Force:

Question 1: How many types of motion can you observe when a rigid body acted
upon by a force?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: C

Question 2: Force=?
a) Mass × velocity
(b) Mass × acceleration
(c) Mass × time
(d) Velocity × acceleration
Answer: (b) Mass × acceleration

Question 3: When a force acts on a stationary rigid body which is free to move,
moves in a straight line is called_____________
(a) Linear motion
(b) Rotational motion
(c) Angular motion
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Linear motion

Question 4: Rotation around a fixed axis is a special case of ________ motion

(a) Linear motion
(b) Rotational motion
(c) Both of (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Rotational motion

Question 5: The turning effect on the body about an axis due to_______ applied on
the body.
(a) Moment of Force
(b) Force
(c) Velocity
d) Acceleration
Answer: (a) Moment of Force

Question 6: Torque is depending on

(a) The magnitude of force applied (F)
(b) The perpendicular distance of line of action of the force from the axis of rotation (d)
c) Pressure on the substance
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b).

Question 7: What is the S.I unit of force?

(a) Newton (b) Dyne (c) Joule (d) erg
Answer: (a) Newton

Question 8: What is the C.G.S unit of force?

(a) Newton (b) Dyne (c) Joule (d) erg
 Answer: (b) Dyne

Question 9: Newton =__________

(a) Gms−2 (b) kgms−2 (c) kgcms−2 (d) gcms−2
Answer: (b) kgms−2

Question 10: Dyne = _______

(a) gms−2 gms−2 (b) kgms−2kgms−2 (c) kgcms−2kgcms−2 (d) gcms−2gcms−2
Answer: (d) gcms

Question 11: The torque depends upon

A. force only
B. moment arm only
C. mass
D. force and momentum arm
Answer D

Question 12: Along which a force act is called

A. line of action of force
B. line of acting torque
C. axis of rotation
D. moment arm
Answer: A

Question 13: If 150N of farce is applied on a spanner of 10 cm to open a nut then

the length of spanner when the force applied on it is 60 N is
A. 25 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 50 cm
Answer: A.

Question 14: The body is said to be rigid if the distance between pairs if particles
doesn't change by applying
A. friction
B. law of inertia
C. force
D. law of momentum
Answer: C

Question 15: Moment arm is the

A. parallel distance
B. perpendicular distance
C. normal distance
D. resultant force
Answer: B

Question 16: The S.I. unit of force is

I. Kgm/s
 II. Kgm/s2
III. Newton
IV. Newton-meter
Answer: II

Question 17: What do we get by the product of mass and velocity?

I. Force
II. Inertia
III. Momentum
IV. Newton
Answer: III

Question 18: If the unit of force and length each be increased by four times, then
the unit of energy is increased by

a. 16 times
b. 8 times
c. 2 times
d. 4 times
Answer: A

Question 19: A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does

a. Negative work
b. Positive but not maximum work
c. No work at all
d. Maximum work
Answer: (c)
Question 20: When a retarding force is applied to stop a train, the train stops after
80 m. If the speed is doubled, then for the same retarding force, the distance when
the train stops would be

a. The same
b. Doubled
c. Halved
d. Four times
Answer: (D)

Question 21: You lift a heavy book from the floor of the room and keep it in the
bookshelf having a height of 2 m. This process takes 5 seconds. The work done by
you will depend on

a. Mass of the book and the time taken

b. Weight of the book and height of the bookshelf
c. Height of the bookshelf and the time taken
d. Mass of the book, height of the bookshelf and the time taken

Answer: (b) Weight of the book and height of the bookshelf

Question 22: A body of mass m kg is lifted by a man to a height of one metre in 30
seconds. Another man lifts the same mass to the same height in 60 seconds. The
work done by they are in the ratio
 a. 1:2
b. 1:1
c. 2:1
d. 4:1
Answer: (b) 1:1
Question 23: Which of the following is a scalar quantity

a. Displacement
b. Electric field
c. Acceleration
d. Work

Answer: (d) Work

Question 24: A force of 5 N acts on a 15 kg body initially at rest. The work done by
the force during the first second of motion of the body is

a. 5J
b. ⅚J
c. 6J
d. 75 J

Answer: (b) ⅚ J
Question 25: A force of 5 N, making an angle θ with the horizontal, acting on an
object displaces it by 0.4 m along the horizontal direction. If the object gains
kinetic energy of 1 J, the horizontal component of the force is

a. 1.5 N
b. 2.5 N
c. 3.5 N
d. 4.5 N

Answer: (b) 2.5 N

Question 26: The work done against gravity in taking 10 kg mass at 1 m height in
1 sec will be

a. 49 J
b. 98 J
c. 196 J
d. None of these

Answer: (b) 98 J
Question 27: A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes displacement in it
is given by S = t2/4 mts where t is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is

a. 12 J
b. 9J
c. 6J
d. 3J

Answer: (d) 3 J
 WEP
1. If a constant force F acts on a body and displaces it by a distance s in time t, then
power is given as:
𝑊 𝐹×𝑠
(a) 𝑃 = (b) 𝑃 =
𝑡 𝑡

(c) 𝑃 = 𝐹 × 𝑣 (d) All of the above

Ans: d

3. 1 gigawatt (GW) = __________

(c) 109 W (b) 106 W (c)103 W (d) 10-9 W
Ans: a

4. If a body of mass m is falling freely under gravity from a point C, at

height h above the ground (as shown in the diagram), then at point B,
its potential and kinetic energies respectively will be:
(c) mgh, zero
(d) mgx, ½ mv2
(e) mg(h-x), ½ mv2
(f) mg(h-x), zero
Ans: c

5. The conservation of mechanical energy in motion under gravity can be represented

graphically as:

Ans: B

6. What is the velocity of the bob of a simple pendulum at its mean position, if it is able
to rise to vertical height of 18 cm (Take g = 10 m/s2)
 (c) (a) 0.4 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 1.8 m/s (d) 0.6 m/s
Ans: d

7. Two bodies of masses m and 3m have same momentum. their respective kinetic
energies E1 and E2 are in the ratio.....
(c) (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 6
Ans: b

8. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. If P1 and P2 are their
respective momentum, what is ratio of P2 : P1 ?
(c) (a) m1: m2 (b) √m2 / √m1 (c) √m1 : √m2 (d) m12 : m22
Ans: b

9. With what velocity should a student of mass 20 kg run so that his kinetic energy
becomes 160 J?
(c) (a) 4 m/s (b) √8 m/s (c) 16 m/s (d) 8 m/s
Ans: a

10. If a body of mass 1 kg, initially at rest, starts moving and attains a velocity of 20
m/s. work done on the body is:
(a) -200 J (b) 200 J (c) -400 J (d) 400 J
Ans: b

11. When the displacement is opposite to the direction of force, then the work is said to
be
(a) Zero (b) Negative (c) Positive (d) Infinite
Ans: b

12. A body is moving in a circular motion. What will be the work done by the centripetal
force?
(a) +1 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) None of these
Ans: c

13. When the displacement is along the direction of force, then the work is said to be
(a) Zero (b) Negative (c) Positive (d) Infinite
Ans: c

14. A boy goes to 5th floor by a lift and a girl takes stairs to go there. Who is doing more
work?
 (a) Boy (b) Girl
(c) Both are doing same work (d) Can’t say
Ans: c

15. The S.I unit of work is:

(a) Joule (b) Watt (c) Newton (d) Einstein
Ans: a

16. 1 J = ______ erg

(a) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (d) 108
Ans: c

17. The rate of doing work is called

(a) Power (b) Energy (c) Force (d) Acceleration
Ans: a

18. The S.I unit of power is:

(b) Joule (b) Watt (c) Newton (d) Einstein
Ans: b

19. 1 H.P. = _____ W

(a) 1046 (b) 946 (c) 846 (d) 746
Ans: d

20. Energy is a __________ quantity.

(a) Sometimes scalar and sometimes vector
(b) Always scalar
(c) Always vector
(d) None of these
Ans: b

21. The energy of atomic particles is measured in

(a) joule (b) erg
(c) electron volt (d) watt
Ans: c

22. 1 eV = ______ J
(a) 1.6  10-9
(b) 1.6  109
(c) 1.6  10-19
(d) 1.6  1019
Ans: c

23. While charging a mobile, the change in energy taking place is:
(a) Electrical to chemical
(b) Chemical to electrical
(c) Electrical to heat
(d) Electrical to light
Ans: a

24. When mechanical energy changes to other form of energy, which one of the following
is the correct statement:
 (a) Always potential energy changes to other form.
(b) Always kinetic energy changes to other form.
(c) Either potential energy or kinetic energy changes to other form.
(d) Both potential energy and kinetic energy changes to other form.
Ans: b

25. When a bulb is lighted using electrical energy, the degraded form of energy is:
(a) Electrical energy
(b) Heat energy
(c) Light energy
(d) Sound energy
Ans: b

MACHINES MCQ’S
1) The transfer of energy that occurs when a force makes an object move is known
as
a) effort
b) potential
c) kinetic
d) work
ANS: d
2) The device used to raise a flag up a flag pole is an example of

a) Wheel and axle

b) lever
c) inclined plane
d) pulley
ANS: d
3) Why is no machine 100% efficient?
a) some of the input energy is converted to mechanical energy in the environment
b) some of the input energy is converted to chemical energy in the environment
c) some of the input energy is converted to heat energy in the environment
d) All machines can be 100% efficient
ANS: C
4) Which of the following would NOT have an effect on the efficiency of a pulley
system?
a) How well the wheel spins
b) Type of rope or cable that is used
c) How many pulleys are present
d) The colour of the pulley system
ANS: d

5) A movable pulley
a) has more force required than the load?
b) is a block and tackle
 c) can move freely up and down
d) consists only of rope
ANS; C

6) What does a pulley system do?

a) Forces two objects to split
b) Changes an objects speed
c) Changes an objects velocity
d) Changes the direction of the pull used to lift the load
ANS: D

7) Which one is an example of a pulley system?

a) An axe
b) A ramp
c) An elevator
d) A See-Saw
ANS: C

8) How much effort is required to lift an object weighing 360 N using

a fixed pulley?
a) 360 N
b) 120 N
c) 200 N
d) 250 N

ANS: A

9) How does a single fixed pulley, like the one seen here, help you do work?

a) Changes the direction of the force

b) Increases the amount of applied force
c) Decreases the amount of applied force
d) Allows you to pull the rope a shorter distance
ANS: A

10) When using a pulley if you want to use half the amount of effort force, you
will need to
a) Move the cable 4 times as far
b) Move the cable 6 times as far
c) Move the cable 10 times as far
d) Move the cable 2 times as far
ANS: d
11) A machine in which displacement of load is more than displacement of effort will
have velocity ratio
a) More than 1
b) Equal to 1
c) Less than 1
d) Less than or equal to 1
ANS: c

12) A machine gives gain in speed because

a) Load is moving at a faster rate than effort
b) Effort is moving at a faster rate than load
c) Both load and effort move with same speed
d) Does not depend on the rate at which load and effort move
ANS: a

13) If the ideal mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is 1, it cannot be

a) Speed multiplier
b) Force multiplier
c) Can be either a force multiplier or speed multiplier
d) Neither a force multiplier or speed multiplier
ANS: d

14) A block and tackle system has 5 pulleys. If an effort of 1000 N is needed in the
downward direction to raise a load of 4500 N, calculate the mechanical advantage,
a) 4.5
b) 5
c) 5.5
d) 5.8
ANS: a

15) In the given diagram of block and tackle system of pulleys, the velocity ratio and
mechanical advantage respectively are

a) 4, 5 b) 5,5 c) 5,4 d) 4,4

ANS: b
16) Which of the following diagram is correct

ANS: d

17) A single fixed pulley and a single movable pulley are both used to lift a load of 120
kgf to the same height. What is the ratio of their effort?
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:1 d) cannot say
ANS: a
18) The number of pulleys used in the movable lower block is
a) Equal to or one less than the number in the upper block
b) Equal to the number of pulleys in the upper block
c) more than the number of pulleys in the upper block
d) Both a and b
ANS: d
19) Which of the following depends on the design of a machine
a) Mechanical advantage
b) Velocity ratio
c) Efficiency
d) All the above.
ANS: b
20) Gain in speed is equal to
a) Velocity ratio
1
b) 𝑣𝑅

c) (Velocity ratio)2

d) √𝑣 ⋅ 𝑅
ANS: b
Refraction of light at plane Surfaces
1. When light passes from one transparent medium to another the phenomenon is
known as
A. Reflection
B. Dispersion
C. Total internal reflection
D. Refraction Ans: d.
Refraction
2. When a ray of light travels from a denser to rarer medium then
A. Angle of refraction < Angle of incidence
B. Angle of refraction > Angle of incidence
C. Angle of refraction = Angle of incidence
D. Angle of refraction ≤ Angle of incidence
Ans. B. Angle of refraction > Angle of incidence
3. Angle of deviation is the angle between:
A. Direction of refracted ray and normal
B. Direction of emergent ray and direction of incident ray
C. Reflected ray and normal
D. Incident ray and normal
Ans. B. Direction of emergent ray and direction of incident ray
4. SI unit of refractive index is
A. Degree
B. Radian
C. ms-1
D. No unit Ans. D. No
unit

5. Which of the following expression is not correct?

A. Refractive index 1µ2 = V1/V2
B. Refractive index
µ = 𝑐/𝑉2
1 2 𝑐/𝑉1

C. Refractive index 1µ2 = 2⁄𝜇

𝜇
D. Refractive index µ = 2
𝑉 1

1 2 𝑉1
Ans. D. Refractive index = v2/v1
6. A ray of light passes undeviated on refraction because
A. Angle of incidence = angle of refraction= 0
B. 𝜇1 = 𝜇2
C. V1 = V2
D. All of the above Ans. D. All
 of the above
7. Lateral displacement does not depends on
A. Wavelength of light
B. Angle of refraction
 C. Refractive index
D. Angle of incidence Ans. B.

Angle of refraction
8. The refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3, refractive index of glass with
respect to air is 3/2. Find refractive index of glass with respect to water:
A. 0.98
B. 1.25
C. 1.125
D. 0.89
Ans. C 1.125
9. Two opposite parallel surfaces of prism are
A. Squares
B. Rectangles
C. Triangles
D. Spherical Ans. C.

Triangles
10. In prism the emergent ray always
A. Bends towards the normal
B. Bends towards the base
C. Travels along the normal
D. Parallel to incident ray
Ans. B. Bends towards the base
11. The angle between emergent ray and incidence ray of prism is known as
A. Angle of incidence
B. Angle of refraction
C. Angle of emergence
D. Angle of deviation
Ans. D. Angle of deviation
12. Which of the following expression is not correct?
A. 𝛿 = 𝛿1 + 𝛿2
B. 𝛿 = (𝑖1 + 𝑖2) + (𝑟1 + 𝑟2)
C. 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 = 𝐴
D. 𝑖1 + 𝑖2 = 𝐴 + 𝛿
Ans. B. 𝛿 = (𝑖1 + 𝑖2) + (𝑟1 + 𝑟2)
13. On increasing the angle of incidence
A. The angle of deviation decreases
B. The angle of deviation increases
C. The angle of deviation first decreases, reaches the minimum value and then
begins to increase
D. The angle of deviation first increases, reaches the maximum value and then
begins to decrease
Ans. C. The angle of deviation first decreases, reaches the minimum value and
then begins to increase
14. For how many values of angle of incidence of an equilateral prism we get 𝛿 = 𝛿min
A. 1
 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Ans. A 1

15. Angle of deviation becomes minimum when

A. r1 < r2
B. i1 > i2
C. Refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base of prism
D. Refracted ray is normal to the inclined plane
Ans. C Refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base of prism
16. When angle of incidence is 48oangle of prism is 60o find the angle of minimum
deviation.
A. 45 o
B. 36 o
C. 31 o
D. 40 o

Ans. B 36 o
17. An object viewed from second medium appears to be at a depth more than its real
depth then we can say that light travels from
A. denser to rarer medium
B. Rarer to denser medium
C. Denser to denser medium
D. Rarer to rarer medium
Ans. B. Rarer to denser medium
18. Light passing from denser to rarer medium its velocity
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
D. Becomes zero
Ans. B. Increases

19. The intensity of refracted light is always the intensity of incident light.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. Much higher than
Ans. B. Less than
20. When light travels from kerosene to air
A. Real depth > apparent depth
B. Real depth < apparent depth
C. Real depth = apparent depth
D. None of the above
Ans. A Real depth > apparent depth.

Refraction through Lens:

Q1. Which statement is NOT true about a convex lens?
(a) It is thin at the centre
(b) It is thick at the centre
(c) It converges the light beam
(d) It has real focus
Ans: (a)
Q2. Name the point which is on the principal axis of the lens such that that a ray of
light passing through this point emerges parallel to its direction of incidence.
(a) First Focal point
(b) Centre of Curvature
(c) Second Focal point
(d) Optical Centre
Ans: (d)

Q3. Identify the Wrong diagram

A B

C D

(a) A
(b) B

(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (b)
Q 4. Choose the Correct characteristic:
When an object is placed between 2F1 and F1 in a convex lens, the image will be.
(a) Real, Enlarged, erect, between F2 and 2F2
(b) Real, Enlarged, inverted, beyond 2F2
(c) Virtual, diminished, erect, beyond 2F2
(d) Real, Enlarged, inverted, between F2 and 2F2
Ans: (b)

Q 5. A convex lens produces a virtual image when the object is placed:

(a) Between F1 and 2F1
(b) Beyond 2F1
(c) At 2F1
(d) Between F1 and O
Ans: (d)

Q 6. A convex lens produces a real image of same size when the object is placed:
(a) Between F1 and 2F1
(b) Beyond 2F1
(c) At 2F1
(d) Between F1 and O
Ans: (c)

Q 7. Choose the wrong statement

(a) A concave lens always forms virtual image
(b) A concave lens is used to correct myopia
(c) A concave lens is used to get real image
(d) A concave lens always forms erect image.
Ans: (c)

Q 8. Choose the wrong statement

(a) A concave lens always forms virtual image
(b) A concave lens is used to correct myopia
(c) A concave lens is used to get real image
(d) A concave lens always forms erect image.
Ans: (c)

Q 9. The power of a lens is negative, then the lens is-

(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Can be both
(d) Neither concave nor convex
Ans: (a)

Q 10. The correct lens formula is-

 1 1 1
(a) + =
𝑢 𝑣 𝑓
1 1 1
(b) - =
𝑢 𝑣 𝑓
1 1 1
(c) - =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
𝑢+𝑣
(d) f=
𝑢𝑣
Ans: (c)

Q 11. On decreasing the focal length, the power of a lens-

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) First increases then decreases
Ans: (a)

Q 12. An object of height 4.0cm is placed at a distance 30cm in front of a convex lens
of focal length 10cm.Where will the image be formed?
(a) 10cm behind the lens
(b) 15 cm behind the lens
(c) 12 cm behind the lens
(d) 12 cm before the lens
Ans: (b)

Q 13. An object is placed at a distance 10cm in front of a concave lens of focal length
10cm.Where will the image be formed?
(a) 10cm behind the lens
(b) 5 cm in front of the lens
(c) 5 cm behind the lens
(d) 15 cm in front of the lens
Ans: (b)

Q 14. An object is placed at a distance 20cm in front of a concave lens of focal length
20cm. Where will the image be formed?
(a) 10cm behind the lens
(b) 5 cm in front of the lens
(c) 10 cm in front the lens
(d) 15 cm in front of the lens
Ans: (c)

Q 15. The power of a lens is -2.0D.The lens is __and focal length is ___.
(a) Concave, 100cm
(b) Convex, 100cm
(c) Concave, 50cm
(d) Convex, 50cm
Ans: (c)

Q 16. Choose the correct statement.

 (a) Focal length of convex lens is positive
(b) Focal length of concave lens is positive
(c) Distance of image is negative for real image
(d) Distance of image is positive for virtual image
Ans: (a)

Q 17. When an object is placed beyond 2F1 in a convex lens, image will be.
(a) Real, Enlarged, erect, between F2 and 2F2
(b) Real, Enlarged, inverted, beyond 2F2
(c) Virtual, diminished, erect, beyond 2F2
(d) Real, diminished, inverted, between F2 and 2F2
Ans: (d)

Q 18. When an object is placed beyond F1 in a convex lens, image will be.
(a) Real, inverted, highly magnified, at infinity
(b) Real, magnified, inverted, beyond 2F2
(c) Virtual, diminished, erect, at infinity
(d) Real, diminished, inverted, between F2
Ans :( a)

Q 19.A convex lens cannot be used for.

(a) Camera lens
(b) Magnifying glass
(c) Slide projector
(d) Eye lens in Galilean telescope.
Ans: (d)

Q 20. Choose the correct statement for a concave lens.

a. A incident ray parallel to principal axis passes undeviated
B. A incident ray parallel to principal axis appears to diverge from focus
C. A incident ray parallel to principal axis passes through focus
D. A incident ray parallel to principal axis passes through optic centre.
Ans: (b)

SPECTRUM:
1. Deviation in a light ray through an equilateral prism occurs due to:

A. First surface only.

B. Second surface only.
C. Both the surfaces.
D. None of the Above.
Ans: C.

2. The angle of deviation depends on:

I. Angle of prism.
II. Angle of incidence.
III. Angle of refraction.
IV. Angle of emergence.
 A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV
Ans: A.

3. Angle of deviation is maximum for the following color:

A. Red.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. Violet.
Ans: D.

4. Angle of deviation with increase in wavelength of the light:

A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Doesn't change.
D. None of the above.
And: B.

5. The angle of deviation with increase in refractive index of material:

A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Remains constant.
D. None of the above.
And: A.
6. Wavelength range 400-800 nm correspond to:

A. Infra-red.
B. Ultra violet.
C. Visible light.
D. Gamma rays.
Ans: C.

7. Splitting of white light into its constituent colors is known as:

A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Deviation.
D. Dispersion.
Ans: D.

8. Dispersion of white light occurs at the surface of a prism.

A. First.
B. Second.
C. Both.
D. None of the above.
Ans: A.

9. Order of electromagnetic spectrum is:

I. X-rays.
II. Ultra Violet.
III. Microwave.
IV. Infra-red.

A. I, II, III and IV.

B. I, III, II and IV.
C. I, IV, III and II.
D. I, II, IV and III.
Ans: D.

10. Ultraviolet radiations are also known as:

A. Alpha radiations.
B. Beta radiations.
C. Actinic rays.
D. Gamma radiations.
Ans: C.
11. Infrared rays are detected by using a prism made up of:

A. Quartz.
 B. Crown glass.
C. Flint glass.
D. Rock Salt.
Ans: D.

12. Ultraviolet radiations are detected by using a prism made up of:

A. Crown glass.
B. Quartz.
C. Flint glass.
D. Rock Salt.
Ans: B.

13. An electromagnetic wave has a frequency is 500 MHz, its wavelength is:

A. 80 cm.
B. 60 cm.
C. 15 cm.
D. 16 cm.
Ans: B.

14. The waves used to take photographs in dark:

A. Ultraviolet.
B. Infrared rays.
C. Gamma rays.
D. Visible light.
Ans: B.

15. The critical angle of yellow colour is 450 for glass air interface. Critical angle for red color is
than yellow color.

A. More.
B. Less.
C. Equal.
D. None of the above.
Ans: A.

16. An electromagnetic wave has a wavelength is 800 nm. Its frequency is: A. 24

x 1014 Hz.
B. 0. 375 x 1014 Hz.
C. 3.75 x 1014 Hz.
D. 7.5 x 1014 Hz.
Ans: C.
17. Heating effect is caused by:

A. Ultraviolet radiations.
B. Gamma radiations.
C. X- Rays.
D. Infrared radiations.
Ans: D.

18. Silver-chloride solution turns violet and then dark brown due to:

A. Visible light.
B. Infrared radiations.
C. Microwaves.
D. Ultraviolet radiations.
Ans: D.

19. Production of Vitamin D is due to:

A. Ultraviolet radiations.
B. Infrared radiations.
C. Gamma radiations.
D. Visible light.
Ans: A.

20. Apart from gamma radiations, are used for sterilizing purposes.

A. Infrared rays.
B. Ultraviolet rays.
C. Micro waves.
D. Radio waves.
Ans: B.

Sound
Q1. The total distance covered by the sound from the point of generation to the
reflecting surface and back should be at least
a) 30 m
b) 34 m
c) 40 m
d) 38 m

Answer : b) 34 m
Q2 As compare to humans, bats can hear sounds only with
a) low frequency
b) low pitch
c) low amplitude
 d) high pitch

Answer: d
Q3 The use of echo to measure distance is known as
a) echo destination
b) echolocation
c) echo displacement
d) echo dictation

Answer: b
Q4 Reverberation of sound is used in
a) Stethoscope
b) Trumpets
c) Megaphone
d) All of these

Answer : d

Q5 Speed of sound depends upon

a) Temperature of the medium
b) Pressure of the medium
c) Temperature of source producing sound
d) Temperature and pressure of medium

Answer : a

Q6 A wave in slinky travelled two and fro in 5 sec the length of the slinky is 5m.
What is the velocity of wave?
a) 10m.s
b) 5m/s
c) 2m/s
d) 25m/s

Answer : c

Q7 The echo-receiver of sonar attached to a ship, receives the echo from the
bottom of sea 4 seconds after the ultrasonic waves were sent into the sea.
 If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, then what is the depth of the
sea?
(a) 6000 m
(b) 3000 m
(c) 15000 m
(d) 3500 m

Answer: (b) 3000 m

Q8 If the speed of a wave is 380 m/s and its frequency is 1900 Hz, then the
wavelength of the wave will be:

(a) 20 m
(b) 0.2 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 2 m

Answer: (b) 0.2 m

Q9 Another name for the unit Hertz is

a) Cycles per second
b) Seconds per cycle
c) Metres per second
d) Decibels

Answer: a
Q10 A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the
base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given. g=10 ms−2 and
speed of sound = 340 ms−1.
 a) 10s
b) 11.47s
c) 1.10s
d) 20s

Answer: b

Q11 If a person clap his hands stands at a distance of 99m from a wall hear the
echo after 0.6s, what is the velocity of sound?
a) 330 m/s
b) 165 m/s
c) 55 m/s
d) 1.65 m/s
Answer: a

Q12 A man is standing between two parallel cliffs and fires a gun. If he hears the
echoes after 1.5s and 3.5s respectively, the distance between the cliffs is
(velocity of sound in air = 340m/s)
a) 1190 m
b) 850 m
c) 595 m
d) 510 m
Answer: b

Q13 A man standing between two cliffs produces a sound and hears two
successive echoes at intervals of 3s and 4s respectively. Calculate the
distance between the two cliffs.
The speed of sound in the air is 330ms−1

a) 1155 m
b) 1555 m
c) 1115 m
d) 1055 m
 Answer: a
Q14 A man standing between two parallel cliffs produces a sound & heard the
first echo after 2 sec and next echo after 3 sec, if the speed of sound in air is
340 m/s. Find the distance between two cliffs?
a) 425 m
b) 170 m
c) 850 m
d) 340 m

Answer: c
Q15 For a sound wave, frequency is 8800 Hz and speed is 352 m/s in a given
medium. The wavelength of the wave is
a) 0.4 m
b) 0.03m
c) 0.25 m
d) 0.04 m

Answer: d
Q16 What kind of sound waves does the earthquake produce before the main
shocks?
a) Ultrasonic sound waves
b) Natural sound waves
c) Infrasonic sound waves
d) None of the above

Answer: C

Q17 On Moving from solid to liquid to gas medium the speed of sound
_________.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None of the above

Answer: a
Q18 A man is Firing a gun at a terrain distance from a hill. He heard an echo after
4.6 sec. He come classes by 300m. Now he heard the echo after 2.4sec.
What will be the distance initially?
a) 627 m
b) 275 m
c) 526 m
d) None of the above

Answer: a

Q19 A man standing in front of a wall produces a sound and hears an echo after
3s. He walks ‘x’ m away from the wall and produces the same sound. Now
he hears an echo after 5.25s. Calculate the distance he walked away from
the wall. (Speed of sound in air is 340 m/s)
a) 382.5 m
b) 823.5 m
c) 238.5 m
d) 523.5 m

Answer: a

Q20 Sunil is standing between two walls. The wall closest to him is at a distance
of 660 m. if he shouts, he hears the first echo after 4s and another 2 second.
What is the velocity of sound in air? What is the distance between the two
walls
a) 1650 m
b) 1560 m
c) 1056 m
d) 1506 m

Answer: a
Q21 An engine is approaching a tunnel surmounted by a Cliff and emits a short
whistle when 1km away. The echo reaches the engine after 5 second.
Calculate the speed of engine assuming the velocity of sound to be 340m/s.
a) 60 m/s
b) 30 m/s
c) 20 m/s
d) 40 m/s

Answer: a
Q22 A person is standing between two vertical cliffs and 480m from the nearest
cliff shouts. He hears the first echo after 3s and the second echo 2s later
.calculate:
1. The speed of sound.
2. The distance of the other cliff from the person.
a) 480 m/s , 720 m
b) 720 m/s, 480 m
c) 330 m/s, 740 m
d) 350 m/s, 480m

Answer: a
Q23 A radar signal is received 2*10-5 sec. After it was sent and reflected by an
aeroplane. How far is the aeroplane if speed of waves is 3*108 m/s?
a) 3000 m
b) 6000 m
c) 5000 m
d) None of the above

Answer : a

Q24 An engine approaches a hill with a constant speed. When it is at a

distance of 0.9km, it blows a whistle whose echo is heard by the
driver after 5 seconds. The speed of sound in air is 330m/s, then
the speed of the engine is:
(A) 32m/s
(B) 27.5m/s
(C) 60m/s
(D) 30m/s
Answer: d

Q25 A tuning fork having frequency 312Hz emits a wave which has a wavelength
of 1.10m. Calculate the speed of sound?
a) 343.2 m/s
b) 333 m/s
c) 320 m/s
d) None of the above

Answer: a
Q26 In tank, 10 ripples are produced in one sec. If the distance between a crest
and trough is 10cm. Find Wavelength, Frequency & Velocity of the wave?
a) 20 cm, 10 Hz & 2 m/s.
b) 10 cm, 20 Hz & 2 m/s.
c) 20 cm, 2 Hz & 10 m/s.
d) 2 cm, 10 Hz & 20 m/s.

Answer: a

Q27 Find the distance of cloud from you when you hear a thunder 3 sec after the
lightning is seen. (Given the speed of light= 3*108 m/s, speed of sound=
330m/s)?
a) 990 m
b) 660 m
c) 900 m
d) 600 m

Answer: a

Q28 Man stationed between two cliffs fires a gun. He hears the first echo
after 2sec and the next after 5sec. What is the distance between the cliffs
(Velocity of sound in air =340m/s)
a) 500 m
b) 1000 m
c) 1190 m
d) 1240 m

Answer: a

Q29 As compare to humans, bats can hear sounds only with

a) low frequency
b) low pitch
c) low amplitude
d) high pitch

Answer: d

Q30 A man fires a gun while standing between two parallel hills. If he hears
 the first echo after 2 s and the second echo 3 s after the first echo,
then calculate the distance between the hills the velocity of sound is
330 m/s.
a) 825 m
b) 850 m
c) 950 m
d) 1150 m

Answer: a