Mock Test-5 Final
Mock Test-5 Final
Mock Test-5 Final
(NSEJS 2023)
1. The candidates should not write their Roll Number anywhere else (except in the specified space)
on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
2. This Test Booklet consists of 60 questions.
3. Question paper contains (Biology, Chemistry and Physics).
4. (I) For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each
wrong answer.
(II) In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked. No negative marks in
this part.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile
phone or any electronic device etc., except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
S. No. Subjects Number of Single Correct Multiple Correct
Questions Type Type
1. Biology 20 16 4
2. Chemistry 20 16 4
3. Physics 20 16 4
Constants you may need....
Mass of electron m𝑧 = 9.10 × 10−31 kg Magnitude of charge on electron e = 1.60 × 10−19 C
Mass of proton mp = 1.67 × 10−27 kg Planck's constant h = 6.625 × 10−34 Js
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 ms−2 Density of water at 𝜌 = 1.0 × 103 kgm−3
Universal gravitational constant (1 + 𝑥)𝑛 = 1 + 𝑛𝑥, if |𝑥| ≪ 1
G = 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2 Kg −2
Universal gas constant R = 8.31Jmol−1 K −1 1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10−15 JK −1 sin(A − B) = sin Acos B − cos Asin B
Avogadro's constant A = 6.02 × 10 25
mol−1
E = mc 2 , It's an equation which gives mass and energy
equivalence.
Speed of light in free space c = 3.0 × 108 ms−1 One unit of electric power = 1kWh
ATTEMPT ALL SIXTY QUESTIONS
A-1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.
1. During activation of nerve, the nerve impulse is conducted in a fiber by –
(A) more movement of Na+ ions towards inside and K+ ions outside
(B) less Na+ coming out and more K+ coming in
(C) equal movement of both ions
(D) more movement of K+ ions towards inside and Na+ ions outside.
6. Refer the given graph showing pulse rate of a person and answer the questions that follow –
8. Theory of natural selection, proposed by Darwin to explain organic evolution was based on the –
(A) modification of organs through use & disuse
(B) struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(C) inheritance of acquired characters
(D) appearance and inheritance of sudden large variations.
9.
Column A Column B
I. Removal of anther A Human blood group
II. Law of inheritance B Emasculation
III. Multiple allelism C Blood group O
IV. Universal donor D Mendel
Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle
(A) B-Telophase (B) C-Karyokinesis
(C) D-Synthetic phase (D) A-Cytokinesis
11. The major pigment in green algae are __________ and ________; and stored food is in the form of
__________ .
(A) Chl a, Chl d, Starch
(B) Chl a, Chl c, Floridean starch
(C) Chl a, Chl b, Starch
(D) Chl a, Chl c, mannitol
12. Refer to the following family tree.
If A = normal allele and a = albino allele, the genotypes of these parents are
Father mother
(A) Aa Aa
(B) AA AA
(C) AA Aa
(D) Aa AA
16. Phragmoplast is
(A) Cell plate formed by products of dictyosome during cytokinesis
(B) Cell membrane formed by endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies and secretory vesicles during
cytokinesis
(C) Plastid capable of fragmentation
(D) Plastid capable of duplication
17. A single electron in an ion has ionization energy equal to 217.6 eV. What is the total number of
neutrons present in one ion of it?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9
18. The weight of sulphuric acid needed for dissolving 3g magnesium carbonate is:
(A) 3.5 g (B) 7.0 g (C) 1.7 g (D) 17.0 g
19. A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The formula of the metal sulphate is:
(A) M2SO4 (B) MSO4 (C) M(SO4)2 (D) M2(SO4)3
20. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% S. What will be its empirical formula?
(A) SO (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) S2O3
21. If radius of second stationary orbit (in Bohr’s atom) is R. Then radius of third orbit will be:
(A) R/3 (B) 9R (C) R/9 (D) 2.25 R
23. An iron compound yielded C = 64.4%, H = 5.5% and Fe = 29.9%. The simple formula of the compound
is
(A) C10H10Fe (B) C9H10Fe (C) C10H9Fe (D) C9H9Fe
26. How many moles of Fe2+ ions are formed, when excess of iron is treated with 50 mL of 4.0 M HCl
under inert atomsphere ? Assume to change in volume :
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.8
28. The orbit having Bohr radius equal to 1st Bohr orbit of H–atom is
(A) n = 2 of He+ (B) n = 2 of B+4 (C) n = 3 of Li+2 (D) n = 2 of Be+3
29. Three students were given colourless liquids of water, lemon juice and a mixture of water and
lemon juice. After testing these liquids with pH paper, a sequence in colour change of pH
paper was reported. Which is the correct sequence ?
(A) Blue, red and green (B) Orange, green and green
(C) Green, red and red (D) Red and green
30. How many different compounds can have the formula, C3H4?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
31. The pH of HCl solution is 1.10 ml of this solution is reacted with 40 ml of NaOH solution whose
pH = 12. The pH of resulting solution is : (log (1.2) = 0.108)
(A) 2.892 (B) 1.892 (C) 3.892 (D) 1.108
32. Choose the correct option using the code regarding roasting process.
(I) It is the process of heating the ore in air in a reverberatory furnace to obtain the oxide.
(II) It is an exothermic process.
(III) It is used for the concentration of sulphide ore.
(IV) It removes easily oxidisable volatile impurities present in the concentrated ore.
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
33. One car moving on a straight road covers one third of the distance with 20 km/hr and the rest with
60 km/hr. The average speed is
2
(A) 40 km/hr (B) 80 km/hr (C) 46 km/hr (D) 36 km/hr
3
34. The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance covered
s as k = as 2 where a is a constant. The force acting on the particle is
1/2
s2 s2 R2
(A) 2a (B) 2as 1+ 2 (C) 2as (D) 2a
R R s
36. The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency
of oscillation is
+4
V(in m/sec)
+2
0.04
0.01 0.02 0.03
–4 T(in sec)
–2
37. A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal table. A steadily increasing horizontal force is applied
such that the block starts to slide on the table without toppling. The force is continued even after
sliding has started. Assume the coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the table and the
block to be equal. The correct representation of the variation of the frictional forces, ƒ, exerted by
the table on the block with time t is given by :
39. A conducting wire shown in the figure carries current I. Segments AB, BC and CD are of same length.
The direction of the magnetic field at point P is given by :
(A) into the plane of the paper (B) out of the plane of the paper
(C) towards right (D) towards left
40. Position of a particle in a rectangular-co-ordinate system is (3, 2, 5). Then its position vector will
be
(A) 3iˆ + 5ˆj + 2kˆ (B) 3iˆ + 2jˆ + 5kˆ (C) 5iˆ + 3ˆj + 2kˆ (D) None of these
41. When a resistance of 2 ohm is connected across the terminals of a cell, the current is 0.5 A. When
the resistance is increased to 5 ohm, the current is 0.25 A. The e.m.f. of the cell is
(A) 1.0 V (B) 1.5 V (C) 2.0 V (D) 2.5 V
42. At what depth below the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity g will be half its value
1600 km above the surface of the earth
(A) 4.2 106 m (B) 3.19 106 m (C) 1.59 106 m (D) None of these
43. In the given circuit voltmeter shows a reading of 4V, then the power developed across R resistance
will be:
+
10 V
–
R
V
44. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 − 2 10 5 t , where F is in newtons
and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the
average impulse imparted to the bullet
(A) 9 Ns (B) Zero (C) 0.9 Ns (D) 1.8 Ns
45. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane parallel plate of glass whose
thickness in the direction of the beam = t, refractive index , is introduced in the path of the beam.
The convergence point is shifted by
1 1 1 1
(A) t 1 − away (B) t 1 + away (C) t 1 − nearer (D) t 1 + nearer
46. A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) about x = 0 under the influence
of a force shown below : The period of the S.H.M. is
F(N)
8.0
+ 2.0 x(m)
– 2.0
– 8.0
t3
47. A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it is given by S = (in m).
3
Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds
(A) 2 J (B) 3.8 J (C) 5.2 J (D) 24 J
48. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at an angle 30° to the horizontal and another body
B of same mass is thrown at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of range of A and B will
be:
(A) 1: 3 (B) 3 :1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
A-2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE
CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED.
49. Read the following statements are select the incorrect ones.
(A) Wings of birds and insects are homologous organs.
(B) Human hand and birds’ wings are analogous organs.
(C) Human hands and bats wings are analogous.
(D) Flipper of seal and wing of birds are homologous.
50. Read the following statements are select the correct ones
(A) Presence of glucose in the urine is called uremia.
(B) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) selectively secretes hydrogen ions, ammonia and potassium ions
into the filtrate.
(C) Macula densa formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent
arteriole at their contact.
(D) Atrial natriuretic factor can cause vasoconstriction when blood flow is low to the atria of the
heart.
51. Read the following statements about menstrual cycle and choose the correct ones:
(A) Lack of mensuration may be sign be indicative of pregnancy.
(B) The changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of ovarian
hormones only.
(C) LH surge induces ovulation.
(D) If fertilization occurs, corpus luteum degenerates immediately.
52. Read the following statements carefully and choose the incorrect statements regarding cancer.
(A) Cancer causing viruses have genes called viral oncogenes.
(B) Malignant tumours remain confined to their original location.
(C) Cancer cells do not exhibit contact-exhibition.
(D) X- rays and infrared rays are potent carcinogens.
57. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope which can stand maximum tension of 600 N. In which of
the following case will the rope does not break?
(A) The monkey climbs up with an acceleration of 4 m/s 2
(B) The monkey climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/s 2
(C) The monkey climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s
(D) The monkey falls down the rope freely under gravity
58. A man wishes to throw two darts one by one at the target at B with same speed so that they arrive
at the same time. Mark the correct statements about the two projections.
60. Which of the following statements is TRUE for a system comprising of two bodies in contact exerting
frictional force on each other:
(A) total work done by static friction on whole system is always zero
(B) work done by static friction on a body is always zero
(C) work done by kinetic friction on a body is always negative
(D) total work done by internal kinetic friction on whole system is always negative