the following IS NOT regarding the Canadian Inuit?

A. the community experience cultural change due to new social and economic
pressures
B. parents serve as cultural models for gender role expectations
- 314 -
C. boys have no cultural model for gender roles due to a changing economy which
displaces men
D. girls have no cultural model for gender roles due to a changing economy
which displaces women
46. Kevin is acquiring knowledge about how to treat others with respect to
fairness, justice, welfare, and harm including how to reason or make judgments
regarding what is right and wrong. This connects to which of the following
processes?
A. gender socialization
B. moral development
C. emotional development
D. enculturation
47. Which of the following IS NOT one of the big three ethical principles
Schweder introduced to study morality across cultures?
A. autonomy
B. community
C. divinity
D. commitment
48. Which Western formative period of development applies to the period

between childhood and adulthood?
A. infancy
B. emerging adulthood
C. adolescence
D. middle childhood
49. Which of the following IS NOT a factor related to conflict between parents
and teens?
A. pubertal changes
B. issues over authority
C. issues over decision-making power
D. cultural practices that reinforce interdependency
50. Which of the following is a central concept generally related to adolescent

development in general?
A. the ability to reason and exhibit self-restraint
B. body image
C. psychological change
D. romantic relationships
- 315 -
51. Worldwide teenage cultural ideals regarding attractiveness and beauty are
being shaped by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. social media use
B. Internet access
C. globalization and modernization
D. dietary constraints
52. Which of the following describes a group of native Hawaiians who are
socializing and gossiping?
A. rite of passage
B. talking story
C. talking circle
D. sib-care
53. Which of the following IS NOT a characteristic associated with emerging

adulthood?
A. feeling in between
B. focus on the self
C. instability
D. pubertal changes
54. When emerging adults try to find their place in the world through love,
work, and relationships, this highlights which of the following characteristics
of emerging adulthood?
C. instability
D. identity exploration
55. For many Western emerging adults’ casual sexual activity is a norm. This
behavior highlights which of the following characteristics of emerging
adulthood?
C. instability
56. Many emerging adults are particularly hopeful regarding their life course.
This view highlights which of the following characteristics of emerging
adulthood?
A. possibility
- 316 -
C. instability
57. Graying hair, loss of bone density, and cognitive decline are all signs of
A. emerging adulthood
B. early adulthood
C. aging
D. middle adulthood
58. Worldwide individuals will experience decreasing cognitive decline,

confusion, and carrying out simple daily tasks. This relates to which of the
following?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. amnesia
C. hormonal changes
D. loss of bone density
59. Patricia Greenfield provides an explanation for how social and learning
environments, cultural values, and individual developmental trends
interconnect in which of the following works?
A. The Bridging Cultures Project
B. The Kamehameha Elementary School Project
C. The Theory of Social Change and Human Development
D. The Expectancy Value Theory of Motivation
60. In her work, Greenfield connects types of communities to particular

cultural value systems. Gemeinschaft communities connect to the cultural value
of:
A. interdependence
B. independence
C. loyalty
D. pride
61. Which of the following is an indigenous personality trait?

A. openness
B. agreeableness
C. conscientiousness
D. social curiosity
- 317 -
62. In tight societies, there is little tolerance for deviating from social norms.
One personality trait and behavior this society would support and reinforce in
its socialization practices is:
A. self-regulation
B. self-expression
C. independence
D. uniqueness
63. In loose societies, emphasis is not on strong social norms and society in
general is lenient when people deviate from those expectations. One personality
trait and behavior this society would support and reinforce in its socialization
practices is:
A. self-regulation
B. self-expression
C. duty
D. impulse control
64.If you live in the cultural community that places an importance on how
others perceive the self and reinforces cultural values and traits such as
humility, it is likely that you align with which of the following?
A. dignity cultures
B. face cultures
C. indigenous cultures
D. homogenous cultures
65. If you live in the cultural community that places an emphasis on individual
rights, freedom, and measuring one’s own self-worth, it is likely that you align
with which of the following?
A. dignity cultures
B. face cultures
C. indigenous cultures
D. homogenous cultures
66. Which of the following research questions can help illuminate cultural
differences in the ways people think, act, and feel about values and motivations
in local contexts?
A. Do cultural values, cultural values and motivation interconnect?
B. Are their indigenous personality traits?
C. Do cultural worldviews connect to the concept of self?
D. How do cultural values connect to social patterning?
- 318 -
67. Which of the following IS NOT a criterion associated with emerging
adulthood?
A. a time of instability
B. a time of feeling in between
C. a time for identity exploration
D. a time for focusing on others
68. Cultural display rules connect to how we:

A. perceive social norms for behavior
B. manage, adjust, and express basic emotional responses
C. analyze facial movements to understand emotional expression
D. categorize emotions is either universal or culture specific.
69. Reasons offered in support of a claim are referred to as:

A) assertions.
B) conclusions.
C) opinions.
D) evidence.
70. Personal experiences, research studies, and statements by experts or

authorities are all examples of:
A) information that can be used as evidence.
B) claims that people make which may or may not be true.
C) conclusions that people draw.
D) types of opinions that people may hold.
71. According to the text, what is the BEST reason for rejecting the
misconception that the moon makes people behave abnormally?
A) The knowledge that this idea was introduced by the sixteenth-century physician
Paracelsus
B) The fact that people who believe it also believe other misconceptions
C) The review of scientific research by Rotton and Kelly (1985)
D) The fact that most people realize the idea does not make sense
72. Criteria are MOST closely related to _____ in making judgments.

A) evidence
B) standards
C) claims
D) conclusions
- 319 -
73. The idea that critical thinking is reflective thinking is MOST closely related
to:
A) having reasoning skills.
B) thinking about the quality of thinking.
C) being open-minded.
D) having considerable knowledge of a subject.
74. In critical thinking, the word “critical” is derived from the Greek word
krites, meaning:
A) “judge.”
B) “negative comment.”
C) “thinking.”
D) “pause.”
75. Haley said, “Lots of studies support the dual process theory of thinking.”
Dana replied, “Thinking is thinking. I don't believe there is more than one type
of thinking. Anyway, dual process theory is just a theory.” Dana does NOT
realize that:
A) because many people like the dual process theory, it is likely to be a good theory.
B) theories supported by lots of studies are not always good theories.
C) some theories are better than others because they are supported by more
studies.
D) theories are created and developed by people, and people are often wrong.
76. The text discusses differences in theories. Which statement is MOST

consistent with the position taken in the chapter?
A) Some theories can be demonstrated to be better than others.
B) All theories are about the same in quality.
C) All commonsense theories make claims that are incorrect or misconceptions.
D) Saying “That is just a theory” is accurate because theories can never be proven.
77. As noted in the text, “opposites attract in romantic relationships” is an

example of a(n):
A) scientific fact.
B) correct opinion.
C) inference.
D) psychological misconception.
78. Isaac Asimov's (1989) claim that the earth is round in shape is supported by
observations from space and shown to be true. The claim is a(n):
A) well-established theory.
- 320 -
B) opinion.
C) demonstration of belief perseverance.
D) speculation based on observation.
79. The general term in the text that refers to mistakes in judgment and
reasoning is:
A) pseudoscience.
B) psychological misconceptions.
C) argumentation problems.
D) thinking errors.
80. Mistaken ideas about psychology are sometimes called “myths.” These
myths are considered _____ because they are not supported by research.
A) pseudoscience
B) psychological misconceptions
C) perceptual illusions
D) psychological errors
81. The idea that the phase of the moon affects human behavior and may induce
some people to behave abnormally is an example of a:
A) pseudoscience.
B) research-based conclusion.
C) thinking error.
D) psychological misconception.
82. An example of a _____ is the idea that when taking a test, it is better to stick
with an initial answer than to change an answer.
A) thinking error
B) fact of science
C) psychological misconception
D) basic argument
83. Knowing when to use your knowledge and skills and whether you are using
them correctly is MOST related to:
A) metacognition in critical thinking.
B) Reasoning ability in critical thinking.
C) critical thinking skills.
D) critical thinking dispositions.
84. According to the text, people who show a critical thinking disposition are
more likely to:
- 321 -
A) avoid asking questions about unclear claims.
B) use their critical thinking skills.
C) have greater emotional awareness of others.
D) reject ideas different than their own.
85. Open-mindedness, fair-mindedness, and a skeptical attitude are examples

of:
A) metacognition related to critical thinking.
B) critical thinking abilities.
C) critical thinking skills.
D) critical thinking dispositions.
86. The idea of critical thinking as reflectively thinking about one's own
thinking is MOST related to:
A) critical thinking as a skill.
B) metacognition.
C) critical thinking dispositions.
D) possessing knowledge.
87. Paul has acquired the ability to provide relevant evidence when he makes
an argument and reasons well, but he tends not to be very open-minded. This
shows that Paul:
A) has critical thinking skills but lacks an important critical thinking
disposition.
B) has good metacognition but lacks critical thinking skills.
C) is motivated to think critically but lacks critical thinking knowledge.
D) lacks critical thinking and metacognitive skills.
88. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was the author of the Sherlock Holmes novels and
a physician. He also believed in contact with the spirits of dead people and
fairies. This is an example of a person:
A) with good critical thinking skills but who was sometimes not disposed to
think critically.
B) who was not disposed to think critically and who lacked scientific training.
C) with good critical thinking skills but deficient metacognition.
D) who lacked the knowledge and skills needed for thinking critically.
89. If a person's task is to examine the relevant evidence to decide whether a

theory is justified, which of the following kinds of thinking is required MOST
to draw a good conclusion?
A) Type 1 thinking
- 322 -
B) Type 2 thinking
C) Type 3 thinking
D) Everyday thinking
90. If a person makes a snap judgment about whether two different-colored

pieces of furniture look good together, which of the following kinds of thinking
is that person likely to use?
A) Type 1 thinking
B) Type 2 thinking
C) Type 3 thinking
D) Critical thinking
91. Anise usually has a good appetite, but she now eats less and sometimes skips
breakfast. Her roommate draws the conclusion that Anise is probably on a diet.
This is an example of a(n):
A) fact.
B) opinion.
C) inference.
D) misconception.
92. A(n) _____ is an idea that has been objectively demonstrated to be true by
research or some other means.
A) claim
B) belief
C) fact
D) assertion
93. A(n) _____ is a statement asserting that someone or something has a

particular characteristic or property that is assumed to be either true or false.
A) position
B) claim
C) argument
D) fact
94. Cognition can be defined as the mental processes involved in encoding,

storage, retrieval, and use of information. Furthermore, cognition involves
several mental abilities such as attention, perception, learning, memory, and
problem solving. These statements do NOT present a basic argument because
they:
A) are a counterargument.
B) infer a conclusion.
- 323 -
C) describe a dispute.
D) are a set of claims.
95. Sharise said: “Research shows that a nerve cell can fire up to about 1,000
times per second. Consequently, the brain has an upper limit on its speed of
processing.” Sharise presented a basic argument because she included:
A) specific research.
B) a true claim.
C) disputed evidence.
D) a claim with evidence.
96. Jason tells his roommate: “A researcher quoted in a magazine article said
that astrological signs correlate with people's personality traits. Therefore, my
horoscope will tell me a lot about myself.” Does Jason make a basic argument?
A) No, because astrology is a pseudoscience.
B) No, because the information appears in a magazine.
C) Yes, because he offers evidence.
D) Yes, because he believes in horoscopes.
97. Consider this statement: “Developmental psychologists study the changes

in behavior of individuals over fairly long periods of time.” This is NOT a basic
argument because it lacks:
A) a topic about which people can argue.
B) a true statement about developmental psychologists.
C) a claim about what developmental psychologists is allowed to study.
D) evidence to support the claim about what developmental psychologists’
study.
98. “Specific parts of the foot are associated with different areas of the body.
Furthermore, massaging the foot in specific places can improve health in areas
of the body corresponding to those specific parts on the foot.” These statements
need _____ to become a basic argument.
A) a description of the function of the human foot
B) a claim described with specific details
C) a second opinion disputing the existing claim
D) evidence to support the claim
99. Dr. Raz told her patient that her training as a reflexologist and her clinical
experience had convinced her that massaging the little toe of the foot is an effective
way to treat sinus problems. Dr. Raz has made a basic argument because she has:
A) drawn a conclusion based on reflexology and clinical evidence.
- 324 -
B) offered an opinion with which her patient would likely agree.
C) drawn a correct conclusion about reflexology as a technique that helps people.
D) made statement with which most people would agree.
100. “In 1963, the psychologist Stanley Milgram conducted an important experiment
showing that participants were willing to administer high voltage shocks to other
people in the study. This could explain why people such as the Nazis in World War
II were willing to hurt other people in obedience to authority.” Has a basic argument
been made?
A) Yes, because this is an important experiment often cited in textbooks.
B) Yes, because an experiment is offered as evidence to support a claim.
C) No, because no claim or hypothesis has been stated.
D) No, because other experiments may not have produced the same findings.
101. Tia's friend showed her a book about perception that presented many
different visual illusions. Tia was fooled by each of the book's illusions. Finally,
Tia said, “My experience tells me that all perception is inaccurate.” Has Tia
made a basic argument?
A) No, because her conclusion is based on an illusion.
B) No, because no evidence has been provided.
C) Yes, her conclusion is based on personal experience used as evidence.
D) Yes, because she does not need evidence to support her opinion.
102. Julio said to Arina, “I believe that the U.S. economy is the strongest in the
world, and you also should believe it if you are a loyal American. “Is Julio
making a basic argument?
A) Yes, because he is using what most people think of as a reason to support his
claim.
B) No, because not everyone agrees about the reason he has offered.
C) No, because he has not given a reason to support the claim he is making.
D) Yes, because Arina is a loyal American and a friend to Julio.
103. A man's brain was damaged in a motorcycle accident. When a neurologist gave
the man several cognitive tests, the man showed extreme difficulty in learning new
things. At the same time, the man's long-term memory for events that happened
before his accident was fairly good. The neurologist told the man and his family
members, “Based on my observations and tests, I have made a diagnosis. You have
anterograde amnesia, a condition that impairs the ability to learn new things when
damage occurs in the temporal lobe of the brain.” The neurologist has made a basic
argument because:
A) neurologists are required to study various forms of amnesia.
- 325 -
B) his diagnosis is a set of claims that has been made.
C) the diagnosis may be confirmed if the man seeks a second opinion.
D) the clinical evidence is used to support the diagnostic conclusion.
104. Kei was talking to her parents about her decision of what to do after college.
She said, “I have decided to go to graduate school in counseling psychology because
it is the occupation that interests me the most and is prestigious.” Did Kei make a
basic argument?
A) Yes, she provided a conclusion with evidence related to interest and prestige.
B) No, she provided only evidence related to interest and prestige.
C) No, she provided a good decision about her future, but not a basic argument.
D) No, Kei provided only her opinion about a career in counseling psychology.
105. Considering the other side, or an alternative position, and explaining how it
could be true is a recommendation in this textbook for dealing with:
A) arguments from ignorance.
B) the failure to make an argument.
C) belief perseverance.
D) psychological misconceptions.
106. Tina said, “If someone sees another person helping, the person observing
the second person helping is more likely to help a new person who needs help.”
This statement is:
A) a basic argument, because Tina is an authority using data.
B) not an argument, because it is based on poor evidence.
C) a claim, similar to a hypothesis about why people help.
D) a basic argument, because the research (although not mentioned) shows it is true.
107. Suppose an experienced critical thinker discusses an important question with a

person offering an opinion. The critical thinker asks the other person, “Why do you
think that?” The critical thinker MOST likely asks this question when:
A) the other person offers an opinion that may or may not be true.
B) the other person's opinion is not consistent with what most people think.
C) the other person offers an opinion without a reason to support it.
D) the opinion is a conclusion supported only by a statement of authority.
108. Marika's astrologer calculated the positions of the stars and planets at the time
of Marika's birth and the current alignment of the stars and planets. After casting
Marika's horoscope, he said, “Based on my calculations, I believe you are entering
a very vulnerable time and should not make any major decisions in the next few
days.” Has Marika's astrologer made a basic argument?
A) No, because astrology is a pseudoscience and cannot provide good evidence.
- 326 -
B) No, because the astrologer is not offering any kind of evidence.
C) Yes, because calculations provide evidence, although it is of low quality.
D) Yes, but only if it turns out that the horoscope is accurate.
109. A therapist tested a very shy man named Rob with the Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Inventory (MMPI). He also interviewed Rob and observed Rob's
behavior at a party. After these assessments, he told Rob that the results of the
evaluation led him to diagnose Rob with social anxiety disorder. Is the therapist
making a basic argument?
A) Yes, the therapist has supported her conclusion with clinical evidence.
B) No, the therapist is offering an opinion of his client's condition.
C) No, this is an unsubstantiated claim made by the therapist.
D) No, the therapist does not offer evidence to support the diagnosis.
110. Asawin and his friends went to a show at the student center where a mind reader
was able to tell people from the audience things about themselves and what they
were thinking. Afterward, none of Asawin's friends could explain how the man did
this. Asawin said, “After seeing this demonstration, I am convinced that the man was
mind reading.” Is Asawin making a basic argument?
A) No, because his claim is based on an unsubstantiated, informal observation.
B) No, because he is offering an opinion without evidence to support it.
C) Yes, because he is drawing a conclusion based on his experience.
D) No, because his friends cannot explain how the man identified the thoughts of
others.
111. The “total time” hypothesis states that the more time an individual study’s, the
more that person will learn. From this hypothesis, a cognitive psychologist predicted
that if a group of students studied a list of words for 10 minutes and another group
studied the same list for 5 minutes, the group studying for 10 minutes would later
recall more words than the other group. After conducting the experiment, the
psychologist stated that the total time hypothesis is accurate. A basic argument has
been made because it:
A) does not ask the participants to accomplish an impossible task.
B) states a set of claims that are based on a theory.
C) makes a claim with support from psychological research.
D) involves two groups of experiment participants, rather than just one group.
112. The word “because” used in a statement often signals that a _____ follows
immediately after it.
A) conclusion
B) reason
- 327 -
C) claim
D) counterargument
113. In an argument, the word “therefore” often indicates that:

A) a claim is going to be made.
B) evidence will follow.
C) a conclusion will follow.
D) additional information is forthcoming.
114. Lola said, “Scientists have not been able to prove that intelligence design
theory is not true, so it is probably correct.” Lola is showing the thinking error
of:
A) failing to make an argument.
B) belief perseverance.
C) confirmation bias.
D) arguing from ignorance or possibility.
115. Two members of a study group demonstrate a well-informed argument. If

one student first makes a claim and supports it with evidence, the second
student may then offer an opposing view that:
A) makes a counterargument.
B) draws a conclusion supporting the first claim.
C) strengthens support for the first claim.
D) fails to make a basic argument.
116. Liang said to Cara, “I think that the Bigfoot creature exists because
scientists have not been able to show that it does not exist. Therefore, it most
likely does exist.” What thinking error or problem in reasoning is Liang
showing?
A) Not providing a reason in support of the claim
B) Not making the claim known
C) Failing to make come to a conclusion
D) Arguing from possibility or ignorance
117. Megan and Silvio are helping each other learn successful argumentation.
Megan said to Silvio, “I think the death penalty should be repealed, and you
should think so, too.” Because Megan is showing the problem of _____ in her
argument, Silvio should ask her _____.
A) arguing from possibility; to increase the probability that she is correct
B) belief perseverance; to change her view
C) failing to make a basic argument; “Why do you say that, Megan?”
- 328 -
D) over-generalizing; to identify specific instances when the death penalty is
inappropriate
118. Carlos said, “Research has not shown that people do not have psychic
abilities such as ESP. I think we have to conclude that it is probable that some
people do have psychic abilities.” Which thinking error is being committed?
A) Failure to make an argument
B) Belief perseverance
C) A misconception
D) Arguing from ignorance
TRUE AND FALSE

1. In nations in which medical care is limited, cataracts are a leading cause of
blindness. (T)
2. Children born in the United States today may be the first generation to have a
shorter life span than their parents. (T)
3. The number of older people in less developed countries is projected to increase
more than in developed countries. (T)
4. Due to changes in economic and social conditions, marriage and parenthood are
no longer universally considered as the important markers of adulthood in Western
cultures. (T)
5. Emerging adulthood looks the same in all countries, regardless of culture. (F)
- 329 -
DELTA UNIVERSITY FOR
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
FACULTY OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION
UNIVERSITY REQUIREMENT CODE 117
CREATIVITY AND
CRITICAL THINKING
FREQUENT
QUIZZIS AND
EXAMS
SPRING SEMESTER
2021
-1-
1. Which of the following statements about facts and logic is true.
A. Facts and logic are two different things.
B. Logic and facts are the same thing.
C. Facts are more valid than logic.
D. Logic is more trustworthy than facts.

B. original claim.
D. facts put forth.
4. Generating Ideas is important because:

A. It involves thinking of many, varied, and unusual ways to deal with the task
or problem.
B. Most ideas people think of on their own aren’t very creative.
C. It forces everyone in the group to be creative.
D. You generate a few remarkable ideas to impress other people.
5. Brainstorming is:
A. A problem-solving process.
B. Another name for group discussion.
C. A tool to use to generate many options.
D. A good critical thinking strategy.
6. Which is a sound argument?

A. I had a dream that I got a D on my biology test, and it came true. If I want to do
better next time, I need to have a more positive dream.
B. Beth wanted to become a better driver, so she took a driving class and
studied the Motor Vehicles manual. Her driving really improved.
-2-
C. After a strong wind storm last October, all of the leaves were off the trees. That
is when I learned that wind is what makes the leaves fall.
D. When Max realized he was getting a cold, he started taking Cold-Go-Away. In
four days, he felt much better, thanks to the Cold-Go-Away.
7. You are trying to decide what car to buy. You make a chart that compares a
two-seater sports car, a two-door sedan, and a mini-SUV in three categories.
What would not be a suitable choice for a category?
A. price
B. gas mileage
C. tire pressure
D. storage capacity
8. What is wrong with this argument? “You think we need a new regulation to
control air pollution? I think we have already got too many regulations. Politicians
just love to pass new ones, and control us even more than they already do. It is
suffocating. We definitely do not need any new regulations.”
A. The person speaking doesn’t care about the environment.
B. The person speaking has changed the subject.
C. The person speaking is running for political office.
D. The person speaking does not understand pollution.
9. Which of these situations does NOT require problem solving?

A. After you get your new computer home, you find that there is no mouse in the
box.
B. When you get your pictures back from being developed, you realize that they
are someone else’s.
C. Everyone on your team wants to celebrate at the Burger Palace, but you
just ate there last night.
D. Your boss asks you to finish a report for tomorrow morning, but it is your son’s
birthday and you promised you would take him to the ball game tonight.
10. What is the most important reason for evaluating information found on the
Internet?
A. Authors who publish on the Internet are typically less skilled than those who
publish in print.
B. Web writers are usually biased.
C. Anyone can publish on the Internet; there is no guarantee that what you
are reading is truthful or objective.
D. Information found in print is almost always more accurate than that found on the
Internet.
-3-

A. We all possess the same amount of critical thinking skills and must choose to use
it in our daily lives.
B. Some people are born without any critical thinking skills and, therefore, cannot
be expected to think critically.
C. We all have some level of skill in critical thinking and we have the capacity
to improve those skills.
D. Critical thinking skills cannot be improved over time. You must simply do the
best with what you have.
15. Understanding the concept of process of judgment is directly related to

A. perception management.
B. information deregulation.
C. judgment deficit disorder.
D. outcomes of critical thinking.
16. Trudy purchased a home with a mortgage payment that was 60% of her
monthly Income. She is now in foreclosure. It is very likely that this situation
could have been avoided had she used which concept discussed in the text?
A. professional sub-skills
B. homeowner conceptualization
C. mortgage justification
D. critical thinking
-4-
17. Tara decides not to vaccinate her child. Tara’s child contracts measles and
infects a newborn baby who dies from the disease. This is an example of which
concept from the book?
A. effective critical thinking skills
B. individual decisions with a far-reaching impact
C. the effects of information deregulation
D. harmonious social law theory
example of
19. What is one of the characteristics of critical thinking in a free society?

A. access to information
B. rampant censorship
C. limited choices
D. government filters



-5-
B. self-regulation.
C. judgment.
D. interpretation.

A. free will.
B. self-regulation.
C. your options.
26. Minnesota is cold in the winter. St. Paul is the capital of Minnesota. St. Paul
is in Minnesota. St. Paul must be cold in the winter. This is an example of
A. perceptive reasoning.
B. inductive reasoning.
C. geographical reasoning.
D. deductive reasoning.
27. Jessica is always looking for ways to use her critical thinking skills in her
job. According to the text, which of the following statements is true about her?
A. She is not serious about critical thinking.
B. She is an unethical critical thinker.
C. She has externalized values.
D. She is actively building positive habits of mind.
28. In Ella’s 5th grade classroom, the students only memorize information and
repeat it back to the teacher. This environment is
A. not conducive to critical thinking.
B. inspired by critical thinking.
C. influenced by ethical decision making.
D. not a place where rote learners thrive.
-6-
your life
them on your own
30. What is IDEAS?

A. a liberal arts degree program
B. an open-minded way of viewing the world
C. a judgmental approach to meeting others
D. a general problem- solving process
31. What does the A in IDEAS stand for?

A. Analyze the problem at hand and make a hypothesis.
B. Assess situation and make a preliminary decision.
C. Avoid dealing with and conversing with others.
D. Ask questions and retain a stereotypical view.

on
34. Crystal is shopping for a new car. At the first dealership she visits, they are
having a sale on automatics. She had originally intended on buying a car with
manual transmission, but this is a really good sale. What would an effective
critical thinker advise her to do?
A. Purchase an automatic from the first dealership.
B. Research other options before making her final decision.
-7-
C. Select t a car based on color, not transmission.
D. Use snap judgment to come to a quick decision.

D. a university degree program.
36. Wanda is researching an aboriginal group in New Zealand. She is making

a concerted attempt to learn the group’s symbols and language. She is trying to
become part of them
A. religious community.
B. critical community.
C. language community.
D. heuristic community.
37. What is the definition of a claim?

A. the statement the maker of the argument is seeking to show to be true or
probably true
B. the statement the maker of the argument knows is false, but wants to convince
his/her audience otherwise
C. the statement the maker of the argument wants to be true, but knows that it is
definitely not true
D. the statement the maker of the argument knows is false and is seeking to prove
this to his/her audience.
38. Fill in the blanks. Each ________ is a separate set of ________.

A. argument, conclusions
B. reason, premises
C. claim, laws
D. process, truisms
39. Jessica is giving a reason in support of a claim. What is she doing?

A. developing a premise
B. creating a basis
C. arguing a bias
D. making an argument
-8-
40. Emily is explaining mapping to her classmate. She says that one of the
purposes of mapping is to strengthen our ability to analyze people’s claims.
Emily is
A. confused.
B. correct.
C. incorrect.
D. unintelligent.
41. What is the definition of tautology?

A. the study of what is taught in the U.S. and why it is taught
B. a way of viewing the world that relies on ambivalence and stereotyping
C. a statement that is necessarily true because of the meaning of the words
D. the practice of using critical thinking to debunk commonly held cultural myths.

A. tautological.
B. negative.
C. open-minded.
D. closed-spirited.
43. What is a loaded expression?

A. an expression that forces you to make a decision
B. a statement that carries an emotional charge
C. a saying that doesn’t add up
D. a response that could be positive or negative
44. Which of the following statements about claims is true?

A. They can be confirmed or disconfirmed.
B. They are always true, especially those by experts.
C. They should be taken at face value.
D. They are never true, no matter who says them.
45. What is the definition of a worthy argument?

A. an argument that merits being accepted as a proof that its conclusion is
probably true
B. an argument that is phrased using sophisticated vocabulary and a specific syntax
C. an argument that is devoid of reason or any other extraneous elements
D. an argument given by an expert with a conflict of interest.
46. “Sometimes an individual feet’s that he is being harassed, persecuted and

plotted against by everyone. He is obsessed with the idea that everybody around
-9-
is out to get him, harm him, kill him and he is a victim of domestic, national and
international conspiracies”. This is an example of:
(a) Delusion of Grandeur
(b) Delusion of Persecution
(c) Transient Delusions
(d) Systematic Delusions
47. The ideas which were interfering with the solution of the problem tend to
fade in:
(a) Evaluation Period
(b) Incubation Period
(c) Verification Period
(d) Preparation Period

(a) Verification
(b) Evaluation
(c) Incubation
(d) Preparation
49. In one kind of delusion, the person becomes a millionaire by a twist of the
mind. He becomes the ruler of the universe, or a great personage endowed with
divine powers. What delusion is it?
(a) Delusion of Persecution
(b) Transient Delusion
(c) Delusion of Grandeur
(d) Hypochondriacally Delusion
50. Hypochondriacally delusions are concerned with an excessive

preoccupation with imaginary:
(a) Physical diseases
(b) Mental diseases
(c) Psychoses
(d) Physical or Mental disease
51. Self-condemnatory delusions generally reflect a need for:

(a) Punishment
(b) Reward
(c) Reinforcement
(d) Affection
- 10 -
52. “Ideas of reference” often supplement:
(a) Delusions of Grandeur
(b) Hypochondriacally Delusion
(c) Delusions of Persecution
(d) Transient Delusion
53. Jean Piaget used the term “Schemata” to refer to the cognitive structures
underlying organized patterns of:
(a) Concept
(b) Behavior
(c) Experience
(d) Temperament
54. Piaget’s studies revealed that there is a gradual shift with age and
experience from mental activities based on overt behavior to symbolically
represented “Schemata”. In older children, schemata are more internalized
and more mental. He called these mental equivalents of behavioral schemata
as:
(a) Organizations
(b) Operations
(c) Adaptations
(d) Assimilations
57. Some people have almost photographic visual imagery. They only look at
something and recall what they have seen in detail. Such imagery is called:
(a) Synesthesia
(b) Memory Image
- 11 -
(c) Eidetic Imagery
(d) Verbal Imagination
58. The concept of an automobile is:

(a) A conjunctive concept
(b) A disjunctive concept
(c) A haphazard concept
(d) An image
59. A disjunctive concept separates objects into a class by reason of their

possession of:
(a) Any two characteristics
(b) Any one characteristic
(c) Any three characteristics
(d) Any four characteristics
60. The concepts which refer to relationship between two elements in a situation
is known as:
(d) Simple concepts
(c) Study on Images
(c) Image
63. Psychologists believe that people have ways of thinking in their peculiar and
more or less in a fixed way. They call these as:
(a) Thinking sets
(b) Concepts
(c) Images
- 12 -
(d) Fantasies
64. We have a tendency to make normal use of certain household articles, but
it is difficult for us to put them to some novel use. Psychologists have named
this tendency as:
(b) Abstraction
(c) Functional fixedness
(d) Generalization

(a) Language
(b) Thought
(c) Concept
(d) Image
66. The range between the loudest and the weakest sounds that an individual
can make is called:
(a) Pitch range
(b) Dynamic range
(c) Auditory range
(d) Sensory range
67. According to the operant conditioning model, the most important aspect of
language learning is the:
(a) Reinforcement which the learner receives from another person
(b) Punishment given by the master learner
(c) Reward received by the language teacher
(d) Reward provided by the experimenter
68. The “Information Processing Theory” explains language learning by

analogy with:
(a) EEG model
(b) Computer model
(c) Animal model
(d) Polygraph model
69. The information processing theory emphasizes the contribution of the child
rather than the role of reinforcement as emphasized by the:
(a) Classical conditioning model
(b) Operant model
- 13 -
(c) Trial-and-Error model
(d) Insightful learning model
70. Decibel (dB) is the unit to measure the:

(a) Light movement
(b) Intelligence
(c) Intensity of sound pressures
(d) Sensation
71. Woodworth has called thinking as:

(a) Mental Exploration
(b) Problem solving behavior
(c) Covert manipulation
(d) Sub vocal Talking
(a) Problem
(b) Solution
(c) Image
(d) Dream

(a) Perception
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
(d) Sensation
74. The “Central Theory of Thinking” holds that we think only with the help of
our:
(a) Brain
(b) Central Nervous system
(c) Peripheral Nervous system
(d) Spinal Cord
75. The “Central theory of thinking,” which holds that we think with our brain
only, was advanced by the:
(a) Behaviorists
(b) Structuralists
(c) Functionalists
(d) Gestalt Psychologists
- 14 -
76. “Peripheral theory of thinking” is otherwise known as:
(a) Affective approach of Thinking
(b) Cognitive approach of Thinking
(c) Motor Theory of Thinking
(d) Stimulus Response Theory of Thinking
77. Experimental Evidences indicate that thinking is accompanied by minute

muscular contractions occurring during thought are called:
(a) Explicit speech
(b) Spasm
(c) Implicit speech
(d) Muscle contractions.
79. You are trying to decide what car to buy. You make a chart that compares
a two-seater sports car, a two-door sedan, and a mini-SUV in three categories.
What would not be a suitable choice for a category?
A. price
B. gas mileage
C. tire pressure
D. storage capacity

81. Which answer best represents a situation that has been decided by emotion
alone?
A. You hate the winter, so even though you can’t afford it, you take a vacation
to the Bahamas.
B. The school shuts down after a bomb threat.
C. Your company’s third-quarter earnings were much higher than predicted.
- 15 -
D. You need a new mixer, so you watch the ads in your newspaper, and buy one
when it goes on sale.
82. What is wrong with the following argument? “We should not change our
grading system to numbers instead of letters. The next thing you know, they
will take our names away and refer to us by numbers, too!”
A. The conclusion is too extreme.
B. There is nothing wrong with the argument.
C. Students should not have a say in the type of grading system for their schools.
D. It does not explain why they want to get rid of letter grades.
83. Which of these problems is most severe?

A. Your professor is sick and misses’ class on the morning you are supposed to take
a big exam.
B. You lose track of your schedule and forget to study for a big exam.
C. You can’t find one of the books you need to study for a big exam.
D. The big exam is harder than you thought it would be and includes a section you
did not study.
84. You read a story in the newspaper about salary negotiations involving
public transportation workers. The workers are threatening to go on strike
tomorrow if their demands for higher wages and better benefits are not met.
What represents an inference made from this scenario?
A. Health insurance premiums are very expensive.
B. The cost of gas will make ticket prices increase in the next few weeks.
C. People who ride the bus should look for possible alternative transportation.
D. Employers never like to meet salary demands.
85. What statement represents a judgment instead of a fact?

A. My presentation was excellent. I am sure my boss will promote me now.
B. My presentation was excellent. The clients all told me they liked it.
C. My presentation was excellent. It won an award from management.
D. My presentation was excellent. It was cited as such on my peer evaluation.
86. What is wrong with the following argument? America—love it, or leave it!
A. There is nothing wrong with the argument.
B. It implies that if you leave the country on vacation, you do not love it.
C. It does not tell you how to love it.
D. It presents only two options, when in fact there are many more.
- 16 -
87. What is the most likely cause of the following: “Our hockey team has been
undefeated this season.”
A. The other teams do not have new uniforms.
B. We have a new coach who works the team hard.
C. Some of our team members went to hockey camp over the summer.
D. I wore my lucky sweater to every home game.
88. Which explanation is weakest?

A. Gas prices are so high that many people are not going on long trips anymore.
B. I can’t wear my new shirt tomorrow because it is in the wash.
C. Jose’s homework was late because it was not turned in on time.
D. We do not have new textbooks this year because the school budget was cut.
example of
90. According to John Scully, the former chairman of Apple Computer, what is
a key ingredient of successful teams?
A. Creativity
B. Viability
C. Reasonability
D. Profitability
91. George’s coworker Dave presents information in a very sarcastic, biting

tone. However, he usually makes some good points. As a critical thinker, what
should George ask himself?
A. Should I tell Dave that he really has to tone it down if he wants me to take him
seriously?
B. Can I move offices so I don’t have to listen to Dave’s tone anymore?
C. Can I identify Dave’s good ideas and claims despite his off-putting way of
expressing himself?
D. Should I express myself in a sarcastic tone in order to be taken more seriously?
92. Creative Is . . .
a. The act of turning new and imaginative ideas into reality
- 17 -
b. The process of bringing something new into being
c. Requires passion and commitment.
d. All of the above
93. Innovation is…

a. Creation
b. The production or implementation of an idea
c. Being new
d. Symbolic
94. If you have ideas, but don’t act on them…

A. You are imaginative.
B. You are creative
C. You are neither
D. You are both
95. If you have ideas, but do act on them…

a. You are imaginative.
b. You are creative
c. You are neither
d. You are both
96. A product is creative when it is…

a. Novel
b. Appropriate
c. Neither
d. Both
97. Creativity Traits needed in an Entrepreneur are...

a. Seeing Problems as Interesting and Acceptable
b. Seeing Hurdles as leading to improvements and solutions
c. Neither
d. Both
98. View _____ as _____ that offer the opportunity to innovate.

A. problems; challenges
B. customers; problems
C. challenges; problems
D. none of these
99. Which of these statements is true?

- 18 -
A. Not everything has to make sense right away.
B. Positive self-encouragement works.
C. Use non-logical thinking.
D. All of them
100. The primary goal during the brainstorming process is to

A. Come up with as many ideas as possible.
B. Analyzes each idea as it is presented.
C. Rate each idea in relation to one another.
D. Come up with a set number of ideas within a certain time.
101. What is the term for creatively generating associations and connections
between dissimilar subjects?
A. Balancing concepts
B. Conceptual blending
C. Disassociation
D. Intermingling ideas
102. ________ is the ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of
looking at problems and opportunities.
A) Showboating
B) Commoditizing
C) Innovation
D) Creativity
103. ________ is the ability to apply creative solutions to problems and

opportunities to enhance or to enrich people's lives.
A) Showboating
B) Commoditizing
C) Creativity
D) Innovation
104. Some small businesses create innovations ________ in response to

customer feedback or changing market conditions.
A) Responsibly
B) Compassionately
C) Reactively
D) Proactively
105. Some small businesses create innovations ________ by spotting

opportunities on which to capitalize.
- 19 -
A) Responsibly
B) Compassionately
C) Reactively
D) Proactively
106. Innovation is ________ when it creates market-changing, disruptive

breakthroughs that are the result of generating something from nothing.
A) mandatory
B) Perfunctory
C) Evolutionary
D) revolutionary
107. More often, innovations are--------

A) Evolutionary
B) Revolutionary
C) Proactive
D) All of the above
108. ________ thinking is considering a problem from all sides and jumping
into it at different points.
A) Vertical
B) Lateral
C) Simultaneous
D) Parallel
109. The ------- brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion.

A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
110. The ________ brain processes information intuitively.

A) Left
B) Right
C) Front
D) Back
111. Which one of the following is a barrier to creativity?

A) Searching for the one "right" answer
B) Focusing on being "logical"
C) Blindly following the rules
- 20 -
D) All of the above

113. What does self-regulation mean?

A. an individual’s capacity to monitor his/her own thinking process
B. the government’s responsibility to regulate risk
C. a boss’s role of overseeing his/her employees
D. the practice of reading only information you agree with

115. In order to solve a problem, people make use of operators. These are
a) actions or tools used to help change a person’s current state in relation to the
problem.
b) Units of knowledge that a person has at the beginning of the problem.
c) A set of constraints or limitations ruling out some solutions to the problem.
d) Equivalent to a person’s IQ.
116. A problem-solving heuristic is

a) a strategy that guides a search through the problem space.
b) needed for unfamiliar problems but not for familiar problems.
c) Guaranteed to find a problem solution, if one exists.
d) Likely to be less effective than a strategy such as hill climbing or means-end analysis.
117. In order to teach students to be better problem solvers, we should do all of

the following EXCEPT
a) teach some of the general-purpose heuristics, such as means-end analysis or working
backward.
b) Encourage students to approach their training with attention to deep structure rather
than to surface details.
c) Provide students with experience in the relevant domains so that they will have a
basis from which to draw analogies.
- 21 -
d) Teach students that it is better to memorize related problems rather than
understand them.
118._____ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while _____

intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills.
a) Crystallized; fluid
b) fluid; crystallized
c) general; specific
d) general; learned
119. ------is not desirable when brainstorming is in process.

A) "Freewheeling"
B) Criticism
C) Generating a large quantity of ideas
D) Idea combination and improvement
120. The tendency to be rigid in how one thinks about an object’s function is called
a) functional narrowness.
b) Narrow focus.
c) Functional fixedness.
d) Mental stickiness.
121. Imagination is to creativity as:

A. Candy is to a diet.
B. The motor is to an automobile.
C. A comb to a bald man.
D. Coal is to an air conditioner.
122. A problem’s “initial state” refers to the
A. first goal one must move toward in solving the problem.

B. Knowledge and resources, one possesses at the outset of the problem.
C. Participant’s circumstances before he or she has understood the problem.
D. Actual statement of the problem.
123. The first part of the creative process is:

A. Testing.
B. Evaluating.
C. Using learned skills.
D. Discovery.
- 22 -
124. Brainstorming groups should:
A) Contain an expert in the field to be discussed.
B) Be serious and work-oriented.
C) Try to generate as many ideas as possible.
D) Encourage criticism of ideas from other participants in the group.
125. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by visualizing a problem

via a mental image?
a) The image depicts the problem in a concrete way, and this often makes the problem
easier to remember.
b) One can easily make new discoveries about the imaged form, including
discoveries that involve an entirely new understanding of the form.
c) The image often makes it easy to discern how the elements of the problem are related
to one another.
d) It is usually easy to rearrange the elements of an image to explore other
configurations.
126. All of the states one can reach in solving a problem together make up the
a) problem space.
b) Operators.
c) Pathways.
d) Problem definition.
127. the most important thing to realize about creativity is that:

A. It involves both convergent and divergent thinking.
B. Everyone possesses a certain amount of it.
C. It involves many kinds of thought processes.
D. It involves both convergent and divergent thinking, everyone possesses a
certain amount of it, and it involves many kinds of thought processes.
128. Expert problem solvers

a) use analogies less often than do novices.
b) Do not need to rely on mapping in their use of analogies.
c) Tend to categorize problems in terms of their deep structure.
d) Focus on the surface of a problem rather than on its deep structure.
129. Creative children:

A. Possess many unlikable traits.
B. Possess many likable traits.
C. Can be frustrating to work with.
D. Can be frustrating yet a joy to work with.
- 23 -
130.____ is defined as the ability to combine or link ideas in new ways to
generate novel and useful alternatives.
A. contextual intelligence
B. analytical thinking
C. lateral thinking
131. Creativity can be encouraged by helping children:

A. Feel joy in their creative productions.
B. Develop perseverance.
C. Learn to judge others’ artworks.
D. Feel joy in their creative productions and develop perseverance.
132. Of the three indices of creativity, fluency is defined as:

A. the ability to change approaches to a problem
B. the ability to acknowledge and take responsibility for one's role in cultivating
relationships
C. the ability to generate novel or unique propositions, ideas, or solutions
D. the ability to generate many solutions that fit some requirement
133. The capacity for recognizing one's own feelings and those of others, for
motivating themselves and for managing relationships in a productive manner
is known as ____ intelligence.
A. cultural
B. emotional
C. contextual
D. analytical
A. Developing their potential to think.
B. Developing new skills.
C. Learning to seek the right answer to a problem.
D. Developing their potential to think and developing new skills.
135. Some characteristics of a creative child are:

A. Determination, curiosity, and a willingness to take risks.
B. Needs companionship for enrichment.
C. Enjoys participation in general.
D. Stubbornness, fear, and neatness.
136. Learning the “way things are done” is an example of:

- 24 -
A. Convergent thinking and an important part of creativity.
B. Divergent thinking and an important part of creativity.
C. A part of creativity involving discovery.
D. A part of creativity involving process and discovery.
137. Creativity with older children involves:

A. The generation of ideas and products.
B. The creation of ideas and products.
C. the creation of original products and original solutions
D. the creation of original ideas and products

141. According to the book, strong critical thinkers strive for

A. justice.
B. regulation.
C. precision.
D. peace.
142. Asking a question like “What are some of the known harmful effects of
using aerosol cans?” promotes
B. self-regulation.
- 25 -
C. judgment.
D. interpretation.

A. free will.
B. self-regulation.
C. your options.
144. Short-term memory (STM) lasts about:

(a) 20 Seconds
(b) 30 Seconds
(c) 15 Seconds
(d) 10 Seconds
145. A larger working-memory capacity makes it possible to solve more

complex problems. With the development, there is:
(a) Growth in the ability to hold information in working memory.
(b) Complexity in the ability to hold information in working memory.
(c) Understanding of concepts and syllables
(d) Imitation of behavior of parents
146. Symbolic concepts become more readily available for use in:
(a) Dreams
(b) Imagination
(c) Learning
(d) Thought
147. Which term refers to the mental activities involved in the acquisition,
processing, organization and use of knowledge?
(a) Emotion
(b) Cognition
(c) Feeling
(d) Imagination
148. The capacity to learn and adapt to the requirements for survival in one’s
culture is called:
(a) Intelligence
(b) Memory
(c) Emotion
- 26 -
(d) Learning
149. The term “intelligence” is derived from a Latin word, framed by Cicero to
translate a Greek word used by Aristotle to include:
(a) All cognitive processes
(b) All effective processes
(c) Specific cognitive processes
(d) Specific effective processes
150. An organized imagination around a certain theme or extent or problem is

known as:
(a) Fantasy
(b) Dream
(c) Image
(d) Creative Thinking
151. The temporary ego-centered holidays from reality is known as:

(a) Fantasy
(b) Day-dreams
(c) Images
(d) Concepts
152. Delusions can be classified into two types and these are:
(a) Grandeur and persecution
(b) Direct and indirect
(c) Systematic and unsystematic
(d) Transitory and permanent

(a) Verification
(b) Evaluation
(c) Incubation
(d) Preparation
154. Our ability to compare objects, recall visual objects, and understanding
the relationship between objects relates to:
A. visual illusions
- 27 -
157. The concepts which refer to relationship between two elements in a

situation is known as:
(d) Simple concepts
(c) Study on Images
(c) Image

(a) Language
(b) Thought
(c) Concept
(d) Image
- 28 -
(a) Problem
(b) Solution
(c) Image
(d) Dream

(a) Perception
(b) Learning
(c) Thinking
(d) Sensation
163. What is the definition of a language community?

A. a community of people who majored in English
B. a community of people who all speak different languages
C. a community of people who understand the same words and icons
D. a community of experienced language professors



intelligence?
- 29 -


A. metacognitive
B. emotional
C. motivational
D. behavioral
171. What is the Flynn effect?

A. IQ scores increased over time in successive generations in all countries
B. IQ scores increased over time worldwide but only on verbal tests
C. verbal SAT scores increased dramatically in the US during this time period
D. verbal SAT scores increased worldwide during this time period
172. Which of the following critical thinking hindrances is not discussed in

detail in this chapter?
A) Prejudice
B) Egocentrism
C) Sociocentrism
D) Wishful thinking
173. Self-interested thinking is a form of ________.

A) Emotive thinking
B) Short-term thinking
C) Sociocentrism
D) Egocentrism
174. Critical thinking is marked by ________.

A) Clarity
- 30 -
B) Completeness
C) Consistency
175. A course in critical thinking can improve students' ability to ________.

A) Understand course materials
B) Critically evaluate course materials
C) Argue effectively for their own views on course topics
176. Which of the following reflects group-centered thinking?

A) Egocentrism
B) Sociocentrism
C) Group bias
D) The herd instinct
177. Relativism ________.

A) Makes it impossible for us to correctly criticize other cultures' customs and values
B) Makes it impossible for us to correctly criticize our own societies' customs and
values
C) Can lead to conflicting moral duties
178. The fact that there is deep disagreement about ethical issues shows that __.
A) There is no objective truth in ethics
B) Ethics is just a matter of opinion
C) There is no right or wrong
179. ____ is the entrepreneurial behavior that involves the expectation of high
levels of growth or profit.
(A) General management
(B) Supply chain
(C) Risk assumption
180. The entrepreneurship process begins with

(A) An innovative idea
(B) A triggering event
(C) Implementation
(D) Growth
- 31 -
181. which of the following is the key element needed to bring the
entrepreneurial idea to reality during the implementation stage?
(A) Capital/money
(B) Commitment
(C) Management expertise
(D) A college education
182. Forces that occur outside of the business that affect the business and its
owner are referred to as
(A) Financial factors
(B) Controlled factors
(C) Environmental factors
(D) Internal factors
183. Which of the following is not prerequisite for becoming a successful

entrepreneur?
(A) Passion
(B) Determination
(C) Knowledge
(D) Education
184. The ability to see, conceive, and create new and unique products, services,
and processes is known as
(A) Innovation
(B) Risk taking
(C) Product development
(D) Locus of control
185. Which of the following is more important in the future development of a

small business owner than the formal education received in school?
(A) Financial backing
(B) Management expertise
(C) Lifelong learning
(D) Technical skills
186. Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are

b) Role model
d) Support system
- 32 -
187. The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:
a) Financial status
b) Qualification
c) Social status
d) Achievement

future use?
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
engaging in
192. An effective listener tries to practice ________ in an effort to hear and

understand what the other party is saying.
C) Active listening
- 33 -
193. Which of the following nonverbal communication cues can be altered in
order to adopt the style of the people you want to impress?
A) Listening
B) Empathy
D) Technology
194. Body movement can send an unintentional message based of which

nonverbal cue?
A) Facial expression
B) Gesture and posture
D) Personal appearance
195. Which of these is an example of courteous phone behavior?

A) Vary pitch and inflection
B) Increasing the audience's knowledge level
C) Verify you are calling at a good time
D) Forward all calls you cannot answer directly
196. When using digital media, how can you be sure you are presenting facts
instead of your opinion?
A) Include links to Wikis
B) Include supporting evidence
C) Open a discussion forum
D) Assume others will view the message
197. Successful teamwork, productive meetings, effective listening, and

nonverbal communication all depend on ________ among all participants.
A) Face-to-face contact
B) Mutual respect and consideration
C) Common cultural reference points
D) The use of the latest communication technology
198. Emotions are:

A. objective responses to experiences in our environment
B. subjective responses to experiences in our environment
C. physiological changes to experiences in our environment
D. behavioral changes to experiences in our environment
- 34 -
199. Which of the following statements aligned with the James-Lang theory of
emotion?
200. The term emoting refers to:

B. the universal experience of emotion
C. the culturally specific experience of emotion
D. the embedding of emotions and social relationships
201. In early childhood, children learn about their emotions through all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. observing adults
B. conversations with adult partners
C. childrearing practices
D. their intuitive thinking about the world
202. All of the following shape emoting EXCEPT:

A. gender roles
B. culture
C. power
D. language
b) Diligence
d) Self-image
to moment.
a) Self-awareness
b) Social awareness
d) Self-efficacy
- 35 -
a) Self-efficacy
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
d) Self-talk
206. Emotion regulation relates to:

A. how we adjust our emotional experiences in particular situations
B. how we adjust our behavior to particular situations
C. how we process, manage, and adjust our emotions
D. how we learn to act in context
207. Our ability to compare objects, recall visual objects, and understanding
the relationship between objects relates to:
A. visual illusions
208. Good global leaders working in a multinational company should possess

the following abilities EXCEPT:
C. the ability to solve problem
209. In communities that support an interdependent self, socially engaging

emotions reinforce which of the following cultural value?
A. self-expression
B. independence
C. social harmony
D. uniqueness
210. Cultural affordance relates to:

B. being sensitive to individuals from other cultural heritages
C. the ability of cultural settings to evoke particular emotional responses
D. cultural variability in universal emotion expression
211. Ego -focused emotions relate to:

- 36 -
A. personal attributes, goals, wants, and needs
B. other people’s needs and wants
C. external traits and abilities
D. physical and social settings


a) speculator
b) Mechanical
c) Attainable
d) Regulatory
214. According to the SMART philosophy to setting goals, goals need to be __.
a) Sporadic
b) Measurable
c) Accumulative
d) Random


a) Prioritizing
c) Being overworked
d) Multitasking

introduced.
- 37 -
219. _____ involves the process of constantly trying to update skills and learn
new ones.
a) Unfreezing
b) Stable freezing
c) Refreezing
d) Continuous learning

D. social qualities

b) Diligence
d) Mental activity


- 38 -
a) Self-talk
b) Self-awareness
c) Optimism

people
227. An attitude is:

A. our reaction to events and experiences in our environment that shape our
actions
B. our reaction to events that create emotions responses
D. a perspective or belief that is not culture-specific
228. Which of the following is an example of an attitude?

A. I really like your shirt.
B. Our family has a new pet.
C. I am interested in studying cultural psychology.
D. I am thinking of a career in medicine.
229. The relationship between a caregiver and infant is considered which type
of relationship?
A. intimate
B. friend
C. acquaintance
D. romantic
230. Many children and adults choose friends who share their interests,
attitudes and beliefs. One likely explanation for their choices is the:
A. similarity attraction effect
- 39 -
B. matching hypothesis
C. propinquity effect
D. market pricing effect
231. Prejudice is:

A. our reaction to events and experiences in our environment that shape our actions
B. our reaction to events that create emotional responses
D. a learned attitude that shapes the way we think and act toward other people
and social groups
232. A stereotype is:

B. present at birth

descriptions
234. Self-esteem is:

235. If a person has ‘no face’, this person has:

A. no social standing
C. a sense of being part of the group
D. a person who matters

- 40 -
237. Which of the following statements is true?
A. cultural identity is permanent
B. cultural identity is fixed at birth
C. an individual can only have two cultural identities
D. cultural identity is fluid
238. Discrimination is:

B. present at birth
239. Discrimination differs from prejudice and stereotypes because

discrimination:
A. involves our actions and the way we treat others because of their group
membership
240. Inter-group anxiety refers to:

241. Realistic threats are:

B. threats we experience due to actual experiences with our-group members
242. Symbolic threats are:

D. status and power
243. Implicit bias is:

A. an unintentional and unconscious bias towards light-skinned individuals
B. a learned attitude
- 41 -
C. a stereotype
D. a bias on the basis of social status
244. One explanation for the hostility some people feel towards immigrants is:
A. implicit bias
B. prejudice
C. stereotype
D. xenophobia
245. Intercultural competence is:

A. the ability to communicate with people from different cultural communities
B. the ability to adjust to a new cultural setting
C. learning cultural practices very quickly
D. being sensitive to new cultural customs and practices
246. Which of the following skills are noted for being the key components of
success in the business world?
a. nonverbal skills
b. speech ‐writing skills
c. interpersonal skills
d. oral skills
247. Which of the communication skills needed for excellence in an information

age deals with employees being made to feel that they can make a difference in
their company?
a. versatility
b. vision
c. sensitivity
d. creative insight
248. Communication skills are essential for promoting excellence in business

and the professions. Of the four skills listed below, which one involves the
capacity to anticipate change?
a. versatility
b. vision
c. sensitivity
d. patience

A) Relativism
B) Subjectivism
- 42 -
C) Emotivism
D) Individualism
250. The mutual understanding that results when the sender and all intended
receivers interpret the message in the same way is
a. Shared meaning.
b. Encoding.
c. Feedback.
d. Noise.
251. A manager who stresses that workers will be more productive if they are
happy and are given the proper working conditions is operating under which
organizational theory?
252. The notion that the whole is more than the sum of its parts is known as
a. Openness.
b. Hierarchy.
c. Synergy.
d. Equi finality.
253. In systems theory, for an organization to succeed, it should strive to be a

(n) ----system.
a. open
b. synergistic
c. closed
d. free

a. attitudes
b. opinions
c. shared values
d. individual beliefs
255. Why is the process of establishing shared organizational values difficult?

a. Each person has his/her own personal value system to guide behavior.
- 43 -
b. Organizations are so diverse that it is almost impossible to get all members to
have the same values.
c. Values are established over a long period of time, which makes the process of
determining them difficult.
d. Values are temporary and therefore can never be accurately assessed.
256. Goals for communication should be

a. Positive, vague, and flexible.
b. Specific, positive, and fixed.
c. General, high, and flexible.
d. Specific, high, and flexible.
257. To know how an organization strategically distributes power, resources,

and rewards in its daily functions is to understand its
a. Goals.
b. Competition.
c. Politics.
d. Group processes.

a. Knowing the rules of the organization.
b. Communicating the right message appropriately and effectively by
choosing the appropriate message channel.
c. Tricking people into thinking you know what you are talking about.
d. Using the appropriate message.
259. Consideration of community in communication is important because a

community
a. is a group of people who communicate to pursue common goals
b. gains well-being from the amount of sophistry used by members
c. uses persuasion in a less ethical manner than do individuals
d. functions using the information transfer model of communication
260. Appropriate communication is communication that

a. is acceptable to the valued norms and expectations of a context
b. is efficient in achieving preferred communicator outcomes
c. achieves the most acceptable understanding among the participants
d. avoids being slapped, dissed, or unfriended
261. Persuasion is the use of communication to _____ an audience’s attitudes,

values, and beliefs
- 44 -
a. reinforce, change, or modify
b. manipulate
c. coerce
d. anticipate, predict, and exploit
262. “Noise” is considered any interference

a. coming from the environment
b. solely in the medium of message transfer
c. occurring prior to the message transfer
d. from the lousy music your roommate is playing
263. Motivation is:

A. our ability to understand and perceive emotions
B. an internal state that guides our behavior to attain the goal
C. our ability to understand cultural norms and values
D. our ability to adapt to our environment
264. Alia takes morning classes even though she never has time for breakfast.
Her stomach grumbles and feels empty to the point where she feels the need to
eat. This is an example of a (n):
A. motivation
B. drive
C. need

266. Which of the following goals associated with achievement models connects
with intrinsic motivation?
A. mastery goals
C. social goals
D. intrinsic goals
267. Cognitive models of motivation explain:

A. people’s extrinsic motivations
B. people’s intrinsic motivations
- 45 -
C. the value people place on performing particular tasks
D. the reasons and/or causes of people successes and failures
268. ________ is the study of the impact that individuals, groups, and structure
have on behavior within organizations.
A) Leadership
B) Organizational strategy
C) Performance management
D) Organizational behavior
269. Basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific support is

called.
A) Intuition
B) Organizational process
C) Organizational behavior
D) evidence-based management
E) Conceptual management
270. Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding

individual behavior?
A) Sociology
B) Social psychology
C) Psychology
D) Anthropology
271. Given the climate of "temporariness" in modern organizations, employees

must
A) Continually update their knowledge and skills
B) Be prepared to stay in the same position for longer periods of time
C) Have closer connections with their peers
D) Foster friendship within the work environment
272. Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more

heterogeneous in terms of all of the following except ---
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Domestic partners
D) socio-economic status
273. Which of the following is not an example of people who can work from
home or other non-office locations?
- 46 -
A) assembly line workers
B) Systems analysts
C) Technical writers
D) Medical transcribers
274. Self-efficacy relates to:

A. our ability to seek out activities our own enjoyment
B. our confidence in our own abilities to solve problems
C. our desire to seek self-improvement
D. our relationships and social interactions
275. Which of the following IS TRUE about incentives?

A. the use and effectiveness of incentives varies across cultures
B. extrinsic motivation is often better than intrinsic motivation
C. for many Japanese workers a monetary bonus is more effective as an incentive
than respect
D. for many Latin American workers a monetary bonus more effective as an
incentive than time off to be with family
276. Our body posture, gestures, and eye gaze or examples of:
A. signals
B. nonverbal communication
C. verbal communication
D. computer mediated communication
277. You live in a community that emphasizes interdependent relations,

establishing trust, conforming to social norms, and indirect communication.
Your community is most likely a
D. rural community
D. decoding process
- 47 -
279. Which of the following is the process of accurately understanding one's
own emotions as they occur and how they affect one's behavior and thought?
A. self-management
B. empathy
C. relationship management
D. self-awareness
280. Which of the following involves having the discipline to hold off on current
urges in order to meet long-term intentions?
A. empathy
B. self-awareness
C. self-management
D. relationship management
281. Which of the following domains of emotional intelligence is the "ability to

accurately pick up on emotions in other people and understand what is really
going on with them"?
A. empathy
B. relationship management
C. self-management
D. self-awareness
282. What does research consistently demonstrate about nonverbal

communication?
A. People are not good at masking their feelings, and most people are highly skilled
in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.
B. People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are incapable of
decoding nonverbal signals.
C. People are good at masking their feelings, but most people still manage to decode
nonverbal signals.
D. People are not good at masking their feelings, but most people are
inconsistent in their ability to decode nonverbal signals.
283. Tom always drops hand-written reports on his administrative assistant's

desk and says, "Type this right away." What type of incivility is Tom
committing?
A. treating others without courtesy
B. ignoring others
C. disrespecting the dignity and worth of others
D. disrespecting the efforts of others
- 48 -
of others?
285. Which of the following is external to an individual but still affects his or
her behavior and performance?
A. Motivations
B. Role perceptions
C. Situational factors
D. Abilities
286. _____ represents the forces within a person that affect his or her direction,
intensity, and persistence of voluntary behavior.
A. Motivation
B. Personality
C. Norm
D. Ethics
287. Which of the following refers to the natural talents that help employees
learn specific tasks more quickly and perform them better?
A. Persistence
B. Direction
C. Intensity
D. Aptitude
288. Which of the following concepts consists of aptitudes, skills, and

competencies?
A. Motivation
B. Personality
C. Values
D. Ability
289. An individual's personality:

A. changes several times throughout the year.
B. is formed only from childhood socialization and the environment.
C. is less evident in situations where social norms, reward systems, and other
conditions constrain behavior.
D. does not provide an enduring pattern of behaviors.
- 49 -
290. According to the "Big Five" personality dimensions, people with low
conscientiousness tend to be:
A. uncooperative and intolerant of others' needs.
B. careless, disorganized, and less thorough.
C. more suspicious and self-focused.
D. poised, secure, and calm.
291. being good-natured, empathetic, caring, and courteous are characteristics

of people with _____ as a personality trait.
A. openness to experience
B. agreeableness
C. locus of control
D. emotional stability
292. Eric is the advertising head of a firm. He is extremely imaginative, creative,

and curious. Which of the following personality dimensions does Eric possess?
A. Customary thinking
C. Resistance to change
D. Neuroticism
293. The ability to develop new ideas and to discover new ways of looking at
problems and opportunities is called:
B) Innovation.
C) Creativity.
294. The ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities to

enhance or to enrich people's lives is called:
B) Innovation.
C) Creativity.
295. The left brain is guided by:

- 50 -
296. The right brain is guided by:
D) Logical thinking.
297. Which of the following is not one of the ways entrepreneurs can stimulate
their own creativity and encourage it among their workers?
A) Provide creativity training.
B) Encourage curiosity.
C) View challenges as problems.
D) Develop a corporate culture that both fosters and rewards creativity.
298. The ability to see the differences among various data and events is called:
D) Illumination.
299. ________ thinking is the ability to see similarities and ________ thinking
is the ability to see differences among various data and events.
A) Divergent; convergent
B) Convergent; divergent
C) Convergent; transformational
D) None of the above
300. ________ is a process in which a small group of people interacts to produce

A) Groupthink
B) Mind-mapping
C) Brainstorming
D) Prototyping
301. ________ is a graphical technique that encourages thinking on both sides

of the brain, visually displays the various relationships among the ideas, and
A) Brainstorming
B) Mind-mapping
C) Prototyping
D) Groupthink
- 51 -
people

descriptions
A. appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules.
B. learn to judge and accept their own feelings.
C. recognize that there is usually one best answer to a problem.
D. both appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules and learn to judge and
accept their own feelings.

306. Kerry is working on a process in which she incorporates the

characteristics, attitudes, beliefs, and values from individuals in the groups to
which she belongs. This is an example of:
A. socialization
B. enculturation
C. acculturation
D. identification

A. openness
B. agreeableness
C. extroversion
- 52 -
308. According to Gordon Allport, ________ is defined as the dynamic

organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that
determine his unique adjustments to his environment.
A) Cognitive dissonance
B) Heredity
C) Personality
D) Descent
309. One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly
everything a person does is a:
a. Global Trait
b. Cardinal Trait
c. Specific trait
d. Central Trait
310. Talkative vs. silent; frank, open vs. secretive; adventurous vs. cautious;
sociable vs. reclusive these traits describe which dimension of personality?
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Extraversion
D. Culture

a. Assumes that people are motivated by unconscious emotional conflicts
b. Assumes that each individual has stable personality characteristics
c. Assumes that people’s thoughts and beliefs are central to personality
d. Assumes that people have an innate tendency to become self-actualized.

a. primary group.
b. social group.
c. public group.
d. service group.
313. What is comparative reasoning?

A. the process of culling the most viable options for a solution from a pool of both
good and bad options
B. the process of placing two elements in front of you and creating a pro/con list for
each of them
- 53 -
C. the process of comparing one expert’s opinion on a subject to another expert’s
opinion on the same subject
D. the process of using what is more familiar to make interpretations,
explanations, or inferences about what is less familiar
314. _____ is the capacity of comparisons to project consequences that have the
potential to be shown to be false, inapplicable, or unacceptable.
A. Conjecture
B. Negativity
C. Analysis
D. Testability
315. What is another term for comparative reasoning?

A. Pro-and-con reasoning
B. Give-and-take conjecturing
C. This-is-like-that thinking
D. Start-from-square-one analysis


318. When engaging in ideological reasoning, the argument maker

A. must have reasons to back up the ideological premises.
B. allows experts to attempt to sway their opinion.
C. takes the ideological premises on faith.
D. uses science to convince his or her listeners.
319. Which of the following statements about ideological reasoning is true?

A. It is the same as comparative reasoning.
B. It is widely used.
C. It cannot be used to discuss ethical matters.
D. It is illegal.
- 54 -
A. mutable premise.
321. Empirical reasoning is also called

A. reasoned thinking.
B. lateral thinking.
C. top-down thinking.
D. bottom-up thinking.
322. Which of the following adjectives describes empirical reasoning?

A. deductive
B. illogical
C. inductive
D. closed
323. The empirical reasoning process begins with

A. conclusions based on personal associations with various factors.
B. premises describing interpersonally verifiable experiences.
C. reasons given in support of unverifiable premises.
D. arguments based on ideological components.
324. Scientific researchers would agree that

A. ideological reasoning yields more accurate results than comparative or empirical
reasoning.
B. scientists should rely less on the scientific process and more on heuristics in order
to save time.
C. science progresses when the entire scientific community can evaluate the
merits of a scientific investigation.
D. comparative reasoning is used frequently in science, especially when testing
hypotheses.
325. Mary is a strong critical thinker. She knows that

A. not all deductive reasoning is ideological.
B. all deductive reasoning is ideological.
C. all inductive reasoning is empirical.
D. not all inductive reasoning is empirical.
- 55 -
326. Kyle is a scientist. He insists that scientific investigation is inductive, which
means that
A. there are always two conclusions for each problem.
B. the first conclusion reached is the correct one.
C. the conclusions reached are probabilistic.
D. the comparisons made should be ideological in nature.



probably true
probably false
unreasonable

- 56 -
332. Which of the following statements about premises is true?
A. They should never be contextually assumed.
B. They are only explicitly asserted.
C. They can be explicit or implicit.
D. They are never implicitly constructed.
333. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in

an international market before making a major commitment?
a) Merger
c) Joint venture
d) Majority interest Question
334. Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship
b) Entrepreneurship
335. Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are

b) Role model
d) Support system Question
336. SBA stands for:

a) Small business accountants
b) Small business administration
c) Small business adequacy
d) Small business advisors
337. What is the sixth critical thinking skill?

A. creativity
B. self-regulation
C. common sense
D. stereotyping
- 57 -
339. Louise’s children, Bob and Lola, are in a fight. Bob thinks it was Lola’s
fault and vice versa. As a disciplined critical thinker, Louise will
A. listen to both sides of the story.
B. trust her gut instinct.
C. have her children sort it out.
D. call her best friend to help her.
340. You are giving your colleague advice on how to be a stronger critical
thinker. What would you say about truth-seeking and self-regulation?
A. Self-regulation is only important if you are typically wrong.
B. Truth-seeking is an unattainable goal in most situations.
C. Truth-seeking and self-regulation are key to making good decisions.
D. Truth-seeking and self-regulation are optional in most cases.

your life
them on your own
342. According to the chapter, which of the following statements about social
relationships is true?
A. Social relationships are unnecessary.
B. Social relationships are black and white.
C. Social relationships are complex.
D. Social relationships are disrespectful.

- 58 -
344.Why are analytical decision-making skills now viewed as more important
than interpersonal skills for an organization's managers?
A. because personable and friendly managers are always the least effective
B. because interpersonal skills are never important in organizations
C. because analytical-oriented managers tend to be flashier and less methodical
D. because analytical-oriented managers produce better results over time

346.Groupthink in a decision-making environment occurs when

A. group members accept the same timeframe for problem solving without
complaining.
B. group members all accept a course of action without thinking for
themselves.
C. group members all use the same analytic tools without having a choice.
D. group members are all working together for the firm's success.
347.For those executives who do not have the time to go through lengthy
reports, the best alternative is the
A. last page of the report.
B. raw data that informed the report.
C. charts in the report.
D. executive summary.
348.Which type of visualization tool can be very helpful when a data set
contains location data?
A. geographic map
B. tree map
C. bar chart
D. highlight table
349. Which of these two words essentially mean the same thing?
A. reason, argument
B. statement, fact
C. speaker, idea
D. claim, conclusion
- 59 -
probably true
probably false
unreasonable

A. tautological.
B. negative.
C. open-minded.
D. closed-spirited.
352. Kaitlin is five, Josh is eighteen, Mary is twenty-five and Sue is sixty.
According to the book, which of these people is most trusting of authorities?
A. Sue
B. Josh
C. Mary
D. Kaitlin
353. Sound” is a synonym for

A. tautology.
B. uncomplicated.
C. noise.
D. healthy.

355. “If you don’t vote for X politician, millions of babies will die as a result of
his prochoice stance.” This is an example of
A. an appeal to emotion.
B. a reasonable request.
C. a heuristic approach.
D. a truthful statement.
- 60 -
356. Which of the reasons given below is most similar in style to this one:
“Everybody thinks the blue jerseys look better than the green ones.”
A. If you choose the green jerseys, people will stop coming to your games.
B. Baseball tickets are more expensive than basketball tickets.
C. It’s widely known that most people prefer Coke over Pepsi.
D. Don’t believe anything Marcus says because he’s a liar.
357. What is the definition of a deductively valid argument?

A. an argument such that it is possible for all of its premises to be true and its
conclusion to be false
B. an argument such that it is possible for all of its premises to be false and its
conclusion to be true
C. an argument such that it is impossible for all of its premises to be true and
its conclusion to be false
D. an argument such that it is impossible for all of its premises to be false and its
conclusion to the true
358. Which of the following statements about logic is true?

A. The laws of logic can be suspended at times.
B. None of us can suspend the laws of logic.
C. Only experts can suspend the laws of logic.
D. The laws of logic are not really lawing.
359. What is an inductive argument?

A. an argument that presents its conclusion as true given the truth of the premises
B. an argument that deconstructs its conclusion based on the falsehood of its
premised
C. an argument that presents its conclusion as probabilistic given the truth of
the premises
D. an argument that constructs itself naturally given the falsehood of its claims
360. Terms like “brother” and “greater than” are examples of

A. marked terms.
B. transitive terms.
C. reflexive terms.
D. relational terms.
361. “Criminals use the telephone. My mother uses the telephone. My mother
is a criminal.” Assuming the mother is not a criminal, this is an example of
A. true causality.
B. correct deduction.
- 61 -
C. marked terminology.
D. false classification.
362. Emily is a strong critical thinker. When she hears the statement “Maggie
is Susan’s biological sister,” she
A. calls in an expert to confirm the statement.
B. questions the term “sister.”
C. does not take the statement at face value.
D. infers that they have the same mother.

B. original claim.
D. facts put forth.

365. What is the definition of a coincidence?

A. One event following another event
B. Two planned events happening at the same time
C. Two events happening together by chance
D. One event happening a week before another
366. What is the difference between a real dilemma and a false dilemma?
A. In a real dilemma, all choices are bad. In a false dilemma, one of the choices
is not as bad as we initially imagined it to be.
B. In a real dilemma, someone must die. In a false dilemma, death can easily be
avoided.
C. In a real dilemma, you have to make a choice. In a false dilemma, you can avoid
making a decision altogether.
D. In a real dilemma, all choices are very good. In a false dilemma, at least one of
the choices is really bad.
367. As an approach to resolving conflict during team activities, a ________

proposes
- 62 -
that both sides can satisfy their goals (at least to some extent) and seeks to
minimize losses for everyone involved.
A) lose-win strategy
B) Lose-lose strategy
C) win-win strategy
D) Break-even strategy
368. In participative management

A) Employees are involved in the company's decision making.
B) All top-level managers participate in profit sharing.
C) Teams are discouraged in favor of individual achievement.
D) An authoritarian management model is used.
369. Which of the following is one of the advantages of using cross-functional

teams for problem solving?
A) They have a long-life span and can become part of the organization
B) The diversity of opinions and experiences can lead to better decisions
C) They can lead to increased participative management
D) There can be increased harmony as decisions are over-simplified
370. Which of the following is one of the disadvantages of teams?

A) Protected information and knowledge
B) Diversity of views
C) Hidden agendas
D) Decreased acceptance of a solution
371. Social networking technologies can help a company create virtual

communities of practice that
A) Allow employees to develop new workplace skills.
B) Encourage disgruntled employees t their frustrations.
C) Discourage socializing so that individual employees can get their work done.
D) Link employees to others with similar professional interests throughout the
organization.
A) Writing
B) Listening
C) Organizing
D) Speaking
- 63 -
A) Decoding
B) Remembering
C) Receiving
D) Evaluating
375. Task-oriented behavior ________

A) focuses on the accomplishment of an undertaking in an efficient, reliable
way
B) is concerned with increasing trust, cooperation, and identification with the team
C) prioritizes and encourages innovation in the workplace
D) emphasizes consultation and joint decisions

A) visionary leadership
B) aspirational leadership
C) participative leadership
D) empowering leadership
377. Making self-sacrifices for the team or organization is associated with ---
leadership.
A) empowering
B) participative
C) democratic
D) transformational
378. Technical skills of leadership refer to:

A. a leader's ability to make decisions with sound reasoning
B. a leader's knowledge about an organization and job-related activities
C. a leader's ability to understand the internal and external environments
D. a leader's ability to interact with others
- 64 -
379. Little attention was paid to behaviors directly concerned with _____ in
early leadership theory and research.
A) Encouraging and facilitating change
B) Accomplishing the task in an efficient and reliable way
C) Increasing mutual trust
D) Improving job satisfaction and identification with the team
380. The purpose of ________ is to ensure efficient organization of the work

unit, coordination of activities, and effective utilization of resources.
A) Planning
B) Clarifying
C) Monitoring
D) Problem solving
381. Key components of ________ leadership include mentoring, coaching, and

providing developmental opportunities.
A) Supportive
B) Developing
C) Clarifying
D) Recognizing
382. In Western thinking, the average one-year-old is able to say his or her first
intelligible word this is an example of:
A. a developmental milestone
B. a developmental norm
C. a developmental accomplishment
D. the first cognitive skill to appear in infancy
383. Which of the following components IS NOT part of the developmental

niche?
A. the psychological characteristics of caregivers
B. the physical and social settings in which children develop
C. developmental norms the child should be able to accomplish
D. child care and child rearing practices
384. Compared to many other regions, emerging adulthood seems to be

particularly prolonged in Europe. Why?
A. Relaxed parenting practices
B. Poor economic conditions
C. Long-standing philosophical views about what constitutes adulthood
Widely available government support for things like education and housing
- 65 -
385. People in their mid-twenties to mid-forties are considered to be in:
A. Prepubescence
B. Senescence
C. Emerging adulthood
D. Early adulthood
A. developing their potential to think.
B. developing new skills.
C. learning to seek the right answer to a problem.
D. developing their potential to think and developing new skills.
387. A creative behavior is an act that is:

A. performed only once by an individual.
B. valued only by the doer and not by others.
C. original for the individual on a one-time basis.
D. original for the individual and valued by that person or others.

1. The drawback with problem inventory analysis is that it cannot be used to test a
new product idea. (F)
2. Unlike the focus group, problem inventory analysis focuses on specific problems
in a general product category. (T)
3. The entrepreneur's ability to recognize a business opportunity is a result of his or
her knowledge and experience. (T)
(T)
5. Convergent thinking usually results in many answers or solutions to a question or
problem. (F)
6. Beliefs, judgments, and opinions are the same thing. (T)
7. All opinions are subjective. (F)
8. All factual claims are true. (F)
10. Individuals who prefer steady pay and a normal nine-to-five work schedule also
tend to gravitate toward self-employment. (F)
11. Personality characteristics are not useful in predicting who will be a successful
entrepreneur. (T)
- 66 -
12. The primary reason most people go into business for themselves is to gain the
respect of others. (F)
relationships with others, work well in teams, and manage conflict. (F)
in that goal. (T)
16. Creative insight refers to the ability to ask the right questions. (T)
17. The organizational ability to create the future is called focus. (F)
18. A national attitude is an attitude that recognizes both the diversity of its work
force and the diversity of technology. (F)
19. Determining the ethically correct way to behave is especially difficult in a global
economy because different cultures have different perspectives on certain ethical
issues. (T)
20. Nonverbal messages, such as posture, are most important when they convey a
different emotion than the spoken message. (T)
21. A person's motivational value system is a blend of the three primary motives of
nurturing, dominating, and autotomizing. (F)
22. The least important thing to realize about creativity is that only very few people
possess it. (T)
(T)
24. Convergent thinking usually results in many answers or solutions to a question
or problem. (F)
25. Creativity involves the two processes of discovering and producing. (F).
26. Research on creativity has shown that the best motivations for creativity are
structure and organization. (F).
27. An example of “Capital C” creativity is the invention of the light bulb. (T)
28. Creativity with older children involves more of an emphasis on the criteria of
original thinking. (F)
THIRD: SHORT ESSAY’S QUESTIONS

(1). Explain how Critical Thinking is Reflective?
Critical thinking is different from just thinking. It is metacognitive—it involves
thinking about your thinking. If I enter a social studies course where one of the topics
to be studied is conformity, it is likely that I already have views about conformity:
what it is, how prevalent it is, and what influences people to conform or not conform.
- 67 -
I have these views even if I haven’t formulated them explicitly for myself. Each view
is an example of thinking, but not necessarily an example of critical thinking.
Critical thinking starts once I reflect on my thinking: Why do I have these views
about conformity? Since my views are really conclusions I have drawn, what
evidence are they based on? How do other people look at conformity differently?
What are their views based on? How can I tell which are more accurate, their views
or mine?
(2). Explain how does Critical Thinking involve Standards?
Critical thinking involves having my thinking measure up to criteria. I can think
about something accurately or inaccurately. I can use evidence that is relevant to an
issue or irrelevant, or somewhere in between. When I reason out and try to
understand the main ideas in a course I’m taking, I can do so on a superficial level
or I can try to understand them deeply, trying to get at the heart of the matter.
Accuracy, relevance, and depth are examples of standards or criteria. The words
critical and criteria come from the same root, meaning “judgment.” For my thinking
to be critical thinking, I have to make judgments that meet criteria of reasonableness.
(3). Explain how Critical Thinking is Authentic?

Critical thinking, at its heart, is thinking about real problems. Although you can
reason out puzzles and brain-teasers, the essence of critical thinking comes into play
only when you address real problems and questions rather than artificial ones.
Critical thinking is far more about what you actually believe or do. It is about good
judgment.
(4). Why we consider Critical Thinking Involves Being Reasonable?

There are no surefire rules of reasoning. That is, no rules are so foolproof that they
guarantee your reasoning will be successful. There are guidelines, even “rules”
sometimes, but these always need to be followed thoughtfully, not by rote. You need
to apply them with sensitivity to context, goals, practical limitations—a whole host
of realities. For thinking to be critical thinking, it must be reasonable thinking.
Compare critical thinking to driving a car. There are rules for good driving but
merely following the rules won’t make you a good driver. To be a good driver you
have to follow the rules mindfully.
(5). What are the main Three Parts of Critical Thinking?

Full-fledged critical thinking involves three parts.
First, critical thinking involves asking questions. It involves asking questions that
need to be asked, asking good questions, questions that go to the heart of the matter.
Critical thinking involves noticing that there are questions that need to be addressed.
- 68 -
Second, critical thinking involves trying to answer those questions by reasoning
them out. Reasoning out answers to questions is different from other ways of
answering questions. It is different from giving an answer we have always taken for
granted but never thought about.
Third, critical thinking involves believing the results of our reasoning. Critical
thinking is different from just engaging in a mental exercise. When we think through
an issue critically, we internalize the results. We don’t give merely verbal agreement:
we actually believe the results because we have done our best to reason the issue out
and we know that reasoning things out is the best way to get reliable answers.
Furthermore, when we think critically through a decision about what to do in a
situation, then what follows the reasoning is not just belief, but action: Unless
something unforeseen occurs, we end up taking the action we concluded was most
reasonable.
(6). Explain why does Creative Thinking begin with Asking the
Questions?
Critical thinking begins with asking questions. If a teacher assigns a homework
problem to solve, a good question to ask is “How can I best solve this problem?”
Often, though, students, don’t ask this question at all. Instead, they just jump in and
try to solve the problem by any method that springs to mind. Thinking critically
about solving a problem, in contrast, begins with asking questions about the problem
and about ways to address it:
1. What are some alternative ways of solving the problem assigned?
2. What is a good way to begin?
3. Do I have all the information I need to start solving the problem?
4. What is the purpose behind the problem?
5. Can the problem be solved? Does it even make sense?
All of these questions are relevant when a problem is assigned.
Here are some questions that teachers list as ones that students do not ask, but should
be asking, in their courses:
1. How does what I learn in this course relate to my own experience?
2. How can I use what I learn here in my own life?
3. Can I think up my own examples?
4. How does this subject matter relate to other courses I am taking?
5. What is the evidence behind this?
6. How do the topics in this course fit together?
7. What is the purpose of the course?
8. Why?
(7). Clarify the possible Linkages between Critical Thinking
and Problem Solving
- 69 -
Critical Thinking Goes Beyond Problem Solving. A lot of critical thinking consists
of problem solving. You may want to research and figure out the major causes for
the amount of violent crime in the United States, or wonder why there are so any
earthquakes in California. On a personal level, you may want to improve your study
skills or social life. These are all problems to be solved, or, if “solved” is too strong
a word, they are problems to be addressed and figured out as well as possible.
Critical thinking, however, goes beyond problem solving. Some questions or
situations are too big or too ill-formed to be classified as problems still less as
problems to be solved. Critical thinking is different because it begins with posing
the problem in the first place.
(8). How Deep Is Our Need for Critical Thinking?
One of the great things about critical thinking is its versatility. It is valuable at all
levels of our thinking.
At the Level of Practical Decision Making: Critical thinking helps when we are
simply trying to deal with ordinary tasks: how to study more efficiently, find a
strategy when we are stuck in an airport, decide what kind of clothes to buy. This is
thinking about the means to use to accomplish our goals. It is problem solving of the
most authentic kind.
At the Level of Meaningfulness: Learning to think critically also helps people deal
with the much larger issues of living their life. Critical thinking frees people, the
way nothing else really can, from habits of thinking they are often ruled by. Not
completely of course, but substantially. Critical thinking opens up other viable
courses of action that leave people far more fulfilled, paths that otherwise might
never occur to them.
At the Level of Concepts: We think in terms of concepts, and these inevitably shape
our life to a considerable degree. Very often the concepts we think in terms of are
ones we accept uncritically. We may understand what love is from movies and from
the way we feel. We may understand what freedom is simply by having heard the
word over and over and making vague associations with it.
(9). What are the Synonyms of Creative thinking?

To think critically is to examine ideas, evaluate them against what you already know
and make decisions about their merit. The aim of critical thinking is to try to maintain
an ‘objective’ position. When you think critically, you weigh up all sides of an
argument and evaluate its strengths and weaknesses. So, critical thinking skills
entail:
1) Actively seeking all sides of an argument
2) Testing the soundness of the claims made
3) Testing the soundness of the evidence used to support the claims.
- 70 -
(10). What is the aim of thinking critically?
Because your aim when thinking critically is to respond objectively to what you are
reading or thinking through, you need to keep an open mind and be prepared to
question the author’s claims. How you do this and the questions you ask will vary
depending on what – and why – you are reading (for example, you might be
responding to an assignment question). As a result, you must always be prepared to
adapt your approach according to the demands of the material.
(11). Why is critical thinking so important especially in the

College?
For an author, writing academically means that she or he must be able to defend an
argument against charges such as bias, lack of supporting evidence or
incompleteness. Critical thinking enables you as a reader to assess the evidence in
what you are reading and identify spurious or illogical reasoning. Thinking critically
will also help you to create strong arguments of your own. This means that you will
be able to present and justify any claims you make based on the evidence you have
evaluated.
Developing critical thinking skills will allow you to develop more reasoned
arguments for your assignments, projects and examination questions. You will be
able to use and draw on evidence to justify your own arguments and ideas. In
addition, you will be able to synthesize your own thoughts.
(12). What are the Relationships among Objectives, Problem

Solving, and Decision Making?
Problem Exists whenever objectives are not being met. What is happening vs. what
is wanted to happen?
Problem Solving: The process of taking corrective action to meet objectives.
Decision Making: The process of selecting an alternative course of action that will
solve a problem. First decision is whether to take corrective action.
(13) WHAT IS CREATIVE THINKING?

1) Critical thinking has been described as reasonable reflective thinking focused
on deciding what to believe or do. (Ennis, 1993)
2) No one always acts purely objectively and rationally.
3) We connive for selfish interests.
4) We gossip, boast, exaggerate, and equivocate.
5) It is "only human" to wish to validate our prior knowledge, to vindicate our
prior decisions, or to sustain our earlier beliefs.
- 71 -
6) In the process of satisfying our ego, however, we can often deny ourselves
intellectual growth and opportunity.
7) We may not always want to apply critical thinking skills, but we should have
those skills available to be employed when needed.
(14) WHY IS CREATIVE THINKING IMPORTANT?

Critical thinking enables us to recognize a wide range of subjective analyses of
otherwise objective data, and to evaluate how well each analysis might meet our
needs. Facts may be facts, but how we interpret them may vary.
(15) WHAT ARE THE MAIN CHARECTERISTICS OF

CREATIVE THINKING?
Creative thinking includes a complex combination of skills. According to Paul and
Elder (2006) of the Foundation for Critical Thinking, the standards are: accuracy,
precision, relevance, depth, breadth, logic, significance and fairness.
Critical thinkers display the following characteristics:
1) They are by nature skeptical. They approach texts with the same skepticism
and suspicion as they approach spoken remarks.
2) They are active, not passive. They ask questions and analyze.
3) They consciously apply tactics and strategies to uncover meaning or assure
their understanding.
4) They do not take an egotistical view of the world.
5) They are open to new ideas and perspectives.
6) They are willing to challenge their beliefs and investigate competing
evidence.
(16) WHAT ARE THE MAIN CHARECTERISTICS OF

NON-CREATIVE THINKING?
1) By contrast, passive, non-critical thinkers take a simplistic view of the world.
2) They see things in black and white, as either-or, rather than recognizing a
variety of possible understandings.
3) They see questions as yes-or-no with no subtleties.
4) They fail to see linkages and complexities.
5) They fail to recognize related elements.
6) Non-critical thinkers take an egotistical view of the world.
7) They take their facts as the only relevant ones.
8) They take their own perspectives as the only sensible ones.
9) They take their goals as the only valid ones.
- 72 -
(17) EXPLAIN SOME CREATIVE THINKING
STRATEGIES
1. Reflection - engage in the reflective process.
2. Rationality
1) rely on reason rather than emotion,
2) require evidence, ignore no known evidence, and follow evidence where it
leads,
3) be concerned more with finding the best explanation than being right, and
4) Analyze apparent confusion and ask questions.
3. Self-awareness
1) weigh the influences of motives and bias, and
2) Recognize our own assumptions, prejudices, biases, or point of view.
4. Honesty
To think critically we must recognize emotional impulses, selfish motives,
disreputable purposes, or other modes of self-deception.
5. Open-mindedness
1) evaluate all reasonable inferences,
2) consider a variety of possible viewpoints or perspectives,
3) remain open to alternative interpretations,
4) accept a new explanation, model, or paradigm because it explains the evidence
better, is simpler, or has fewer inconsistencies or covers more data,
5) accept new priorities in response to a reevaluation of the evidence or
reassessment of our real interests, and
6) Do not reject unpopular views out of hand.
6. Discipline
1) be precise, meticulous, comprehensive, and exhaustive,
2) engage in active listening and reading practices
3) resist manipulation and irrational appeals, and
4) Avoid snap judgments.
7. Judgment
1) recognize the relevance and/or merit of alternative assumptions and
perspectives,
2) Recognize the extent and weight of evidence.
(18) WHAT ARE THE LEVELS OF INTELLECTUAL

BEHAVIOR?
1. Knowledge
You demonstrate knowledge - things are memorized without necessarily having a
full understanding e.g., listing, labelling, identifying, defining….)
- 73 -
2. Understanding
You understand information enough to describe it in your own words e.g. explaining,
summarizing, describing, illustrating.
3. Application
You find some practical use for the information and use it to solve problems e.g.
using, applying, solving.
4. Analysis
You break complex ideas into parts and see how the parts work together e.g.,
analyzing, categorizing, seeing patterns, comparing, contrasting, separating,
(re)organizing parts. 5. Synthesis
You make connections with things you already know e.g., creating, designing,
inventing, developing, and hypothesizing.
6. Evaluation
You judge something’s worth e.g., judging, recommending, convincing, critiquing,
justifying.
(19) WHAT IS MEANT BY CREATIVE THINKING

SKILL?
1) Creative thinking is an invaluable skill for college students. It’s important
because it helps you look at problems and situations from a fresh perspective.
2) Creating thinking is a way to develop novel or unorthodox solutions that do
not depend wholly on past or current solutions.
3) It’s a way of employing strategies to clear your mind so that your thoughts
and ideas can transcend what appear to be the limitations of a problem.
4) Creative thinking is a way of moving beyond barriers.
5) As a creative thinker, you are curious, optimistic, and imaginative. You see
problems as interesting opportunities, and you challenge assumptions and
suspend judgment. You don’t give up easily. You work hard.
6) Creative thinking is about applying imagination to finding a solution to your
learning task.
(20) DISCUSS BUSINESS PROCESS RE-ENGINEERING

AS CREATIVE THINKING TECHNIQUE
This process works well as a design tool (and also as a problem analysis tool. The
last question of each group (…should…?) makes us consider the broader design
options. The last group of questions (How…?) encourages us to focus on the method.
It’s important that the what group of questions is asked first, and the How group of
questions is asked last.
1. What?
What is being done? (What is being achieved?)
- 74 -
Why is it necessary?
What else could be done?
What else should be done?
2. Where?
Where is it being done?
Why there?
Where else could it be done?
Where else should it be done?
3. When?
When is it done?
Why then?
When else could it be done?
When else should it be done?
4. Who?
Who does it?
Why this person/group?
Who else could do it?
Who else should do it?
5. How?
How is it done?
Why this way?
How else could it be done?
How else should it be done?
GOOD LUCK WITH BEST WISHES OF

SUCCESSFULNESS
DR. SAIED ABDEL ALEM EMARA
- 75 -
Delta University for Science and Technology
Faculty of Business Administration
FINAL EXAM
Department of Economics Date: JUNE 2021
Course title: CREATIVE THINKING Time: (60) Minutes
Code: (117) Semester: SPRING 2021
Level: University Requirement (GEN 402) Total Marks: 50 (Fifty)
‫االمتحان مكون من تسعة صفحات‬
Question: Choose the best possible answer for each of the following.
(50 Marks, 50 questions) Each Question = One degree
1. A combination of ______, _______, and ______ forms the habits of mind that
dispose a person toward critical thinking.
2. Mustafa wants to become a doctor. In this context, which of the following

would be a short-term goal for Mustafa?
A) Get a job as a medical practitioner
B) Take two classes a week in astrophysics
C) Get lessons in soft skills
D) Obtain a degree in medicine

of others?
4. _____ involves the process of constantly trying to update skills and learn new
ones.
-1-
A. Unfreezing
B. Stable freezing
C. Refreezing
D. Continuous learning
5. The purpose of ________ is to ensure efficient organization of the work unit,

A) Planning
B) Clarifying
C) Monitoring
D) Problem solving

on

A. mutable premise.
8. Emotional _____ refers to a situation in which emotions control our behavior,

causing us to react without thinking.
A. filtering
B. hijacking
C. blackmail
D. intelligence
A) Writing
B) Listening
C) Organizing
D) Speaking
skills?
-2-
A) Spend time thinking about our emotions
B) Not look at those things that cause a strong reaction
C) Avoid self-talk
D) Observe others’ actions

which we consider the difficulty to be resolved.
B. avoiding dealing with problems that seem too difficult or overwhelming.
your life.
them on your own.
12. Groupthink refers to

A) the willingness of individual group members to withhold contrary or unpopular
opinions, even when those objections are legitimate, and to favor majority
opinion.
B) the four-step decision-making process in groups.
C) software programs that help groups make decisions.
D) the basic rules that underlie a group's behavior and guide the group to make its
decisions.
13. Which of the following requires working together to meet complex

challenges and is a key skill in a wide variety of professions?
A) Collaboration
B) Committees
D) Groupthink
14. Which of the following best describes proactive behavior as a way to

successfully resolve conflict?
A) Have those involved in the conflict discuss issues on a regular basis
B) Encourage members to get feelings out in the open
C) Identify factual reasons for the source of the conflict
D) Deal with minor conflicts before they become major issues

-3-
16. Loud shouting coming from the next room or distorted formatting in an
email message are examples of-------- noise.
A. physical
B. psychological
C. semantic
D. physiological

A) It can grow and develop over time.
B) It is a good predictor of job performance.
C) It is a good predictor of happiness.
D) It is based on scores derived from tests.
18. When an organization links employee with a supplier or customer that

shares their interest, what type of network has been developed?
A) Knowledge organization
B) Community of practice
C) Intranet
D) Multimedia


A. attitudes
B. opinions
C. shared values
D. individual beliefs

-4-
A) Avoiding defensiveness and “going along with the crowd”
B) Avoiding multitasking
C) Understanding one’s working style
D) Finding ways to improve concentration
23.Which type of visualization tool can be very helpful when a data set contains
location data?
A. geographic map
B. tree map
C. bar chart
D. highlight table
24. _____ is our ability to understand general cues that may affect others
around us.
a) Self-awareness
b) Self-management
c) Social awareness
d) Optimism
25. Which of the following is the process of accurately understanding one's own
emotions as they occur and how they affect one's behavior and thought?
A) self-management
B) empathy
C) relationship management
D) self-awareness
26. Which of the following is an impact of high empathy on interpersonal

communication?
A) One controls emotional impulses that are not aligned with work and
relationship goals.
B) One directs conversations to topics that focus on the needs of others and self.
C) One is aware of triggers and related tendencies to say the wrong thing.
D) One spends a higher percentage of work conversations on work-related topics
with a focus on solutions.

A. tautological.
B. negative.
C. open-minded.
D. closed-spirited.
-5-
28. The left brain is guided by:

A) Knowing the rules of the organization.
B) Communicating the right message appropriately and effectively by choosing the
appropriate message channel.
C) Tricking people into thinking you know what you are talking about.
D) Using the appropriate message.
30. Which active listening skill involves demonstrating a learner mindset rather
than a judger mindset?
A. holding judgment
B. paying attention
C. reflecting
D. summarizing
31. ________ is a process in which a small group of people interacts to produce

A) Groupthink
B) Mind-mapping
C) Brainstorming
D) Prototyping
32. Which of the following situations would an extrovert prefer?

A) a quiet meeting with two friends
B) a loud party with a large group
C) time alone with a book
D) a work space in a library
33. Nouha is conducting experimental research in which she is looking at the

effect of type of music on intellectual development. What is the dependent
variable in this example?
A) type of music
B) intellectual development
C) the control groups
D) the experimental group
-6-
A. appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules.
B. learn to judge and accept their own feelings.
C. recognize that there is usually one best answer to a problem.
D. both appreciate themselves for being able to follow rules and learn to judge
and accept their own feelings.
35. ________ is a graphical technique that encourages thinking on both sides of

the brain, visually displays the various relationships among the ideas, and
A) Brainstorming
B) Mind-mapping
C) Prototyping
D) Groupthink
36. Absenteeism is higher in organizations that have

A) weak absence norms.
B) high amounts of presenteeism.
C) meager sick leave benefits.
D) high work-related stress.

D. decoding process
39. ________ represents the forces within a person that affect his or her
direction, intensity, and persistence of voluntary behavior.
A) Motivation
B) Personality
C) Norm
D) Ethics
-7-
A) Assumes that people are motivated by unconscious emotional conflicts
B) Assumes that each individual has stable personality characteristics
C) Assumes that people’s thoughts and beliefs are central to personality
D) Assumes that people have an innate tendency to become self-actualized.
41. Which of the following refers to the natural talents that help employees
learn specific tasks more quickly and perform them better?
A) persistence
B) direction
C) intensity
D) aptitude


A) primary group.
B) social group.
C) public group.
D) service group.


A) Relativism
B) Subjectivism
-8-
C) Emotivism
D) Individualism
47. Self-esteem is:

48. An attitude is:

A) our reaction to events and experiences in our environment that shape our
actions
B) our reaction to events that create emotions responses
C) a perspective present at birth
D) a perspective or belief that is not culture-specific

A) speculator
B) Mechanical
C) Attainable
D) Regulatory
A) Emotional intelligence
B) Diligence
C) Intelligence quotient
D) Self-image
COOD LUCK AND BEST WISHES OF SUCCESS

-9-

Combinepdf 2

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Combinepdf 2

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Combinepdf 2

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

-1-

DR. SAIED ABDEL – ALEM EMARA

The purpose of this TEST-BANK is not to measure your understandability of the

PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING PAGES BEFORE GETTING

DR. SAIED ABDEL-ALEM EMARA

What Is Creative Thinking?

The Importance of Creative Thinking

Creative thinking is also important for other reasons as the follows:

Business faculty at Delta University, therefore, believes that developing students’

2. What is the purpose of the outcomes window when considering solutions?

3. What is the term for creatively generating associations and connections

5. ________ is the ability to apply creative solutions to problems and

6. According to Ted Levitt, creativity is--------- new things.

7. According to Ted Levitt, innovation is ________ new things.

8. For entrepreneurs, simply having a great new idea is not enough;

9. Which one of the following is NOT a small business innovation enabler,

10. Some small businesses create innovations ________ in response to customer

11. Some small businesses create innovations ________ by spotting

12. Innovation is ________ when it creates market-changing, disruptive

13. More often, innovations are--------

14. The iPod is an example of a (n) ________ innovation.

17. Another word for vertical thinking is -------thinking.

18. The ------- brain processes information in a step-by-step fashion.

20. Which brain handles language, logic, and symbols?

22. Which one of the following is a barrier to creativity?

23. What is the definition of critical thinking?

24. Which of the following statements about critical thinking is true?

26. What is the definition of perception management?

27. What does self-regulation mean?

28. Poor critical thinking typically results in

29. Understanding the concept of process of judgment is directly related to

34. What is one of the characteristics of critical thinking in a free society?

35. In what way is critical thinking similar to playing an instrument? Both

36. Critical thinking thrives in an environment

40. Marlene is a college professor who is teaching a critical thinking course.

41. Some psychologists describe problem solving as a process of searching.

42. An ill-defined problem is one in which

46. A problem-solving heuristic is

47. Which of the following is NOT a heuristic used in problem solving?

49. A problem-solving set

52._____ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while _____

54. Compared to novices, chess experts are MORE likely to have

55. An 8-year-old child who scored like an average 10-year-old on an intelligence

57. ------is not desirable when brainstorming is in process.

59. Which of the following problems is ill-defined?

60. Which of the following is NOT true of the nine-dot problem?

63. Imagination is to creativity as:

64. A problem’s “initial state” refers to the

66. The first part of the creative process is:

68. Studies of analogy use indicate that participants

70. Participants’ use of “hill climbing” is evident in that

72. In some procedures, participants are helped by an interruption during their

73. Brainstorming groups should:

77. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by visualizing a problem

80. Creative synthesis is an important aspect of the _____ method of creative

81. Focus groups use which of the following methods?

85. the most important thing to realize about creativity is that:

86. Which of the following is NOT an explanation that is supported by evidence

88. Analogies are

52._ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while _