Question Booklet and Answer Key

For the Recruitment Test

Held on 4.8.2013
Directions (Q. 1- 4):- Choose the correct synonym of the following out of the four given choices:-

Q.1. Adduce
(A) Cite (B) Reduce (C) Subtract (D) Addict

Q.2. Debauched
(A) Cruel (B) Depraved (C) Dangerous (D) Bleached

Q.3. Exasperate
(A) Entertain (B) Exhaust (C) Infuriate (D) Attract

Q.4. Impolitic
(A) Apolitical (B) Impolite (C) Political (D) Unwise

Directions (Q.5-7):- Choose the correct preposition to be filled in the gaps in the following
sentences out of the four given choices:-
Q.5. Satish finally managed to break free …… his attacker.
(A) from (B) with (C) by (D) through

Q. 6. I wish he knew what he was driving ….

(A) by (B) at (C) on (D) off

Q.7. Ramesh was lucky to get ….. with a small fine.

(A) on (B) through (C) off (D) by

Directions (Q. 8-10):- Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms out of the four given
choices :-
Q.8. To nail one’s colours to the mast
(A) to be a good sailor (B) to be accessible to all
(C) to be pessimistic (D) to refuse to surrender

Q.9. To come to a head

(A) to reach a crisis (B) to attain perfection
(C) to master something (D) to climb a mountain

Q.10. To leave someone in the lurch

(A) to be after wealth (B) to desert someone in a helpless condition
(C) to plot a conspiracy (D) to rob somebody in a journey.

11. Three districts of Punjab included in National Cancer Control Programme by Govt. of India are
A) Ferozpur, Bhatinda, Mansa B) Bhatinda, Mansa, Hoshiarpur
C) Muktsar, Bhatinda, Mansa D) Bhatinda, Moga, Mansa

12. Which one of the following statements is true?

Ratio of area sown of high yielding varieties to total area sown under (percent in 2010-11)
A) Wheat 100, Rice 94, Maize 95 and Barley 100
B) Wheat 98, Rice 98, Maize 97 and Barley 100
C) Wheat 100, Rice 100, Maize 97 and Barley 100
D) Wheat 100, Rice 97, Maize 97 and Barley 100

13. According to 2011 census, which of the following statement is true regarding Punjab?
A) Rural population comprises 62.51%, density 550, and sex ratio 893
B) Rural population comprises 67%, density 543, and sex ratio 873
C) Rural population comprises 58%, density 573, and sex ratio 897
D) Rural population comprises 62.51%, density 550, and sex ratio 890

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14. What are choes?
A) Dams of Punjab (small) B) Meteoric lakes in Punjab
C) The marshes and swamps D) Ephemeral streams of the upland plains

15. Which of the following is not related to Sixth Guru?

A) Miri and Piri B) Akal Takhat in 1608
C) Foundation of Kiratpur (Pakistan) D) Bandi Chor Divas

16. What was a total gathering of sikhs called during the period of misls?
A) Jathedari B) Sarbatt khalsa C) Missaldari D) Fiefdom

17. Match the following:

Newspaper Founder
1. Punjab Kessari A) Lala Lajpat Rai
2. The Tribune B) Ajit Singh
3. Reshwa C) Lala Jagat Narain
4. The Punjabee D) Dayal Singh Majeethia
A) CDBA B) DCBA C) ABCD D) CDAB

18. Gurudwara Chakki Sahib is situated in

A) Eminabad (Pakistan) B) Lahore (Pakistan)
C) Chuharhana (Pakistan) D) Anandpur Sahib (India)

19. In which city did representatives from the countries of the world meet and create the first
international agreement on global warming?
A) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil B) Paris, France
C) Kyoto, Japan D) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

20. AIDS is caused by

A) bacterium B) protozoan C) fungus D) virus

21. Why does milk curdle?

A) over heating B) fermentation of lactose
C) fungus growth D) reaction of microbes

22. ‘Boston Tea Party’ is associated with

A) French Revolution B) Russian Revolution
C) American Independence D) Independence of Egypt

23. Atmosphere is broadly divided into homosphere and hetrosphere. The homosphere extends
upto a height of
A) 18 km B) 90 km C) 8 km D) 300 km

24. In 1942, the Cripps Mission promised to grant

A) complete dominion status to India B) self government to India
C) provincial government to India D) interim government to India

25. Which Amendment Bill extended life of Lok Sabha to 6 years and which Bill restored it to 5
years?
A) 42nd and 43rd B) 44th and 47th C) 42nd and 44th D) 42nd and 45th

26. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects located?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh C) Rajasthan D) Uttarakhand

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27. Basel-II relates to which one of the following?
A) International standards for safety in civil aviation
B) Measures against cyber crimes
C) measures against drug abuse by sportspersons
D) international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s capital

28. Which sea is referred to in our National Anthem?

A) Bay of Bengal B) Indian Ocean C) Arabian Sea D) No sea is mentioned in it

29. What kinds of clauses were added by Marks and Spencer, the British retail company to the
agreements in India?
A) Anti-theft clauses B) Anti-bribery clauses C) Anti-fraud clauses D) none of these

30. The UP government on December 4, 2012 decided to issue cards to industrialists and
industrial associations for easy access to its offices. What is the name of that card?
A) Golden cards B) Silver cards C) Platinum cards D) Industrial cards

Read the following statements and answer Q. Nos. 31-32.

In the summer, a survey was conducted in a colony to know how many houses have fans, ACs and
coolers. 112 houses have coolers. The number of houses which have none of the three devices is
five times of that with all the three. 10% houses have coolers and fans. 42% have ACs and 44%
houses have fans. 20% of the houses have none of the three. 22% have only fans and 12% of the
houses have ACs and coolers.
31. How many houses have at the most two devices among ACs, fans and coolers?
A) 384 B) 400 C) 200 D) 304

32. How many houses do not have fans?

A) 88 B) 176 C) 224 D) 144

Use the relations defined below to answer Q.Nos. 33-34

A()B means A is father of B
A{}B means A is mother of B
A[]B means B is the aunt of A
A>B means B is the nephew of A
A#B means A is the sister of B
A<B means B is the son of A

33. If S#T<U()V is given then how is S related to V?

A) mother B) aunt C) grand aunt D) sister

34. If A()B{}C#D is given then how is A related to D?

A) father B) uncle C) brother D) grandfather

35. A person started from point A and travelled 2 km towards West. Then, he travelled 3 km to
South and turned to his right and travelled 2 km, then he travelled 3 km towards North and
again he travelled 1 km after turning left and finally he travelled 4 km after turning left to
reach point B. What is the shortest distance between A and B (in Km)?
A) 3√41 B) √41 C) √47 D) 3√47

36. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 m to East before turning to his right. He went
20 m before turning his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 m from this
point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 m to North before meeting his father
in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
A) 80 m B) 100 m C) 140 m D) 260 m

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37. A clock is set to show correct time at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in a day. What will
be the approximate time when the watch indicates 4 p.m. next day?
A) 3 hours 36 minutes B) 3 hours 50 minutes
C) 3 hours 54 minutes D) 3 hours 47 minutes

Read the following information and answer Q.Nos. 38-39.

Among the 3 married couples Prakash, Santosh and Tarun are males and Kavya, Anjali andTanuja
are females. (i) Each person is of different heights (ii) Santosh is taller than his wife but shorter than
Tarun’s wife (iii) Only one person is shorter than Tarun (iv) If the six persons are standing in a row
according to decreasing order of their heights from left to right, every couple has two persons
standing between them.
38. If Tanuja who is wife of Prakash is shorter than Anjali, then who is shortest among all?
A) Prakash B) Kavya C) Tanuja D) can’t be determined

39. If Tanuja is shorter than Parkash who is shorter than his wife, then who is wife of Santosh?
A) Kavya B) Anjali C) Tanuja D) can’t be determined

40. Find the term which does not fit in series

1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR
A) 5FU B) 15LS C) 9IT D) 17OR

41. Thermometer is related to Temperature in the same way as Hygrometer is related to?
A) strains B) pressure C) density D) humidity

42. Find the odd one

i) Konark ii) Madurai iii) Ellora iv) Khajurao v) Dilwara
A) Ellora B) Madurai C) Dilwara D) Konark

43. In a certain language, ROUTINE is written as VMRGFLI. How will CRUELTY be written
in that code?
A) VOCVZRL B) VPCVZRL C) BGOVFIX D) WPCVZRL

Read the following information and answer Q.Nos.44-45.

P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are eight friends sitting around a circle facing towards the centre.
(i) W is on the immediate left of P but is not in neighbor of T or S.
(ii) (ii) U is on the immediate right of Q and V is the neighbor of T
(iii) R is between T and U

44. Which of the following statements is true?

A) T is between U and Q B) U is the neighbor of V
C) V is between W and T D) W is between P and S
45. What is the position of S?
A) on the immediate left of Q B) second to right of U
C) between Q and U D) on immediate left of P

46. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age A but twice the age of D.
Which two persons form the pair of oldest and youngest?
A) F and A B) F and D C) B and F D) F and C

47. Six people – Rohit, Suneet, Deepak, Vikas, Kanak and Manick – were all born on the same
day of the year, but each was born in a different year, during a single six year period.
1) Rohit is older than Deepak 2) Suneet is older than both Vikas and Kanak
3) Manick is 2 years older than Vikas 4) Rohit was born either in 1962 or 1963
5) The oldest member of the graph was born in 1960
If Manick is the oldest, then which of following must be true?
A) Deepak was born in 1964 B) Rohit was born in 1962
C) Vikas was born in 1961 D) Suneet was born in 1961
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48. If you pick 6th and 14th letters from the end of English alphabets and then pick up 5th and
20th letter from beginning and form a meaningful word, what is the first letter of that word?
A) M B) E C) T D) no meaningful word can be formed

49. If the positions of 1st and 6th digits of the number 2796543018 are interchanged, similarly
the positions of 2nd and 7th digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be
the 3rd to the left of 7th digit from the left end?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 7 D) 8

50. Fill in the blank in Fig. from the following options:

3 2 2
6 20 4
12 25 64
6 10 ?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12
51) Which of the following is NOT allowed in overloading a function in a programming
language?
A) Two functions can have the same name.
B) Two functions have the same name and the same type of parameters, but one
function takes two parameters while the other takes only one parameter.
C) Two functions have the same name and one takes parameters of type integer
while another takes parameters of type double.
D) Two functions have identical parameter lists but different return types.

52) Consider the following C++ program.

int a[10] = {1, 3, 2, 0, 5, -2, 6, 8, 7, 11};
int sum, p; int c = 1; sum = p = a[0];
for ( int i = 1; i < 10; i++){
if (a[i] > p) {
sum += a[i]; p = a[i]; c++; } }
cout << c << " " << sum;

Which of the following is the resulting output?

A) 10 41 B) 9 30 C) 4 7 D) 6 34

53) Suppose that you have the following function in C++:

void mystery(int& one, int two)
{ int temp
temp = one;
one = two;
two = temp;}
What are the values of x and y after the following statements? (Assume that variables are
properly declared.)
x = 10; y = 15;
mystery(x, y);
A) x = 10; y = 10 B) x = 15; y = 10 C) x = 10; y = 15 D) x = 15; y = 15
54) Given the function below, what is the value of sum(3)?
private int sum( int num ) {
if( num <= 1 ) {
return 1;
} else {
return 3*sum( num-1 ) + sum( num-2 );
}
}
A) This recursion is incorrect in some way. B) 43 C) 4 D)13

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55) Which two of the following statements are true about constructors in C++:
I. A constructor has no return type and is therefore a void method.
II. A constructor has the same name as the class.
III. A class can have more than one constructor.
IV. Constructors are called like any other method.

A) III and IV only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I and IV only

56) Which of the following are true regarding the use of generics and parameterized types
in Java?
I. Generics provide type safety by shifting more type checking responsibilities to the
compiler.
II. Generics and parameterized types eliminate the need for downcasts when using Java
Collections.
III. When designing your own collections class (say, a linked list), generics and parameterized
types allow you to achieve type safety with just a single class definition as opposed to
defining multiple classes.

A) I and II only B) II and III only

C) All of I, II, and III D) I and III only

57) Which of the following keywords must be used to define a constant in Java?
A) const B) final C) public D) static

58) _________is a mechanism for converting value data types into reference data types, in
C# programming language.
A) Casting B) Conversion C) Boxing D) Transform

59) The major component of the .NET framework that provides memory management is
called :
A) MSIL B) CLS C) CLR D) VB.NET
60) What is the (worst case) time complexity for SELECTION and QUICK sort algorithms, in
terms of the big O notation?
A) SELECTION: O ( n 2 ) QUICKSORT: O ( n 2 )
B) SELECTION: O ( n 2 ) QUICKSORT: O(n log n)
C) SELECTION: O( n log n) QUICKSORT: O ( n 2 )
D) SELECTION: O(n) QUICKSORT: O ( n 2 )
61) Consider the notation: Problem X is polynomial-time reducible to Problem Y is written as
X ≤p Y.Suppose problem X is in class NP, problem Y is in class P, and X ≤p Y. Which
of the following must be true?
A) Problem X is in class P B) Problem X is NP-complete
C) Both of the above D) None of the above

62) A segment register is a register that contains the base address, or something related to the
base address, of a region of memory. In the 8086/8088, the names of the four segment
registers are:
A) Data, Index, Code, Stack B) Stack, Extra, Code, Data
C) Stack, Data, Base, Counter D) Stack, Index, Extra, Code

63) Which of the following is NOT a possible base-10 interpretation of the 8-bit binary value 11010011
in either unsigned binary, two's complement, or 8-bit excess notation (if this bit sequence was an 8-
bit exponent field, with a bias of 127)?
A) -83 B) 211 C) 84 D) -45

64) How much memory is required to store an image that uses 256 colors and is 10 pixels high and 10
pixels long?
A) 256 bits B) 100 bytes C) 800 bytes D) 25,600 bits
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65) _______ is a reversible image compression technique.
A) GIF B) JPEG C) MPEG D) BMP

66) Which of the following is the most plausible series of phases for a modern compiler?
A) scanning, parsing, intermediate code generation, semantic analysis, machine-independent code
improvement, target code generation, machine-specific code improvement
B) scanning, parsing, semantic analysis, intermediate code generation, machine-independent code
improvement, target code generation, machine-specific code improvement
C) scanning, parsing, semantic analysis, intermediate code generation, machine-independent code
improvement, machine-specific code improvement, target code generation
D) scanning, parsing, semantic analysis, machine-independent code improvement, intermediate
code generation, target code generation, machine-specific code improvement

67) Assemblers usually make two passes over the source code. In the first pass, the assembler
A) Translates the program source into machine code B) Writes the object file
C) Builds the symbol table D) Builds the op-code table

68) A byte-addressable memory system has 48-bit virtual addresses and 32-bit physical
addresses, with 8KB pages. The number of virtual pages and physical pages that each
process’s page table has, is given by:
A) 2 31 and 217 respectively B) 2 33 and 218 respectively
C) 2 35 and 219 respectively D) 2 37 and 2 20 respectively

69) Delivery and storage of email messages to a server is achieved using ___________ .
A) Post Office Protocol (POP) B) Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP)
C) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

70) The motivation for utilizing Network Address Translation include(s) ___________ .
A) making available a range of unique IP addresses for all devices in every subnet
B) ability to change addresses of devices in local network without notifying outside world
C) ability to change Internet Service Provider (ISP) without changing addresses of devices
in global network
D) establishing direct addressability to local devices inside subnet

71) In packet switched networks, store and forward refers to:

A) entire message must arrive at router before it can be transmitted on next link
B) scheduling of packets to avoid congestion
C) entire packet must arrive at router before it can be transmitted on next link
D) entire packet must be stored on router until acknowledgement received

72) A digital signature requires what types of encryption?

A) Hashing and asymmetric B) Asymmetric and symmetric
C) Hashing and symmetric D) ECC and asymmetric

73) A named anchor in HTML is a

A) Specific location within a web page that you can link to.
B) URL from where one can begin using web search engines
C) Mechanism by which an image can be fixed to a point on the web page
D) Tag with descriptive text that pops up when the mouse hovers over a link

74) The subnet mask for a particular network is 255.255.31.0. Which of the following pairs of
IP addresses could belong to this network?
A) 172.57.88.62 and 172.56.87.233
B) 10.35.28.2 and 10.35.29.4
C) 191.203.31.87 and 191.234.31.88
D) 128.8.129.43 and 128.8.161.55

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75) Consider the two tables, Department and Employee. If many employees are working for a
department and only one employee can work for one and only one department, in which
table should the corresponding foreign key be placed?
A) Foreign key needed only in Department table
B) Foreign key needed only in Employee table
C) Foreign key needed in both tables
D) A new table has to be defined including the primary keys of both Employee and
Department tables.

76) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to SQL?

A) The HAVING clause is used in a SELECT statement to filter the records which a
GROUP BY clause returns.
B) The COUNT returns the number of columns which match the given criteria.
C) The JOIN keyword is used to query data from two tables.
D) The DISTINCT keyword is used to find out how many unique values there are in a
table.

77) Consider the following statements.

I. Views are considered as virtual tables.

II. A view has a set of definitions, which is built on top of (a) table(s) or other view(s).
III. A view does not physically store data.

Which of the above statements is/are correct with respect to VIEWS in SQL?
A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) All of I, II and III

78) Consider the following statements:

I. SQL is divided into two main categories; Data Definition Language (DDL) and Data
Manipulation Language (DML)
II. Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to insert, select, update and delete records in the
database.
III. CREATE TABLE is an example of Data Manipulation Language (DML).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) All of I, II and III

79) Consider the following statements about three levels ANSI/SPARC architecture.

I. External - Various user views exist and each of these views gives a user-oriented
description of the data elements and relationships of which the view is composed. These
views are defined using sub schema data definition language.
II. Logical - The result of the logical design which involves analysis of important needs of
users
III. Physical - The precise physical structure and the exact physical location of the database
which is defined by the database administrator using data definition language (DDL) or
statements of SQL

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) All of I, II and III

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 Directions Qs 80 & 81: The following information pertains to next TWO
questions:
Merge-sort and Quick-sort could be viewed as applications of a technique called Divide-
and-Conquer. In this technique we solve a problem by
I. Dividing it into sub-problems,
II. Recursively solving the sub-problems, and then
III. Combining the solutions of the sub-problems to get a solution to the original problem.
80) Outside of the time spent in recursive calls, where did Quick-sort do its comparisons of
keys?
A) In stage I
B) In stage III
C) About half in stage I, and the other half in stage III
D) Neither stage I nor stage III required any comparisons of keys
81) Outside of the time spent in recursive calls, where did Merge-sort do its comparisons of
keys?
A) In stage I
B) In stage III
C) About half in stage I, and the other half in stage III
D) Neither stage I nor stage III required any comparisons of keys

82) In UNIX/LINUX shell programming, what does the following command line mean?
cd tempdir && rm *.java || echo no temp directory
A) The command will change the present working directory to tempdir and delete all files
with the .java extension
B) The command will delete all files with the .java extension if and only if it successfully
changes to the tempdir
C) If the directory tempdir does not exist, the shell will display a message “No temp
directory”
D) Both B) and C) above

83) Choose the best matching between the programming styles in Group 1 and their
characteristics in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
P. Functional 1. Command-based, procedural
Q. Logic 2. Imperative, abstract data types
R. Object-oriented 3. Side-effect free, declarative, expression evaluation
S. Imperative 4. Declarative, clausal representation, theorem proving
A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

84) The employee information in a company is stored in the relation:

Employee (name, sex, salary, deptName)
Consider the following SQL query:
select deptName from Employee where sex = ‘M‘ group by deptName
having avg(salary) > (select avg (salary) from Employee)
It returns the names of the department in which

A) The average salary is more than the average salary in the company
B) The average salary of male employees is more than the average salary of all male employees in the
company
C) The average salary of male employees is more than the average salary of
employees in the same department.
D) The average salary of male employees is more than the average salary of employees in the company

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85) Choose the best matching between the OS Abstraction and their Hardware Components.
OS Abstraction Hardware Components
P. Thread 1. Interrupt
Q. Virtual Address Space 2. Memory
R. File System 3. CPU
S. Signal 4. Disk
A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
86) Suppose you run a O(log N) algorithm with an input size of 1000 and the algorithm
requires 110 operations. When you double the input size to 2000, the algorithm now
requires 120 operations. What is your best guess for the number of operations required
when you again double the input size to 4000?
A)130 B) 140 C) 150 D) 160
87) How many bit strings of length 8 either start with a bit 1 or end with the two bits 00?
A) 64 B) 128 C) 160 D) 255
88) A SIM in a mobile phone stands for:
A) Subscriber Internet Module B) Subscriber Identity Module
C) Subscriber Internet Model D) Subscriber Identity Memory

89) Rotational delay is the time to spin the disk to the correct sector and is measured in RPM. If a
disk is rotating at a rate of 5000 RPM, what is the average rotational delay in
milliseconds?
A) 4 milliseconds B) 6 milliseconds C) 8 milliseconds D) 12 milliseconds
90) For the regular expressions r, s and t, consider the following equalities (which may be true
or false):
I. (r + s)* = (r* s*)*
II. (rs + r)*r = r(sr + r)*
III. (rs + r)* = r(sr + r)*
Which of the above equalities are true?
A) Only I B) Only I and II C) Only I and III D) All of I, II and III

91) The minimal sum-of-products expression for the logic function f represented by the
Karnaugh map is:
PQ

RS

00 01 11 10
00 0 1 0 0
01 0 1 1 1
11 1 1 1 0
10 0 0 1 0
A) QS + P RS + PQR + PRS + PQ R B) Q S + PR S + P QR + P R S + PQR
C) PR S + PQ R + P R S + PQR D) P RS + PQR + PRS + PQ R
92) Consider the following C-program fragment:
x=0; y=1; z=1;
while (Y <= N)
{ x = x + 1;
y = y + z + 2;
z = z + 2;
}
Which of the following holds on termination of the above program fragment?
A) (x + 1)2 = N B) x = N C) x 2 ≤ N < (x + 1)2 D) x 2 < N ≤ (x + 1)2
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93) Consider the following logic circuit:

Which of the following best describes the circuit?

A) Exclusive OR (a XOR b) B) Equivalence (a = b)
C) The carry bit of a + b D) The sum bit of a + b

94) A type of information system that helps managers to solve unstructured problems by
trying out different scenarios.
A) Decision Support System B) Executive Information System
C) Expert System D) Management Information System

95) The functionality which handles the exchange of information between database and a user
interface is called:
A) Client-Server exchange B) Two tier architecture
C) Connection Object D) Business Logic

96) Which of the following IS TRUE regarding linking-loader and linkage editor?

I. A linking-loader performs both linking, loading and execution on one step.

II. A linkage editor generates an executable file that needs to be processed by a loader
for execution at any moment.
III. A linking-loader would be useful in situations where it is not necessary to execute
the application program immediately.
A) I and II only B) I, II and III C) II and III only D) I and III only

97) The Digital Logic Family which has minimum power dissipation is:
A) TTL B) RTL C) DTL D) CMOS

98) The objective of ______ is to derive the design or specification of a system from its source
code, while the objective of ________ is to produce a new, more maintainable system.
A) Reverse Engineering, Software Re-Engineering
B) Software Verification, Software Validation
C) Software Engineering, Requirement Engineering
D) Software Measurement, Software Verification

99) The computer program YACC is an acronym for:

A) "Yet Another Compiler-Compiler" and is a parser generator
B) “Yet Another Compiler on Cryptography” and is a parser generator
C) "Yet Another Common-Compiler" and is a parser generator
D) "Yet Another Comprehensive-Compiler" and is a parser generator

100) In user interface design, the term modal window refers to:
A) the ability to reposition a form at run time.
B) the user not being allowed to shift the focus to any other form until the displayed modal form is
hidden.
C) the ability to display more than one form at one time.
D) the user being allowed to shift the focus to any other form, thus allowing the workflow on the
application main window.

G&R -A- Page 12 of 13

 Answer- Key

Code: SM AM TA DTC G&R

Q. Ans. Q. Ans Q. Ans. Q. Ans.

1 A 26 D 51 D 76 B
2 B 27 D 52 D 77 D
3 C 28 D 53 D 78 A
4 D 29 B 54 D 79 C
5 A 30 A 55 C 80 A
6 B 31 A 56 C 81 B
7 C 32 C 57 B 82 D
8 D 33 C 58 C 83 D
9 A 34 D 59 C 84 D
10 B 35 B 60 A 85 A
11 B 36 B 61 A 86 A
12 C 37 D 62 B 87 C
13 A 38 B 63 A 88 B
14 D 39 C 64 B 89 B
15 C 40 B 65 A 90 B
16 B 41 D 66 B 91 D
17 A 42 A 67 C 92 C
18 A 43 C 68 C 93 B
19 A 44 C 69 C 94 A
20 D 45 A 70 B 95 D
21 B 46 B 71 C 96 A
22 C 47 D 72 A 97 D
23 B 48 A 73 A 98 A
24 A 49 B 74 D 99 A
25 C 50 B 75 B 100 B

G&R -A- Page 13 of 13