SCIENCE 10

Name: __________________________________________ Grade/Section: _____________________ Score: _____

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THIRD QUARTER PRE-TEST

Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is NOT a sex hormone?
A. Estrogen B. Testosterone
C. Progesteron D. Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone
2. Based on the given figure, the following hormones are involved
in a male reproductive system EXCEPT _______.
A. Estrogen B. Testosterone
C. Luteinizing Hormone D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
3. Which of the following sex organs is correctly matched to its
hormone?
A. Ovary: Testosterone B. Testes: Progesterone
C. Ovary: Progesterone D. Testes: Estrogen
4. The Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing
Hormone play an important role in the reproductive system. Which hormone causes FSH
and LH to be released?
A. Testosterone B. Estrogen C. GnRH D. Progesterone
5. What do girls develop during puberty due to the action of estrogen?

A B C D

6. Which of the following is most likely to occur in a male during puberty due to the action
of testosterone?
A. He produces egg cells. B. The color of his eyes changed.
C. His hair color becomes blond. D. His shoulders broaden.
7. If the testosterone hormone produced by the testes stimulates the male secondary
sexual characteristics, what does a progesterone hormone do when release by the ovaries
and placenta?
A. To stimulate the female secondary sexual characteristics.
B. To prevent shedding of the uterine lining.
C. To stimulate bone and muscle growth.
D. To control ovulation.
8. The endocrine gland labeled H in the diagram is _______.
A. Pancreas B. Pituitary gland
C. Thymus Gland D. Adrenal Gland
9. Which of the following endocrine glands correctly paired to its
hormone?
A. Pituitary: Thyroxine B. Pancreas: Adrenaline
C. Adrenal: Estrogen D. Thymus: Thymosin
10. If the person’s blood sugar level becomes unstable, what
gland might be involved in this problem?
A. Pituitary B. Thyroid C. Adrenal D. Pancreas
11. When a baby inside the womb starts pushing the cervix, the pituitary gland is
triggered to release an oxytocin hormone. What is this hormone for?
A. For thickening of the uterine lining.
B. To stimulate contractions in the uterus.
C. To trigger the follicles to release more estrogen.
D. To stimulate the mammary gland to produce milk.
12. Where in the female reproductive system is fertilization most likely to take place?
A. Fallopian tube B. Vagina C. Cervix D. Uterus
13. The diagram below represents structures found in the female reproductive system. If
the areas labeled A were completely blocked on both sides, the most likely result would be
that
A. Egg production would stop B. Sperm production would stop
C. Fertilization would not occur D. An embryo would develop
14. The onset of the menstrual cycle is characterized by a discharge
of blood and tissue matter from the uterus. What is this discharge
termed as?
A. Egg B. Menses
 C. Menarche D. Ovulation
15. The pituitary gland secretes a hormone that stimulates the egg cells in the ovaries to
grow. What phase of menstrual cycle is being described?
A. Luteal B. Follicular
C. Menstrual D. Ovulation
16. Luteal phase begins on the 15th day and lasts till the end of the cycle.
The following events occur during this phase EXCEPT____.
A. The pituitary gland secretes a hormone that stimulates the egg
cells in the ovaries to grow.
B. The egg cell released during the ovulation phase stays in the fallopian tube for 24
hours.
C. If a sperm cell does not impregnate the egg cell within that time, the egg cell
disintegrates.
D. The hormone that causes the uterus to retain its endometrium gets used up by the
end of the menstrual cycle. This causes the menstrual phase of the next cycle to
begin.
17. A student was studying primate uterine thickness. She had 3 samples of uterine
tissues. The thickness in mm for the samples are given in a table below. Given the
knowledge of menstrual cycle in humans, evaluate the phases in which do you think each
sample belongs to?
Sample A B C D
A- 4mm Menstrual Luteal Follicular Menstrual
B -10mm Follicular Menstrual Luteal Luteal
C-1mm Luteal Follicular Menstrual Follicular

18. Which of the following DOES NOT describe positive feedback mechanism in females?
A. As the baby suckles, more prolactin is produce.
B. As corpus luteum degenerates, progesterone drops.
C. As pressure in the uterus increases, oxytocin level increases.
D. As progesterone level drops, anterior pituitary gland releases LH and
FSH.
19. The relatively constant internal environment of the body is maintained by
________________, a state reached when each part of the body functions in equilibrium with
other parts.
A. Negative feedback. B. Positive feedback.
C. Homeostasis. D. Metabolism
20. Which of the terms below involving the concept of nervous system is correctly paired?
A. Brain: Cerebrum and Nerves B. CNS: Brain and Spinal cord
C. Nerves: Axon and Dendrites D. PNS: Cerebrum and Spinal nerves
21. Which of the following is TRUE about central nervous system?
A. It can be classified as somatic and autonomic nervous system.
B. It is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
C. It is composed of the brain, spinal cord, and hormones.
D. It is composed of cranial and spinal nerves.
22. Which part of the brain helps keep your balance so you don’t just fall or
stumble while walking?
A. Cerebellum B. Medulla oblongata
C. Pituitary gland D. Spinal cord
23. If you accidentally touch a hot pan, you immediately jerk your hand away without
thinking, before you even feel pain. This type of response is known as reflex. Which is
responsible for actions that a person can control such as skeletal muscles and sensory
neurons of the skin?
A. Somatic Nervous System B. Autonomic Nervous System
C. Sympathetic Nervous System D. Parasympathetic Nervous System
24. Which activity does your cerebrum control?
A. Breathing as you sleep B. An increase in heart rate after running a race
C. Keeping your balance as you walk across a rocky seashore
D. Remembering equations that you learn in class while taking a math
test
25. When there is an increase in the sugar level, negative feedback occurs in our body.
What organ is responsible for releasing insulin to lower the
sugar level?
A. Brain B. Heart
C. Kidney D. Pancreas
26. Which of the following nucleotides are found in DNA that contains a five-carbon sugar?
A. Deoxyribose B. Guanine
C. Phosphate D. Ribose
27. Which of the following serves as the backbones of the DNA strand?
A. Histones B. Nucleosomes
C. Nitrogenous Bases D. Sugar & phosphate
28. Based on your knowledge about the Central Dogma, infer from the list below the
correct sequence of the Central Dogma.
A. DNA is translated directly into protein
B. DNA is translated into protein which is then translated into RNA
C. RNA is translated into protein which is then translated into DNA
D. DNA is transcribed into RNA which is then translated into protein
29. The following is the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule:
TAT CGC TAG CGT. If this is replicated, show the complementary strand produced.
A. AAT CGC ATC CGT B. TAA CCG TAG GCT
C. TAT GGC ATC CGT D. ATA GCG ATC GCA
30. Some chemicals can damage DNA by altering nucleotide bases resulting in a
change in the DNA sequence. Which of these terms describes this change in the DNA
sequence?
A. Meiosis B. Mutation
C. Translation D. Protein Synthesis
For numbers 31-32, refer to the illustration below.

31. Which type of chromosomal mutation is shown in figure A?

A. Deletion B. Duplication
C. Inversion D. Translocation

32. Which type of chromosomal mutation is shown in figure B?

A. Deletion B. Duplication
C. Inversion D. Translocation

Read the sentence: THE DOG BIT THE CAT.

THE DOB ITT HEC AT.
33. What kind of mutation takes place in the sentence?
A. Deletion B. Duplication
C. Inversion D. Translocation

34. Fossils are the remains and traces of organisms. Infer from your own understanding on
where to find the richest source of fossils?
A. Along rocky walls B. In coal and peat moss
C. In a fossilized tree sap D. Within the strata of the sedimentary rocks
35. How do most fossils form?
A. The soft parts of an organism change to stone.
B. Freezing preserves the remains of an organism.
C. The hard parts of an organism dry out in the air.
D. Living things die and their remains are buried by sediments.
36. In what era do the oldest fossils locate?
A. Cenozoic B. Mesozoic
C. Paleozoic D. Pre Cambrian

37. The diagram below shows layers of fossils in sedimentary rocks in

a portion of Earth’s crust that has not been overturned. Using the
diagram below which of the following fossils is the oldest?
A. Armored fish B. Dinosaurs
C. Early horses D. Trilobites
38. Classify which pair of animals shows a correct example of
homologous structures?
 A. Wings of bats and wings of birds B. Fins of a shark and fins of a dolphin
C. Flipper of a whale and the leg of a cat D. Tongue of a frog and proboscis of a
mosquito
39. Which of the following statements best describes the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Developed characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
B. Organisms develop necessary structures to survive in a given environment.
C. Organs that are not used may fade, while organs that are constantly utilized may
develop.
D. In nature, the organism with necessary characteristics may survive, while those with
weaker traits may not.
40. Who suggested the Theory of Natural Selection after his voyage to the Galapagos
Island aboard the HMS Beagle?
A. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck B. Richard Dawkins
C. Charles Darwin D. Steve Jones
41. It is an evolution process in organism that are not closely related, because they must
adapt to similar challenges in their habitats.
A. Coevolution B. Microevolution
C. Adaptive Radiation D. Convergent Evolution
42. Those who survive will pass on their favorable traits to their offspring. After many
years, the population will produce organisms with traits that are different from their
ancestors. These conditions show ____________.
A. Mutation B. Gene Drift
C. Natural Selection D. Non-random mating
43. Which of the following mechanisms will cause the gene pool of two populations to
change?
A. Mutation B. Gene Flow
C. Genetic Drift D. Natural Selection
44. What will happen if a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the
environment?
A. death rate may rise B. birth rate may rise
C. population size will increase D. carrying capacity will change
45. Which of the following forms of adaptation enables the animals to disguise its
appearance, usually to blend in with its surroundings?
A. camouflage B. herbivore
C. mimicry D. warming coloration
46. What’s best describes the carrying capacity?
A. Ability of the ecosystem to supply enough resources for the organisms who lives on it.
B. the total mortality rates
C. total natality rate
D. total amount of organisms can occupy a certain area
47.Organisms need to constantly adapt to their environment in order to_____.
A. be able to survive and reproduce. B. have a variety of resources.
C. increase their population. D. push other competitive species out of their
environment.
48. The theory of Lamarck which explained that if an organism acquired a body structure
with long limbs, leg, or neck during its lifetime, it could be passed on to its offspring. What
theory is this?
A. Theory of Need B. Theory of Evolution
C. Theory of Use and Disuse D. Theory of Acquired Characteristics
49. How does the following conditions relate to population density? (high crime rate, not
enough transportation, and high number of patients in hospitals)
A. benefit of high population density B. benefit of low population density
C. challenge of low population density D. challenge of high population density

50. Which human activity would be most destructive to the Philippine biodiversity?
A. The burning of wood in urban areas.
B. The release of species of freshwater fish in lakes.
C. The removal of plants from the food webs they are part of.
D. The planting of trees in forest