Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET– CELL
Sections : (A) Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Biology
Questions : 50 50 100
Marks : 180 180 360
Roll No.
NEET-2024 CT-01
Date : 25 June 2023
23 Time : 3.20 Hours

This is to certify that, the entry of Roll No. has been correctly written and verified.

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature

Physics : Units & Measurements, Electrostatics

[SECTION-A] 05. The dimensions of universal gravitational
01. Percentage errors in the measurement of mass constant are
and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error 1) M –2 L 2 T –2 2) M –1 L 3 T –2
in the estimation of kinetic energy obtained by 3) ML T –1 –2
4) M –1 L 2 T –2
measuring mass and speed will be 06. The dimensions of power are
1) M 1 L 2 T –3 2) M 2 L 1 T –2
1) 8% 2) 2%
3) M 1 L 2 T –1 4) M 1 L 1 T –2
3) 12% 4) 10%
07. The period of a body under SHM i.e. presented by
02. The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s
T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is density and S
balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces of masses is surface tension. The value of a, b and c are
20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. The
3 1
total mass of the box is 1)  , ,1 2) – 1, – 2, 3
2 2
1) 2.3 kg 2) 2.34 kg
3) 2.340 kg 4) 2.3403 kg 1 3 1 1
3) , , 4) 1, 2,
03. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 2 2 2 3
0.2) m in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. Its velocity with 08. Which one of the following does not have the
error limits is same dimensions?
1) (3.5 ± 0.6) ms–1 1) Work and energy
2) (3.5 ± 0.3) ms–1 2) Angle and strain
3) (6.1 ± 0.6) ms–1 3) Relative density and refractive index
4) (6.1 ± 0.3) ms–1 4) Planck constant and energy
04. The number of significant figures in the numbers 09. The distance of a galaxy from the earth is of the
4.8000 × 104 and 48000.50 are respectively order of 1025 m. The time taken by light to reach
1) 5 and 6 2) 5 and 7 the earth from the galaxy is
3) 2 and 7 4) 2 and 6 1) 3 × 1014s 2) 3 × 1016 S
3) 3 × 1018 s 4) 3 × 1020S
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10. The distance of the moon from the earth is about 16. A screw guage gives the following reading when
60 times the radius of the earth. What will be used to measure the diameter of a wire.
diameter of the earth (approximately in degrees) Main scale reading : 0 mm
as seen from the moon ? Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
1) 1° 2) 2° Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds
3) 4° 4) 6° to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
11. The temperatures of two bodies measured by a The diameter of the wire from the above data is
thermometer are t1=200C ± 0.50C and t2= 500 C ± 1) 0.052 cm 2) 0.026 cm
0.50C. The temperature difference and the error 3) 0.005 cm 4) 0.52 cm
therein is 17. In order to measure the period of a simple
1) 300C ± 1 °C pendulum using a stop clock, a student repeated
2) 700C ± 0.5 °C the experiment for 10 times and noted down
3) 300C ± 0.5 °C the time period for each experiment as 5.1, 5.0,
4) 700C ± rc 4.9, 5.1, 5.0,4.9,5.1,5.0,4.9s
12. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum The correct way of expressing the result for the
period is
L
is T  2  . Measured value of L is 10 cm 1) 4.99 s 2) 5.0 s
g
3) 5.00 s 4) 4.9 s
known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 18. The dimensional formula of velocity gradient is
oscillations of the pendulum is found to, be 50 s 1) [M 0L 0T –1J 2) [MLT1]
using a wrist watch of 1 s resolution. What is the 3) [ML0T–1] 4) [M0LT–2]
accuracy in the determination of g? 19. A force F is acting between charges placed in
1) 2% 2) 3% vacuum. If the glass plate of dielectric constant
3) 4% 4) 5% K = 6 is now placed between them, the net force
13. Two resistors of resistances R1 = (100 ± 3)  and R2 on the chrages now will be
= (200 ± 4)  are connected in parallel. The 1) 6F 2) F/6
equivalent resistance of the parallel combination is 3) Zero 4) F/36
1) (66.7 ± 1.8)  20. Four similar charges each of 2C are placed at x
2) (66.7 ± 4.0)  = 0, 2, 4 and 8cm on X-axis.The force exerted on
3) (66.7 ± 3.0)  the charge in newton at x = 2 cm will be -
4) (66.7 ± 7.0)  1) 0 2) 5
14. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere 3) 10 4) 10–2
is 1 %. Then error in the measurement of 21. Two identical metallic sphere are charged with
volume is 10 and – 20 units of charge. If both the spheres
1) 1% 2) 5% are first brought into contact with each other
3) 3% 4) 8% and then are placed to their previous positions,
15. Random error can be eliminated by then the ratio of the force in the two situations
1) careful observation
will be :-
2) eliminating the cause
1) – 8 : 1 2) 1 : 8
3) measuring the quantity with more than
3) – 2 : 1 4) 1 : 2
one instrument
4) taking large number of observations and
then their mean.
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22. Three charges each equal to +2 C are placed at 26. Two point charges (+ Q) and (– 2Q) are fixed on
the corners of an equilateral triangle. If the force the X-axis at positions a and 2a from origin
between any two charges be F, then the net force respectively. At what positions on the axis, the
on either will be resultant force on a test charge will be zero
1) 3F 2) 2F 1) only x = 2a 2) only x = – 2 a
3) 2 .F 4) 3 .F
3a
3) both x = ± 2a 4) x= only
23. 2
3  10 19 C and –10 C are placed at (0, 0, 0)
–6

and (1, 1, 1) respectively. Find the force on sec- 27. Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge
ond in vector form Q = 10 C (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended
by two insulating threads of equal lengths 1 each,
1) ˆ
3  10 6 (iˆ  ˆj  k)N from a point fixed in the ceiling. If is found that
is equilibrium threads are separated by an angle
2) ˆ
3  10 6 (iˆ  ˆj  k)N
60º between them, as shown in the fig. What is
ˆ the tension in the threads
3) 3  10 6 (iˆ  ˆj  k)N
1
ˆ (Given ( 4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)
4) 3  10 (iˆ  ˆj  k)N
6
0

24. Electric charges of 1C, –1C and 2C are placed

in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an
equilateral triangle ABC having length of each
60º
side 10 cm. The resultant force on the charge at

1 N  m2
C is, 4 = 9 × 109 Q Q
0 C2

1) 0.9 N 2) 1.8 N
1) 18 N 2) 1.8 N
3) 2.7 N 4) 3.6 N
3) 0.18 N 4) 0.018 N
25. Assertion : Two positively charged bodies may
28. Two equal charges are separated by a distance
attract each other electrically
d. A third charge placed on a perpendicular bi-
Reason : Similar charges repel each other
sector at x distance will experience maximum
1) Both assertion and reason are true and
coulomb force when -
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. 1) x  d/ 2 2) x = d/2
2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of 3) x = d/2 2 4) x = d/ 2 3
assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

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29. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal 32. In the fig. what will be the net force on charge at
radii and carrying equal charges on them repel A:
each other with a force F when kept apart at some
distance. A third spherical conductor having qA

same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought a a

in contact with B, then brought in contact with
q q
C and finally removed away from both. The new a
B C
force of repulsion between B and C is
1) 3F/8 2) 3F/4
kq kq 2
3) F/8 4) F/4 1)  2 2) 
a 2 a2
30. Four charged equal to – Q are placed at the four
kq 2 3kq 2
corners of a square and a charge q is at its cen- 3) 4)
2a 2 a2
tre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q
33. Two point charges placed at a distance 'r' in air
is
exert a force 'F'. The value of distance at which
Q Q they exerts same force when placed in medium
1) (1  2 2 ) 2) (1  2 2 )
2 4 (dielectric constant K) is
1) rK 2) r/K
Q Q
3)  (1  2 2 ) 4)  (1  2 2 ) 3) r K 4)
r K
2 4
34. Two equal negative charges – q, are placed at
31. Figure below show regular hexagon, the charges
points (0,a) and (0,–a) on y axis, one positive
are placed at the vertices. In which of the charge q at rest is left to move from point
following cases the net force on a test charge (2a, 0). This charge will be
when placed at centre will be zero 1) execute S.H.M. about the origin.
2) oscillate but not execute S. H. M.
5q 4q q –q 3) move towards origin and will become
stationary.
6q 3q –q q 4) S. H. M. along x axis.
35. A charge q is placed in the middle of a line joining
q 2q q q the two equal and like point charges Q. This
I II system will remain in equilibrium for which the
value of q is
Q Q
2q 2q 2q 2q 1)  2) 
3 4
Q Q
q q q q 3) 4) 
2 2
2q 2q 2q q
III IV

1) IV 2) III
3) I 4) II

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 [SECTION-B] 42. The percentage errors in quantities P, Q, R and
36. The force of interaction between two atoms is S are 0.5%, 1%, 3% and 1.5% respectively in the
 x2  P 3Q2
given by F   exp    ; where x is the measurement of a physical quantity A 
 kT  RS
distance, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is The maximum percentage error in the value of
temperature and  and  are two constants. The A will be
dimensions of  is: 1) 8.5% 2) 6.0%
1) M 0 L 2 T –4 2) M2LT–4 3) 7.5% 4) 6.5%
3) MLT –2
4) M 2 L 2 T –2 43. Two copper balls, each having weight 10 g are
37. The following observations were taken for kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from
determining surface tensiton T of water by every 106 atoms is transfered from one ball to
capillary method: the other, the coulomb force between them is
Diameter of capilary, D = 1.25 × 10–2m (atomic weight of copper is 63.5)
rise of water, h = 1.45 x 10–2 m 1) 2.0 × 108 N 2) 2.0 × 106 N
Using g = 9.80 m/s2 and the simplified relation
3) 2.0 × 1010 N 4) 2.0 × 104 N
rhg 44. Two point charges + 9e and +e are kept 16 cm.
T= × 103 N/m, the possible error in surface
2 apart to each other. Where should a third charge
tension is closest to : q be placed between them so that the system
1) 2.4% 2) 10% remains in the equilibrium state
3) 0.15% 4) 1.5% 1) 24 cm from + 9e
38. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) be consid-ered 2) 12 cm from + 9e
fundamental units, then the units of mass will 3) 24 cm from + e
be 4) 12 cm from + e
1) [F L T–2] 2) [F L–2 T–1] 45. Three charges –q1 , +q2 and –q3 are placed as
3) [F L–1 T2] 4) [F2 L T–2] shown in the figure. The x–component of the
39. The number of significant figures in 45056 is force on –q1 is proportional to :
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5 –q3 y
40. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
in the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s,
a 
2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average
absolute error is b
x
1) 0.1 s 2) 0.11 s –q1 +q2
3) 0.01 s 4) 1.0 s
q2 q3 q2 q3
41. The dimensional formula for entropy is 1) 2
 2
sin  2) 2
 cos 
b a b a2
1) [MLT–2K1] 2) [ML2T–2]
q2 q3 q2 q3
3) [ML 2T –2K –1] 4) [ML2T –2K] 3)  sin  4)  cos 
b2 a2 b2 a2

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46. In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl– 48. In 1 g of a solid, there are 5  1021 atoms. If one
ions are arranged in a bcc configuration as electron is removed from everyone of 0.01%
shown below.The net electrostatic force exerted
atoms of the solid, the charge gained by the solid
by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl– ion is
is (electronic charge is 1.6  10–19 C)
+ + 1) + 0.08 C 2) + 0.8 C
Cs Cs
3) – 0.08 C 4) – 0.8 C
+ +
Cs Cs 49. Two point charges of + 2 C and + 6C repel
a
Cl
– each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given
Cs
+
+ an additional charge of – 4 C, then force will
Cs
become:–
a 1) 4N (attractive) 2) 60 N (attractive)
Cs
+
Cs+
3) 4 N (Repulsive) 4) 12 N (attractive)
50. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q1 and Q2
1 16 e 2 and these charges are placed at a distance R.
1) zero 2) 4  0 3 a 2
There will be maximum repulsion between them
when
1 32 e 2 1 4 e2
3) 4  0 3 a 2 4)
4  0 3 a 2 Q Q Q
1) Q1  , Q2 
R R
47. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are
given charges of – 1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C, 2Q Q
2) Q1  , Q2 
respectively. If these are connected by a 3 3
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is : 3Q Q
3) Q1  ,Q2 
4 4
1) 4 × 10–2 C 2) 1 × 10–2 C
–2
3) 2 × 10 C 4) 3 × 10–2 C Q
4) Q1  Q 2 
2

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 Chemistry : Mole Concept, Nomenclature
60. If molecular weight of KMnO4 is M, then its
51. Which has the highest weight?
equivalent weight in acidic medium would be
1) 1 m3 of water
2) A normal adult man M
1) M 2)
3) 10 L of Hg 2
4) All have same weight M M
3) 4)
52. 1 L oxygen gas at STP will weigh 5 3
1) 1.43 g 2) 2.24 g 61. 74.5g of a metallic chloride contains 35.5g of
3) 11.2 g 4) None of these chlorine, the equivalent weight of the metal is
53. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in 1) 19.5 2) 35.5
1) 80 g of hydrogen 3) 39 4) 78.0
2) 1 g of hydrogen 62. A gas is found to have a formula [CO]x. Its
3) 10 g of hydrogen vapour density is 70, the x is
4) 5 g of hydrogen 1) 3.0 2) 3.5
54. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, 3) 5.0 4) 6.5
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen 63. The IUPAC name of the compound
atoms?
1) 0.02 2) 3.125 × 10–2
3) 1.25 × 10–2 4) 2.5 × 10–2
55. The mass of 112 cm3 of CH4 gas at STP is
1) 0.16 g 2) 0.8 g is
3) 0.08 g 4) 1.6 g 1) 4-methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol
56. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. 2) 2-methylcyclopent-4-en-4-ol
The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is 3) 3-methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol
1) 182 2) 168 4) 5-methylcyclopent-2-en-ol
3) 192 4) 188 64. The IUPAC name of the following compound
57. The relative abundance of two isotopes of atomic
weight 85 and 87 is 75% and 25% respectively. is
The average atomic weight of element is
1) 75.5 2) 85.5 1) 1,2-dimethylbut-2-en-1-ol
3) 40.0 4) 86.0 2) 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
58. The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction, 3) 3,4-dimethylbut-2-en-4-ol
4) 2,3-dimethylpent-3-en-1-ol
2Cr(OH)3  OH  KIO3  2CrO24  5H2O  KI
65. The IUPAC name of the compound
is
1) mol. wt. 2) mol. wt./3
is
3) mol. wt./6 4) mol. wt./2
59. 3g of an oxide of a metal is converted to chloride 1) bicyclo [2, 4, 0] octan-3-ol
completely and it yielded 5g of chloride. The 2) bicyclo [4, 2, 0] octan-3-ol
equivalent weight of the metal is 3) bicyclo [4, 2, 0] octan-4-ol
1) 33.25 2) 3.325 4) bicyclo [4, 2, 0] octan-6-ol
3) 12 4) 20

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66. The IUPAC name of th ehydrocarbon 71. The IUPAC name of th ecompound
CH  CCH  CH  CH  CH2 is
1) hexa-3,5-dien-5-yne
2) hexa-1,2-dien-1-yne
3) hexa-1,3-dien-5-yne is
4) hexa-3,5-dien-1-yne 1) 2-ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene
67. The correct IUPAC name of the compound 2) 2-isopropylbut-1-ene
3) 2-methyl-3-ethyl-3-butene
4) 2-(1-methylethyl)but-1-ene
72. The IUPAC name for the formula
is

1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxaldehyde is
2) 2-carboxy-5-formylecyclohexane 1) 2-methylbut-2-enoic acid
3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylic 2) 3-methylbut-3-enoic acid
acid 3) 3-methylbut-2-enoic acid
4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal 4) 2-methylbut--3-enoic acid
68. IUPAC name of the following compound is 73. The IUPAC name of the compound

is

1) 1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohexane 1) 2-amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid

2) 2-ethyl-1-methylcyclohexane 2) 3-hydroxy-2-aminopropan-3-oic acid
3) 6-ethyl-1-methylcyclohexane 3) 1-amino-2-hydroxypropanoic acid
4) 1-ethyl-6-methylcyclohexane 4) 3-hydroxy-2-aminopropanoic acid
69. What is the IUPAC name of the compound 74. The IUPAC name of
shown?

is
1) 5-oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone
1) 1-Methylpropanamide 2) 4-hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone
2) N-Methyl propanamide 3) 2-hydroxy-4-oxopentanal
3) N-Butylethanamide 4) 1-al-4-oxo-2-pentanol
4) N-Methylbutanamide 75. The ionic bonds X+ Y– are formed when :
70. The IUPAC name of I) electron affinity of Y is high
II) ionization energy of X is low
is III) lattice energy of XY is high
IV) lattice energy of XY is low
1) 4-hydroxy-1-methylpentanal Choose the correct code :
2) 4-hydroxy-2-methylpent-2-en-1-al 1) I and II
3) 2-hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-en-5-al 2) I and III
4) 2-hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al 3) I, II and III
4) All
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76. Which of the following is an example of super 84. In which of the following species, the bonds
octet molecule ? are non-directional?
1) ClF3 2) PCl5 1) NCl3 2) RbCl
3) IF7 4) All the three 3) BeCl2 4) BCl3
77. Which of the following species is neither 85. The element X of group VA combines with the
hypervalent nor hypovalent ? element Y of group VIA. The resulting
1) ClO 4– 2) BF3 compound may have the formula
3) SO 4 2– 4) CO 3 2– 1) X2Y3 2) X5Y6
78. A  -bond is formed by the overlap of : 3) X3Y2 4) X6Y5
1) s-s orbitals
2) s-p orbitals
3) p-p orbitals in end to end fashion
[SECTION-B]
4) p-p orbitals in sidewise manner 86. The total number of proton in 10g of calcium
79. The electronic configurations of four elements carbonate is (N0 = 6.023 × 1023)
are : 1) 3.01 × 1024 2) 4.06 × 1024
A : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p4 3) 2.01 × 10 24
4) 3.02 × 1024
B : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5 87. Number of atoms in 560g of Fe (atomic mass
C : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 56g mol–1) is
D : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 1) twice that of 70g N
The formulae of ionic compounds that could 2) half that of 20g H
be formed between them are : 3) both are correct
1) A2C, DA, CB, D2B 4) none of these
2) C2A, DA, CB, DB 88. A signature, written in carbon pencil weights 1
3) AC, D2A, C2B, DB mg. What is the number of carbon atoms present
4) C2A, DA, CB, DB2 in the signature?
80. According to Fajan rules, the covalent character 1) 5.02 × 1023
is most favoured in 2) 5.02 × 1020
1) small cation, large anion
3) 6.02 × 1020
2) small cation, small anion
4) 0.502 × 1020
3) large cation, large anion
89. The mass of 11.2 L of ammonia gas at STP is
4) large cation, small anion
1) 8.5 g 2) 85 g
81. Which one of the following is an electron
3) 17 g 4) 1.7 g
deficient compound?
90. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume
1) C 2H 2 2) AlCl3
occupied by 1g of the gas at NTP is
3) H2O 4) NH3
1) 1L 2) 11.2 L
82. Which of the following compound does not 3) 22.4 L 4) 4L
follow octet rule? 91. The IUPAC name of CH3CH=CHCOOC2H5 is
1) CO 2 2) PCl3 1) ethylbut-1-enoate
3) ICl 4) ClF3 2) ethylbut-2-enoate
83. Which one is the highest melting halide? 3) ethylprop-2-enoate
1) NaCl 2) NaF 4) none of these
3) NaBr 4) NaI

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92. The correct nomenclature (IUPAC) for the fol- 96. Most favourable conditions for ionic bonding
are
lowing alcohol is 1) low charge on ions, large cation,
large anion
1) 2-ethyl-2-butanol
2) low charge on ions, large cation,
2) 3-methyl-3-pentanol
small anion
3) 3-ethyl-3-methyl-2-pentanol
3) high charge on ions, large cation,
4) 1,1-dimethylanol
small anion
93. Systematic nomenclature of the following
4) high charge on ions, small cation,
cycloalkane is
large anion
97. Which of the following pairs will form the most
stable ionic bond?
1) 1-methylbicyclo (4, 3, 0) nonane 1) Na and Cl 2) Mg and F
2) 8-methylbicyclo (4, 3, 0) nonane 3) Li and F 4) Na and F
3) 3-methylbicyclo (4, 3, 0) nonane 98. The correct order of increasing ionic character
4) 4-methylbicyclo (4, 3, 0) nonane is
94. The IUPAC name of
1) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
2) BaCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
is
3) BaCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
1) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl hept-5-en-1- 4) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2
yne 99. Which of the following statement is correct?
2) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-5-methyl hept-1-en-2- 1) FeCl2 is more covalent than FeCl3
yne 2) FeCl3 is more covalent than FeCl2
3) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl hept-2-en-6-
3) Both FeCl2 and FeCl3 are equally
yne
covalent
4) 6-chloro-4-ethyl-3-methyl hept-6-en-2-
yne 4) FeCl2 and FeCl3 do not have any
95. The IUPAC name of covalent character
100. Which of the following is the correct order
according to stability/lattice energy?
is
1) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4
1) 1-hydroxy-4-methylpentan-3-one
2) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4
2) 2-methyl-5-hydroxypentan-3-one
3) 4-methyl-3-oxopentan-1-ol 3) MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BeSO4
4) hexan-1-ol-3-one 4) MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BeSO4

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 Botany : The living World, Biological Classification
[SECTION-A] 110. Identify ‘ 1 ’ and ‘2’ in the given figure of Nostoc.
101. Mode/s of sexual reproduction in bacteria is/are
1) Conjugation 2) Transformation
3) Transduction 4) All of the above
102. Match the column and select the correct option
Column I Column II
1. Coccus a. Comma shaped
2. Bacillus b. Sphere shaped
3. Vibrium c. Rod shaped
4. Spirillum d. Spiral shaped
1) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a 2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
1) 1. Sporangium
3) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d 4) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
2. Cell membrane
103. The motile bacteria are able to move by
2) 1. Capsule
1) Fimbriae 2) Flagella
2. Chitin
3) Cilia 4) Pili
3) 1. Heterocyst
104. Which is the most common method of
2. Mucilagenous sheath
reproduction in bacteria?
4) 1. Micropyl
1) DNA transfer 2) Through spores
2. Cell wall
3) Fission 4) Copulation
111. Assertion: Nostoc is a photosynthetic autotroph.
105. Organisms living in salty areas are called as
Reason: Nostoc can fix atmospheric nitrogen in
1) Methanogens
heterocysts.
2) Halophiles
1) Both assertion and reason are true and
3) Heliophytes reason is the correct explanation of
4) Thermoacidophiles assertion.
106. Which of the following represents obligate 2) Both assertion and reason are true but
anaerobes? reason is not the correct explanation of
1) Spirogyra assertion.
2) Pisum sativum 3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
3) Onion 4) Both assertion and reason are false.
4) Methane bacteria 112. Which one of the following is a correct statement
107. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in regarding mycoplasma?
1) Cell membrane structure 1) Non pathogenic
2) Mode of nutrition 2) Distinct cell wall
3) Cell shape 3) Aerobic
4) Mode of reproduction 4) Smallest living cells known
108. The guts of cows and buffaloes possess 113. In five kingdom classification, how many
kingdoms contain prokaryotes?
1) Chlorella spp. 2) Methanogens
1) 4 2) 3
3) Cyanobacteria 4) Fucus spp.
3) 2 4) 1
109. Which of the following is not true?
114. Five kingdom system of classification suggested
1) Cyanobacteria forms a symbiotic
by R.H. Whittaker is not based on
association with fungus as mycorrhizae.
1) Presence or absence of a well defined
2) Mycoplasma lack cell wall.
nucleus
3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs can oxidise
2) Cell wall
some inorganic substances.
3) Mode of nutrition
4) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a.
4) Complexity of body organisation
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115. Recognise the following flow diagram and find the 120. How many (in number) of the following prop-
correct option according to taxonomic hierarchy erties are the defining characteristics of living
organisms?
Growth, reproduction, metabolism, cellular
organisation, consciousness
1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5
121. Self-consciousness (the awareness of himself) is
the property of
1) 1–Canis, 2–Felis, 3–Homo, 4–Felidae, 1) All living organisms
5–Hominidae, 6–Primata 2) Prokaryotes only
2) 1–Canidae, 2–Felidae, 3–Hominidae, 3) Eukaryotes only
4–Carnivora, 5–Primata, 6–Mammalia 4) Human beings only
3) 1–Canidae, 2–Felidae, 3–Hominidae, 122. Recognise the following flow diagram and find
4–Carnivora, 5–Mammalia, 6–Choradata the correct options according to taxonomic hi-
4) 1–Canis, 2–Felis, 3–Homo, 4–Carnivora, erarchy
5–Primata, 6–Mammalia
116. Genus represents
1) an individual plant or animal
2) a collection of plants or animals
3) group of closely related species of
plants or animals
4) none of these.
117. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic
hierarchial arrangement in ascending order of 1) ‘b’ is comparable to muscidae while ‘a’ is
the following. at the same level as that of primata
1) Spermatophyta, Sapindales, 2) ‘a’ includes all the angiosperms having
Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, two cotyledons in their seeds
Mangifera 3) For wheat ‘a’ is poaceae, ‘b’ is poales and
2) Mangifera, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, ‘c’ is monocotyledonae
Spermatophyta, Sapindales 4) all of the above are correct statements
3) Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, 123. The closest category of family is
Dicotyledons, Spermatophyta 1) Phylum 2) Class
4) Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, 3) Order 4) Species
Spermatophyte, Mangifera 124. Fill in the blanks according to taxonomical aids
118. Which of the following statements represents the
defining property of living organisms?
1) Worker bees are sterile.
2) Plants respond to external factors
such as light, temperature, water
etc.
3) Sand mounds grow due to accumulation
of matter from outside.
1) 1–Flora, 2–Kingdom, 3–Botanical gardens
4) All the above.
2) 1–Catalogues, 2–Keys, 3–Species
119. Kew, London is famous for
1) Being the largest biological reserve 3) 1–Botanical garden, 2–Museum, 3–Keys
2) Cryopreservation 4) 1–Monographs, 2–Order, 3–Manuals
3) Being the largest botanical garden
4) Diverse flora and fauna

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125. Study the four statements (a-d) given belwo and 131. Match the entities in Column I with their mode
select the two correct ones out of them of reproduction in Column ll-
a. Definition of biologicsl species was given Column- I Column II
by Erns’t Mayr A. Planaria I. Binary fission
b. Photoperiod does not affect reproduc- B. Fungi II. Asexual spores
tion in plants C. Yeast Ill. Budding
c. Binomial nomenclature system was D. Hydra IV. True
given by R.H. Whittaker regeneration
d. In unicellular organisms, reproduction E. Amoeba V. Fragmentation
is synonymous with growth F. Species VI. Linnaeus
The two correct statements are Plantarum
1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I, E-VI, F-V.
1) a and d 2) a and b
2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-III, E-I, F-VI.
3) b and c 4) c and d
3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-VI, F-I.
126. Non-living objects also grow if we take increase
4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-VI, F-VI.
in body mass as a criterion for growth. In moun-
132. Sequence of taxonomic categories is
tains, boulders and sand mounds growth is from
1) Class – Phylum–Order–Family–
1) Outside 2) Inside
Genus–Species
3) Both 4) None of the above 2) Division–Class–Family–Order–Genus –
127. Two individuals belongs to the same species if Species
they 3) Division – Class – Order – Family –
1) are reproductively isolated Genus – Species
2) are morphologically similar 4) Phylum–Order–Class–Family–
3) are intrebreeding and produce infertile Genus–Species.
offspring 133. Branch connected with nomenclature,
4) are intrebreeding and produce fertile identification and classification is-
offspring 1) Ecology 2) Taxonomy
128. In relatin to the biological or scientific names 3) Morphology 4) Physiology.
which is wrong? 134. In referring to an organism in writing, such as
1) Scientific names are generally in Latin in a news–paper, text–book, or lab report, which
and printed in Italics of these rules should be followed?
2) Scientific names ensure that one organ- a. Underline or italicise genus
ism has only one name b. Underline or italicise species
3) Scientific names are used all over the c. First letter of species should be uppercase
world d. First letter of genus should be uppercase.
4) One scientific name can be used for two 1) a, b, d 2) a, b, c
related secies 3) b, c, d 4) a, c, d
129. ‘Binomial nomenclature system’ was coined by 135. Which of the following biological processes do
1) Bentham and Hooker NOT operate within the life span of a given
2) Linnaeus organism ?
1) Birth and nutrition
3) Engler and Prantl
2) Growth and maturation
4) Camp and Gilly
3) Metabolism and excretion
130. Which one of the following is NOT CORRECT
4) Decomposition and mineralization.
statement?
1) Herbarium houses dried pressed
[SECTION-B]
and preserved plant specimens.
136. Properties of tissues
2) Botanical gardens have collection of
1) Are present in the constituent cells
living plants for reference
2) Are due to similar cells in them
3) A museum has collection of photographs
3) Are due to their similar origin
of plants and animals only
4) Arise as a result of interactions among
4) Key is taxonomic aid for identification
the constituent cells.
of specimens.
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137. Exclusive character of human being, which 143. Assertion: One of the characteristic feature of
separate human from other organism is- growth is increase in weight.
1) Consciousness Reason: Growth result in the formation of new
2) Self regulation cells and tissue.
3) Self Consciousness 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
4) Both 2 and 3 and Reason is the correct explanation
138. Who has been called as "The Darwin of 20th of Assertion.
Century" and Alexander Agassiz professor of 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
Zoology emertius awarded the triple crown of but Reason is not the correct explanation
biology also of Assertion.
1) Linnaeus 2) Ernst Mayr
3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
3) H. J Lam 4) Aristotle.
139. Select out incorrect statement. 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1) Herbaria serve as quick referral system 144. Bacteria are found to be primitive organisms
in taxonomy because they
2) Monographs contains information on 1) Are small, microscopic which are not
any one taxon seen with naked eye.
3) Manual provide the index to the plant 2) Cause serious diseases to human being,
species found in particular area domesticated animals and crop plants.
4) Separate taxonomic Keys are required 3) Produce endospores which are very
for identification each taxonomic resistant to adverse conditions.
category. 4) Possess incipient nucleus and show
140. …………. is discussed under ‘Phylogenetic amitotic division.
system’ of classification. 145. If 1/8 part of a cup is filled by bacteria in 20
th

1) evolutionary relationship of organism minutes. What is the total time required to fill
2) cytotaxonomy the cup if bacteria divided in one minute?
3) cytological information 1) 20 2) 21
4) structural embryology.
3) 22 4) 23
141. Assertion : All living organism have the potential
146. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria are named
to evolve.
so because
Reason:-Living organism interact with one
1) They oxidise various inorganic substances
another and with the environment.
such nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true,
use the released energy for their ATP
and Reason is the correct explanation
production.
of Assertion.
2) They oxidise various organic substances
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
and use the released energy for their ATP
but Reason is not the correct explanation
production.
of Assertion.
3) Presence of rigid cell wall
3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) 1 and 2
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
147. Statement-1 : Aristotle classified plants into trees,
142. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT shrubs and herbs, on the basis of morphologi-
true about Bacteria? cal characters
1) They are the members of the kingdom Statement-2 : Linnaeus divided animals into
Monera group Anaima nad Enaima
2) They live in exterme habitats such as
1) Only statement-1 is correct
hot springs, deserts, snow and deep
2) Only statement-2 is correct
oceans
3) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are
3) They do not show the most extensive
correct
metabolic diversity
4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are
4) 1 and 3
incorrect.
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148. Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organ-
isms lacking a cell wall are included in the king-
dom.
1) Protista 2) Fungi
3) Plantae 4) Animalia
149. Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes
15 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How
much time will it take to fill the cup?
1) 30 minutes 2) 45 minutes
3) 60 minutes 4) 17 minutes
150. Which one of the following statements about
Mycoplasma is WRONG?
1) They are pleomorphic
2) Can survive with oxygen
3) They cause diseases in plants
4) They are also called PPLO

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 Zoology : Animal Kingdom
[SECTION-A] 155. Consider the two statements
151. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding Statement-I : Planaria is a free-living flatworm
sponges and possesses high regeneration
capacity.
1) Water enters the sponge body through
Statement-II: Hooks and suckers are present
ostia into a spongocoel from where it goes
in parasitic flatworms.
out through the osculum 1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
2) Body is supported by a skeleton made up incorrect.
of spicules or spongin fibres 2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
3) Sexes are not separate is correct
4) Fertilization is external 3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
152. Consider the following statements regarding correct
4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are
basic body plans of Cnidaria
correct
I. Polyp is sessile and cylindrical form as
156. Consider the the following statements regard-
seen in Hydra and Adamsia. ing roundworms:
II. Meduas is umbrella-shaped and free Statement-I : Alimentary canal is complete with
swimming form as seen in Aurelia. a well-developed muscular pharynx.
1) Only I is correct Statement-II : An excretory tube removes body
2) Only II is correct wastes from the body cavity
3) Both are correct through the excretory pore.
4) Both are incorrect Statement-III : They are dioecious and males
are longer than females.
153. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
The INCORRECT statement is/are
Ctenophora?
1) Only statement II
1) Diploblastic organisms with tissue level 2) Only statement III
or organization 3) Only statement I and statement II
2) Absence of Cnidocytes 4) Only statement II and statement III
3) Presence of internal ciliated comb plates 157. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding
4) Bio-luminescence well marked in some animals belonging to Phylum Annelida
members 1) Aquatic annelids like Nereis posses lateral
appendages, parapodia, which help in
154. In Ctenophora
swimming
a. Body bears eight external rows of ciliated
2) Nereis is dioecious
comb plates, which help in locomotion. 3) Earthworm is monoecious.
b. Reproduction takes place only by asexual 4) Hirudinaria, blood-sucking leech, is an
means. annelid that lacks true coelom and
c. Digestion is both extracellular and intrac- metamerism.
ellular 158. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding
d. Sexes are separate. Mollusca.
1) It is the second largest animal Phylum
The correct statements are
after phylum Arthropoda.
1) a and c only
2) It includes animals that are bilaterally
2) b and d only symmetrical, triploblastic, adn coelomate.
3) a, b and c only 3) Body is covered with a calcareous shell
4) a, b and d only and is metamerically segmented with a
distinct head, muscular foot, and visceral
hump.
4) Gills are present in the mantle cavity, a
space between the mantle and the hump.

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159. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding 164. In some animal groups, the body is found
arthropods divided into compartments with serial repetition
I. They are bilaterally symmetrical, triplo- of at least some organ. This characteristic feature
blastic, non-segmented and pseudocoe- is called
lomate animals 1) Blastogenesis 2) Metagenesis
3) Metamerism 4) Metamorphasis
II. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of
165. Match the following
Animalia and includes mro ethan 90% of
Column-I
all species on the earth that are named so
A. Organ-system level organisation
far
B. Tissue level organisation
III. Insects are arthropods with body consist-
C. Organ level organisation
ing of head, thorax and abdomen.
D. Cellular level organisation
1) Only II 2) Only I and II
Column-II
3) Only III 4) Only II and III
i. Platyhelminthes
160. An important evolutionary transition that
ii. Poriferans
appeared for the first time in Echinoderms is
iii. Ctenophores and coelenterates
1) Bilateral symmetry
iv. Aschelminthes, annelids, arthropods,
2) Radial symmetry
molluscus, echinoderms and chordates
3) Tube within a tube plan
1) A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii
4) Endoskeleton
2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
161. The number of CORRECT statements regard-
3) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
ing hemichordates from the given is
4) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
I. A stomochord is present in the collar
166. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities
region
lined with food filtering flagellated cells and
II. Circulation is of open type
indirect development are the characteristics of
III. Excretory organ is proboscis gland
phylum
IV. Development is indirect
1) Porifera 2) Mollusca
1) 1 2) 2
3) Protozoa 4) Coelenterate
3) 3 4) 4
167. Match the column A with column B and choose
162. Identify the CORRECT statement
the correct option.
1) All pseudocoelomates are protostomes
Column-A Column-B
2) All bilaterally symmetricla animals have a. Porifera i. Canal system
a coelom b. Aschelminthes ii. Water-vascular
3) All animals have at least a tissue grade system
organization c. Annelida iii. Muscular
4) All radially symmetrical animals are diplo- pharynx
blastic d. Arthropoda iv. Jointed
163. Consider following features appendages
a. Organ systme level of organisation e. Echinodermata v. Metameres
b. Bilateral symmetry Options :
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-i
c. True coelomates with segmentation of
2) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-iv, e-i
body
3) a-i, b-iii, c-v, d-iv, e-ii
Select the CORRECT option of animal groups 4) a-i, b-v, c-iii, d-iv, e-ii
which possess all the above characteristics. 168. Platyhelminthes are called flatworms because
1) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata 1) They are triploblastic
2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata 2) They are without coelom
3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca 3) They have organ level organization
4) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata 4) Their body is dorsoventrally flattened

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169. Assertion (A) : Arthropoda is a largest phylum 177. Select the TOTAL number of organism from
of kingdom animalia. the following which are sessile:
Reason (R) : Over two-third all known species Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla, Hydra,
of the world belong to the arthropods. Jelly fish, Earthworm
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, 1) 1 2) 2
and Reason is the correct explanation 3) 3 4) 4
of Assertion. 178. Select the TOTAL number of organisms from
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true the following which shows both intra and extra
but Reason is not the correct cellular digestion.
explanation of Assertion. Physalia, Pleurobrachia, Taenia, Culex, Apis,
3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. Neries, Echinus, Salpa, Meandrina, Pennatula,
4) Assertion is false and Reason is true Doliolum, Catla, Hyla, Adamsia, Gorgonia,
170. The following characters are related to phylum Ctenoplana.
i) Aquatic and mostly marine 1) 6 2) 8
ii) Sessile or free swimming 3) 7 4) 10
iii) Radially symmetrical animals 179. Match the column
iv) They show polymorphism Column-I Column-II
1) Porifera 2) Ctenophora A. Asterias 1. Sea cucumber
3) Echinodermata 4) Coelenterata B. Echinus 2. Sea lily
171. Cnidoblast is used for C. Antedon 3. Sea urchin
D. Cucumaria 4. Starfish
1) Anchorage 2) Defence
1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
3) Capture of prey 4) All of these
2) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
172. The following features belong to which phylum?
3) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
A) Exclusively marine
4) A–2, B–3, C–1, D–4
B) Radial symmetry
180. Radial symmetry is shown by
C) Diploblastic
1) Coelenterate
D) Tissue level organization
2) Platyhelminthes
1) Coelenterata 2) Porifera
3) Adult echinoderms
3) Ctenophora 4) Platyhelminthes
4) Both (1) and (3)
173. Nephridia helps in excretion and osmoregulation
181. Select the TOTAL number of organism which
in
shows internal fertilization.
1) Nereis 2) Pheretima
Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma, Taenia,
3) Hirudinaria 4) All of these
Fasciola, Sycon, Euspongia, Spongilla,
174. In open type of circulatory system,
pleurobrachia, ctenoplana
1) Blood flow in sinuses
1) 6 2) 7
2) Blood pressure is low and irregular
3) 8 4) 5
3) Found in arthropods and molluscs
182. Which one of the following animal is known as
(except cephalopods)
living fossil?
4) All options are true
1) Limulus 2) King crab
175. Notochord is derived from which of the
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Archeopteryx
following layer?
183. The following features belong to which of the
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm
following phylum?
3) Endoderm 4) All of these
a) Triploblastic
176. In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by
b) Bilateral symmetry
meso-derm. Instead, the mesoderm is present
c) Eucoelomate
as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm
d) Metamerism
and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called
1) Mollusca 2) Aschelminthes
1) Eucoelom 2) Pseudocoelom
3) Annelida 4) Platyhelminthes
3) Acoelom 4) Any of these

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184. Peripatus is connecting link between 191. Which of the following characters are present in
1) Annelida and Arthropoda Platyhelminthes?
2) Mollusca and Arthropoda i) Some absorb nutrients from the host
3) Annelida and Mollusca directly through their body surface.
4) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes
ii) Digestive system is incomplete,
185. In mollusca gills (feather-like) has the functions
branched and without anus.
1) Respiratory and circulatory
iii) Flame cells/solenocyte help in
2) Circulatory and excretory
3) Excretory and respiratory excretion and osmoregulation.
4) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory iv) Hooks and suckers are present in
parasitic form.
[SECTION-B] v) Hermaphrodites
186. Study the following statements related to vi) Fertilization is internal.
platyhelminthes and choose the CORRECT vii) Indirect development through many
I. First triploblastic animals larva stages
II. First bilateral symmetrical animals 1) i, ii, iii, v, vi 2) ii, iii, iv, v, vii
III. First time tissues are assembled into 3) all except i 4) all of these
organs in these animals 192. Match the following.
IV. First time ciphalization occurs Column-A Column-B
1) I, II only 2) III, IV only A. Ascaris 1. Intestinal
3) I, II, IV only 4) I, II, III & IV roundworm
187. In which phylum, the larva is bilaterally B. Wuchereria 2. Filarial worm
symmetrical and adult have radial symmetry
1) Arthropoda 2) Hemichordata C. Ancylostoma 3. Hookworm
3) Mollusca 4) Echinodermata D. Pheretima 4. Earthworm
188. Important base of classification of animal is
1) Coelome 1) A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1
2) Symmetry 2) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
3) Level of body organisation 3) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
4) Germ layer
4) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
189. Read the following statements.
193. Select the total number of statements belonging
A. They are mostly monoecious
to sponges
B. Fertilisation is usually internal
i) Cellular level of organization
C. They are mostly oviparous
ii) Body is supported by endoskeleton
D. Development may be direct or indicret.
Which of the above are true about arthropods? made up of spicules or sponging fibres.
1) B, C and D 2) A, C and D iii) Larva stage is morphologically
3) A, B and D 4) A, B and C different from adult
190. Match the following columns. iv) Pathway of water transport is helpful
Column-A Column-B in gathering of food, respiratory
A) Physalia 1. Brain coral exchange and removal of waste
v) It is an hermaphrodite organism
B) Adamsia 2. Sea fan vi) They show power of regeneration
C) Pennatula 3. Sea pen 1) Five 2) Six
D) Gorgonia 4. Sea anemone 3) Four 4) Three
E) Meandrina 5. Portuguese Man 194. Which of the following feature is NOT present
of War in the phylum Arthropoda
F) Aurelia 6. Jellyfish 1) Chitinous exoskeleton
1) A : 5, B : 4, C : 2, D : 3, E : l, F : 6 2) Metameric segmentation
2) A : 5, B : 4, C : 3, D : 2, E : l, F : 6 3) Parapodia
3) A : 5, B : 4, C : 2, D : l, E : 2, F : 6
4) Jointed appendages
4) A : 5, B : 3, C : 4, D : 2, E : l, F : 6
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195. Read the following statements of mollusca 198. Among the following, which one is recent in
a. It is second largest phylum origin?
b. Body is unsegmented with distinct 1) Enterocoelom
head, muscular foot and visceral hump 2) Schizocoelom
c. Visceral hump contain sensory 3) Asymmetric body
tentacles
4) Metameric segmentation
d. Mouth contain file like rasping organ
199. a. Pattern of arrangements of cells
for feeding called radula
b. Body symmetry
e. Gills have only respiratory role
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT? c. Nature of coelom
1) a and e 2) b and c d. Pattern of digestive, circularoty or
3) c, d and e 4) c and e reproductive systems
196. Select the phylum which are exclusively marine Above mentioned features are used as basis
1) Poriferia and Coelenterata of
2) Echinodermata and Ctenophora 1) Animal classification
3) Arthropoda and Annelida 2) Study of evolution
4) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes 3) Both 1 and 2
197. Match the column 4) Conservation of animal for study
Column-A Column-B 200. Economically important insects are
1. Chaetopleura a. Tusk shell 1) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
2. Loligo b. Cuttlefish 2) Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
3. Sepia c. Squid 3) Locusta, Nereis
4. Dentalium d. Chiton 4) Limulus, Cockroach
1) 1-a, 2-b, c-3, d-4
2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
3) 1-b, 2-c,3-a, 4-d
4) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

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NEET-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 25-06-2023

CT-01
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 1 14 3 27 2 40 2 51 1 64 2 77 4 90 1
2 1 15 4 28 3 41 3 52 1 65 2 78 4 91 2
3 2 16 1 29 1 42 4 53 4 66 3 79 4 92 2
4 2 17 2 30 2 43 1 54 2 67 3 80 1 93 2
5 4 18 1 31 2 44 2 55 3 68 1 81 2 94 1
6 1 19 2 32 4 45 3 56 4 69 4 82 4 95 1
7 1 20 3 33 3 46 1 57 2 70 2 83 2 96 2
8 4 21 1 34 2 47 4 58 3 71 1 84 2 97 2
9 2 22 4 35 2 48 1 59 1 72 3 85 1 98 1
10 2 23 2 36 2 49 1 60 3 73 1 86 1 99 2
11 1 24 2 37 4 50 4 61 3 74 3 87 3 100 1
12 4 25 2 38 3 62 3 75 3 88 4
13 1 26 2 39 4 63 4 76 4 89 1

NEET-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 25-06-2023

CT-01
BOTANY ZOOLOGY
101 4 114 2 127 4 140 1 151 4 164 3 177 3 190 2
102 3 115 2 128 4 141 1 152 3 165 3 178 3 191 4
103 2 116 3 129 2 142 3 153 3 166 1 179 3 192 2
104 3 117 3 130 3 143 1 154 1 167 3 180 4 193 2
105 2 118 2 131 2 144 4 155 3 168 4 181 3 194 3
106 4 119 3 132 3 145 4 156 2 169 1 182 3 195 4
107 1 120 2 133 2 146 1 157 4 170 4 183 3 196 2
108 2 121 4 134 1 147 1 158 3 171 4 184 1 197 2
109 1 122 3 135 4 148 4 159 3 172 3 185 3 198 1
110 3 123 3 136 4 149 4 160 4 173 4 186 4 199 1
111 2 124 3 137 3 150 2 161 4 174 4 187 4 200 1
112 4 125 1 138 2 162 1 175 2 188 1
113 4 126 1 139 3 163 2 176 2 189 1