INSTA February 2024 Static Quiz Compilation

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
FEBRUARY 2024
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Table of Contents
1. POLITY ...............................................................................................................................................2
2. GEOGRAPHY .................................................................................................................................... 19
3. ECONOMY ....................................................................................................................................... 46
4. HISTORY........................................................................................................................................... 51
5. ENVIRONMENT ................................................................................................................................ 55
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INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. Polity
1) Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
1. When the Indian Constitution was being drafted, the ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in
the Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947.
2. Preamble is enforceable in a court of law.
3. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1976 replaced the words “sovereign democratic
republic” with “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 2 is incorrect.
A preamble serves as an introduction to a document and contains its basic principles and goals. When the Indian
Constitution was being drafted, the ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in the Objectives
Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947.
Additionally, the violation of any principle mentioned in the preamble cannot be a reason to go to court, meaning
the preamble is “non-justiciable” — however, judgments of courts can cite it as an additional factor in their
reasoning, given that it constitutes the spirit of the Constitution.
The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1976 when the Emergency was in place, replaced the
words “sovereign democratic republic” with “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”. It also changed
“unity of the nation” to “unity and integrity of the nation”.
2) Part IV of the Constitution of India covers a wide range of principles, including

1. Securing of equal justice and free legal aid to citizens
2. Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
3. Protection and improvement of the environment
4. Promotion of international peace and security
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Part IV (Articles 36-51) covers a wide range of principles, including (apart from the UCC), the securing of equal
justice and free legal aid to citizens (Art 39A), participation of workers in the management of industries (Art 43A),
organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry (Art 48), protection and improvement of the environment
and safeguarding of forests and wildlife (Art 48A), promotion of international peace and security (Art 51), etc.
3) Consider the following statements.

1. Indian Constitution can be described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’.
2. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede
from the federation.
3. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in Article 1 of the Constitution, where it describes India as a
‘Union of States’.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.

Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is
not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-
federal’ by K C Wheare.

1. The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the
executive power of the state extends.
2. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such
advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The power under Article 161 is exercisable in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state
extends. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 163), the binding nature
of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
5) Consider the following statements regarding the suspension of MLAs in the State Legislature.
1. The Constitution stipulates that the State Legislative Assembly may declare vacant the seat of a
member who is absent for 60 days without permission.
2. According to The Representation of the People Act, 1951, a bye-election for filling any vacancy shall be
held within a period of one year from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
3. During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their voice in the legislature.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Article 190(4) of the Constitution, stipulates that the House may declare vacant the seat of a member who is
absent for 60 days without permission.
Also, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, says any vacancy in the House has to be filled up through a by-
election within six months of its occurrence.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their voice in the legislature.

1. The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by Jawaharlal Nehru
2. The Constituent assembly was constituted in 1943 after the approval of the Cripps Proposals.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
MN Roy had put forth the idea of a Constituent assembly of India in 1934. Later the INC demanded it.
During the Second World War, this assertion for an independent Constituent Assembly formed only of Indians
gained momentum and this was convened in December 1946.
Between December 1946 and November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a constitution for independent
India.
7) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Objectives resolution’.

1. The resolution laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
2. This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
3. It missed out on the safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• In December, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid
down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
• It included the major values and ideals of sovereignty, republic, fundamental rights, directive principles, non-
interference etc.
• It sought to secure to ideals mentioned in the Preamble.
• It provided for adequate safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other
backward classes.
• This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual
shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the
present Constitution.
8) The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

1. Absence of external constraints
2. Conditions in which people can develop their talents
3. All decisions are made collectively
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: b)
Both the aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence of conditions in
which people can develop their talents — are important. A free society would be one which enables all its
members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.
In order to be free, an individual should be able to make decisions individually, with a support of collective
decision-making in which no one individual dominates the others.

1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objective Resolution.
2. The 44th constitutional amendment added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity to
preamble.
3. Preamble is a source of power to legislature.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only Statement 1 is correct.
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit
Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Preamble has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words—
socialist, secular and integrity.
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
10) The Indian model of government is also called as the “Westminster‟ model of government because
a) Indian constitution was modelled very closely on the lines of the British constitution
b) Indian constitution was made with the assistance of the British
c) The members of the parliamentary house are elected through adult franchise
d) India follows parliamentary form of government
Solution: d)
Westminster is a place in London where the British Parliament is located. It is often used as a symbol of the British
Parliament.
The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union government. It occupies a pre-eminent and central position in
the Indian democratic political system due to adoption of the parliamentary form of government, also known as
‘Westminster‘ model of government.
11) Right to free legal aid, Right to fair trial, Right to hearing and Right to speedy trial and are provided to citizens
under which of the following fundamental rights?
a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws
b) Right against exploitation
c) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
d) Right against arbitrary arrest and detention
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: c)
The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent cases. It has declared the
following rights as part of Article 21:
(1) Right to live with human dignity.
(2) Right to decent environment including pollution free water and air and protection against hazardous
industries.
(3) Right to livelihood.
(4) Right to privacy.
(5) Right to shelter.
(6) Right to health.
(7) Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
(8) Right to free legal aid.
(9) Right against solitary confinement.
(10) Right to speedy trial.
(11) Right against handcuffing.
(12) Right against inhuman treatment.
(13) Right against delayed execution.
(14) Right to travel abroad.
(15) Right against bonded labour.
(16) Right against custodial harassment.
(17) Right to emergency medical aid.
(18) Right to timely medical treatment in government hospital.
(19) Right not to be driven out of a state.
(20) Right to fair trial.
(21) Right of prisoner to have necessities of life.
(22) Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
(23) Right against public hanging.
(24) Right to hearing.
(25) Right to information.
(26) Right to reputation.
(27) Right of appeal from a judgement of conviction
(28) Right to social security and protection of the family
(29) Right to social and economic justice and empowerment
(30) Right against bar fetters
(31) Right to appropriate life insurance policy
(32) Right to sleep
(33) Right to freedom from noise pollution
(34) Right to electricity

1. Protection of elector’s identity is integral to free and fair elections and an arbitrary distinction between
a voter who casts and a voter who does not cast his vote is violative of Article 14.
2. In India, abstention from voting in general elections is protected as freedom of expression.
3. Systematic Voters Education for Electoral Participation is being implemented by the Union Ministry of
Law and Justice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The Supreme Court, in PUCL vs Union of India, 2013, (popularly known as the NOTA judgment) has held that
abstention from voting and negative voting are protected as freedom of expression — a fundamental right
(Article 19).
The ECI has consistently held and practised this by implementing its flagship programme called SVEEP (Systematic
Voters Education for Electoral Participation) since 2010.
In PUCL vs Union of India, the Court said: “Protection of elector’s identity and affording secrecy is integral to
free and fair elections and an arbitrary distinction between a voter who casts and a voter who does not cast his
vote is violative of Article 14. Thus, secrecy is to be maintained for both categories of persons.”

1. One of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) provides that the State shall make provision for
securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
2. Woman’s right to privacy, dignity, and bodily integrity are covered under Article 21 of the Constitution.
3. The University Grants Commission Regulations provide maternity or childcare leave for women
candidates enrolled in MPhil or PhD course.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Article 42 of the Constitution, forming part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), provides that the
“State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.”
In the 2009 case of “Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Admn,” the top court held that reproductive choices are
inherent to a woman’s right to privacy, dignity, and bodily integrity, which are covered under Article 21 of the
Constitution.
In 2021, the UGC issued a circular, which inserted provisions in the UGC Regulations, 2016, for providing “women
students” with maternity or childcare leave once in the entire duration of the MPhil or PhD course for up to 240
days.
14) The right to change one’s name or surname is a part of

1. right to life
2. right to freedom of speech and expression
3. right to equality
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The right to change one’s name or surname is a part of the right to life under Article 21, the High Courts of
Allahabad and Delhi recently said.
Allowing a man to change his name, the Allahabad HC on May 25 said the fundamental right to keep or change
one’s name is vested in every citizen under Articles 19(1)(a), 21, and 14 of the Constitution.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Although the right to change or keep one’s name is a fundamental right “by virtue of Article 19(1)(a) and Article
21”, it is not an absolute right and is subject to various reasonable restrictions, as the Allahabad High Court
clarified in Sameed Rao’s case.
However, the restrictions imposed by law on fundamental rights have to be fair, just, and reasonable, the court
said, citing the 2017 SC ruling in “K. S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India,” saying, “The inter-relationship between the
guarantee against arbitrariness and the protection of life and personal liberty operates in a multi-faceted plane.”
The procedure for the deprivation of such rights must be “fair, just, and reasonable”, the court said.
The court also highlighted the principle of proportionality as an “essential facet of the guarantee against arbitrary
state action,” since it ensures that the nature and quality of the right’s encroachment are not disproportionate to
the law’s purpose.

1. The Constitution of India refers to civil code only in its Directive Principles.
2. Implementation of Directive Principles is not mandatory and it cannot be enforced even by the courts.
3. The issue of personal laws falls in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution.
a) Only one
b Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Constitution refers to civil code only in its Directive Principles. It is critical to note that the Uniform Civil
Code was limited to Directive Principles. Implementation of Directive Principles is not mandatory. The court may
order to enforce Fundamental rights. But the Directive Principles of Article 44 of the Constitution cannot be
enforced even by the courts. It is essential to understand how much thought the founders of the Constitution put
into their decision.
The issue of personal laws falls in List III —the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
While subjects in the Union lists fall within the purview of the Parliament, states can legislate on subjects in the
State List.

1. Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines a “Money Bill” as one containing provisions dealing with
taxes, regulation of the government’s borrowing of money, and expenditure or receipt of money from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
2. A major difference between Financial bill and money Bill is that while the latter has the provision of
including the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations, the former does not make their inclusion mandatory.
3. While an ordinary Bill can originate in either house, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok
Sabha
4. Amendments relating to the reduction or abolition of any tax are exempt from the requirement of the
President’s recommendation.
a) Only One
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Article 110 defines a “Money Bill” as one containing provisions dealing with taxes, regulation of the government’s
borrowing of money, and expenditure or receipt of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, among others,
whereas Article 109 delineates the procedure for the passage of such a Bill and confers an overriding authority on
the Lok Sabha in the passage of Money Bills.
A major difference between money and Financial Bills is that while the latter has the provision of including the
Rajya Sabha’s (Upper House) recommendations, the former does not make their inclusion mandatory. The Lok
Sabha has the right to reject the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations when it comes to Money Bills.
What differentiates a Money Bill from any ordinary Bill or Financial Bill is that while an ordinary Bill can originate
in either house, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as laid down in Article 117 (1).
Additionally, no one can introduce or move Money Bills in the Lok Sabha, except on the President’s
recommendation. Amendments relating to the reduction or abolition of any tax are exempt from the
requirement of the President’s recommendation.
The two prerequisites for any financial Bill to become a Money Bill are that first, it must only be introduced in the
Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. Secondly, these bills can only be introduced on the President’s
recommendation.
17) According to Article 103 of the Constitution of India, if any question arises as to whether a member of either
House of Parliament has become subject to disqualifications mentioned under Article 102(1), the decision of
_________shall be final?
a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
c) President
d) Election Commission of India
Solution: c)
Article 103, which says that if any question arises as to whether any sitting Member has become subject to any of
the disqualifications mentioned under Article 102(1), the question shall be referred to the President whose
decision shall be final.
Before giving any decision on any such question, the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election
Commission and shall act according to such opinion

1. Members of Parliament are immune from legal proceedings for anything they say or any vote they
cast in Parliament or its committees.
2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empowers the President to act when
defamatory or unparliamentary words are used in parliamentary debate.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Constitutional Provisions regarding the use of offensive words in Parliament:

Constitutional
Description
Provision
Article 105(2) of MPs are immune from legal proceedings for anything they say or any vote
the Constitution they cast in Parliament or its committees.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Despite the legal immunity granted by Article 105(2), MPs are not entirely
Limitations on free to say anything within the House. Their speech is bound by the rules
Freedom of Speech and discipline of Parliament, which restricts the use of defamatory,
indecent, unparliamentary, or undignified language.
Rule 380 – Rule 380 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Handling Offensive Sabha empowers the Speaker to act when defamatory, indecent,
Language unparliamentary, or undignified words are used in debate.
Rule 381 outlines the process for handling expunged content. When words
Rule 381 – Marking are removed from the proceedings, they are replaced with asterisks, and an
Expunged Content explanatory footnote is added to indicate that the Chair ordered the
removal.

1. In a parliamentary form of democracy, the real power vests with the elected representatives of the
people.
2. The Governor, as an appointee of the President, is a titular head of the State.
3. The Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers save in areas where the
Constitution gives him discretion.
4. The power to take decisions affecting the governance of the State or the nation is essentially entrusted
to the elected arm of the state.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Real power vests with the elected representatives of the people in a parliamentary form of democracy. The
Governor, as an appointee of the President, is a titular head of the State. The Governor acts on the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers save in areas where the Constitution gives him discretion. The power to take
decisions affecting the governance of the State or the nation is essentially entrusted to the elected arm of the
state.

1. The Constitution specifies that the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.
2. In India’s cabinet form of government, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
3. In India, since 1963, none of the no-confidence motions have been successful.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Constitution specifies that the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. Therefore, the PM
responds to the debate whenever MPs discuss a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha. The opposition parties’
move requires the PM to reply to the charges they bring during the discussion.
In India’s cabinet form of government, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. The
rules of Lok Sabha provide the mechanism of a no-confidence motion to test whether the Council of Ministers
continues to enjoy the confidence of the House.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Around Twenty-seven no-confidence motions have been moved so far. None of these motions has been
successful.

1. The practice of sealed cover that can be perused by the judge can be accepted only by the Supreme
Court and not by the lower courts, for seeking information from government agencies.
2. The information is asked in a sealed cover when disclosure of information linked to an ongoing
investigation could impede the investigation, and the disclosure of personal or confidential information could
violate an individual’s privacy or result in breach of trust.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
What does the expression “sealed cover jurisprudence” mean?

It is the practice followed by the Supreme Court (and sometimes lower courts as well) of seeking and accepting
information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be perused by the judges.
In broadly two circumstances: when information is connected to an ongoing investigation, and when it involves
personal or confidential information. The logic is that disclosure of information linked to an ongoing
investigation could impede the investigation, and the disclosure of personal or confidential information could
violate an individual’s privacy or result in breach of trust.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
22) Consider the following statements regarding judicial inquiry commission.

1. The central government can constitute a judicial inquiry commission by exercising its powers under the
Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952.
2. It acts as a substitute for a criminal trial before a court of law.
3. The government has a statutory obligation to publish the report of the commission.
How many of the above options are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The central government exercising its powers under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952,
constituted a judicial inquiry commission.
The government (either state or central) does not have a statutory obligation to publish the report of the
commission or act on their recommendations. A commission is not a substitute for a criminal trial before a court
of law.

1. Unlike judicial custody, police custody requires the accused to be furnished before the magistrate in 24
hours.
2. In judicial custody the investigating authority can interrogate a person, while in police custody officials
need the permission of the court for questioning.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Judicial custody means that the person detained by a judicial magistrate is lodged in central or state prison. In
some cases, investigation agencies may not seek police custody immediately and one of the reasons can be the
judicious use of the maximum of 15 days at their disposal. In some cases, courts may directly remand a person to
judicial custody, if the court concludes that there is no need for police custody or extension of police custody.
The judicial custody can extend up to 60 or 90 days as a whole, depending upon the maximum punishment
prescribed for the offense. According to Section 436A of CrPC, a person in judicial custody, who has served half
the maximum punishment that can be given for an offense, can apply for default bail, if their trial is pending.
How is judicial custody different from police custody?

Police custody refers to when a person is detained in a police station or lock-up when he is believed to have
committed a crime. However, unlike judicial custody, police custody requires the accused to be furnished before
the magistrate in 24 hours.
In police custody, the investigating authority can interrogate a person while in judicial custody, officials need
the permission of the court for questioning. In police custody, the person has the right to legal counsel, and the
right to be informed of the grounds which the police have to ensure. In judicial custody, the person is under the
responsibility of the magistrate, while the Prison Manual comes into the picture for the routine conduct of the
person.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ

1. Article 19 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all
citizens.
2. Under the Press Council of India (PCI) Act, of 1978, the Press Council has powers of a civil court to deal
with complaints regarding news agency or journalist.
3. The Press Council of India (PCI) Act, of 1978 protects journalists from being asked to disclose their
sources during the proceedings.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In India, there is no specific legislation that protects journalists from being asked to disclose their sources.
Article 19 of the Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all citizens.
Investigative agencies can issue notice to anyone, including journalists, to provide information. Like any citizen, a
journalist can be compelled to give evidence in Court. If she does not comply, the journalist can face charges of
Contempt of Court.
However, the absence of a specific law, it is often the discretion of a Court. Courts have in “public interest
asked journalists to disclose their sources.
Under the Press Council of India (PCI) Act, of 1978, the Press Council has powers of a civil court to deal with
complaints when a newspaper has “offended against the standards of journalistic ethics or public taste or that an
editor or working journalist has committed any professional misconduct.” However, the Council cannot force a
newspaper, news agency, journalist, or editor to reveal their sources during the proceedings.
25) Consider the following statements regarding e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project.
1. The e-Courts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by the Supreme
Court of India.
2. It aims at computerization of District and subordinate courts across India.
3. It is implemented in association with the Department of Justice.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Government has launched the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project in the country for
computerization of District and subordinate courts with the objective of improving access to justice using
technology. As part of the National e-Governance Plan, the project is under implementation since 2007 for ICT
development of the Indian Judiciary based on the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of
Information and Communication Technology in the Indian Judiciary”. E-Courts project is being implemented in
association with e-Committee Supreme Court of India and Department of Justice.

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The Indian Federation is a dual polity and dual judiciary.
2. The Supreme Court of India has held that the federalist nature of our country is part and parcel of the
basic structure of the Constitution.
3. Confederalism is when the States are supreme, and are coordinated by a weak centre.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The essential characteristic of federalism is the distribution of limited executive, legislative and judicial authority
among bodies which are coordinate with and independent of each other.
India is a union of States. The Supreme Court of India has held that the federalist nature of our country is part
and parcel of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Federalism is a midpoint between unitarism which has a supreme centre, to which the States are subordinate,
and confederalism wherein the States are supreme, and are merely coordinated by a weak centre.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar stated in the Constituent Assembly: “The Indian Federation though a dual polity has no dual
judiciary at all. The High Courts and the Supreme Court form one single integrated judiciary having jurisdiction
and providing remedies in all cases arising under the constitutional law, the civil law or the criminal law.

1. Federalism allows for the distribution of powers between the federal and state levels.
2. Asymmetric Federalism is based on unequal powers and relationship in political, administrative and
fiscal arrangements.
3. We do not see any form of Asymmetric Federalism in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
28) Consider the following statements regarding Governing Council of NITI Aayog.
1. The Governing Council embodies the objectives of cooperative federalism and provides a platform to
discuss inter-sectoral, inter-departmental and federal issues.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It comprises of Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislature.
4. The Governing Council meeting is held biannually since the inception of NITI Aayog.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India; Chief Ministers of all the
States and Union Territories with legislature; Lt Governors of other UTs; Ex-Officio Members; Vice Chairman, NITI
Aayog; Full-Time Members, NITI Aayog; and Special Invitees.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
It is the premier body tasked with evolving a shared vision of national priorities and strategies, with the active
involvement of States, in shaping the development narrative. The Governing Council, which embodies the
objectives of cooperative federalism, presents a platform to discuss inter-sectoral, inter-departmental and
federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.
So far, eight meetings of the Governing Council have been held under the chairmanship of the Hon'ble Prime
Minister.

1. Gram Sabha is a channel to include the less privileged section of society and ensure their participation
in the village level governance.
2. Construction and maintenance of roads within the village is the responsibility of the Gram Panchayat
(GP).
3. Gram Panchayats does not have the power to generate their own source of revenue and depends on
the grants provided by the State Government as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Since all eligible voters of the village can participate in the Gram Sabha, it is a channel to include the less
privileged section of society and ensure their participation in the village level governance wherein they can
advocate their developmental aspirations.
While connectivity of one village with another is beyond the jurisdiction of a GP, construction and maintenance
of roads within the village is the responsibility of the GP.
Most of the GPs are found reluctant to raise own source of revenue (OSR) in the selected sample. However, some
of the GPs are able to generate OSR in the form of tax or non-tax revenue by renting shops, house tax and clean
water fee.
30) Consider the following statements regarding Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA).
1. The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act mandates the State governments to implement
the same in the correct spirit, by issuing policy directives.
2. The Act envisions the empowerment of gram sabhas as the sole authority to govern various aspects of
the socio-economic lives of the tribal community in the respective jurisdiction.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
In spite of the PESA Act being passed in 1996, not one of the State governments concerned has implemented
the same in the correct spirit, by issuing policy directives. The Act envisions the empowerment of gram sabhas
as the sole authority to govern various aspects of the socio-economic lives of the tribal community in the
respective jurisdiction. The intent behind the Act was to bring people at the grassroots level face to face with
the government, and was aligned to the tribal way of life in historical and traditional terms.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
31) Which of the following conditions precedent for the successful working of Democracy?
1. Presence of an opposition
2. Avoidance of tyranny of majority over minority
3. Equality of law and administration
4. Functioning of moral order in society
5. Public conscience
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Solution: d)
Conditions Precedent for the Successful Working of Democracy:

• Absence of glaring inequalities
• Presence of an opposition
• Equality of law and administration
• Observance of constitutional morality
• Avoidance of tyranny of majority over minority
• A functioning of moral order in society
• Public conscience

1. The Fundamental Rights are legally enforceable in a court of law in India.
2. In the Minerva Mills judgment (1980), the Supreme Court held that, “Indian Constitution is founded on
the bed-rock of the balance between Part IV and Part V of the Constitution.
3. According to the Constitution, if a law is made to implement any of the Directive Principles, it cannot be
challenged on the ground of being violative of the Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• The Fundamental Rights lie at the heart of the Constitution, and are justiciable — that is, they are legally
enforceable in a court of law.
• In its landmark Minerva Mills judgment (1980), the Supreme Court held: “Indian Constitution is founded on
the bed-rock of the balance between Parts III (Fundamental Rights) and IV (Directive Principles). To give
absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution.”
• Article 31C says that if a law is made to implement any of the Directive Principles, it cannot be challenged
on the ground of being violative of the Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19.
33) Which of the following schedules of the constitution gives a clear constitutional recognition to the existence
of the system of “political parties” in India?
a) Third Schedule
b) Tenth Schedule
c) Seventh Schedule
d) Ninth Schedule
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: b)
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (which embodies the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent the evil or
mischief of political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits or other similar considerations.
Since the anti-defection provisions clearly mention the existence of political parties (and members being
disqualified on leaving its membership), the Tenth schedule recognizes the system of political parties.
34) Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.

1. All the members of Parliamentary Committees are elected by either house of the parliament.
2. They draw their authority from the Constitution of India.
3. Parliament has the authority to make rules to regulate the procedure and conduct of business of
Parliamentary Committees.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the
Speaker, and which works under the direction of the Speaker. It presents its report to the House or to the
Speaker.
• Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament. They draw their authority from Article
105, which deals with the privileges of MPs, and Article 118, which gives Parliament authority to make rules
to regulate its procedure and conduct of business.

1. The Constitution has specified the process and the role of Governor in electing the speaker of State
legislative assembly.
2. In State legislative assembly, Speaker decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
The Constitution has not assigned any role to the Governor in the election of the Speaker under Article 178,
which is exclusively the job of the House. It is only the House rule which says that the Governor shall fix the
date.
It is the Speaker who decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. Geography
1. Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth's
interior.
2. Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
3. Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magma that
has low viscosity.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat ﬂowing
from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates
what geologists call ‘magma’.
Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the
potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the
Earth’s crust is referred to as lava.
Why are some volcanic eruptions explosive and some not?

In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous.
Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of
the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace,
people typically have enough time to move out of the way.
If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-
up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an
explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.

1. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden
drop in barometric pressure.
2. Bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide.
2. All bomb cyclones are hurricanes.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A bomb cyclone is simply a storm that intensifies very rapidly. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface
rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
All bomb cyclones are not hurricanes. But sometimes, they can take on characteristics that make them look an
awful lot like hurricanes, with very strong winds, heavy precipitation and well-defined eye-like features in the
middle.
Hurricanes tend to form in tropical areas and are powered by warm seas. For this reason, they’re most common
in summer or early fall, when seawater is warmest.
In contrast, bomb cyclones don’t need balmy ocean waters in order to form. While they sometimes arise over the
ocean, they can also appear over land — as was the case with the cyclone that hit the northern Plains in March
2019.
Unlike hurricanes, bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide. They
rarely strike in summer, when the weather is generally warm across the Northern Hemisphere. Rather, they form
between late fall and early spring, when warm tropical air bumps up against frigid Arctic air.
3) Consider the following pairs:

Ocean Current Region
1. Oyashio Indian Ocean
2. Benguela North Atlantic Ocean
3. Peruvian Pacific Ocean
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Solution: c)
• Oyashio current – Pacific Ocean

• Benguela current – South Atlantic Ocean
4) Arrange the following from north to south.

1. Selvas
2. Patagonia
3. Pampas
4. Campos
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1-4-3-2
b) 4-1-2-3
c) 4-1-3-2
d) 1-4-2-3
Solution: a)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
5) India presently has which of the following research stations at Antarctica?

1. Maitri
2. Himadri
3. Bharati
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Option 2 is incorrect.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Bharati is a permanent Antarctic research station commissioned by India. It is India's third Antarctic research
facility and one of two active Indian research stations, alongside Maitri. India's first committed research
facility, Dakshin Gangotri, is being used as a supply base.
Himadri is India's permanent Arctic research station located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway. It is located at the
International Arctic Research base, Ny-Ålesund.

1. A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
2. When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to
the other.
3. Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs
on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes?

The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis
because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.”
The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.

1. El Niño years in India have witnessed extreme heat and below normal rainfall levels during monsoon.
2. Intense hurricanes and cyclones have frequently occurred in the Atlantic Ocean and the Bay of Bengal
during La Nina years.
3. La Nina years are known to favour India’s Northeast monsoon.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
El Niño years in India have witnessed extreme heat and below normal rainfall levels during monsoon, even
though El Niño might not be the only factor or even have direct links to them. In 2014, a El Niño year, India
received 12 per cent deficient rainfall from June to September.
On the other hand, La Nina years are known to favour the Indian summer monsoon.
El Niño has been associated with rising heatwaves and extreme temperatures, such as in parts of the US, Europe
and China recently.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
India’s Northeast monsoon rainfall remained subdued during past La Niña events, but the 2021 monsoon remains
an exception in recent years.
Intense hurricanes and cyclones have frequently occurred in the Atlantic Ocean and the Bay of Bengal during La
Nina years.
8) The location of the thermal equator is not identical to that of the geographic Equator because of which of the
following factors?
a) Tropospheric convection
b) Level of insolation received in different hemispheres of the earth
c) The bulge around the equator
d) Continentality
Solution: d)
The location of the thermal equator is not identical to that of the geographic Equator.
This is not due to the level of insolation received in both hemispheres. They are virtually equal.
What creates the difference is the distribution of land and water that causes changes in the way heat is
distributed and transported across the planets.
Land dominated areas will tend to have a large variation in temperature and a higher average temperature under
the same conditions (as compared to a water dominated area).
Thus, the thermal equator lies a bit north of the geographical equator.
9) Factors that largely affect temperature at a particular region include

1. Distance of the region from poles or equator
2. Circulation of planetary and local winds
3. Movement of Ocean waves
4. Altitude and terrain of the place
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Water moves ahead from one place to another through ocean currents while the water in the waves does not
move, but the wave trains move ahead. If water is not moved from one place to the other, there is no circulation
of temperature, nutrients, water density or salinity.

1. The air pressure is highest at sea level and decreases with height.
2. In nature, the air always moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.
3. Low pressure systems are usually characterized by dry and settled weather.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Air pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by the weight of air on the earth’s surface. As we go up the layers
of atmosphere, the pressure falls rapidly.
In areas where temperature is high the air gets heated and rises. This creates a low-pressure area. Low pressure
is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
•In areas having lower temperature, the air is cold. It is therefore heavy.
•Heavy air sinks and creates a high pressure area. High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.
•In nature, the air always moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.
11) Consider the followings statements.

1. Atmospheric pressure is caused due to the weight of the overlying atmosphere.
2. Isobars that are widely spaced apart indicate strong winds or a high-pressure gradient.
3. Coriolis force determines that moving air masses in the northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere
deflect in exactly the same direction.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Atmospheric Pressure: force exerted by the weight of the air. Atmospheric pressure is defined as the force per
unit area exerted against a surface by the weight of the air molecules above that surface.
Isobars are imaginary lines that connect points of equal atmospheric pressure on a given day. Pressure gradient
force is what determines the strength of winds.
Isobars that are widely spaced apart indicate gently blowing winds (pressure gradient force is low).
Isobars that are closely spaced together indicate strong winds (high pressure gradient).
The Coriolis force, caused by the spin of the Earth, determines that moving air masses in the northern
hemisphere deflect to the right. It is the opposite in the southern hemisphere.
12) Consider the following statements regarding the role played by tropical cyclones on regional and global
climate.
1. They can often bring intense rainfall to drought prone regions.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. They carry heat energy away from the tropics and transport it toward temperate latitudes.
3. They also act as the earth's filter system by cleansing the air of toxins and pollutants out of the
atmosphere.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Tropical cyclones can relieve drought conditions as they often carry moisture laden winds.
In addition to strong winds and rain, tropical cyclones are capable of generating high waves, damaging storm
surge, and tornadoes.
They typically weaken rapidly over and where they are cut off from their primary energy source. For this reason,
coastal regions are particularly vulnerable to damage from a tropical cyclone as compared to inland regions.
Heavy rains however, can cause significant flooding inland, and storm surges can produce extensive coastal
flooding up to 25 miles from the coastline.
They also carry heat energy away from the tropics and transport it toward temperate latitudes, because they
are large wind systems that absorb the frontal conditions of the area they flow in.
Finally, due to the high speed they blow in, they also act as the earth's filter system by cleansing the air of toxins
and pollutants out of the atmosphere.
13) Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams.

1. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds that flow over thousands of kilometres predominantly
from east to west.
2. Major jet streams are found near the upper levels of the atmosphere, around 9 to 16 km from the
earth’s surface.
3. Jet streams aid in the faster travelling of Aircrafts.
4. In India, the Tropical jet stream influences the formation and duration of the summer monsoon.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds that flow over thousands of kilometres from west to east. Major
jet streams are found near the upper levels of the atmosphere, around 9 to 16 km from the earth’s surface, and
can reach speeds of over 320 kph.
The jet streams shift to the north or south depending on the season. During winters, the wind current is the
strongest. They are also closer to the Equator during winter.
The major jet streams are the Polar Front, Subtropical, and Tropical jet streams. In India, the Tropical jet stream
influences the formation and duration of the summer monsoon.
Most commercial planes fly at the jet stream level, and a strong jet stream can provide a potent tailwind to a
flight travelling from west to east. This helps reduce the travel time for such flights, as their speeds are boosted.
14) Consider the following statements regarding Rossby waves.

1. They are a type of inertial wave naturally occurring in rotating fluids.
2. In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the Coriolis effect with latitude.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Rossby waves, also known as planetary waves, are a type of inertial wave naturally occurring in rotating
fluids. They were first identified by Carl-Gustaf Arvid Rossby. They are observed in the atmospheres and oceans of
planets owing to the rotation of the planet.
Rossby Waves
• The meandering jet streams are called Rossby Waves.
• Rossby waves are natural phenomenon in the atmosphere and oceans due to rotation of earth.
• In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the Coriolis effect (When temperature
contrast is low, speed of jet stream is low, and Coriolis force is weak leading to meandering) with latitude.
• Rossby waves are formed when polar air moves toward the Equator while tropical air is moving poleward.
• The existence of these waves explains the low-pressure cells (cyclones) and high-pressure cells
(anticyclones).
15) Consider the following statements regarding Polar vortex.

1. Polar vortex is a mass of cold, low-pressure air that consistently hovers over the Arctic region.
2. It spins in clockwise direction, just like a hurricane does.
3. The weakening of the Polar vortex influence the Jet stream, which pushes the polar cold air towards
the mid-latitude regions.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Polar vortex is a mass of cold, low-pressure air that consistently hovers over the Arctic region. It is denoted by
the word “vortex” because it spins counter-clockwise, just like a hurricane does.
Usually, the polar vortex remains strong and compact, meaning the mass of frigid air stays at the North Pole. But
sometimes it weakens, like a wobbling top, and expands to influence the jet stream — an area of fast-moving air
high in the atmosphere that surrounds the polar vortex. Once the jet stream is impacted, the cold polar air finds
its way towards the mid-latitude regions.
In the study, researchers found that the expansion of the polar vortex has been occurring more than twice as
often in recent years and the reason for it is the rapidly warming Arctic.
With the help of observational analysis and numerical modelling, the study demonstrated that the melting sea ice
in Barents and Kara seas north of Russia and Scandinavia and increasing Siberian snowfall create larger and more
energetic atmospheric waves that ultimately stretch the polar vortex, causing extreme winter weather in the US
and other places.
16) Which of the following factors may possibly influence circulation of Ocean Currents?
1. Solar insolation affecting the temperature of Ocean currents
2. The ocean water is little higher in level at Equator than in the middle latitudes.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very
slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.
Solar energy makes current warm or cold and decides their circulatory patterns.
17) Consider the following statements regarding generation of Ocean currents.

1. Surface currents are generated largely by wind and their patterns are determined by wind direction.
2. Ocean Currents may also be generated by density differences in water masses caused by temperature
and salinity variations.
3. Occasional events like huge storms also trigger serious currents.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Surface currents are generated largely by wind. Their patterns are determined by wind direction, Coriolis forces
from the Earth’s rotation, and the position of landforms that interact with the currents.
Currents may also be generated by density differences in water masses caused by temperature and salinity
variations. These currents move water masses through the deep ocean—taking nutrients, oxygen, and heat with
them.
Occasional events also trigger serious currents. Huge storms move water masses. Underwater earthquakes may
trigger devastating tsunamis.

1. In ocean water, salinity variation is more in the surface water than at depth.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. The maximum temperature of the oceans is always below the surface, because the heat cannot escape
faster from this layer.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: b)
Salinity at the surface increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation, or decreased by the input of fresh
waters, such as from the rivers. Salinity at depth is very much fixed, because there is no way that water is ‘lost’,
or the salt is ‘added.’
It is a well-known fact that the maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces because they
directly receive the heat from the sun and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through
the process of convection. It results into decrease of temperature with the increasing depth, but
the rate of decrease is not uniform throughout. The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of 200 m and
thereafter, the rate of decrease of temperature is slowed down.
19) Consider the following statements regarding the vertical distribution of Salinity.
1. Salinity at the surface decreases by the loss of water to ice.
2. Salinity at depth is very much fixed, because there is no way that water is lost, or the salt is added.
3. Halocline is a distinct zone where salinity increases sharply.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Salinity changes with depth, but the way it changes depends upon the location of the sea. Salinity at the surface
increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation, or decreased by the input of fresh waters, such as from the
rivers. Salinity at depth is very much fixed, because there is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the salt is ‘added.’
There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans. The
lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and
there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply.
20) Consider the following statements about distribution of salinity in water.

1. Generally salinity is high in land locked regions compared to estuaries.
2. The salinity variation in the Pacific Ocean is mainly due to its shape and larger areal extent.
3. Highest salinity is recorded between 0 to 10-degree latitude because of high temperature and high
evaporation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
• All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean water, contain dissolved mineral salts. Salinity is the term
used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm)
dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater. It is usually expressed as parts per thousand (o/oo) or ppt. Salinity is
an important property of sea water. Salinity of 24.7 o/oo has been considered as the upper limit to demarcate
‘brackish water’.
• In the land locked Red Sea, salinity is as high as 41o/oo, while in the estuaries and the Arctic, the salinity
fluctuates from 0 - 35 o/oo, seasonally.
• The salinity variation in the Pacific Ocean is mainly due to its shape and larger areal extent.
• The highest salinity is recorded between 15° and 20° latitudes.

1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland
in the world.
2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the
world. It is located in Russia, in southwestern Siberia.
The swamp is a major reservoir of fresh water for the region, and the Vasyugan river has its source there.
Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.

1. The periodic warming and cooling of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean is described as El
Niño Southern Oscillations (ENSO).
2. El Niño refers to the ENSO phase in which sea-surface temperatures are cooler than normal.
3. La Niña refers to the ENSO phase in which sea-surface temperatures are warmer than normal.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The periodic warming and cooling of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean — a phenomenon described
as El Niño Southern Oscillations, or ENSO — is known to trigger widespread changes in atmospheric conditions,
and has a major influence on global weather patterns, including the Indian monsoon. La Niña refers to the ENSO
phase in which sea-surface temperatures are cooler than normal. The warmer phase is known as El Niño. A
result of interactions between ocean and wind systems, El Niño and La Niña have almost opposite impacts on
weather events.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
23) Which of the following oceanic regions is primarily the site of generation of new crust, hosting mineral
resources and supporting unique ecosystems?
a) Continental shelf
b) Continental rise
c) Mid-oceanic ridges
d) Littoral region
Solution: c)
The Mid-Ocean Ridge system forms the most extensive chain of mountains on Earth, with more than 90% of the
mountain range lying in the deep ocean – with a total length of about 60,000km.
Mid-ocean ridges are geologically important because they occur along divergent plate boundaries, where new
ocean floor is created as Earth’s tectonic plates spread apart. As the plates separate, some molten rock rises to
the seafloor, producing enormous volcanic eruptions of basalt, and building the longest chain of volcanoes in the
world. Because most of these eruptions occur deep under the water, they often go unnoticed.
24) Russia shares its land borders with

1. North Korea
2. Finland
3. Estonia
4. Romania
a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
The nations which share border with Russia are North Korea, China, Norway, Finland, Ukraine, Kazakhstan,
Poland, Georgia, Mongolia, Latvia, Estonia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Lithuania.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
25) Which of the following is not a tributary of the River Indus?
a) Beas River
b) Zanskar River
c) Kameng River
d) Shyok River
Solution: c)
Its left-bank tributary in Ladakh is the Zanskar River, and its left-bank tributary in the plains is the Panjnad
River which itself has five major tributaries, namely the Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers. Its principal
right-bank tributaries are the Shyok, Gilgit, Kabul, Kurram, and Gomal rivers.
River Kameng is a major tributary of Brahmaputra River.
26) Consider the following statements regarding Archean rock system in India.
1. Archean rock system is the youngest of all the rock systems.
2. It is found in Aravalli Mountains, Deccan peninsula and some parts of north east India.
3. These rocks have abundant metallic and non-metallic minerals such as iron, copper and manganese.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Archean rock system:

It is found in Aravali Mountains, two-thirds of the Deccan peninsula and some parts of north east.
These rocks have abundant metallic and non-metallic minerals such as iron, copper, manganese, bauxite, lead,
zinc, gold, silver, tin, tungsten, mica, asbestos, graphite, etc.
These are the oldest followed by Dharwar rocks. Tertiary rocks are the youngest.
27) Places in the mountains are usually cooler than places on the plains due to the presence of
a) Leeward wind flow on the mountains
b) Moisture-laden winds on the mountains
c) Thin air on the mountains
d) All of the above
Solution: c)
Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the
plains. For example, Agra and Darjiling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is
16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjiling.
28) Consider the following statements regarding drainage patterns.

1. A drainage pattern is described as discordant if it does not correlate to the topology and geology of the
area.
2. Antecedent Drainage cuts through the newly formed landform and maintains the same path.
3. When a river flowing over a softer rock stratum reaches the harder basal rocks but continues to follow
the initial slope where it seems to have no relation with the harder rock bed, it is called Superimposed Drainage
pattern.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Discordant or Insequent drainage patterns

• A drainage pattern is described as discordant if it does not correlate to the topology (surface relief
features) and geology of the area.
• In simple words, in a discordant drainage pattern, the river follows its initial path irrespective of the
changes in topography.
• Discordant drainage patterns are classified into two main types: antecedent and superimposed.
• Usually, rivers in both these drainage types flow through a highly sloping surface.
Antecedent Drainage or Inconsequent Drainage

• A part of a river slope and the surrounding area gets uplifted, and the river sticks to its original slope,
cutting through the uplifted portion like a saw (vertical erosion) and forming deep gorges. This type of
drainage is called antecedent drainage.
• Example: Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra and other Himalayan rivers that are older than the Himalayas
themselves. There are usually called antecedent rivers (rivers older than the existing land itself).
Superimposed or Superinduced Drainage

• When a river flowing over a softer rock stratum reaches the harder basal rocks but continues to follow
the initial slope, it seems to have no relation with the harder rock bed. This type of drainage is called
superimposed drainage.
29) Which of the following statements describes the Radial drainage pattern.
a) When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression
b) When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them
at right angles
c) The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree
d) When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions
Solution: d)
Important Drainage Patterns

(i) The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as “dendritic” the examples of which are the
rivers of northern plain.
(ii) When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’. The
rivers originating from the Amarkantak range present a good example of it.
(iii) When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right
angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’.
(iv) When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is known as
‘centripetal’.
30) Which of the following events are most likely to happen when there is delay in the onset of monsoon over
Kerala?
1. The delay in the onset on monsoon leads to a poor monsoon or decrease in the amount of rainfall over
the Indian Subcontinent.
2. Delayed onset over Kerala invariably mean delay in the arrival of the monsoon over the entire country.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The onset of the monsoon over Kerala marks the beginning of the four-month, June-September southwest
monsoon season over India, which brings more than 70 per cent of the country’s annual rainfall. The onset of the
monsoon is a significant day in India’s economic calendar.
Is it unusual for the monsoon to hit the Kerala coast early?

Neither early nor late onset of the monsoon is unusual, even though the forecast for this year is for earlier than
would be usually expected.
Does an early onset foretell a good monsoon?

No, it does not — just as a delay does not foretell a poor monsoon. The onset is just an event that happens
during the progress of the monsoon over the Indian subcontinent.
A delay of a few days, or perhaps the monsoon arriving a few days early, has no bearing on the quality or amount
of rainfall, or its regional distribution across the country, during the four-month monsoon season.
And does a delayed onset mean cascading delays across the country?
A delay in onset over Kerala can potentially delay the arrival of the monsoon in other parts of the country,
especially in the southern states, which normally start getting rain within days of the monsoon reaching the
Kerala coast.
But again, a delayed onset over Kerala does not automatically or invariably mean delays in the arrival of the
monsoon over the entire country.

1. Alluvial soil is also known as ‘self-ploughing’ soil.
2. Saline soils are found in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas.
3. Black soil is important for growing of plantation crops.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink
when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of self ploughing’.
Black soil is important for growing of crops like cotton and sugarcane. Laterite soil is more suited to grow
plantation crop.
Saline soils are also known as Usara soils. Saline soils contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and
magnesium, and thus, they are infertile, and do not support any vegetative growth. They have more salts, largely
because of dry climate and poor drainage. They occur in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and
swampy areas.

1. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
2. Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part
of the Deccan Plateau.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. The black soil retains the moisture for a very long time.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense
leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and
aluminum compound are left behind.
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the
Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats, long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy
soil. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle
Ganga plain. The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic
rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink
when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self
ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture
for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.
33) What reasons can explain more number of debris avalanche in the Himalayas as compared to the Western
Ghats?
1. The Himalayas are tectonically active.
2. The slopes are very steep in Himalayas as compared to Western Ghats.
3. Himalayas are mostly made up of metamorphic and igneous rocks which are not stable.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In our country, debris avalanche and landslides occur very frequently in the Himalayas. There are many reasons
for this. One, the Himalayas are tectonically active. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and
unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits. The slopes are very steep.
Compared to the Himalayas, the Nilgiris bordering Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and the Western Ghats along
the west coast are relatively tectonically stable and are mostly made up of very hard rocks; but, still, debris
avalanches and landslides occur though not as frequently as in the Himalayas, in these hills due to very heavy
rainfall.
34) Consider the following statements regarding Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’.

1. The Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’ or the Circum-Pacific Belt, is an area along the Pacific Ocean that is
characterised by active volcanoes.
2. About 90 per cent of the world’s earthquakes occur here.
3. It traces from New Zealand clockwise in an almost circular arc and extends upto western coast of North
America.
a) Only one
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’ or Pacific rim, or the Circum-Pacific Belt, is an area along the Pacific Ocean that is
characterised by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. It is home to about 75 per cent of the world’s
volcanoes – more than 450 volcanoes. Also, about 90 per cent of the world’s earthquakes occur here.
Its length is over 40,000 kilometres and traces from New Zealand clockwise in an almost circular arc covering
Tonga, Kermadec Islands, Indonesia, moving up to the Philippines, Japan, and stretching eastward to the Aleutian
Islands, then southward along the western coast of North America and South America.
35) Darvaza gas crater also known as the ‘Gateway to Hell’, recently seen in news is located in
a) Tajikistan
b) Afghanistan
c) Turkmenistan
d) Iran
Solution: c)
A huge natural gas crater, the Darvaza gas crater also known as the ‘Gateway to Hell’.
Located in the Karakum desert, 260 kilometres away from Turkmenistan’s capital, Ashgabat, the crater has been
burning for the last 50 years.
Turkmenistan is one of the five Caspian Sea littoral countries, an area with large volumes of oil and natural gas
reserves.
36) Consider the following statements regarding Oil Palm.

1. Malaysia, Indonesia and Nigeria are the leading producers of oil palm.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. Oil palm requires very little rainfall and is mainly grown in dry areas.
3. Highly alkaline and waterlogged soils are not suitable for Oil Palm cultivation.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• Oil Palm is known to be the highest edible oil yielding perennial crop. Malaysia, Indonesia and Nigeria are the
leading producers of oil palm.
• Oil palm is a humid crop. Requires evenly distributed rainfall of 150mm/ month or 2500-4000mm/annum.
Rainfall distribution in India is not even and adequate. Hence grow oil palm under assured irrigation
conditions by adopting recommended practices. Crop comes up well between 29-33 degree C max. and 22-24
degree C min. temperatures and with bright sunlight for at least 5 hrs. per day. Humidity of more than 80% is
required to come up well.
• Best-suited soils are moist, well-drained, deep, loamy alluvial soils, rich in organic matter with good water
permeability. At least one-meter depth of soil is required. Avoid highly alkaline, highly saline, waterlogged
and coastal sandy soils.
37) Which of the following are the winter crops grown in India?
1. Wheat
2. Mustard
3. Barley
4. Peas
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
The crops that are sown in the winter season are called Rabi crops. (also known as the "winter crop") in India. The
Rabi means, when the crop is harvested. Crops that are grown in the winter season, from November to April are
called Rabi Crops. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
38) The anthropogenic factors that influence a freshwater system are

1. Change in an aquatic habitat
2. Engineering of river channels
3. Widespread land cover change
4. Irrigation and other consumptive use of water
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The anthropogenic factors directly influencing a freshwater system are the engineering of river channels,
irrigation and other consumptive use of water, widespread land use/land cover change, change in an aquatic
habitat, and point and non-point source pollution affecting water quality.

1. Tigris River flows through Turkey and Iraq.
2. Mekong River is a trans-boundary River that flows through parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The Tigris is the eastern of the two great rivers that define Mesopotamia, the other being the Euphrates. The river
flows south from the mountains of south-eastern Turkey through Iraq and empties into the Persian Gulf.
The Mekong is a trans-boundary river in Southeast Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China's
Yunnan Province, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.

1. Iron ore occurs most abundantly in the form of carbonates.
2. Hematite is the most abundant iron ore mineral and is the main constituent of the iron ore industry in
India.
3. The major Hematite type iron deposits are located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Iron ore occurs most abundantly in the form of oxides. Other forms are carbonates, hydroxides, sulphides and
silicates. It is also found in association with titanium dioxide.
Hematite is the most abundant iron ore mineral and is the main constituent of the iron ore industry in India.
The major Hematite type iron deposits are located in well-defined belts in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.

1. Primary activities are directly dependent on environment and utilise the earth’s resources such as land,
water, vegetation and minerals.
2. The activities of fishing, quarrying and Iron and steel industry are considered as Primary activities.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: b)
Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources such
as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral
activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying.
Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.
Secondary activities, therefore, are concerned with manufacturing, processing and construction (infrastructure)
industries.
Therefore, Iron and steel industry belongs to secondary activity.

1. It is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium.
2. It is mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks.
3. It also occurs in the coastal tracts of India.
The above statements refer to
a) nickel
b) Bauxite
c) Copper
d) None of the above
Solution: b)
Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is
associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also
in the coastal tracts of the country. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite.
43) Which of the following activities belong to the Quaternary activities in an Economy?
1. Research and development
2. Production and dissemination of information
3. Medical Tourism
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production and dissemination of information
or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around research, development and may be
seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
Medical tourism is classified into tertiary sector of the economy.
44) Consider the following statements regarding footloose industry in India.

1. These are generally non-polluting industries.
2. These are highly labour-intensive industries.
3. Factors like resources or transportation have very little effect on costs of these industries.
a) Only one
b) Only two
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without
effect from factors such as resources or transport. These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means
that the costs of the products do not change despite where the product is assembled. Diamonds and computer
chips are some examples of footloose industries. These industries can be located at a wide variety of places, as
these are not weight-losing nor raw-material-specific. These are generally not polluting industries.

1. Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973 was enacted to nationalise all the coal mines in India.
2. 90% of lignite reserves in India occur in eastern parts of the India.
3. Auctioning of coal mines to the private players is done on the basis of offer of highest price/ tonne.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973 was enacted to nationalise all the coal mines in India. It was repealed in
2018.
The demand-supply mismatch started in 1991 (the liberalisation period) and started widening. This led the
government to allow captive mining. mining for own use only. This coal cannot be sold to other players.
The 2015 legislation (Coal Mines (Special provisions) Act, 2015) allowed re-entry of private players into the sector.
It enabled auctioning of coal mines.
The 2018 Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs allowed the auctioning of mines to the private players on basis
of offer of highest price/ tonne.
The Coal resources of India are available in older Gondwana Formations of peninsular India and younger tertiary
formations of north-eastern region.
The lignite reserves stand at a level around 36 billion tonnes, of which 90% occur in the southern State of Tamil
Nadu.
46) In India, the period of steady population growth refers to the decades of
a) 1911 – 1921
b) 1921 – 1951
c) 1951 – 1981
d) 1981 – 2011
Solution: b)
The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of growth of India’s
population.
The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall improvement in
health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a
rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.

1. Reduction in mortality always leads to a rising population.
2. The total fertility rate (TFR) is the number of babies an average woman bears over her lifetime.
3. Populations can keep growing even with total fertility rates (TFRs) falling.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Reduction in mortality normally leads to a rising population. A drop in fertility, on the other hand, slows down
population growth, ultimately resulting in absolute declines. The total fertility rate (TFR) — the number of babies
an average woman bears over her lifetime.
A TFR of 2.1 is considered as “replacement-level fertility”. Simply understood, a woman having two children
basically replaces herself and her partner with two new lives. Since all infants may not survive to realise their
reproductive potential, the replacement TFR is taken at slightly above two. It ensures that each generation
replaces itself.
Populations can keep growing even with TFRs falling. De-growth requires TFRs to remain below replacement
levels for extended periods. The effects of that — fewer children today becoming parents tomorrow and
procreating just as much or less — may reflect only after a couple of generations.
48) Demographic trap is a combination of

a) high fertility (birth rates) and increasing mortality (death rates) in developed countries, resulting in an
increasing dependent population
b) high fertility (birth rates) and declining mortality (death rates) in developing countries, resulting in a
period of high population growth rate (PGR)
c) low fertility (birth rates) and declining mortality (death rates) in developed countries, resulting in a
declining and ageing population
d) None of the above
Solution: b)
Demographic trap is combination of high fertility (birth rates) and declining mortality (death rates) in
developing countries, resulting in a period of high population growth rate (PGR).
One of the significant outcomes of the "demographic trap" is explosive population growth.
49) Consider the following statements regarding the components of the population change.
1. The crude birth rate (CBR) is expressed as number of live births in a year per thousand of population.
2. Crude Death Rate (CDR) is a simple method of measuring mortality of any area.
3. As per 2011 population census, Crude Death Rate (CDR) is more than crude birth rate (CBR) in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: b)
The crude birth rate (CBR) is expressed as number of live births in a year per thousand of population.
The crude birth rate (CBR) of India in 2011 census was 21.8
Crude Death Rate (CDR) is a simple method of measuring mortality of any area. CDR is expressed in terms of
number of deaths in a particular year per thousand of population in a particular region.
The crude death rate (CDR) of India in 2011 census was 7.1

1. The labour force participation rate essentially tells what percentage of the total population want to be
part of the workforce.
2. A low labour force participation rate means fewer people are making themselves available for
economic activity.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The labour force participation rate essentially tells us what percentage of people who are within the working-
age (15 to 59 years) group want to be part of the workforce. A low labour force participation rate undermines a
country’s overall productivity and wellbeing because fewer people are making themselves available for economic
activity.

1. A geosynchronous satellite has an orbital period same as the Earth's rotation period.
2. A Geostationary Orbit (GSO) is a geosynchronous orbit with an inclination of zero, meaning, it lies on
the equator.
3. All geosynchronous satellites are geostationary.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite in geosynchronous orbit, with an orbital period the same as the Earth's
rotation period.
Different orbits:
● A Geosynchonous Orbit (GEO) takes a satellite around the Earth at a rate of once per day, keeping it roughly in
the same area over the ground.
● A Geostationary Orbit (GSO) is a geosynchronous orbit with an inclination of zero, meaning, it lies on the
equator.
All geostationary satellites are geosynchronous. Not all geosynchronous satellites are geostationary.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ

1. El Niño brings warm water from the equatorial Pacific Ocean up to the western coast of North America.
2. In North America, the summer temperatures trend lower during La Niña.
3. Shift in the position of jet streams results in heatwaves in some places.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Arctic warming and jet stream migration

The Arctic is warming three to four times faster than the globe as a whole, meaning there is ever less difference
between northern temperatures and those closer to the equator.
That is resulting in swings in the North Atlantic jet stream, which in turn leads to extreme weather events like
heatwaves and floods.
Heat domes
Warmer oceans contribute to heat domes, which trap heat over large geographical areas.
Scientists have found the main cause of heat domes is a strong change in ocean temperatures from west to east
in the tropical Pacific Ocean during the preceding winter.
As prevailing winds move the hot air east, the northern shifts of the jet stream trap the air and move it toward
land, where it sinks, resulting in heatwaves.
El Niño and La Niña

Every few years, the climate patterns known as El Niño and, less frequently, La Niña occur. El Niño brings warm
water from the equatorial Pacific Ocean up to the western coast of North America, and La Niña brings colder
water.

1. Sea floor spreading is caused by the constant volcanic eruptions at the ocean floor.
2. The ocean crust rocks are older than the continental rocks.
3. The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the
quake foci have shallow depths.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava
wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads, known as sea floor
spreading.
Sea floor spreading is verified using these phenomena:

• It was realised that all along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge
amounts of lava to the surface in this area. The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
• The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
• The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks.
• The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin.
• The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the
quake foci have shallow depths. It means lava is in close vicinity.
54) Why are the western slopes of the Western Ghats covered with thick forests and not the eastern slopes?
1. Eastern side falls in rain shadow zone
2. Soil in eastern slope cannot support vegetation due to absence of nutrients.
3. No protected forests exist on the eastern slopes.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
When moisture laden winds cause rainfall in western slopes, upon moving to eastern sides they lose much of
their moisture. Rainfall is less, and thus vegetation is less thick at eastern slopes.
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve extends to Eastern Slopes.
55) Consider the following statements regarding total lunar eclipse.

1. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the orbits of the Earth, moon and sun align so that the moon is
directly behind Earth relative to the sun.
2. During total lunar eclipse, reddish appearance of the lunar surface is caused by rays of sunlight around
the outer edge of the eclipse shadow being filtered and refracted as it passes through Earth’s atmosphere.
3. Total lunar eclipses is a rare event and occurs once in 10 to 12 years.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A total lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth casts its shadow completely over a full moon, blocking reflection of all
direct sunlight from the lunar orb and dimming the color of the moon to a reddish hue, hence the term “blood
moon.”
This is only possible when the orbits of the Earth, moon and sun align so that the moon is directly behind Earth
relative to the sun. Otherwise, the moon passes above or below Earth’s shadow because its orbit around Earth is
usually tilted relative to Earth’s orbit about the sun.
The reddish appearance of the lunar surface — the moon does not entirely disappear from view — is caused by
rays of sunlight around the outer edge of the eclipse shadow, or umbra, being filtered and refracted as it passes
through Earth’s atmosphere, bathing the moon indirectly in a dim copper glow.
The degree of redness depends on atmospheric conditions that vary with levels of air pollution, dust storms,
wildfire smoke and even volcanic ash.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Total lunar eclipses occur, on average, about once every year and a half, according to NASA. But the interval
varies.
56) Consider the following statements regarding Sinkholes.

1. Sinkholes are depressions formed in the ground when layers of the Earth’s surface start collapsing into
caverns.
2. They are formed in areas of “karst” terrains, where the rock below the surface of the Earth can be
easily dissolved by groundwater.
3. They are formed due to natural processes or human activity.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Sinkholes are depressions formed in the ground when layers of the Earth’s surface start collapsing into caverns.
They can occur suddenly and without warning, because the land under the surface of the Earth can stay intact for
a period of time until the spaces get too big.
Sinkholes can be formed due to natural processes or human activity. Typically, sinkholes form in areas of
“karst” terrains, where the rock below the surface of the Earth can be easily dissolved by groundwater.
Essentially, this means that when rainwater seeps into the ground, the rock below the surface of the Earth starts
dissolving, leading to the creation of spaces. This process is a slow and gradual one and can sometimes take
hundreds or thousands of years.

1. Venus appears bright because of its thick cloud cover that reflects and scatters light.
2. Venus is called the Earth’s twin because of their similar sizes.
3. Venus does have a moon and also rings around it.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
For those on Earth, Venus is the second-brightest object in the sky after the moon. It appears bright because of its
thick cloud cover that reflects and scatters light. But while Venus, which is the second closest planet to the Sun,
is called the Earth’s twin because of their similar sizes, the two planets have significant differences between
them.
For one, the planet’s thick atmosphere traps heat and is the reason that it is the hottest planet in the solar
system, despite coming after Mercury, the closest planet to the Sun. Surface temperatures on Venus can go up to
471 degrees Celsius, which is hot enough to melt lead, NASA notes.
Further, Venus moves forward on its orbit around the Sun but spins backwards around its axis slowly. This means
on Venus the Sun rises in the west and sets in the East. One day on Venus is equivalent to 243 Earth days because
of its backward spinning, opposite to that of the Earth’s and most other planets. Venus does not have a moon
and no rings.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
58) Consider the following statements regarding Asteroids.
1. Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun.
2. Trojans are asteroids that share an orbit with a larger planet.
3. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA) have orbits that pass close to the Earth, and all of which are classified as
potentially hazardous asteroids (PHAs).
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun, much smaller than planets. They are also called minor planets.
Asteroids are divided into three classes.

• First are those found in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter, which is estimated to contain
somewhere between 1.1-1.9 million asteroids.
• The second group is that of trojans, which are asteroids that share an orbit with a larger planet. NASA
reports the presence of Jupiter, Neptune and Mars trojans. In 2011, they reported an Earth trojan as well.
• The third classification is Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA), which have orbits that pass close to the Earth. Those
that cross the Earth’s orbit are called Earth-crossers. More than 10,000 such asteroids are known, out of
which over 1,400 are classified as potentially hazardous asteroids (PHAs).

1. Along much of the Pacific Ring of Fire, tectonic plates move towards each other creating subduction
zones.
2. Subduction zones are also where most of the violent earthquakes on the planet occur.
3. In the past 50 years, the Indian Plate has been stable and has not seen any subduction.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Along much of the Ring of Fire, tectonic plates move towards each other creating subduction zones. One plate
gets pushed down or is subducted by the other plate. This is a very slow process – a movement of just one or two
inches per year. As this subduction happens, rocks melt, become magma and move to Earth’s surface and cause
volcanic activity.
Subduction zones are also where most of the violent earthquakes on the planet occur. The December 26, 2004
earthquake occurred along the subduction zone where the Indian Plate was subducted beneath the Burma
plate.

1. Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre.
2. Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies.
3. Quasars are found in galaxies that have supermassive blackholes.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies that emit jets at radio frequencies. They are found in
galaxies that have supermassive blackholes which power these bright discs. However, 90 per cent of them do
not emit strong radio waves, making this newly-discovered one special.
Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre which sucks in surrounding objects. Quasars
are formed by the energy emitted by materials spiralling around a blackhole right before being sucked into it.
3. Economy
1) Consider the following statements regarding Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
1. DICGC is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI.
2. DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current and recurring including accrued interest.
3. Regional rural banks (RRBs) and co-operative banks are outside the purview of DICGC cover.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
What is DICGC?
DICGC is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI and provides deposit insurance. The deposit insurance system
plays an important role in maintaining the stability of the financial system, particularly by assuring the small
depositors of the protection of their deposits in the event of a bank failure.
The deposit insurance extended by DICGC covers all commercial banks including local area banks (LABs),
payments banks (PBs), small finance banks (SFBs), regional rural banks (RRBs) and co-operative banks, that are
licensed by the RBI.
DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current and recurring including accrued interest. Each
depositor in a bank is insured up to a maximum of Rs 5 lakh for both principal and interest amount held by them
as on the date of liquidation or failure of a bank.
The earlier insurance cover provided by DICGC was Rs one lakh. However, the limit of insurance cover for
depositors in insured banks was raised to Rs 5 lakh in 2020.

1. Gross domestic capital formation is the addition to the capital stock within the domestic territory of a
country during a year.
2. Gross domestic capital formation includes all expenses made by households, businesses, people and
government, adding new durable goods to the fixed capital stock of a country.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Capital is the produced means of production, or it is called produced wealth by which more wealth is possible in
the economy directly and indirectly.
Capital formation means the creation of physical assets and non- physical capital consisting of public health
efficiency, visible and no visible capital.
Gross domestic capital formation is the addition to the capital stock within the domestic territory of a country
during a year.
Gross domestic capital formation includes all expenses made by households, business people and Govt, adding
new durable goods to the fixed capital stock of a country.
These assets are in the form of infrastructure such as buildings, roads canals, bridges, means of transport,
machinery and other equipment.
3) In Economy, Kuznets’ theory is related to

a) Fiscal deficit
b) Inequality
c) GDP per capita
d) Population growth
Solution: b)
While there is an argument in literature that inequalities are a manifestation of the average level of
income, as explained by the Kuznets’ theory.
Kuznets believed that inequality would follow an inverted "U" shape as it rises and then falls again with the
increase of income per-capita.

1. National income is the sum of all incomes earned by all citizens of India.
2. Gross Value Added (GVA) is the sum of a country’s GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.
3. GVA calculates the national income from the supply side by looking at the value added in each sector of
the economy.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
National income is not the sum of all incomes earned by all citizens, but only those incomes which accrue due
to participation in the production process.
Gross Value Added (GVA):

GVA is the sum of a country’s GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.
It calculates the national income from the supply side by looking at the value added in each sector of the
economy.
GVA is defined as the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption and is a measure of the
contribution to growth made by an individual producer, industry or sector.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
It provides the rupee value for the number of goods and services produced in an economy after deducting the
cost of inputs and raw materials that have gone into the production of those goods and services.
Gross Value Added = GDP + subsidies on products – taxes on products.
5) Under the RBI Act, 1934, if the central bank fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, it
is required to provide the following information to the government
1. Reasons for the failure to achieve the inflation target
2. Remedial actions proposed to be taken
3. An estimate of the time period within which the inflation target shall be achieved
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Under the RBI Act, 1934, if the central bank fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, it is
required to provide the following information to the government:
• reasons for the failure to achieve the inflation target;
• remedial actions proposed to be taken; and
• an estimate of the time period within which the inflation target shall be achieved pursuant to timely
implementation of the proposed remedial actions.
6) Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR).

1. SDRs can be exchanged for freely usable currencies.
2. A Gold backing is mandatory for a nation to increase SDR deposits.
3. The SDR is a financial claim on the IMF as it is accepted by most international organizations.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The SDR was created by the IMF in 1969 as a supplementary international reserve asset, in the context of the
Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system. A country participating in this system needed official reserves—
government or central bank holdings of gold and widely accepted foreign currencies—that could be used to
purchase its domestic currency in foreign exchange markets, as required to maintain its exchange rate.
The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five major currencies—the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi
(RMB), the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling. No gold backing is needed.
The SDR is neither a currency, nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable
currencies of IMF members. Holders of SDRs can obtain these currencies in exchange for their SDRs in two ways:
first, through the arrangement of voluntary exchanges between members; and second, by the IMF designating
members with strong external positions to purchase SDRs from members with weak external positions.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Current Account Deficit (CAD).

1. The current account measures the flow of goods, services and investments into and out of the country.
2. Current Account Deficit may help a debtor nation in the short-term.
3. High software receipts and private transfers can lower current account deficit.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Current Account Deficit or CAD is the shortfall between the money flowing in on exports, and the money flowing
out on imports. Current Account Deficit (or Surplus) measures the gap between the money received into and sent
out of the country on the trade of goods and services and also the transfer of money from domestically-owned
factors of production abroad.
The current account constitutes net income, interest and dividends and transfers such as foreign aid, remittances,
donations among others.
A country with rising CAD shows that it has become uncompetitive, and investors are not willing to invest there.
They may withdraw their investments.
Current Account Deficit may be a positive or negative indicator for an economy depending upon why it is running
a deficit. Foreign capital is seen to have been used to finance investments in many economies. Current Account
Deficit may help a debtor nation in the short-term, but it may worry in the long-term as investors begin raising
concerns over adequate return on their investments.
High software receipts and private transfers can lower current account deficit.
8) Which of the following factors can lead to Demand-pull inflation?

1. Strong consumer demand
2. Increase in money supply
3. When prices go up
4. Technological innovation
How many of the above options is/are incorrect?
a) only one
b) only two
c) only three
d) all four
Solution: c)
Option 3 is incorrect.
When the aggregate demand in an economy strongly outweighs the aggregate supply, prices go up. Economists
describe demand-pull inflation as a result of too many dollars chasing too few goods.
If a government reduces taxes, households are left with more disposable income in their pockets. This, in turn,
leads to increased consumer spending, thus increasing aggregate demand and eventually causing demand-pull
inflation.
Cost-push inflation is when prices go up.

1. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has six members including the RBI Governor, where each
member is nominated by the RBI.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. The Monetary Policy Committee meets every two months to evaluate the current status and outlook
for inflation and economic growth.
3. When the Monetary Policy Committee wants to contain inflation, it follows “dear money” policy.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
How does the MPC target inflation?

The MPC has six members including the RBI Governor — three each nominated by the RBI and the government.
The MPC meets every two months to evaluate the current status and outlook for inflation and economic growth.
Based on that assessment, it tweaks the repo rate, which is the interest rate at which the RBI loans money to the
banking system. It is for this reason that movements in the repo rate influence the overall interest rates in the
economy.
Typically, when the MPC wants to contain inflation, it raises the repo rate. Such a “dear money” policy makes
all types of borrowing — both for consumers (say, car loans) and producers (say, fresh business investments) —
costlier and effectively slows down economic activity in the economy.
When inflation outlook is benign but growth is stalling, the RBI can choose to lower the repo rate and promote
economic activity; such a “cheap money” policy incentivises people to spend money instead of saving it.

1. Factor cost refer to the price arrived after deducting from the market price the government subsidy
and adding the indirect taxes.
2. GDP at factor cost is useful to see how competitive market forces are and how distortionary indirect
taxes are.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Factor costs are the actual production costs at which goods and services are produced in an economy.
Factor cost refer to the price arrived after deducting from the market price the indirect taxes and adding to the
resulting number government subsidies if any.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
4. History
1) Which of the following were the main demands of the Moderates of Indian National Congress (INC)?
1. Integrated judiciary and executive.
2. Reduction of land revenue and protection of peasants from unjust landlords.
3. Abolition of salt tax and sugar duty.
4. Reduction of spending on army.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Main Demands of Moderates

_ Expansion and reform of legislative councils.
_ Greater opportunities for Indians in higher posts by holding the ICS examination simultaneously in England and
in India.
_ Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
_ More powers for the local bodies.
_ Reduction of land revenue and protection of peasants from unjust landlords.
_ Abolition of salt tax and sugar duty.
_ Reduction of spending on army.
_ Freedom of speech and expression and freedom to form Associations
2) What is the significance of Sabarmati Ashram in the modern history of India?

1. It served as the last residence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. Salt Satyagraha was started from this Ashram in 1930.
3. It has been declared as a national monument by the Indian government.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Sabarmati Ashram (also known as Harijan or Satyagraha Ashram) was home to Mahatma Gandhi from 1917
until 1930 and served as one of the main centres of the Indian freedom struggle.
Sevagram cottage served as the last residence of Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhiji left to Delhi from Sevargam Cottage
in 1946 and then went to Noakhali. From there he did not return to Sewagram while engaged in his task of
communal unity and peace making. He was martyred in Delhi in 1948.
It was from Sabarmati Ashram that Gandhi led the Dandi march also known as the Salt Satyagraha on 12 March
1930. In recognition of the significant influence that this march had on the Indian independence movement, the
Indian government has established the ashram as a national monument.
3) Which of the following were the proposals of the Wavell Plan?

1. Indianization of Executive council.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
2. Removing any caste and religion-based quota in the Executive council.
3. Governor- general was to exercise his veto on the advice of ministers.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The main proposals of the Wavell Plan were as follows.

• With the exception of the governor-general and the commander-in-chief, all members of the executive
council were to be Indians.
• Caste Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation.
• The reconstructed council was to function as an interim government within the framework of the 1935
Act (i.e. not responsible to the Central Assembly).
• Governor- general was to exercise his veto on the advice of ministers.
• Representatives of different parties were, to submit a joint list to the viceroy for nominations to the
executive.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Rani Gaidinliu.

1. Gaidinliu was a Naga spiritual and political leader who led a revolt against British rule in India.
2. She has been called as the “Daughter of the Hills”.
3. She was associated with ‘Heraka movement’, that was based on ancestral Naga religion.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Gaidinliu (26 January 1915 – 17 February 1993) was a Naga spiritual and political leader who led a revolt
against British rule in India.
At 13, she became associated with freedom fighter and religious leader, Haipou Jadonang, and became his
lieutenant in his social, religious and political movement. Jadonang, who was also a Rongmei, started the ‘Heraka
movement’, based on ancestral Naga religion, and envisioned an independent Naga kingdom (or Naga-Raja).
Rani Gandiliu’s association with Jadonang prepared her to fight the British. After the execution of Jadonang, she
took up the leadership of the movement — which slowly turned political from religious. Rani started a serious
revolt against the British and was eventually imprisoned for life. She was released after 14 years, in 1947.
Acknowledging her role in the struggle against the British, Jawaharlal Nehru called her the “Daughter of the
Hills” and gave her the title “Rani” or queen.

1. She is regarded as the first female teacher of India.
2. She along with her husband recognised that education was one of the central planks through which
women and the depressed classes could become empowered.
3. She was associated with Satyashodhak Samaj.
The above statements refer to
a) Usha Mehta
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Kadambini Ganguly
c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Savitribai Phule
Solution: d)
Savitribai Phule, the social reformer who is considered to be one of India’s first modern feminists, was born on
January 3, 1831. Among her accomplishments, she is especially remembered for being India’s first female teacher
who worked for the upliftment of women and untouchables in the field of education and literacy.
Phule was born in Naigaon, Maharashtra in 1831 and married activist and social-reformer Jyotirao Phule when
she was nine years old. After marriage, with her husband’s support, Phule learned to read and write and both of
them eventually went on to found India’s first school for girls called Bhide Wada in Pune in 1948. Before this, she
started a school with Jyotirao’s cousin Saganbai in Maharwada in 1847.
Essentially, both Jyotirao and Savitribai Phule recognised that education was one of the central planks through
which women and the depressed classes could become empowered and hope to stand on an equal footing with
the rest of the society.
The Phules also started the Literacy Mission in India between 1854-55. The Phules started the Satyashodhak
Samaj (Society for Truth-Seeking), through which they wanted to initiate the practice of Satyashodhak marriage,
in which no dowry was taken.
6) Consider the following statements regarding the Extremist leaders of Indian National Congress (INC).
1. The social base was mainly zamindars and upper middle classes in towns.
2. They demanded swaraj as the panacea for Indian ills.
3. They had immense faith in the capacity of masses to participate and to make sacrifices.
4. They believed that political connections with Britain would perpetuate British exploitation of India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Extremists
1. Social base—educated middle and lower middle classes in towns.
2. Ideological inspiration—Indian history, cultural heritage and Hindu traditional symbols.
3. Rejected ‘providential mission theory’ as an illusion.
4. Believed that political connections with Britain would perpetuate British exploitation of India.
5. Believed that the British Crown was unworthy of claiming Indian loyalty.
6. Had immense faith in the capacity of masses to participate and to make sacrifices.
7. Demanded swaraj as the panacea for Indian ills.
8. Did not hesitate to use extra constitutional methods like boycott and passive resistance to achieve their
objectives.
9. They were patriots who made sacrifices for the sake of the country.
7) Which of the following were the causes behind the launch of ‘Non-cooperation movement’?
1. Punjab wrongs of 1919
2. Resentment with Rowlatt Act
3. Khilafat wrong
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
In 1919 Gandhiji gave a call for a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act that the British had just passed. The Act
curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
• In April 1919 there were a number of demonstrations and hartals in the country and the government used
brutal measures to suppress them. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on
Baisakhi day were a part of this repression.
• The Khilafat issue was another such cause. In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan or
Khalifa. People were furious about this as they had been about the Jallianwala massacre. Also, Indian Muslims
were keen that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman
Empire.
• The leaders of the Khilafat agitation, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, wished to initiate a full-fledged Non-
Cooperation Movement. Gandhiji supported their call and urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab
wrongs” (Jallianwala massacre), the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj.
8) Consider the following statements regarding 1946 Royal Indian Navy revolt.
1. The immediate trigger was the demand for better food and working conditions for Indian sailors of
the Royal Indian Navy.
2. The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League condemned the strikers.
3. The revolt was confined to Bombay region.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Royal Indian Navy revolt (also called the Royal Indian Navy mutiny or Bombay mutiny) encompasses a total
strike and subsequent revolt by Indian sailors of the Royal Indian Navy on board ship and shore establishments
at Bombay harbour on 18 February 1946.
While the immediate trigger was the demand for better food and working conditions, the agitation soon turned
into a wider demand for independence from British rule.
From the initial flashpoint in Bombay, the revolt spread and found support throughout British India,
from Karachi to Calcutta. The mutiny was repressed with force by British troops and Royal Navy warships. Only
the Communist Party supported the strikers; the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League condemned it.
9) Consider the following statements regarding Radicals during British rule in India.
1. They went beyond the narrow criticism and imperialistic outlook of the Conservatives and the
Imperialists.
2. They advocated the introduction of modern western science, philosophy and literature.
3. Raja Rammohan Roy and other like-minded reformers opposed Radical school of thought.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
d) None
Solution: b)
Radicals
• They went beyond the narrow criticism and imperialistic outlook of the Conservatives and the Imperialists
and applied advanced humanistic and rational thought to the Indian situation. They thought that India had the
capacity to improve and that they must help the country do that.
• They wanted to make India a part of the modern progressive world of science and humanism and therefore
advocated the introduction of modern western science, philosophy and literature. Some of the British officials
who came to India after 1820 were Radicals. They were strongly supported by Raja Rammohan Roy and other
like-minded reformers.
10) The General Services Establishment Act was one of the main causes for the Uprising of 1857. The Act
a) Mandated a solider to be recruited from every peasant family in the villages
b) Provided special status to the European recruits and downgraded the position of Indian sepoys
c) Provided for a salary cut for the sepoys and increased the taxes on the Indian peasants
d) Required every Indian soldier to go overseas for deployment if required.
Solution: d)
The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 was introduced by Charles Canning in 1856. It required every Indian
soldier to go overseas for deployment if required. It was one of the main causes for the Uprising of 1857, as it
was a taboo for Brahmins in those days to cross the seas, it was known as Samudrolanghana or Sagarollanghana.
5. Environment
1) Consider the following statements regarding Bird migration.
1. Bird migration is the regular seasonal movement, along a flyway,
between breeding and wintering grounds.
2. Migrating birds navigate using celestial cues from the sun and stars, the earth's magnetic field, and
mental maps.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Bird migration is the regular seasonal movement, often north and south along a flyway,
between breeding and wintering grounds.
It occurs mainly in the northern hemisphere, where birds are funnelled on to specific routes by natural barriers
such as the Mediterranean Sea or the Caribbean Sea.
The Arctic tern holds the long-distance migration record for birds, travelling between Arctic breeding grounds
and the Antarctic each year.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The timing of migration seems to be controlled primarily by changes in day length. Migrating birds navigate using
celestial cues from the sun and stars, the earth's magnetic field, and mental maps.
2) Consider the following statements regarding Jim Corbett National Park.

1. Jim Corbett National Park is India’s and Asia’s first national park.
2. It was the first to come under the Project Tiger initiative.
3. It completely encompasses the Shivaliks, near the foothills of the Himalayas.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Jim Corbett National Park is Located in the Himalayan foothills near the tourist hill station of Nainital.
With its hills, grasslands, and streams, Corbett is ideal tiger territory. The place from where Project Tiger was
launched in 1973, with its tiger population at 163, it boasts of a single largest tiger population in a tiger reserve
and one of the highest tiger densities in the country.
Set up in 1936 as India’s — and Asia’s — first national park, it was named Hailey National Park. Shortly after
Independence, it was renamed Ramganga National Park after the river that flows through it, and was rechristened
yet again as Corbett National Park in 1956.
Rajaji National Park is an Indian national park and tiger reserve that encompasses the Shivaliks, near the foothills
of the Himalayas.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

1. Aerosols are solid particles suspended in a gaseous environment.
2. Aerosols are only situated in the lower layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are
located on the terrestrial surface.
3. They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Aerosols:
• Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid
environment.
• In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km)
since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface.
• certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high-
altitude layers.
• The origin of atmospheric aerosols is either natural or the result of anthropogenic activities
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Effects of aerosols:
• They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
• They can reduce visibility.
• They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g., aerosols can cause damage to heart
and lungs).
• They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds.

1. The productivity of the Oceans increases when the carbon emission from the atmosphere are sunk by
it.
2. The ocean warming increases the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Due to greenhouse gas emissions, global warming is already 1°C higher than the pre-industrial levels. There is vast
evidence that this has serious consequences for ecosystems and human being. The IPCC’s special report on
Oceans and Cryosphere (published in 2019) reveals that the ocean is 0.8 degrees warmer than the pre-
industrial age. It is more acidic, and less productive because of the carbon emission that was sunk by the
oceans.
The impact of ocean warming would be an increase in the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall, as well
as an increase in extreme waves, all of which would be accompanied by a rise in relative sea level.
5) Consider the following statements regarding Gas Hydrates

1. Gas hydrates occur naturally in some marine sediments and within permafrost.
2. Their decomposition can release large amounts of methane that could impact Earth’s climate.
3. Sudden release of pressurized methane gas from ocean base may cause submarine landslides, which in
turn can trigger tsunamis.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Gas hydrates are ice-like crystalline minerals that form when low molecular weight gas (such as methane,
ethane, or carbon dioxide) combines with water and freezes into a solid under low temperature and moderate
pressure conditions.
• Most gas hydrates are formed from methane (CH4), which has led to the terms “gas hydrate” and “methane
hydrate” often being used interchangeably.
• On Earth, gas hydrates occur naturally in some marine sediments and within and beneath permafrost. They
are also speculated to form on other planets.
• Gas hydrate deposits may contain roughly twice the carbon contained in all reserves of coal, oil, and
conventional natural gas combined, making them a potentially valuable energy resource.
• Their decomposition can release large amounts of methane, which is a greenhouse gas that could impact
Earth’s climate.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
• Sudden release of pressurized methane gas may cause submarine landslides, which in turn can trigger
tsunamis.
6) Bioluminescence is the property of a living organism to produce and emit light. Which of the following
organisms show the property of bioluminescence?
1. Fungi
2. Plants
3. Bacteria
4. Animals
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: d)
Bioluminescence is the property of a living organism to produce and emit light. “Animals, plants, fungi and
bacteria show bioluminescence.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Black corals.

1. Black corals are located in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
2. They are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
3. They are found only in deep waters and they cannot survive in shallow waters.
4. They act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Using a remote-controlled submarine, researchers discovered new species of black corals living as deep as 2,500
feet (760 metres) below the surface in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000
metres), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years.
Unlike their colourful, shallow-water cousins that rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy, black corals are
filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
Similarly, to shallow-water corals that build colourful reefs full of fish, black corals act as important habitats
where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators in what is otherwise a mostly barren sea floor.
8) The phenomenon of increasing concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of
tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain is known as:
a) Bioaccumulation
b) Biosparging
c) Biomagnification
d) Biodilution
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: c)
Biomagnification, also known as bioamplification or biological magnification, is the increasing concentration of a

substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food
chain.

1. Panthera is the genus of large wild cats that include lion, leopard, and jaguar.
2. Tiger is the largest of all wild cats.
3. India is the only country having Tiger as its national animal.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Panthera:
This is the genus of large wild cats that can roar, but can’t purr. Among them, the lion, the leopard, and the
jaguar are more closely related, while the other strand has the tiger and the snow leopard. The snow leopard is
an exception to the rest of the group in that it can’t roar.
Jim Corbett’s “large-hearted gentleman with boundless courage”, the solitary and strongly territorial tiger is the
largest of all wild cats and also the earliest Panthera member to exist. Primarily a forest animal, they range from
the Siberian taiga to the Sunderban delta. The national animal of India, Bangladesh, Malaysia, and South Korea,
the tiger was voted the world’s favourite animal ahead of the dog in a 2004 Animal Planet global online poll.
10) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon neutrality.

1. Carbon neutrality refers to achieving net zero carbon dioxide emissions.
2. It can be achieved through carbon offsetting or eliminating carbon dioxide emissions altogether.
3. Renewable energy always produce zero carbon emissions.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Carbon neutrality refers to achieving net zero carbon dioxide emissions by balancing carbon dioxide emissions
with removal (often through carbon offsetting) or simply eliminating carbon dioxide emissions altogether (the
transition to the "post-carbon economy").
Although both renewable and non-renewable energy both produce carbon emissions in some form, renewable
energy has a lesser to almost zero carbon emissions.

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INSTA February 2024 Static Quiz Compilation

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INSTA STATIC QUIZ

2) Part IV of the Constitution of India covers a wide range of principles, including

3) Consider the following statements.

The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.

4) Consider the following statements.

6) Consider the following statements.

7) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Objectives resolution’.

8) The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

9) Consider the following statements.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

12) Consider the following statements.

13) Consider the following statements.

14) The right to change one’s name or surname is a part of

15) Consider the following statements.

16) Consider the following statements.

18) Consider the following statements.

Constitutional Provisions regarding the use of offensive words in Parliament:

19) Consider the following statements.

20) Consider the following statements.

21) Consider the following statements.

What does the expression “sealed cover jurisprudence” mean?

22) Consider the following statements regarding judicial inquiry commission.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

23) Consider the following statements.

How is judicial custody different from police custody?

24) Consider the following statements.

26) Consider the following statements.

27) Consider the following statements.

29) Consider the following statements.

Conditions Precedent for the Successful Working of Democracy:

32) Consider the following statements.

34) Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.

35) Consider the following statements.

Why are some volcanic eruptions explosive and some not?

2) Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.

3) Consider the following pairs:

• Oyashio current – Pacific Ocean

4) Arrange the following from north to south.

5) India presently has which of the following research stations at Antarctica?

6) Consider the following statements.

Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes?

7) Consider the following statements.

9) Factors that largely affect temperature at a particular region include

10) Consider the following statements.

11) Consider the followings statements.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

13) Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams.

14) Consider the following statements regarding Rossby waves.

15) Consider the following statements regarding Polar vortex.

17) Consider the following statements regarding generation of Ocean currents.

18) Consider the following statements.

20) Consider the following statements about distribution of salinity in water.

21) Consider the following statements.

Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.

22) Consider the following statements.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

24) Russia shares its land borders with

River Kameng is a major tributary of Brahmaputra River.

Archean rock system: