SS1 1st Term Physics Exam

1. 1. Physics contributes to economic growth through:

A) Developing new materials
B) Isolating chemical compounds
C) Monitoring social trends
D) Analyzing historical events
2. 2. Career opportunities in Physics include roles in:
A) Human resources
B) Scientific research and development
C) Banking and finance
D) Agriculture
3. 3. Speed is a derived quantity, derived from:
A) Force and time
B) Mass and velocity
C) Time and acceleration
D) Distance and time
4. 4. What does a spring balance measure?
A) Mass
B) Length
C) Volume
D) Weight
5. 5. What is the dimensional formula of force?
A) [MLT-1]
 B) [MLT–2]
C) [M2LT-2
D) [ML-1T2]
6. 6. What causes an object to change its state of motion?
A) Acceleration
B) Inertia
C) Gravity
D) Friction
7. 7. A motorist travels from a town A to a town B, 145km distance in
3hr45mins. Find his average speed in m/s.
A) 30.2m/s
B) 10.7m/s
C) 8.5/s
D) 38.7m/s
8. 8.What is the direction of the centripetal force acting on an object
moving in a circular path?
A) Towards the center
B) Tangential to the path
C) Away from the center
D) Opposite to the velocity
9. 9. In circular motion, what happens to the velocity of an object if
the centripetal force is increased?
A) Velocity increases
B) Velocity decreases
C) Velocity becomes zero
 D) Velocity remains constant
10. 10. Which quantity represents the rate of change of velocity with
respect to time?
A) Acceleration
B) Displacement
C) Distance
D) Speed
11. 11. Dimensional analysis involves:
A) Analyzing the dimensions of physical quantities
B) Exploring the dimensions of parallel universes
C) Studying the dimension of space
D) Solving complex algebraic equations
12. 12. Newton's first law of motion states that an object will remain
at rest unless acted upon by:
A) External force
B) External Acceleration
C) External Gravity
D) External Friction
13. 13. Non-uniform motion is characterized by changes in:
A) Neither speed nor direction
B) Speed
C) Direction
D) Both speed and direction
14. 14. Centrifugal force is a:
A) Real force
 B) Balanced force
C) Imaginary force
D) Unaffected force
15. 15. Displacement differs from distance as it considers:
A) Magnitude only
B) Both magnitude and direction
C) Direction only
D) Speed and time
16. 16. A horizontal line on a distance-time graph indicates:
A) No motion
B) Constant acceleration
C) Uniform speed
D) Variable speed

17. 17. Acceleration is directly influenced by:

A) Mass and force
B) Force only
C) Time only
D) Velocity and time
18. 18. A body of mass 12kg moves with a speed of 10ms-1 in a
circular path of radius 5m. Calculate the magnitude of the force acting
on the body.
A) 335N
B) 24N
C) 125N
 D) 240N
19. 19. A body moves along a circular path with uniform angular
speed of 0.6 rads-1 and a t a constant speed of 3.0ms-1. Calculate the
acceleration of the body towards the center of the circle.
A) 25.0ms-2
B) 1.8ms-2
C) 5.4ms-2
D) 0.2ms-2
20. 20. The SI unit of speed is __________
A) None of the above
B) Metre per second (ms-1)
C) Metre per radian (mrad-1)
D) Kilogram per second (Kg-1)
21. 21. An object of mass, 25kg moves at 5m/s round a circular path
of radius, 5m. Calculate: (a) the centripetal acceleration (b) the
centripetal force
A) 5m/s, 125N
B) 60m/s, 15N
C) 8m/s, 1.2N
D) 2.8m/s, 4.2N
22. 22. ____________ is the time rate of decrease in velocity.
A) Speed
B) Retardation/deceleration
C) Acceleration
D) Constant speed
 23. 23. What is the distance covered by a car which travels with a
constant speed of 20.8ms-1 for 30s?
A) 726.0m
B) 450.5m
C) 225.0m
D) 624.0m
24. 24. Brownian motion can also be regarded as __________
A) Translational rectilinear motion
B) Random motion
C) Vibratory motion
D) Relative motion
25. 25. ____________ causes motion.
A) Force
B) Velocity
C) Acceleration
D) Friction
26. 26. The following are fundamental quantities except __________
A) Amount of substance
B) Luminous intensity
C) Temperature
D) Power
27. 27. The S.I Unit of Energy is __________
A) Kelvin
B) Newton
C) Joule
 D) Kilogram
28. 28. 360⁰ = ___________ rads
A) π
B) 2π
C) None of the above
D) π2
29. 29. What is rectilinear acceleration?
A) Acceleration in a curved path
B) Acceleration due to gravity
C) Acceleration in a straight line
D) Acceleration in a circular motion
30. 30. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 20 m/s in
10 seconds. What is its acceleration?
A) 20 m/s2
B) 2 m/s2
C) 4 m/s2
D) 10 m/s2
31. 31. Which term indicates the shortest path between initial and
final positions?
A) Speed
B) Displacement
C) Distance
D) Velocity
32. 32. What does the slope of a distance-time graph represent?
A) Velocity
 B) Acceleration
C) Displacement
D) Speed
33. 33. The following are fundamental units except ____
A) Kelvin
B) Candela
C) Ampere
D) Joule
34. 34. The following instruments are used in measuring distance
except _____
A) Micro-meter screw guage
B) Chemical balance
C) Vernier calliper
D) Metre rule
35. 35. A car travelled a distance of 4km in 40 secs. Find the speed in
metre per second (m/s).
A) 10m/s
B) 100m/s
C) 100m/s
D) 0.1m/s
36. 36. Calculate the weight of an object whose mass is 5kg. [g
=10m/s²
A) 0.2N
B) 0.5N
C) 5N
D) 50N
 37. 37. The unit of weight is _____
A) Newton
B) Newton Per Second
C) Kilogram
D) Metre
38. 38. In which scenario can an object have zero velocity but still
have acceleration?
A) Uniform motion
B) Changing direction
C) No motion
D) Constant speed
39. 39. An object travels 5 meters in the first second, 5 meters in the
second second, and 5 meters in the third second. What is its average
speed?
A) 10 m/s
B) 5 m/s
C) 20 m/s
D) 15 m/s
40. 40. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A) Speed
B) Displacement
C) Time
D) Distance
 SS 2 1st Term Physics Exam
1. 1. Which principle states that for a body to be in equilibrium, the
sum of the clockwise moments about any point must be equal to the
sum of the anticlockwise moments?
A) Newton's Second Law
B) Principle of Moment
C) Principle of Equilibrium
D) Newton's First Law
2. 2. Which condition must be satisfied for a rigid body to be in
equilibrium under the action of parallel forces?
A) The sum of the moments must be zero.
B) The sum of the forces must be zero.
C) The sum of the forces and moments must be non-zero.
D) The sum of the forces and moments must be zero.

3. 3. According to Newton's First Law of Motion, an object will

remain at rest or continue to move at a constant velocity unless acted
upon by a(n):
A) Balanced force
B) Internal force
C) External force
D) Unbalanced force
4. 4. Which term refers to a pair of forces that have equal magnitudes,
opposite directions, and act along different lines of action?
 A) Moment
B) Torque
C) Equilibrium
D) Couple
5. 5. Which law states that the rate of change of momentum of an
object is directly proportional to the net force applied to it and occurs
in the direction of the force?
A) Newton's Second Law
B) Newton's Law of Gravitation
C) Newton's Third Law
D) Newton's First Law

6. 6. What is the term for the repetitive back-and-forth motion of an

object about an equilibrium position?
A) Damping
B) Resonance
C) Forced Vibration
D) Simple Harmonic Motion
7. 7. What is the term for the phenomenon that occurs when an
external force is applied to an object at its natural frequency, causing
a large amplitude vibration?
A) Damping
B) Forced Vibration
C) Simple Harmonic Motion
D) Resonance
8. 8. __________ is the amount of heat energy required per unit mass
to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree celsius.
 A) Latent Heat
B) Thermal Conductivity
C) Heat Capacity
D) Specific Heat Capacity

9. 9. Which method is commonly used to determine the specific heat

capacity of a substance?
A) Calorimetry
B) Spectroscopy
C) Radiometry
D) Thermodynamics
10. 10. __________ is the formula to calculate the heat energy
transferred to a substance?
A) QT = mcv
B) Q∆T = mcv
C) QT = mc∆v
D) Q = mcΔT
11. 11. Which law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed,
only transferred or transformed from one form to another?
A) Law of Conservation of Mass
B) Law of Conservation of Angular Momentum
C) Law of Conservation of Momentum
D) Law of Conservation of Energy
12. 12.What is the term for the collision between two objects where
the total kinetic energy before and after the collision remains
constant?
 A) Elastic Collision
B) d) Conservation Collision
C) Perfectly Inelastic Collision
D) Inelastic Collision
13. 13. The force that opposes the motion of an object in simple
harmonic motion is called the __________
A) Frequency force
B) Density force
C) Damping force
D) Net force
14. 14. Which law of motion states that for every action, there is an
equal and opposite reaction?
A) Newton's Third Law
B) Newton's First Law
C) Law of Inertia
D) Newton's Second Law
15. 15. The conservation of linear momentum holds true:
A) Only in explosions
B) In all collisions
C) Only in elastic collisions
D) Only in inelastic collisions
16. 16. The SI unit of heat energy is:
A) Joules
B) Calories
C) Newtons
 D) Watts
17. 17. Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of
500g of copper from 16⁰C to 116⁰C [ assuming that the specific heat
capacity of copper = 400J/kg].
A) 400kJ
B) 24kJ
C) 20kJ
D) 2kJ
18. 18. The maximum displacement from the equilibrium (central)
point is the _____
A) Period
B) Vibration
C) Amplitude
D) Frequency
19. 19. Which of the following equations is for when two bodies
move in the same direction before and after collision
A) m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
B) m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1v1 - m2v2
C) m1 u1 - m2 u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
D) m1 u1 - m2 u2 = m1v1 - m2v2
20. 20. A force acting on a body causes a change in the momentum of
the body from 12kgms-1 to 16kgms-1 in 0.2s. Calculate the
magnitude of the impulse.
A) 28.0Ns
B) 4.0Ns
C) 0.8Ns
D) 36Ns
 21. 21. The property of a body to remain at rest or to continue in a
uniform motion in a straight line is called __________
A) Momentum
B) Impulse
C) Inertia
D) Energy
22. 22. __________ is the inward force required to keep an object
moving with a constant speed in a circular path.
A) Oscillation force
B) Centripetal force
C) Centrifugal force
D) Angular force
23. 23. The frequency of a simple harmonic motion refers to the:
A) Number of cycles per unit time
B) Maximum displacement
C) Time taken for one complete cycle
D) Rate of change of displacement
24. 24. _______ is the SI unit of force
A) Joule
B) Celsius
C) Newton
D) Kelvin
25. 25. The to and fro motion of a ball passed repeatedly between two
footballers is _______
A) A simple harmonic motion
B) All of the above
 C) Not a Simple harmonic motion
D) Partially a simple harmonic motion
26. 26. 360⁰ = _____rad
A) 2π
B) 2π2
C) √2π
D) 1/2π
27. 27. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of the
whole of a substance through 1K is _____
A) Thermal energy
B) Thermal Conductivity
C) Specific Heat Capacity
D) Heat Capacity
28. 28. _______ is a single force acting alone, which will have the
same effect in magnitude and direction as those forces acting together.
A) Resultant force
B) Recurring force
C) Restoring force
D) Equilibrant
29. 29. The turning effect produced by a force is known as the
_______
A) Moment of force
B) Vertical component of a force
C) Principle of force
D) Equilibrium of a force
30. 30. Turning of a tap with our fingers is an application of a _____
 A) Circular Motion
B) Velocity
C) Couple
D) Force
31. 31. An immersion heated is rated 1500W. How long does it take
the heater to raise the temperature of 1kg of water by 30⁰C? ( Assume
heat lost to the surrounding is negligible. Specific heat capacity of
water = 4200J kg-1k-1
A) 130s
B) 84s
C) 280s
D) 112s
32. 32. A ball resting on a smooth horizontal table is in ____
A) Stable Equilibrium
B) Static and Neutral Equilibrium
C) Unstable Equilibrium
D) Neutral Equilibrium
33. 33. A dam is able to hold a large quantity of water because its wall
is ____
A) thickest at the middle
B) thickest at the bottom
C) of the same thickness throughout
D) thickest at the top
34. 34. _____ is equal to the product of the force and the
perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to that
point.
A) Equilibrant of a force
 B) Resultant of a force
C) Masses of a force
D) Moment of a force
35. 35. The number of cycles per second is ______
A) Resonance
B) Period
C) Amplitude
D) Frequency
36. 36. Spring balance is used to measure ___
A) Velocity
B) Weight
C) Distance
D) Mass
37. 37. The point where the weight of an object is concentrated is
known as ___
A) Centre of force
B) Centre of pull
C) Centre of gravity
D) Centre of weight
38. 38. 5km = ____m
A) 0.5
B) 0.05
C) 5000
D) 500
39. 39. A car travelled a distance of 4km in 40secs. Find the speed in
metre per second (m/s)
A) 0.4m/s
B) 0.1m/s
C) 100m/s
D) 0.004m/s
40. 40. A ticker-timer used ⅕secs to 8cm. What is the velocity?
A) 0.04cm/s
B) 1.6cm/s
C) 0.4cm/s
D) 40cm/s

SS3 phsics Questions - page 1

1
Which of these terms is directly related to modern physics?

A
Atomic

B
 Nuclear

C
Genetic

D
Subatomic

2
Modern physics is the branch of physics that deals with________

A
The study of the fundamental nature of matter and energy at a
macroscopic level

B
The study of the fundamental nature of matter and energy at a
microscopic level

C
The study of the fundamental nature of quantum geophysics at a
microscopic level
 D
The study of the fundamental nature of quantum biology at a
macroscopic level

3
Which of these theories is not associated with modern physics?

A
Quantum mechanics

B
Particle physics

C
Relativity

D
Evolution
 4
The theory of relativity was developed by

A
Schrodinger

B
Isaac Newton

C
Albert Einstein

D
James Fisher

5
The foundation of modern physics is

A
Classical physics

B
Quantum mechanics
 C
Nuclear physics

Cosmology

6
What is modern physics?

7
Define Cosmology

8
What does wave-particle duality mean in quantum mechanics?
 A
Particles are always waves

B
Waves are always particles

C
Particles can exhibit wave-like behaviour and vice versa

D
Particles and waves are completely separate entities

9
What was the first experiment to demonstrate the wave-particle
duality of light?

A
Double-slit experiment

B
Photoelectric effect
 C
Blackbody radiation

D
Compton scattering

10
What is the uncertainty principle?

A
The principle that the position and momentum of a particle cannot be
known simultaneously

B
The principle that the energy and momentum of a particle cannot be
known simultaneously

C
The principle that the position and energy of a particle cannot be
known simultaneously
 D
The principle that the charge and spin of a particle cannot be known
simultaneously

11
Who developed the uncertainty principle?

A
Schrodinger

B
Heisenberg

C
Maxwell

D
Ohm

12
What is the disparity in view of classical physics and quantum
mechanics on the nature of particles?
13
Describe the double-split experiment

14
Which of the following statements is NOT a part of the Bohr model of
the atom?

A
Electrons exist in fixed energy levels around the nucleus.

B
Electrons can absorb or emit energy when they jump between energy
levels.

C
The energy of an electron is quantized.

D
Electrons can exist anywhere in space around the nucleus.

E
The angular momentum of an electron in a given energy level is
quantized.
15
Which of the following statements about the Bohr model of the atom
is correct?

A
Electrons are free to move anywhere around the nucleus.

B
Electrons can only occupy certain discrete energy levels.

C
The nucleus is surrounded by a cloud of negative charge.

D
Electrons are confined to a specific point in space.

16
The following are the components of an atom except?

A
Protons
B
Neutrons

C
Cells

D
Electrons

17
How many shells are in the Bohr atomic structure model?

A
8

B
6
C
4

D
10

18
In the Bohr model, electrons in the innermost orbit have the ___
energy, while the outermost have the __ energy

A
Proportional and differing

B
Lowest and highest

C
Strongest and weakest

D
Equal and same
19
What is atomic structure?

20
What is Bohr’s model?

21. The momentum P of a body is defined as

A. Force x Mass
B. Velocity x Time
C. Impulse x Time
D. Mass x Velocity
22. A net force of magnitude 0.6N acts on a body of mass 40g
initially at rest. Calculate the magnitude of the resulting acceleration
A. 15 x 10-2m/s2
B. 15 x 10-1m/s2
C. 15m/s2
D. 1.5 m/s2
23. The device used for measuring the quantity of heat supplied to a
substance is called
A. Heater
B. Calorimeter
C. Beaker
D. Cylinder
24. A ball of mass 0.5kg moving at 10m/s collides with another ball
of equal mass at rest. If the two balls move off together after impact,
calculate their common velocity
A. 5m/s
B. 2.5 m/s
C. 10m/s
D. 15m/s
25. For a perfectly inelastic collision
A. Only momentum is covered
B. Only kinetic energy is conserved
C. Both momentum and kinetic energy is conserved
D. Both momentum and kinetic energy not conserved
26. A machine is rated as being 60% efficient. This means that it
converts
A. 60 joules out of every 100 put in, into useful energy
B. 40 joules out of every 100 put in, into useful energy
C. 60 joules out of every 60 put in, into useful energy
D. 40 joules out of every 60 put in, into useful energy
27. Water without impurities boils at
A. 0oC
B. 4oC
C. 104oC
D. 100oC
28. The specific heat capacity of a substance is measured in
A. JKgK
B. J/K
C. J/KgK
D. JK
29. A resistance thermometer has a resistance of 10 at 00C and 90
at 1000
C. if it records 55 in a certain medium, calculate the temperature of
the medium
A. 18oC
B. 75oC
C. 57oC
D. 38oC
30. A machine has an efficiency of 80%. If the machine is required to
overcome a load of 60N with a force of 40N, calculate its velocity
ratio
A. 1.875
B. 8.175
C. 5.817
D. 7.185

31. Water is said to be anomalous

A. At 0oC
B. Between 0oC to 40oC
C. At 4oC
D. At 100oC
32. The Fahrenheit scale has an upper fixed point temperature of
A. 273oF
B. 212oF
C. 32oF
D. 373oF
33. How much heat energy will be needed to change the temperature
of 275g of paraffin oil by 75K (SHC of paraffin oil = 2130J/KgK)
A. 13934.52J
B. 25439.31J
C. 93142.35J
D. 43931.25J
34. An object is heated from 30oC to 57o
C. What is the increase in its temperature on the Kelvin scale?
A. 27K
B. 87K
C. 300K
D. 273K
35. Which of the following is a second order lever?
A. Plier
B. Wheelbarrow
C. Crawbar
D. Hammer

36. The velocity ration (V.R) for a screw is given by

A. 2πr/P
B. 1/sinθ
C. x/y
D. 2πR/2πr

37.A boy drags a bag of rice along a smooth horizontal surface (floor)
with a force of 2N applied at an angle of 600 to the floor. What is the
work done after 3m
A. 6J
B. 3J
C. 2J
D. 5J
38. Which of the following is not a type of machine
A. Rope
B. Wedge
C. Screw
D. Wheel and Axle
39. The thermometric substance for a thermocouple is?
A. Alcohol
B. Gas
C. Resistance wire
D. Current flow
40. Which of the following is not a feature of thermometer
A. Construction
B. Sensitivity
C. Calibration
D. Conduction

SS ONE MATHEMATICS EXAMINATION

1. The decimal part of the logarithm is called ______

A. Mantissa
B. Difference
C. Integer
D. Characteristics
2. Express 𝐀𝟒𝐁12 to base 10
A. 27010
B. 1035610
C. 149910
D. 120410
3. What is hexadecimal in number system?
A. Means base 10
B. Means base two
 C. Means base 12
D. Means base 16

5. Simplify 12 + 7 in mode 5
A. 4mod5
B. 3mod5
C. 2mod5
D. 5mod5
6. Evaluate 5 X 6 in mode 10
A. 3
B. 2
C. 0
D. 6
7. Write 3.74 x 105 in ordinary form
A. 3740
B. 3740000
C. 374000
D. 0.00374
8. Express 200000 in standard form:
A. 2.0 x 104
B. 2.0 x 10-4
C. 2.0 x 105
D. 2.0 x 10-5
9. Express 0.0000085 in standard form:
A. 8.5 x 106
 B. 8.5 x 105
C. 8.5 x 10-6
D. 8.5 x 10-4
10. Simplify 𝟑5 𝐱 𝟑3 in index notation:
A. 32
B. 37
C. 39
D. 38

11. Write the value of 9𝑎3 x 𝑎-5 in index notation

A. 9𝑎-2
B. 9𝑎3
C. 9𝑎5
D. 9𝑎
12. What is the value of 𝑡4 ÷ 𝑡4 in index notation:
A. 𝑡8
B. 1
C. 𝑡
D. 1/t

13. Simplify 5𝑥2 x 4𝑥0 x 2𝑥-6

A. 40𝑥12
B. 40𝑥4
C. 40𝑥-4
 D. 40𝑥-12
14. Evaluate (𝟑4)2
A. 36
B. 32
C. 3-8
D. 38

15. Simplify
8⅓

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
16. Simplify
4⅙×4⅓

A.
4⅖

B. 2
C.
4⅙
 D.
4⅓

17. Simplify
(8/27)⅔

A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 4/9
D. 0.296

18. Simplify
(8/27)-2/3

A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 4/9
D. 9/4
19. Group collection of distinct elements is termed ___________
A. Set
B. Venn diagram
 C. Complement
D. Factors
20. A set without element is called _____________
A. Subset
B. Null set
C. Union set
D. Intersection

Use the information below to answer questions 21 and 22

A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
21. What is A ∩ B
A. A ∩ B = { }
B. A ∩ B = {3, 4, 5}
C. A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3}
D. A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
22. Find A ∪ B
A. A ∪ B = {2, 4, 6}
B. A ∪ B = {2, 4}
C. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
D. A ∪ B = { }
Use the information below to answer questions 23 and 24
If 𝜇= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}, 𝐴 = {1, 2, 3, 4}, 𝐵 = {2, 4, 6},
23. find 𝐴′
A. 𝐴′ = {1, 2, 3, 4}
 B. 𝐴′ = {2, 4, 6}
C. 𝐴′ = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
D. 𝐴′ = { }
24. find A ∪ B
A. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}
B. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4}
C. A ∪ B = {2, 4, 6, 8}
D. A ∪ B = {5, 7, 8, 9, 10}

25. Interpret the Venn diagram

A. A ∩ B ∩ C
B. (A U B U C)′
C. A ∩ B′ ∩ C
D. (A ∩ B ∩ C)'
26. Find the solution of 3𝑥 = 5 (Mod4)
A. 5/3
B. 3
C. 5
 D. 3/5
27. 𝑃 varies directly as 𝑄. Find the equation connecting P and Q. if 𝑃
= 12 and 𝑄 = 60.
A. 𝑃 = 10𝑄
B. 𝑃 =
1
5

C. 𝑃 = k/q

D. 𝑃 = 𝐾𝑄2
28. Solve for 𝑥 in the equation: 4𝑥 − 8 = 0
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
29. Find the value of 𝑥 in 2(3𝑥 − 2) = 8
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5 30. Find the value of 𝑦 in the equation: 3(𝑦 + 4) = 4(𝑦 + 1)
A. 5
 B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

31. Simplify
2 2/3 - (2 1/2 - 1 4/5)

A.
59/15

B.
52/15

C.
59/30

D.
52/30

32. Evaluate the logarithm of 1.376

 A. 0.1386
B. 1.1386
C. 0.3861
D. 1.8316

33. Express 0.00562 in standard form

A. 5.62 × 103
B. 56.2 × 10-3
C. 5.62 × 10-4
D. 5.62 × 10-3
34. If 32𝑥 = 27 what is 𝑥?
A. 2/3
B. −2/3
C. 3/2
D. 1
35. Find 𝑥 if
4x=2 1/2 × 8

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2
36. Perform the operation 1010002 − 11012
A. 101112
B. 111012
 C. 111102
D. 110112
37. Convert 8910 to a number in base 2
A. 10110012
B. 1100102
C. 10011012
D. 10100102
38. Simplify (4𝑎 + 3𝑏) − (𝑦 − 3𝑏)
A. 4𝑎 + 6𝑏 − 𝑦
B. 4𝑎 − 𝑦
C. 3𝑎 − 𝑦 − 6𝑏
D. 4𝑎 + 𝑦 + 6𝑏
39. Find the value of A if
=1/2( a+b)ℎ
given that 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ = 4
A. 12
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
40. Simplify (𝑥 + 𝑦)2 − 2𝑥𝑦
A. 𝑥2 + 𝑦2
B. 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑥𝑦
C. 𝑥2 − 𝑦2
D. 𝑥2 − 𝑦2 + 2𝑥𝑦
 41. If A = {2,4,6} find 𝑛𝑃(𝐴)
A. 12
B. 8
C. 16
D. 14

SS 2 MATHEMATICS EXAMINATION

1. Find the range of values of 𝑥 for which 5𝑥 − 4 > 11.

A. 𝑥 > 3
B. 𝑥 < 3
C. 𝑥 < 5
D. 𝑥 < 1
2. If 𝑥 is an integer, find the three lowest possible values of 𝑥 in 2𝑥 −
1>5
A. 3, 4, 5
B. 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 3, 2, 1
3. The statement there are less than 30 people on a bus’ can be
represented mathematically as
 A. 𝑥 < 3
B. 𝑥 > 30
C. 𝑥 ≤ 30
D. 𝑥 ≥ 30
4. Solve for 𝑥 if 3 − 𝑥 < 1
A. 𝑥 < −2
B. 𝑥 < 4
C. 𝑥 > 2
C. 𝑥 > −4

5. Simplify
8x²z/10xyz

A.
4xyz/5

B.
4z/5

C.
4x/5y

D.
4yz/5
 6. Simplify
18ab/15bc × 20cd/24de

A. a/e
B. 3a/5b

C. 1
D. 4abcd/2a

7. For what value of 𝑥 is the expression

2x + 1/3x-12
not defined?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 12
D. 2
8. Solve for 𝑎 if
3/a = a - 2

A. −1, 2
B. 5, 6
C. 3, −1
D. 2, 3
9. Simplify
 ℎ²-k²/ℎ-k²
A.
ℎ+k/ℎ-k

B.
ℎ-k/ℎ+k

C. ℎ + 𝑘
D. ℎ − 𝑘

10. If x/y =3/4, evaluate 2x - y/2x + y

A. 3/4
B. 1/55
C. 10
D. 12

Use the below stated information to answer question 11 and 12

Given that 𝑝 and 𝑞 are statements such that;
p: He is healthy
q: He is neat
11.Which of the following represents the statement ‘he is unhealthy
only if he is neat’
A. ~𝑝 → ~𝑞
 B. ~𝑝 → 𝑞
C. 𝑝 → ~𝑝
D. ~𝑞 → ~𝑝
12.Which of the following represents ‘he is not neat only if he is
unhealthy’
A. ~𝑞 → ~𝑝
B. 𝑞 → 𝑝
C. ~𝑝 → ~𝑞
D. ~𝑞 → 𝑝
13.If 𝑝 is the statement 3 + 4 = 8 then negation 𝑝 written as ~p is the
statement
A. 3 + 4 = 7
B. 3 + 4 ≠ 8
C. 3 + 4 = 8
D. 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏
14.If 𝑝 → 𝑞, then the converse statement of 𝑝 → 𝑞 is
A. 𝑝 → ~𝑞
B. ~𝑝 → 𝑞
C. ~𝑞 → ~𝑝
D. 𝑞 → 𝑝
15.A chord of length 24cm is 13cm from the centre of the circle.
Calculate the radius of the circle
A. 17.69𝑐𝑚
B. 15𝑐𝑚
C. 7𝑐𝑚
D. 12.57𝑐𝑚
16.Find the value of 𝑥 in the figure below (O is the centre of the
circle)

A. 49°
B. 82°
C. 108°
D. 98°

17.Find the value of y in the figure below (O is the centre of the

circle)

A. 180°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 60°
18.For what value of 𝑥 is the expression
X² + 3x + 2/x + 4
equals to zero?
A. 2, 3
B. −1, −2
C. 3, −4
D. 3 − 5
19.Solve for 𝑥 and 𝑦, 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 1, 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 30
 A. 𝑥 = 8, 𝑦 = −3
B. 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = 5
C. 𝑥 = 4, 𝑦 = 2
D. 𝑥 = 6, 𝑦 = 2

20. Find the range of value of 𝑥 for which 2 − 𝑥 < 8 < 9 − 𝑥

A. −6 < 𝑥 < 1
B. 67 < 𝑥 < 2
D. 2 < 𝑥 < 4
21. What is the length of a chord of a circle of radius 26cm if the
chord is 10cm from the centre of the circle.
A. 24cm
B. 48cm
C. 12 cm
D. 7cm.

22. From the top of a building 10𝑚 high, the angle of depression of a
stone lying on the horizontal ground is 69°. Calculate the distance of
the stone from the foot of the building.
A. 3.6𝑚
B. 3.8𝑚
C. 8.0𝑚
D. 9.3m
23. A ladder 6𝑚 long leans against a vertical wall so that it makes an
angle of 60° with the wall. Calculate the distance of the foot of the
ladder from the wall.
A. 3𝑚
B. 6𝑚
C. 3.46𝑚
D. 5.20𝑚

24. What is the logarithm of 0.00325?

A. 3̅. 5079
B. 4.3521
C. 3̅. 4371
D. 0.3245
25. Correct 457.43 to the two significant figures.
A. 457.43
B. 457
C. 460
D. 500

26. What are the roots of the quadratic equation, 𝑥2 + 8𝑥 + 16

A. −4 twice
B. 2 and 4
C. 4 twice
D. 3 and 2
27. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are -3 and 2.
 A. 𝑥² − 3𝑥 + 2 = 0
B. 𝑥² + 4𝑥 + 5 = 0
C. 𝑥² + 𝑥 − 6 = 0
D. 𝑥² − 𝑥 + 1 = 0
28. For what value of k is the quadratic equation 𝑥2 + 5𝑥 + 𝑘 a
perfect square?
A. 4
B. 24/4
C. 18
D. 12/5

29. Evaluate log10 6 + log10 45 − log10 27

A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10
30. If log 𝑥 = 2̅. 3675 and log 𝑦 = 0.9750 what is the value of 𝑥+ 𝑦.
Correct to three significant figures
A. 1.18
B. 1.31
C. 9.03
D. 9.46
31. Find the sum of the first five terms of the GP 2, 6, 18,…
A. 484
B. 243
 C. 242
D. 130

33. Which of the following equations has its root as 4 and -5

A. 𝑥² + 4𝑥 + 10 = 0
B. 𝑥² + 𝑥 − 20 = 0
C. 𝑥² + 𝑥 + 20 = 0
D. 𝑥² − 𝑥 − 20 = 0
34. Find 𝑥 if log2 2𝑥 + log2 8 = 5
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
35. The actual length of a table is 8.40cm. A boy measured it to be
7.64cm. What is the percentage error in the measurement?
A. 9.0%
B. -9.0%
C. -8.6%
D. 8.6%

36. Find the gradient of a straight line whose equation is 5𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 3

=0
A. 5
B. −5/2
C. 5/3
 D. −3/2

>
37. Find the equation of the straight line passing through the pair of
points (2, 4) and (5, 6)
A. 3𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 8
B. 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 5
C. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 10
D. 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4
38. Correct 45.8472 to two decimal places
A. 45.00
B. 45.85
C. 45.80
D. 40.00
39. The first term of an AP is 3, if the common difference is 2, find
the 10th term.
A. 21
B. 30
C. 45
D. 34
40. What is the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of the GP 6, 18, 54, 162,…
A. 2 × 4𝑛
B. 5 × 3𝑛
C. 2 × 3𝑛
D. 2 × 3𝑛-1
41. Factorize the quadratic expression 𝑥22 + 4𝑥 + 4
A. (𝑥 + 2)(𝑥 + 2)
B. (𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 2)
C. (𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 + 3)
D. (𝑥 + 2)(𝑥 − 3)