AIIMS 2018 Question Paper With Solutions - 27th May 2018 Evening Shift

AIIMS-MBBS-2018-27 May-Evening
Physics
1. Which of the following logic gate has only one input and one
output?
(1) NOT gate
(2) OR gate
(3) AND gate
(4) NOR gate
2. In YDSE there is a point P on the screen. What is path

difference at point P. Given d = 1 mm, y = 2 mm and D = 1 m
(1) 2 × 10−6 m
(2) 3 ×10−6 m
(3) 4 ×10−6 m
(4) 5 ×10−6 m
3. What will be the horizontal displacement of the charge particle
Q
when it decend a distance of y meter. Given = 9.6×107 C/kg,
m
E = 5×105 V/m, y = 84 cm, g = 10 m/s2
(1) 3.03 ×1012 m

(2) 5.03 ×1012 m
(3) 4.03 ×1012 m
(4) 6.03 ×1012 m
4. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant 800 N

m–1 executes simple harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of
the oscillator is 4J, the maximum acceleration (in m s–2) of the
mass is
(1) 5
(2) 15
(3) 45
(4) 20
5. Electric field inside the capacitoris E and dielectric constant of
material is K. Find charge density σ on the plates. Given
E= 6 × 105 V/m , K=6
(1) 3.1 ×10−10 C/m 2

(2) 4.1 ×10−10 C/m 2
(3) 5.1 ×10−10 C/m 2
(4) 6.1 ×10−10 C/m 2
6. A cart has mass 1 metric ton and sand of 1 metric ton is inside
the cart. Now sand start to leak at a rate of 0.5 kg/sec then, what
will be velocity of cart so that total sand has come out from the
cart.
(1) 14.86 m/s

(2) 16.86 m/s
(3) 17.86 m/s
(4) 13.86 m/s
7. A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank
of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of
120° with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in
the stream is
(1) 1 m/s
(2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 0.25 m/s
(4) 0.433 m/s
8. The minimum and maximum distance of planet from then find

sun is rmin and rmax . If velocity at rmax is V0 then find velocity at
rmin .
V0 rmax
(1)
rmin
2V0 rmin
(2)
rmax
3V0 rmin
(3)
rmax
2V0 rmax
(4)
rmin
9. If coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is β and heat

given to surrounding is Q 2 then what is heat absorbed.
Q 2 ( β − 1)
(1)
β
Q 2 ( β + 1)
(2)
β
β +1
(3)
βQ 2
β −1
(4)
βQ 2
10. What is the shortest wavelength present in the paschen series of

spectral lines?
(1) 8208 Å
(2) 9204 Å
(3) 5342 Å
(4) 6349 Å
11. If in a solenoid, a rod of relative permeability µr is kept, then
find the self of inductance of the solenoid (where N = number of
turns, l=length of solenoid and A = area of solenoid).
µ0 µ r N 2 A
(1)
l
µ0 µ r N 2 A
(2)
2l
µ0 µr NA2
(3)
l
µ0 µr NA2
(4)
2l
12. If an electron of charge e is moving parallel to a current carrying

wire as shown in figure, then the force on the electron will be :
µ0eVI
(1)
2π d
µ0eVI
(2)
4π d
µ0eVI
(3)
πd
µ0eVI
(4)
3π d
13. For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 2µF capacitor
is
(1) 15 μC
(2) 20 μC
(3) 30 μC
(4) 45 μC
14. In an LCR circuit inductance is L, resistance is R and quality

factor is Q then find the capacitance of the circuit
L
(1)
( RQ )
2
L
(2)
( 2 RQ )
2
2L
(3)
( RQ )
2
3L
(4)
( RQ )
2
15. In forced vibration m = 10 gm, f = 100 Hz and driver force F =

100 cos (20πt), then find the amplitude of particle
(1) 0.025 m
(2) 0.035 m
(3) 0.045 m
(4) 0.055 m
16. Two lenses offocal length 100 cm and 8 cm; one convex and
other concave are placed on the same optic axis at a separation
of 90 cm, as shown in figure. An object O is placed at a distance
50 cm from the convex lens. Find the magnification of the two
lens system.
(1) 0.08
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.01
17. The Bohr radii of a hydrogen like atom are r1 and r2 . Find the
wavelength of photon when electron jumps from r2 to r1 .
ch r1r2
(1)
Ke 2 ( r2 − r1 )
2ch r1r2
(2)
3Ke 2 ( r2 − r1 )
2ch r1r2
(3)
Ke 2 ( r2 − r1 )
3ch r1r2
(4)
2 Ke 2 ( r2 − r1 )
18. The correct unit of thermal conductivity is

(1) Jm −2 sec −1 (°C) −1
(2) Jm −1 sec −1 (°C) −2
(3) J-sec
(4) Jm −1 sec −1 (°C) −1
19. A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves speed of 108
km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to
rest after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total
distance travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.
(1) 12.2 s
(2) 15.3 s
(3) 9 s
(4) 17.2 s
20. A ring of radius R is kept on water surface. Surface tension of

water is T and mass is m. What force required lifting the ring
from water surface?
(1) ( mg + 2T π R )
(2) ( 2mg + π R )
(3) ( 3mg + 2π TR )
(4) ( mg + 4T π R )
21. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/sec with one
fork of frequency 288 cps. A little wax is placed on the
unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency
of the unknown fork is
(1) 286 cps
(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps
22. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block move together on a horizontal

frictionless surface. Each block exerts a force of 6 N on the
other. The block move with a uniform acceleration of
(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 9 m/s2
(4) 12 m/s2
23. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground with

certain velocity, its potential energy and kinetic energy at a
point Aare in the ratio 2:3. If the same body is projected with
double the previous velocity, then at the same point A the ratio
of its potential energy to kinetic energy is
(1) 9:1
(2) 2:9
(3) 1:9
(4) 9:2
24. Two objects P and Q initially at rest move towards each other
under mutual force of attraction. At the instant when the
velocity of P is v and that of Q is 2v, the velocity of centre of
mass of the system is
(1) v
(2) 3v
(3) 2v
(4) zero
25. A convex lens of focal length 12 cm is placed in contact with a

plane mirror. If the object is placed at 20 cm from the lens, the
position of final image is
(1) 30 cm above lens
(2) 30 cm below lens
(3) 20 cm above lens
(4) 8.6 cm below lens
26. When the load on a wire is increasing slowly from 2 kg to 4 kg,

the elongation increases from 0.6 mm to 1 mm. The work done
during this extension of the wire is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 9 ×10−3 J
(2) 12 ×10−3 J
(3) 14 ×10−3 J
(4) 16 ×10−3 J
27. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid of

density 1.2 × 103 kg/m3. If outer diameter and the density of the
bowl are 1 m and 2 × 104 kg/m3 respectively, then the inner
diameter of the bowl will be
(1) 0.94 m
(2) 0.97 m
(3) 0.98 m
(4) 0.99 m
28. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does
6R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of
this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, the
final temperature of gas will be
(1) (T − 4 ) K
(2) (T + 2.4 ) K
(3) (T − 2.4 ) K
(4) (T + 4 ) K
29. The combination of gates shown below yields
(1) OR gate
(2) NOT gate
(3) XOR gate
(4) NAND gate
rd
1
30. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes in 2 seconds.
3
1
If its amplitude after 6 seconds in times the original
n
amplitude, the value of n is:
(1) 32
(2) 33
(3) 3
3
(4) 23
31. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the

wall strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the same
velocity. If the impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, the
velocity of the ball is
(1) 27 m/s
(2) 3.7 m/s
(3) 54 m/s
(4) 37 m/s
32. A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in fig.

The e.m.f. of the cell, needed to make the bulb glow at full
intensity is
(1) 4.5 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 2.67 V
(4) 13.5 V
33. The resistance of a wire atroom temperature 30°C is found to be

10 Ω. Now to increase the resistance by 10%, the temperature of
the wire must be (The temperature coefficient of resistance of
the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C)
(1) 36°C
(2) 83°C
(3) 63°C
(4) 33°C
34. The earth’s magnetic field lines resemble that of a dipole at the
centre of the earth. If the magnetic moment of this dipole is
close to 8×1022 Am2, the value of earth’s magnetic field near
the equator is close to (radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106m)
(1) 0.6 gauss
(2) 1.2 gauss
(3) 1.8 gauss
(4) 0.32 gauss
35. The voltage time (V-t) graph for triangular wave having peak
value V0 is as shown in figure. The rms value of V in time
V0
interval from t = 0 to T/4 is then find the value of x .
x
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 3
36. Six stars of equal mass are moving about the centre of mass of
the system such that they are always on the vertices of a regular
hexagon of side length a. Their common time period will be
a3
(1) 4π
Gm
4 3a 3
(2) 2π
(
Gm 5 3 + 4 )
3a 3
(3) 4π
Gm
(4) None of these.
37. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of
hydrogen atom is 6561 Å . The wavelength of the second
spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium atom
is
(1) 1215 Å
(2) 1640 Å
(3) 2430 Å
(4) 4687 Å
38. A car is fitted with a convex side-view mirror of focal length 20

cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first car is overtaking the
first car at a relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of
the second car as seen in the mirror of the first one is:
(1) 1/5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 1/10 m/s
39. In Young’s double slits experiment, two coherent sources are

placed 0.90 mm apart and fringes are observed one metre away.
If it produces second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from
central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light used
would be
(1) 60 ×10−4 cm
(2) 10 ×10−4 cm
(3) 10 ×10−5 cm
(4) 6 ×10−5 cm
40. For a given photosensitive material and frequency (> threshold

frequency) of incident radiation, the photoelectric current varies
with the intensity of incident light as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
41. Assertion: In adiabatic process change in internal energy is

equal to work done on gas.
Reason: In adiabatic process no heat exchange with
surrounding
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
42. Assertion: Gallium arsenide phosphide is used in red L.E.D.

Reason: Its work function lies b/w 1.65 ev.
43. Assertion: Viscous force is measurement of resistance of liquid.

Reason: It converts kinetic energy into heat energy of liquid.
44. Assertion: A particle starting from rest and moving with
uniform acceleration travels' a length of x and 3x in first two and
next two-seconds.
Reason: Displacement is directly proportional to velocity.
45. Assertion: In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, the total

kinetic energy is conserved during the short time of collision of
the balls i.e., when they are in contact.
Reason: Energy spent against friction follow the law of
conservation of energy.
46. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs during

performance.
Reason: Stretching out arms-legs helps the performer to balance
his or her body so that he or she does not fall.
47. Assertion: If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis, then
the value of acceleration due to gravity will become same at all
the places.
Reason: The value of acceleration due to gravity depends upon
the rotation of the earth.
48. Assertion: Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity.

Reason: A constant force in the direction of motion and a
velocity dependent force opposite to the direction of motion,
always result in the acquisition of terminal velocity.
49. Assertion: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate

on the surface of the moon.
Reason: The temperature at the surface of the moon is much
higher than boiling point of the water.
50. Assertion: A gas can be liquefied at any temperature by

increasing pressure alone.
Reason: On increasing pressure the temperature of gas
decreases.
51. Assertion: If amplitude of simple pendulum increases then the

motion of pendulum is oscillatory but not simple harmonic.
Reason: For larger amplitude θ is large and then sin θ ≠ θ, so
the motion is no longer SHM.
52. Assertion: On going away from a point charge or a small

electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in both
the cases.
Reason: Electric field is directly proportional to square of
distance from the charge or an electric dipole.
53. Assertion: Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel.
The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
Reason: The equivalent internal resistance is greater than either
of the two internal resistances.
54. Assertion: Figure shows a current carrying circular loop. The

magnetic field at the centre of loop is zero.
Reason: Magnetic field at the centre of loop is given by
µ0 ni
B= .
2R
55. Assertion: Infrared radiation plays an important role in
maintaining the average temperature of earth.
Reason: Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to as heat
waves.
56. Assertion: The current gain in common base circuit is always

less than one.
Reason: At constant collector voltage the change in collector
current is more than the change in emitter current.
57. Assertion: When the height of a TV transmission tower is

increased by three times, the range covered is doubled.
Reason: The range covered is proportional to the height of the
TV transmission tower.
58. Assertion: An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a

magnetic field.
Reason: An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
59. Assertion: Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a

spherical charged shell.
Reason: Electric potential is continuous across the surface of a
spherical charged shell.
60. Assertion: Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive nuclei of

half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2×108 number of
undecayed nuclei of some other material with halflife of 60
days.
Reason: Radioactivity is proportional to half life.
Chemistry
61. Give IUPAC name of:

(1) 2–cyano–5–methyl hept–3–enal
(2) 2–formyl–5–methyl hept–3–enenitrile
(3) 2–oxo–5–methyl hept–3–ene–1–nitrile
(4) 1–cyano–1–formyl–4–methyl hex–2–ene
62. Final product of given Reaction :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
63. Final product of given reaction:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
64. Find product of given reaction :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
65. Give correct sequences of reaction for following conversion:
(1) DIBAL–H, NaBH4, H3O⊕/∆

(2) H3O⊕ /∆, NaBH4, DIBAL–H
(3) NaBH4, DIBAL–H, H3O⊕/∆
(4) DIBAL–H, H3O⊕/∆, NaBH4
66. Which of the following are not enantiomer pair.
(1) A&B
(2) A&D
(3) B&D
(4) C&D
67. Major product of following reaction:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
68. What are the suitable reagent for following conversion
(1) Br2/FeBr3, KMnO4, HNO3 / H2SO4

(2) KMnO4, Br2/FeBr3, HNO3
(3) HNO3, Br2/FeBr3, KMnO4
(4) HNO3, KMnO4, Br2 / FeBr3
69. Monomers of Natural Rubber and Neoprene are Respectively :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
70. Correct order of Acidic strength:
(1) iii>ii>i>iv
(2) i>iii>ii>iv
(3) iv>i>ii>iii
(4) iii>iv>i>iii
71. Blue colour disappears in which solution by passing SO2

(1) CrO 42− ,+H2SO4
(2) I2+Starch
(3) CuSO4
(4) I2
1
72. In HCP of A, of tetrahedral are occupied by B. What is the
3
formula for compound:
(1) A2B3
(2) A3B2
(3) AB3
(4) A2B
73. Time taken to completely (in hr) decompose 36 g water by

passing 3A current is:
(1) 35.8 hrs
(2) 40 hr
(3) 51.8 hr
(4) 22.5 hr
74. In which of the following shape is same but hybridization is

different :
(1) ICl2−, XeF2
(2) SO2, NO +2
(3) SO2, NH −2
(4) CO2, SO2
75. CaCO3(s)→CaO(s)+CO2(g) at const Temp, the pressure will
increase if :
(1) Vol. of container increase
(2) Temperature increases
(3) Concentration of CaO increases.
(4) Concentration of CaCO3 increases.
76. At constant temperature Gases A & B, density of (A) is twice

that of B and molar mass of A is half of B. Ratio of their
PA
pressures is is :
PB
(1) 1/4
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2
77. Correct order of bond angle is :

(1) SO2<H2S
(2) SO2<H2O
(3) NH3<H2O
(4) NH3<SO2
78. Time taken for 12.8 g of a radioactive substance to decay to 0.4

g, is (half life is 138s)
(1) 720s
(2) 690s
(3) 345s
(4) 69s
79. % s-character of N–H bond is maximum in :

(1) N2H2
(2) N2H4
(3) NH3
(4) NH4+
+
80. MnO 2 + NaCl H
H 2SO 4
→
Choose incorrect statement for above reaction.

(1) Mn goes from +4 to +2
(2) Cl– is oxidized
(3) Cl2 yellow gas is released.
(4) SO 24 − reduces to SO2
81. Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze to reduce freezing point of
water to –2.4ºC.What mass of antifreeze is required for 2L
K ⋅ kg
water? (Kf water = 1.86 )
mole
(1) 16 kg
(2) 160 g
(3) 1.60 kg
(4) 16 g
82. What is entropy change in 2 mol N2, when its temperature is

taken from 400 K to 800 K, adiabatically.
J
(1) 30
K
J
(2) 60
K
J
(3) 40
K
J
(4) 20
K
83. Calculate ionisation constant for pyridinium chloride,

Given that H+ ion concentration is 3.6 x 10–4 M and its
concentration is 0.02 M.
(1) 6.48 × 10−2
(2) 6 × 10−6
(3) 6 × 10−8
(4) 12 × 10−8
84. Assertion :Benzylamine is less basic then Ethylamine

Reason :Benzene Show +I Effect
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
85. Assertion :C6H5–MgBr Reacts with CO2 and forms benzoic

acid.
Reason :CO2 is electrophile.
86. Assertion :Boiling point of α–D-glucose is less then β–

D-glucose.
Reason :β–D–glucose is more stable then α–D-glucose
87. Assertion :Cimetidine is an antacid.

Reason :Antacid increases secretion of HCl from gastric cells.
0
88. Assertion :In Free expansion, ∆U =
Reason:No work is done in free expansion.
89. Assertion: NaCl( aq ) electrolysis produces Na metal.
Reason:Na+ is obtained at cathode.

90. Assertion:O2F2 converts Pu to PuF6.
Reason:O2F2 is used to remove unreacted Pu from nuclear
Reaction.
91. Assertion :Solubility of gases increases with increase in

pressure.
Reason :Dissolution of gas in liquid is exothermic.
92. Assertion : SO 2 is more covalent than SeO 2

Reason :Covalent radius of Se is more than S
93. Assertion :In O/W emulsion, soap is mixed

Reason :Soap reduces surface tension
94. Assertion :[Co(NH3)6]3+→[Co(NH3)5 H2O]3+colour

continuously changes.
Reason :Larger wavelength will be absorbed
95. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular

weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. The number of
iron atoms (at. Wt. of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of
haemoglobin is
(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4
96. What is the energy ( kJ mol ) associated with the de-excitation of

an electron from n=6 to n=2 is He+ ion?
(1) 1.36 ×106
(2) 1.36 ×103
(3) 1.16 ×103

(4) 1.78 ×103
97. First three ionisation energies (in kJ mol ) of three representative

elements are given below:
Element IE1 IE2 IE2
P 495.8 4562 6910
Q 737.7 1451 7733
R 577.5 1817 2745
Then incorrect option is:
(1) Q: Alkaline earth metal
(2) P: Alkali metals
(3) R: s-block element
(4) They belong to same period
98. Kc for the reaction N 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )  2NO ( g ) at 300K is 4.0 ×10−6 , K p for

the above reaction will be ( R = 2 cal mol −1
K −1 )
(1) 2.4 ×10−3
(2) 4 × 10−6
(3) 4 ×10−6 ( RT )
2
(4) 16 ×10−12
99. The dielectric constant of H2O is 80. The electrostatic force of
attraction between Na+ and Cl- will be
(1) Reduced to 1/40 in water than in air
(2) Reduced to 1/80 in water than in air
(3) Will be increased to 80 in water than in air
(4) Will remain unchanged
100. In the following sequence of reaction, identifying the

compounds (A), (B), (C) and (D):
S
SO2 Na 2 CO3 AgNO3
Na 2 CO3   →(A) → (B) → (C)  →(D)
Heat
(1) Na 2SO3 , NaHSO3 , Na 2S, Ag 2 S
(2) NaHSO3 , Na 2SO3 , Na 2S2 O3 , Ag 2 S
(3) NaHSO3 , Na 2SO 4 , Na 2S, Ag 2 O
(4) NaSO3 , Na 2SO 4 , Na 2S2 O, Ag
101. Which one of the following is correct statement

(1) The hydroxides of Al is more acidic than that of B
(2) The hydroxides of B is basic while that of Al is amphoteric
(3) The hydroxide of B is acidic, while that of Al is amphoteric
(4) The hydroxides of B and Al are amphoteric
102. Limit of BOD prescribed by central Pollution control Board for
the discharge of industrial and municipal water into natural
surface waters, is
(1) < 100ppm
(2) <30 ppm
(3) <3.0 ppm
(4) <10 ppm
103. The standard EMF for the cell reaction, Zn + Cu 2+ → Cu + Zn 2+ is 1.1

volt at 25 °C . The EMF for the cell reaction, when 0.1 M Cu2+
and 0.1M Zn2+ solutions are used, at 25 °C is
(1) 1.10 V
(2) 0.10 V
(3) −1.10 V
(4) −0.110 V
104. Given below are a few electrolytes, indicate which one among
them will bring about the coagulation of a gold sol quickest and
in the least of concentration?
(1) NaCl
(2) MgSO4
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
105. When copper pyrites is roasted in excess of air, a mixture of

CuO+FeO is formed. FeO is present as impurity. This can be
removed as slag during reduction of CuO. The flux added to
form slag is reduction of CuO. The flux added to form slag is
(1) SiO2, which is acidic flux
(2) Limestone, which is a basic flux
(3) SiO2 which is the basic flux
(4) CaO, which is a basic flux
106. When an aqueous solution of copper (II) sulphate is saturated

with ammonia, the blue compound crystallises on evaporation.
The formula of this blue compound is:
(1) Cu ( NH 3 )4  SO 4 .H 2O (square plannar)
(2) Cu ( NH 3 )4  SO 4 (Tetrahedral)
(3) Cu ( NH 3 )6  SO 4 (Octahedral)
(4) Cu ( SO 4 ) ( NH 3 )5  (Octahedral)

107. One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles of hot and
concentrated KOH. The products formed are KF, H2O and O2.
The molar ratio of KF, H2O and O2, repectively
(1) 1:1:2
(2) 2:1:0.5
(3) 1:2:1
(4) 2:1:2
108. Select correct match

(1) [Co(ox)(H2O)3(NH3)]Br optical isomerism
(2) [Cr(SCN)(H2O)3(en)](C2O4): Ionization isomerism
(3) [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH3)]: Geometrical isomerism
(4) [CoBrCl(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2]: Cp-Ordination isomerism
109. Both containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels.
They were labelled A and B for testing. A and B were separately
taken in test tubes and boiled with NaOH solution. The end
solution in each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and
then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substances B gave
yellow precipitate. Which one of the following statements is
true for this experiment?
(1) A was C6H5CH2I
(2) B was C6H5I
(3) Addition of HNO3
(4) A was C6H5I
110. When benzenediazonium chloride in hydrochloride acid reacts

with cuprous chloride, then chlorobenzene is formed. The
reaction is called
(1) Gattermann reaction
(2) Perkin reaction
(3) Etard reaction
(4) Sandmeyer reaction
111. Chargaff’s rule states that in an organism

(1) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and
the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
(2) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and
the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G)
(3) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and
the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
(4) Amount of all bases are equal
112. Commonly used antiseptic ‘Dettol’ is a mixture of
(1) O-chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
(2) O-cresol + terpeneol
(3) Phenol + terpeneol
(4) Chloroxylenol + terpenrol
113. Assertion: The normality of 0.3 M aqueous solution of H3PO4

is equal to 0.6 N.
Reason: Equivalent weight of H3PO3
Molecular weight of H 3PO 4
=
3
114. Assertion: Second ionization enthalpy will be higher than the

first ionization enthalpy.
Reason: Ionization enthalpy is a quantitative measure of the
tendency of an element to lose electron.
115. Assertion: The pressure of a fixed amount of an ideal gas is

proportional to its temperature.
Reason: Frequency of collisions and their impact both increase
in proportion to the square root of temperature.
116. Assertion: Water acts as levelling solvent for various acids.

Reason: Levelling effect of water is due to its high dielectric
constant and strong proton accepting tendency.
117. Assertion: Both Be and Al can form complexes such as BeF4−
and AlF63− respectively. BeF63− is not formed.

Reason: In case of Be, no vacant d-orbital are present in its
outermost shell.
118. Assertion: β − dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides is anti
elimination in which bond breaking and bond forming occur
simultaneously.
Reason: β − Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides gives Saytzeff
product.
119. Assertion: Conductivity of metals decreases with increase of

temperature whereas that of electrolytic solution increase.
Reason: Electrons in metals are very tightly held by the nucleus
and are not free to move.
120. Assertion: In smelting, roasted ore is heated with powdered

coke in presence of a flux.
Reason: Oxides are reduced to metals by C or CO, impuirities
are removed as slag.
Biology
121. Which is incorrect about E.coli?

(1) It is diploid
(2) It is found in human intestine
(3) Transformation, Transduction, Conjugation can show
(4) Can be used in Recombinant DNA technology
122. Codons of alanine

(1) CUC, CUA, CUG
(2) GGG, GGU, GGA
(3) GUG, GUC, GUA
(4) GCU, GCC, GCG
123. Which of the following can synthesize all types of RNA?

(1) r-RNA
(2) t-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) DNA
124. Diagram of hypogynous, perigynous, Epigynous are given
respectively
(1) a-Mustard, b-Rose, c-Plum, d-Guava

(2) a-Cucumber, b-Plum, c-Rose, d-Brinjal
(3) a-China rose, b-Guava, c-Rose, d-Mustard
(4) a-Mustard, b-Rose, c-Plum, d-Brinjal
125. Which of the following are synthetic phytohormone?

(1) IBA, IAA, BAP
(2) 2,4-D, NAA, BAP
(3) Zeatin, IBA, IAA
(4) NAA, IAA, 2,4-D
126. Which of the following is correct?

(1) Cyanobacteria makes mycorrhiza Which absorbs phosphate
from soil
(2) Azotobacter is symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria
(3) In paddy field, cyanobacteria is used to decrease soil
microbes
(4) Methanobacterium feed cellulose in anaerobic condition
127. The genetic material of φ ×174 is

(1) ssDNA
(2) ssRNA
(3) dsDNA
(4) dsRNA
128. Heterozygous tall is crossed with recessive parent. What will

the percentage of homozygous recessive
(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%
129. In Mirablilisjalapa, red flowered plant is crossed with white

flowered plant. What will the phenotypic ratio in F2generation.
(1) 1:1:1
(2) 1:2:1
(3) 3:1
(4) 1:1
130. Which of the following is correct about somaclone plants?

(1) Somatic hybrid
(2) Same genetic constitution
(3) Different genetic constitution
(4) None
131. Fishes in eutrophic lake is died due to

(1) Oxygen
(2) Nutrient enrichment
(3) CO2
(4) None
132. Which is required in glycolysis?

(1) ATP, ADP, NAD+, Glucose, cytoplasmic enzymes
(2) FAD+ , ADP, ATP, Glucose, cytoplasmic enzymes
(3) NADP+, ATP, GTP, Glucose, cytoplasmic enzymes
(4) NAD+, NADP+, ATP, Glucose, cytoplasmic enzymes
133. Which is correct link reaction?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(1) Pyruvic acid+NAD++Co-A 
Mg
→ Acetyl ++ Co-
A+NADH.H++CO2
(2) Pyruvic acid+FAD++Co-A 
Mg
→ Acetyl ++ Co-
A+FADH.H++CO2
(3) Pyruvic acid+NADP++Co-A 
Mg
→ Acetyl ++ Co-
A+NADPH.H++CO2
(4) Pyruvic acid+NAD++Co-A 
Mg
→ Acetyl ++ Co-
A+NADH.H+
134. Match the Column-I & Column-II

Column-I Column-II
i. Auxin (A) Ripening of fruit
ii. ABA (B) Bolting
iii. Gibberellin (C) Sensitivity against adverse
conditions
iv. Ethephon (D) parthenocarpy in tomato
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D - ii

(2) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D - ii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i
(4) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D - iv
135. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Microelements involve N, P, Mn, Cu,Mo
(2) The concentration of microelements is 10 m mole/kg.
(3) If the concentration is more than 10 m mole/kg, they
become toxic
(4) The deficiency of microelements causes symptoms of
disease
136. All the digestive enzymes like carbohydrase, protease, lipase,

DNase, RNase are found in :
(1) Lysosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Vacuole
137. RNA is found in :

(1) Chloroplast, mitochondria
(2) Golgibody, Chloroplast
(3) Lysosome, Mitochondria
(4) Centrioles, Mitochondria
138. The value of 2,4-D is 25 ppm. How many amount of 2,4-D

should require for making its 5 litres, 15 litres and 25 litres
solutions respectively
(1) 25 gm, 50 gm, 75 gm
(2) 50 gm, 175 gm, 525 gm
(3) 250 gm, 750 gm, 1250 gm
(4) 125 gm, 375 gm, 625 gm
139. What was the reason of mass extinction during Mesozoic era?
(1) Due to meteorite falling on earth
(2) Due to continental drift
(3) Glaciation
(4) Volcanic eruption
140. Which hormone helps in detection of pregnancy?

(1) hCG
(2) hPL
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone
141. Match the following and select the correct option-

A. LSD i. CNS depressant
B. Morphine ii. Hallucinogen
C. Cocaine iii. Effects cardiovascular system
D. Nicotine iv. Interferes with dopamine
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(2) A-iii, B-1, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
142. Which among the following alcoholic beverage will be formed

by distillation?
(1) Brandy
(2) Wine
(3) Beer
(4) All
143. Optimum pH for activation of pepsinogen is–

(1) 1.5-2
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10
144. Which of the following is correct matching?

Column-I Column-II
(1) Blood & lymph a) Connective tissue
(2) Bones and muscles b) Skeletal tissue
(3) Skin epidermis c) sensory tissue
(4) Cartilage and d) Connective tissue
muscles
(1) 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 - b
(2) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 - d
(3) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 - c
(4) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 - a
145. Select the option having correct matching for different parts of
male reproductive system of cockroach–
(1) A-Phallic gland, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Vas deferens, D-
Ejaculatory duct
(2) A-Phallic gland, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Ejaculatory duct, D-
Vas deferens
(3) A-Seminal vesicle, B-Phallic gland, C-Vas deferens, D-
Ejaculatory duct
(4) A-Phallic gland, B-Vas deferens, C-Seminal vesicle, D-
Ejaculatory duct
146. Select the option with correct matching of animal group and its
examples–
(1) Mammalian-Platypus, Rattus, Camelus, Pavo
(2) Aves-Neophron, Struthio, Sphenodon, Passer
(3) Reptilia-Calotes, Heloderma, Uromastix, Draco
(4) Amphibia-Bufo, Hyla, Rhacophorus, Ophiosaurus
147. Select the correct matching –
(1) Cuboidal epithelium-Alveolar wall
(2) Columnar epithelium-Stomach
(3) Ciliated epithelium-Intestine
(4) Squamous epithelium-Germinal epithelium
148. Cross bridges between actin and myosin is broken up by –

(1) Hydrolysis of ATP
(2) Binding of ATP to the myosin head
(3) Binding of calcium to the subunit of troponin
(4) Exposure of tropomyosin
149. Only erythropoiesis occurs in–

(1) Erythroblast
(2) Proerythroblast
(3) Myeloid tissue
(4) Haemocytoblast
150. Which among the following hormone initiate development of

secondary sexual characters in female?
(1) GnRH
(2) Estradiol
(3) Estriol
(4) Progesterone
151. Which of the following are about 90% absorbed in the

nephron?
(1) Glucose and amino acids–Active process
(2) Glucose and amino acids–Passive process
(3) Cl–, NH3, K+–Passive process
(4) Cl–, NH3, K+–Active process
152. Infective stages of malarial parasite is found in -

(1) Salivary glands of mosquito
(2) Intestine of mosquito
(3) Haemolymph of mosquito
(4) Stomach wall of mosquito
153. Full form of GEAC is–

(1) Genetic engineering approval committee
(2) Genetic engineering advisory council
(3) Genetic export approval committee
(4) Global environmental advisory committee
154. Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to

(1) starch formation
(2) protein storage
(3) general metabolism
(4) enzyme secretion
155. The given figures are types of elements (A and B) which

constitute one type of complex tissue (C) of a plant. Identify A,
B and C.
(1) A–Tracheid, B –Vessel, C–Xylem

(2) A–Vessel, B–Tracheild, C – Phloem
(3) A–Fibre, B–Tracheid, C–Bark
(4) A–Fibre, B–Sclereid, C–Casparian strips
156. Which of the following is/are essential fatty acid(s)?
(1) Linoleic acid
(2) Linolenic acid
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) All of these
157. In the somatic cell cycle

(1) In G1 phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA
present in the original cell.
(2) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(3) A short inter-phase is followed by a long mitotic phase.
(4) G2 phase follows mitotic phase.
158. When a cell is lasmolysed, it becomes

(1) flaccid and its TP becomes zero
(2) turgid and its TP becomes zero
(3) turgid and TP becomes equal to OP
(4) flaccid and DPD becomes zero
159. Residual air mostly occurs in

(1) alveoli
(2) nostrils
(3) bronchus
(4) trachea
160. During rest, sodium pump of a nerve results in (a). (b) (c). (d)
(1) more Na+ pumped out than K+ ions taken in
(2) Na+ pumped in without exchange with any other ion
(3) exchanging equal amounts of Na+ and K+
(4) more Na+ being pumped in than K+ ions pumped out
161. Assertion: The development of embryo from the zygote is

called embryogenesis.
Reason: Cell divisions increase the number of cells in the
developing embryo.
162. Assertion: Barrier methods prevent physical meeting of
sperms and ova.
Reason: This prevents conception.
163. Assertion: Animals adopt different strategies to survive in

hostile environment.
Reason: Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with
plant foliage.
164. Assertion: Chaparral is also called "shrub forest".
Reason: Trees are totally absent in chaparral.
165. Assertion: Red data book has a record of only those animals
which are known to be in danger.
Reason: Endangered species no need to be noticed.
166. Assertion: Metabolism refers to the sum of chemical reactions
that occur within living organisms.
Reason: Metabolic reactions simultaneously inside living
organisms.
167. Assertion: Trichomonasvaginalis causes infection only in

women.
Reason: Trichomonasbuccalis lives in the buccal cavity.
168. Assertion: Spirogyra shows haplontic life cycle.
Reason: Zygotic meiosis ocurs in Spirogyra.
169. Assertion: Characters of cyclostomes show an advance over

Amphioxus.
Reason: Cyclostomes have some degenerated characters.
170. Assertion: Meiotic division results in the production of haploid

cells.
Reason : Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.
171. Assertion: Photorespiration decreases photosynthetic output.

Reason: In photorespiratory pathway, neither ATP nor NADPH
is produced.
172. Assertion: Eli Lily prepared two DNA sequences

corresponding to A and B chain of human insulin and
introduced them in the plasmid of E.coli to produce polypeptide
chains of insulin.
Reason: Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted
and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human
insulin.
173. Assertion: We can develop nematode resistant plants by RNA

interference technology.
Reason: Secondary metabolites can be produced by genetic
engineering in plants.
174. Assertion: GM plants are more useful than nor mal plants.
Reason: Golden rice is rich in β-carotene
175. Assertion : Secondary metabolites of plants can be useful for

human.
Reason: Abrin and ricin are toxins.
176. Assertion: The endosperm in gymnosperm is formed after
fertilization.
Reason: The endosperm of gymnosperm is formed by triple
fusion.
177. Assertion: A & B are antigens present on RBCs

Reason: The blood group is AB blood group only.
178. Assertion: BOD (Biological oxygen demand) is a device that
is used to measure quality of water.
Reason: High BOD is observed in highly polluted water
179. Assertion: Deforestation sequesters CO2 from atmosphere.

Reason: Global warming is beneficial for plants and human
health.
180. Assertion: C3 cycle is found in all plant

Reason: Kranz anatomy is found in C3 plant
GK and Mental ability
181. Which is the 80th organ of the body?

(1) Interstitium
(2) Mesentery
(3) Esophagus
(4) Submandibular glands
182. Which is the largest organ of human body?

(1) Sartorius Muscle
(2) Interstitium
(3) Skin
(4) Liver
183. What are the ZhongZhong and HuaHua?

(1) Cloned monkeys
(2) Cloned Goats
(3) Cloned Buffallows
(4) Cloned Rabbits
184. What is the range of Privthvi III, the naval version of Privthvi ?
(1) 50 km-100 km
(2) 150 km-200 km
(3) 250 km-300 km
(4) 350 km-400 km
185. The oldest inhabitants of India are considered by which name?

(1) Alpine
(2) Monglide
(3) Negritoes
(4) Australoids
186. Which state has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources?
(1) Bihar
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Odisha
(4) Andhra Prdesh
187. Which was the first woman film star nominated/ elected to the
RajyaSabha?
(1) NargisDutt
(2) Rekha
(3) Jaya Bhachan
(4) HemaMalini
188. When was decimal coinage introduced in India?

(1) 1948
(2) 1952
(3) 1957
(4) 1962
189. Who was the Muhghal emperor at the time of Ahmad Shah
Abdali’s invasion of India?-
(1) Shah Alam II
(2) Akbar II
(3) Muhammad Shah
(4) Alamgir II
190. In Indus Valley, which one indicates the commercial and

economic development?
(1) Idols
(2) Seals
(3) Dockyards
(4) Granaries
191. Find the missing term.
(1) 21
(2) 31
(3) 41
(4) 51
192. Find the odd one out
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
193. Social media is a popular medium of spreading information?

Statement-I: Normally people believe in the information of
social media.
Statement II: Social media information is authentic.
(1) Statement-1 is required
(2) Statement-2 is required
(3) Both 1 and 2 are required
(4) Neither 1 nor 2 is required.
194. The number in the place of ?should be.
(1) 40
(2) 48
(3) 30
(4) 24
195. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and

walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns
left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In
which direction and how many meters is he from the starting
position?
(1) 15 m West
(2) 30 m East
(3) 30 m West
(4) 45 m East
196. Which one of the following diagram represents the correct

relationship among Brain, Cerebrum, Liver and Human body.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
197. In a row of 62 persons. Rahul is 36th from left side of the row
and Nitesh is 29th form the right side of the row. Find out the
number of persons sitting between them?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
198. In the given figure, how many pages are either new or white
but not both.
(1) 111
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 168
199. Sumit remembers that the examination is after 15th May but
before 18th May, while Deepak remembers that the examination
is before 21st May but after 16th May. On which date of May is
the examination?
(1) 17
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 20
200. Two positions of a cube are shown below. Identify the Symbol
at the bottom when the Symbol& is at top.
(1) ^
(2) %
(3) $
(4) None of these.
Answer Key
1 1 41 1 81 2 121 1 161 2
2 1 42 1 82 3 122 4 162 1
3 3 43 1 83 1 123 4 163 1
4 4 44 3 84 3 124 1 164 3
5 1 45 4 85 2 125 2 165 3
6 4 46 3 86 1 126 4 166 2
7 3 47 3 87 3 127 1 167 2
8 48 1 88 2 128 4 168 1
9 1 49 3 89 4 129 2 169 2
10 1 50 4 90 1 130 2 170 1
11 1 51 1 91 2 131 1 171 1
12 1 52 4 92 2 132 1 172 2
13 1 53 4 93 1 133 1 173 2
14 1 54 1 94 1 134 3 174 2
15 1 55 2 95 4 135 1 175 2
16 1 56 3 96 3 136 1 176 4
17 3 57 3 97 3 137 1 177 2
18 4 58 2 98 2 138 4 178 1
19 4 59 2 99 2 139 1 179 4
20 4 60 3 100 2 140 1 180 3
21 2 61 2 101 3 141 1 181 1
22 4 62 1 102 2 142 1 182 2
23 3 63 1 103 1 143 1 183 1
24 4 64 3 104 3 144 1 184 3
25 4 65 3 105 1 145 1 185 3
26 3 66 1 106 1 146 3 186 3
27 3 67 1 107 2 147 2 187 1
28 1 68 1 108 4 148 2 188 3
29 1 69 2 109 4 149 2 189 1
30 2 70 1 110 4 150 1 190 2
31 1 71 2 111 3 151 1 191 2
32 4 72 2 112 4 152 1 192 4
33 2 73 1 113 3 153 1 193 1
34 1 74 3 114 2 154 1 194 3
35 4 75 2 115 4 155 1 195 4
36 2 76 3 116 1 156 4 196 4
37 1 77 4 117 1 157 2 197 1
38 1 78 2 118 3 158 1 198 2
39 4 79 1 119 3 159 1 199 1
40 1 80 4 120 1 160 1 200 1
Solutions – Physics
1. NOT GATE has only one input and output.
2. Consider the following figure.
Calculate path difference at P as follows.

x d sin θ
∆=
If θ is very small. Therefore,
x d tan θ
∆=
y
∆x =d 
D
Substitute the values.
10−3 × 2 × 10−3
∆x =
1
= 2 × 10−6 m
3. Consider the following diagram,
Suppose particle falls down a distance y in t time, therefore,

1
y = gt 2
2
2y
t=
g
For x-axis,
1 2
x= axt
2
1 QE 2y
x=⋅ ⋅
2 m g
1 QE 2y
x=⋅ ⋅
2 m g
1 9.6 × 107 × 5 × 105 × 2 × 84 × 10−2
= ×
2 10
= 403.2 × 1010 m
= 4.03 × 108 m
4. It is given that,
m = 4 kg
k = 800 N/m
E=4J
For simple harmonic motion,
1
E = kA2
2
1
4 = × 800 × A2
2
A = 0.1 m
5. The expression to calculate the charge density σ is given as,

σ
E=
ε0 K
σ
6 × 105 =
(8.85 ×10−12 ) ( 6 )
σ= 36 × 8.85 × 10−12 c / m 2
= 3.18 × 10−10 c / m 2
The maximum acceleration,
amax = ω 2 A
k
A =
m
800 Nm −1
= × 0.1 m
4 kg
= 20 m/s 2
From the above figure,

dm
f net =
− Vrel ⋅ +F
dt
Let, Vrel = 0 therefore,

f net = F
ma = F
F
a=
m
Here,
m
= m 0 − µt
So,
F
a=
m 0 − µt
dV F
=
dt m 0 − µt
Integrate the above expression.
V t
dt
∫ dV = F∫
0 0
m 0 − µt
F  m0 
V= ln  
µ  m 0 − µt 
F  m0 
V= ln  
µ  m 0 − µt 
10  2 
= ln  
0.5  1 
= 20 ( 0.693)
= 13.86 m / s
7. Consider the figure below,
vr
= sin 30°
vm
vr 1
=
0.5 2
vr = 0.25 m/s
8. Consider the following figure,
By angular momentum conservation,

mV0 rmax = mVrmin
V0 rmax
V=
rmin
9. The heat absorbed is calculated as,
The efficiency of refrigerator is equal to the ratio of cooling
effect to work input.
Q2
β=
Q 2 − Q1
So,
βQ 2 − βQ1 = Q 2
βQ1 =
βQ2 − Q2
Q 2 ( β − 1)
Q1 =
β
10. The shortest wavelength present in the paschen series of

spectral lines are,
1  1 1 
= R (1)  2 −
2
2
λ min  ( 3) ( ∞ ) 
1 R
=
λ min 9
9
λ min =
1.0965 × 10−3
8208 Å
λ min =
11. The expression of self inductance is given as,
L =µ 0µ r n 2 A
Here,
N
n=

So,
2
N
L =µ 0µ r   A

µ 0µ r N 2 A
L=

The expression of force on electron is given as,

=F QVBsin θ
It can also be written as,
µI
=F eV  0  sin ( π / 2 )
 2πd 
µ eVI
F= 0
2πd
13. Consider the given figure as shown below,
Let potential of A is zero and that of B is V.

In above circuit, apply charge conservation to calculate
voltage at B,
5 ( V − 10 ) + 2 ( V − 0 ) + 1( V − 10 ) =
0
8V − 60 =0
60
V=
8
V = 7.5 Volt
The charge on 2 µF is calculated as,
q=
2 µF C2 µF ⋅ V
q 2 µF = ( 2 )( 7.5 )
q 2 µ=
F 15 µC
14. The formula for the quality factor is,

1 L
Q=
R C
Therefore,
1 L
Q2 =
R2 C
1
C=
( RQ )
2
15. The expression to calculate the amplitude is given as,

F0
A=
m ( ω2 − ω2D )

100
A=
(
0.01 ( 200π ) − ( 20π )
2 2
)
10000
=
π2 ( 40000 − 400 )
10000
=
(10 )( 40000 − 400 )
= 0.025 m

For first lens,
v f
m=
1 =
u u+f
100 v
=m1 =
−50 + 100 u
v
= 2=
u
v = 2u
Image distance is,
v= 2 ( −50 )
= −100 cm
For second lens,
−8
m2 =
−190 − 8
= 0.04
The net magnification is calculated as,
m = m1m 2
= 2 ( 0.04 )
= 0.08
17. The expression of energy at r2 is given as,
Ke 2
E2 = −
2r2
The expression of energy at r1 is given as,

Ke 2
E1 = −
2r1
The change in energy is given as,
hc
∆E = E 2 − E1 =
λ
Therefore,
Ke 2  Ke 2  hc
− −− =
2r2  2r1  λ
hc Ke ( r2 − r1 )
2
=
λ 2r1r2
2hcr1r2
λ=
Ke 2 ( r2 − r1 )
18. The unit of thermal conductivity is Jm −1 sec −1 ( °C )
−1

u=0
=v 108
= km/hr 30 m/s
t =5s
From the equation of motion,
v= u + at
60= 0 + a ( 5 )
a = 6 m/s 2
The distance travelled in the first 5 sec is,
1 2
s=
1 ut + at
2
1
s1= 0 + ( 6 )( 5 )
2
2
s1 = 75 m
The distance travelled with uniform speed of 30 m/s is S 2
395 = s1 + s2 + s3
395 = 75 + s2 + 45
s2 = 275 m
275
Time taken to travel 275 m is = 9.2 s
30
For the retarding motion,
v2 − u 2 =
2as
02 − 302 = 2 ( − a ) × 45
a = 10 m/s 2
1
s ut + at 2
=
2
1
45 = 30t + ( −10 ) t
2
= 30t − 5t 2
45
By solving the above equation,
t = 3s
Total time taken = 5 + 9.2 + 3=17.2 s

By balancing the forces,
F =mg + 2T ( 2πR )
F = mg + 4TπR
21. The pair of forks produces 4 beats/sec. So, the frequency of

both forks differs by 4.
The possible frequency of unknown fork is 284 cps or 292
cps.
According to the second condition, the difference in their
frequencies are 2. It is only possible when the unknown fork
has a higher frequency than the given fork frequency i.e., 292
cps.

m1 = 1 kg
m2 = 6 kg
F=6N
The Mass of first block is more than the mass of second block
and force applied on each ther is same.
F
= ( m1 + m2 ) a
F
a=
( m1 + m2 )
6
=a = 12 m/s 2
1 − 0.5
23. The ratio of potential and kinetic energies,

PE 2
=
KE 3
mgh 2
= (=
E KE + PE )
E − mgh 3
5mgh
E= ...(1)
2
When the velocity doubled, then the energy becomes 4E .
Thus,
PE mgh
=
KE 4 E − mgh
mgh
= ( from(1) )
10mgh − mgh
1
=
9
24. The centre of mass is at rest. Therefore, the velocity is zero.
25. Consider f be the effective focal length of the system,

1 2 1
= +
f fe fm
1 2 1
= +
f 12 ∞
f = −6 cm
From mirror formula,
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1 1 1
+ =
v −20 −6
v = −8.6 cm
26. The work done during this extension of the wire is,
1
dW
= [ F2l2 − F1l1 ]
2
1
=  4 × 10 × 1× 10−3 − 2 × 10 × 0.6 × 10−3 
2
= 14 × 10−3 J
27. The weight of the bowl is equal to the weight of the liquid
displaced by the bowl,
mg = V σ g
3
4 D
V ρg = π   σ g
3 2
4  D   d  
3 3 3
4 D
π   −    ρg =π  σg

3  2   2   3 2
  D 3  d 3  D
3
   −    ρ =   σ
 2   2   2
  1 3  d 3  3 1
3
3
   −    × 2 × 10=   × 1.2 × 10
 2   2   2
On solving,
d = 0.98 m

5
, W 6 R and
T1 T=
= = γ
3
The work done can be calculated as,
PV
1 1 − PV nRT1 − nRT2
=W = 2 2
γ −1 γ −1
R (T − T2 )
6R =
5
−1
3
T=
2 (T − 4 ) K
29. By D’morgan law,
X= A + B
= A+ B
The circuit represents OR gate.
30. Amplitude of damped oscillator at an instant t is,

A = A0e − bt / 2 m
When t = 2 s,
A0
A=
3
A0
A0e − b 2/2 m =
3
1
e−b/ m = ...(1)
3
When t = 6 s,
A0
A=
n
A0
A0e −6b /2 m =
n
1
e −3b / m =
n
1
(e )
3
−b/ m
=
n
3
1 1
  = ( from(1) )
3 n
n = 33
31. The mass of the ball: =

m 10
= g 0.01 kg rebounds after
striking the wall.
Impulse = Change in momentum = mv − ( − mv ) =2mv
I = 2mv
0.54 = 2 × 0.01× v
v = 27 m/s
32. The current in the bulb is,

P 4.5
I
= = = 3A
V 1.5
1.5
Current in 1 Ω resistance wire = = 1.5 A
1
Total current through the battery,
I=3 + 1.5 =4.5 A
Emf of the battery,
E= V + Ir
=1.5 + ( 4.5 × 2.67 )
= 13.5 V
33. The formula for the resistance is,

Rt R0 (1 + α t )
=
10 R0 (1 + 30α )
Initially,=
11 R0 (1 + α t )
Final,=
Now,
11 R0 (1 + α t )
=
10 R0 (1 + 30α )
11 (1 + 0.002 × t )
=
10 (1 + 30 × 0.002 )
By solving,
1.66
t
= = 83°C
0.02
34. The magnetic field of earth is,

µ0 2 M
B=
4π d 3
Substitute the given values in the above equation.
−7 2 × 8 × 1022
B 10 ×
=
( 6.4 ×106 )
3
≈ 0.6 gauss
35. The volatege,

V0
V= t
T /4
4V
V = 0t
T
The rms value of V is,
Vrms = < V 2 >

4V0
= < t2 >
T
Now,
 T /4 t 2 dt 
4V0  ∫0  V0
=V =  
T  T /4 dt  3
 0∫ 
36. Consider the figure below,
     
F = F1 + F2 + F3 + F4 + F5
And
   
=F2 F
=5 and F2 F4
 
F=
1 F3 + 2 F2 cos30° + 2 F1 cos 60°
Gm 2 Gm 2 Gm 2
=F3 = : F2 = : F1
4a 2 3a 2 a2
Gm 2  5 1 
F
= 2  + =
 mω 2
a
a 4 3
Gm  5 1 
=ω +
a 2  4 
3
4 3a 3
T = 2π
(
Gm 5 3 + 4 )
37. The wavelength of first spectral line in the Balmer series of

hydrogen atom is 6534 Å .
1 1 1
= RZ 2  2 − 2 
λ  n1 n2 
1 2 1 1
= R (1)  2 − 2  ...(1)
6561 2 3 
For the second spectral line in the balmer series of singly
ionised helium ion,
1 2 1 1
= R ( 2)  2 − 2  ...( 2 )
λ 2 4 
Divide equation (1) and (2),
λ 5R 4
= ×
6561 36 3R
λ 5
=
6561 27
λ = 1215 Å
38. Using mirror formula,

1 1 1
+ =
v u f
So,
dv v 2  du 
= 2 
dt u  dt 
dv  f  du
= − 
dt  u − f  dt
1
= m/s
15
39. For dark fringe,

λD
x
= ( 2n − 1)
2d
2 xd
λ=
( 2n − 1) D
2 × 10−3 × 0.9 × 10−3
=
( 2 × 2 − 1) ×1
= 0.6 × 10−6 m
= 6 × 10−5 cm
40. For a given photosensitive material and frequency > threshold

frequency photoelectric current ∝ intensity.
41. An adiabatic process occurs when the transfer of heat is equal

to zero. Therefore, the work done by a gas under adiabatic
expansion is equal to negative change in the internal energy
of the gas.
42. Gallium arsenide phosphide is used in red L.E.D because its

work function lies b/w 1.65 eV.
Therefore, assertion and reason are true and reason is the
43. There is friction with the walls of the pipe, and there is
friction within the fluid itself (viscous force), converting
some of its kinetic energy into heat.
44. The distance travelled in first 2 second,

1
x= ut + at 2
2
1
x (0) t + a ( 2)
2
=
2
x = 2a
The distance travelled in 4 second,
1
y= ut + at 2
2
1
y (0) t + a ( 4)
2
=
2
y = 8a
The distance travelled in next 2 seconds,
z= y − x
= 8a − 2 a
= 6a
= 3x
Thus, Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
45. The total energy of billiard balls is sum of kinetic and
potential energy. So the kinetic energy of balls. is less than
the total energy.
The energy spent against friction is dissipated as heat which is
not available for doing work.
Therefore both the statements are false.
46. An ice-skater stretches out arms and legs during performance

to take advantage of principle of conservation of angular
momentum. As on doing so, their moment of inertia increases
or decreases respectively and hence the angular velocity of
spin motion decreases or increases accordingly.
47. The gravitational acceleration is because of gravitational force

earth exerts on objects, but due to rotation of earth, different
centrifugal forces act on objects at different latitudes, and
Therefore gravitational acceleration is different at different
places. However if the earth stops rotating, the centrifugal force
vanish and only the gravitational force acts and acceleration due
to gravity becomes same at all places.
48. The constant force in the direction of motion and a velocity
dependent force opposite to the direction of motion should be
equal for an object to acquire terminal velocity
49. The escape velocity on the surface of moon is much less than
that on earth, so the water molecules get evaporated faster.
50. Gases can be converted to liquids by compressing the gas at a

suitable temperature but At higher temperatures, the gas
cannot be liquefied by pressure alone
51. If amplitude of simple pendulum increases then the motion of

pendulum is oscillatory but not simple harmonic because for
larger amplitude θ is large..
52. The rate of decrease of electric field is different in the two

1
cases. In case of a point charge, it decreases as 2
but in the
r
1
case of electric dipole its decreases more rapidly, as E = .
r3
53. The equivalent emf of the two batteries in parallel,

er +e r 
=e  1 2 2 1  , e1 < e < e2
 r1 + r2 
r1r2
Internal resistance, r = . This value is smaller than
r1 + r2
either of r1 and r2 .
54. The magnetic field of two equal half’s of the loop is equal and

opposite and Thus, B = 0 .
55. Infrared radiation helps to maintain the earth warmth through

the greenhouse effect. Incoming visible light which passes
relatively easily through the atmosphere is absorbed by the
earth’s surface and re-radiated as infrared radiation. The
radiation is trapped by greenhouse gases such as carbon
dioxide and water vapour and they heat up and heat their
surroundings.
56. The current gain in common base circuit,

 ∆I C 
α = VC
 ∆I E 
The change in collector current is always less than the change
in emitter current ∆I C < ∆I E . Thus, α < 1.
57. The range covered is not proportional to the height of the TV

transmission tower. The range depends directly on square root
of the height of the antenna i.e. S ∝ h .
58. In both the cases, the magnetic flux will change, and so there
is an induced current.
59. The magnitude of the electric field due to a charged spherical

shell is zero inside it, maximum on its surface and then keeps
decreasing as 1/r2. So the value of electric field does not vary
smoothly from center to r.
dN 0.693 N
60. Radioactivity =
− λN =
=
dt T1/2
0.693 × 108 0.693 × 1.2 × 108
= = = 0.693 × 2 × 106
50 60
1
And radioactivity ∝ .
T1/2
Solutions – Chemistry
61. The numbering of carbon atoms in the compound is done on the

basis of priority of the functional group attached on the branches
as shown below.
So, the name of the compound is 2–formyl–5–methylhept–

3–enenitrile.
62. The final product of the solution is,

63. This is the case of Reimer-Tieman Reaction of phenol and
its product is Salicyaldehyde.
64. The product is given as,
65. The sequence of the reaction is shown below,

66. Enantiomers are pairs of molecules that are non-
superimposable mirror image of each other.
The figure shows all are enantiomer pairs except A and B.
67. As, the C2 H 5O − is stronger than Cl in terms of stability of

functional group so, it replaces the Cl group and forms,
68. To obtain the final product, the reagents used are shown
below:
69. The monomer of natural rubber is,
And, the monomer of neoprene is,
70. The figure (i) has less stable conjugate base, the figure (ii) has
equally stable resonating structure, the figure (iii) has –I
effect and figure (iv) has +I effect as shown below.
Thus, the order becomes iii>ii>i>iv.
71. When the Iodine reacts with sulphur dioxide, the reaction will
be:
I 2 + SO 2 + Strach ( deep blue ) → I − + SO 4 2-
The solution is colorless solution.

72. The number of atoms (A) = 6 (hcp)
1
The number of atoms (B) = × 12 =
4
3
Thus, the formula for the compound is A6B4 or A3B2.
73. On decomposition the water gives,

2H 2O → 2H 2 + O 2
The number of electrons on each mole is 4.
The 2 mole of water is equal to the 4 mole of electron.
n H2O ne
=
2 4
3× t
=0
96500 × 2
t = 35.8hr
74. The hybridization of SO2 is sp2 and the hybridization of NH2-

is sp3 but their shapes are identical,thatis bent shape.
75. The equilibrium constant is equal to the pressure of carbon di-

oxide. As, the temperature increases the pressure will also
increases.
The change in pressure brings change in the value of
equilibrium constant.
76. The density of the gas is given as,

PM
d= (I)
RT
dA
The density of gas A is twice of gas B that is =2
dB
MA 1
And the molar mass of A is half of B is =
MB 2
On substituting the value in equation (I) we get,
d A PA M A
=
d B PB M B
PA 1
2
= ×
PB 2
PA
=4
PB
77. The option 4 is correct as the sulphur di-oxide has angle of 120°
and the ammonia has bond angle of 107° .
78. The expression for number of half life passed is given as,
n
0.4  1 
= 
12.8  2 
n =5
Therefore, the time taken for radioactive substance is,
t=
5t1/2 =
5 × 138 s =
690 s
79. In case of N2H2, the nitrogen atom is sp2 hybridized; in all

other nitrogen atom is sp3
80. When manganese dioxide reacts with sodium chloride in

presence of sulfuric acid and H+ the resulting will be:
H+
MnO 2 + NaCl → MnCl2 + Cl2
H 2SO 4
81. The mass of solute is given as,

∆Tf × m w × M s
ms =
Kg
Substitute the values in the above expression.

2.4 × 2 × 62
=ms = 160 g
1.86
82. The expression for entropy change is given as,
T2
∆S =nCp ln
T1
7 800
∆S = 2 × R × ln
2 400
J
∆S = 40
K
83. The dissociation is given as,
( 3.6 ×10−= ) 6.48 ×10−6

2 2
4
 H + 
Ka
= =
C 0.02
84. The Benzylamine have –I effect of phenyl group, on the other

hand, CH 3 − CH 2 − NH 2 have +I effect.
85. When the phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with the carbon
dioxide the result is,
86. The β -D-glucose is more stable than the α -glucose as the –OH
group of the anomeric carbon is in more stable at equatorial
position, and in case of α -D-glucose the –OH group on the
anomeric carbon is axial.
So, the boiling point and melting point of the β -D-glucose
more than the α -glucose.
87. The suppression of HCl is done by Cimetidine which is an

antacid. So, the assertion is true and the reason is false.
88. By first law of thermodynamics in case free expansion the

change in internal energy is equal to zero. The work done
in case of free expansion is zero. Thus, both assertion and
reason is correct but they are not related to each other.
89. Electrolysis of Brine solution (NaCl) gives us the product of

sodium hydroxide, hydrogen and chlorine.
90. When the plutonium reacts with dioxygendifluoride the

reaction will be:
Pu + 3O 2 F2 → PuF6 + 3O 2
And, the unreacted plutonium is separated by fluorination.
91. Solubility of gases increases with increase in pressure as the
pressure difference does not depend upon the
thermodynamic process.
92. It is true SO 2 is more covalent than SeO 2 because Fajan’s rule

predicts the covalent nature. The Fajan’s rule is used to
judge the covalent nature of molecule, which states that a
compound with low positive charge, large cation and small
anion has ionic bond where as a compound with high
positive charge, small cation and large anion are covalently
bonded.
93. To obtain the emulsification, the soap is added in O/W

emulsion as it reduces surface tension and produces better
colloid.
94. As, the water is weaker ligand than the ammonia. So, the
wavelength absorbed is higher. Both assertion and reason
are correct and they are related with each other.
95. Weight of Iron is 67200
0.33
= × 67200 =221.76
100
Number of atoms of Iron

221.76
= = 3.96
= 4
56
2 1 1
∆E= 13.6 × ( 2 )  −  × 96.43
96.  4 36 
= 1.16 ×103 kJ/mol
97. R is pblock element, because difference between IE2 and IE3

is not very high as compared to between IE1 and IE2. Hence
stable oxidation state of R will be higher than +2.
98. The value of K p is calculated as,
K p = K c ( RT )
∆n
Since ∆n =0 , therefore, K p = Kc
99. Electrostatic forces of attraction are reduced to 1/80 in water.

100.
101. Option (c) is correct
102. Limit of BOD prescribed by central Pollution control

Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal water into
natural surface waters is < 10 ppm.
103. As the concentration of the ions is same therefore,

0
Ecell = Ecell that is 1.1 V
104. Al2 ( SO 4 )3 is most effective for coagulation as the gold
solution have negative charges.

105. The correct option is (1).
FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3 and it is acidic flux.
106. The formula of the blue compound is Cu ( NH 3 )6  SO 4 and it

has square planar geometry.
107. The chemical reaction is

2F2 + 4KOH → 4KF + O 2 + 2H 2 O
Therefore, for 1` mole of F2 the molar ratio will be 2:1:0.5.
108. [Co(BrCl)(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2] and [CoCl(CN)(H2O)4]

[AgBr(CN)] are co-ordination Isomer.
109. C6H5I will not respond to silver nitrate. Test because C-I
bond has a partial double bond character.
110. Sandmayer reaction results cholorobenzene as result.

111. Chargaff’s rule states that amount of adenine (A) is equal
to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal
to that of cytosine.
112. The mixture of chlorooxylenol and terpenol is dettol

which is used as antiseptic.
113. The assertion is true but reason is false. Since basicity of

H3PO4 is 2.
114. It is difficult to remove electron from a positively charge

ion than a neutral atom. Hence, IE2>IE1. Therefore, assertion
and reason bothe are true, but it is not a correct explanation.
115. Since condition of constant volume is not given, therefore

assertion is wrong.
116. In the presence of water as solvent HCL, HNO3, H2SO4

and HCIO4 have same strength. This is due to levelling effect
of water.
117. Both assertion and reason are correct and it is a correct
explanation.
118. Assertion is correct and the reason is worng.
119. Electrons are not tightly held but are free to flow. Instead,
Kernels start vibrating which create hinderance to the flow of
electrons. In case of electrolytes, dissociation and ionic
mobilities increases with temperature.
120. Assertion and reason both are correct and it is a correct

explanation.
Solutions – Biology
121. Escherichia coli only contains one homologue of the

single chromosome. It makes them haploid (n) and not
diploid (2n).
122. Alanine is coded by four triplet codons. It is coded by

GCU, GCC, and GCG. The fourth codon that codes for
alanine is GCA.
123. DNA can synthesize all the types of RNA-rRNA, t-RNA,

and m-RNA by the process of transcription. In this process,
DNA is transformed into RNA by the action of an enzyme
known as RNA polymerase.
124. The correct option is (1). a-Mustard, b-Rose, c-Plum, d-

Guava.
125. Synthetic phytohormones are known as the chemical

derivatives of natural analogues. They are synthetically
produced because the naturally occurring compounds are
either prone to degradation or are unstable. Some of the
commercially available synthetic phytohormones are 2,4-
Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), Naphthaleneacetic acid
(NAA), and 6-Benzylaminopurine (BAP).
126. Methanobacterium are methane-producing organisms that

feed on carbon compounds like cellulose to produce methane
gas. This process occurs in anaerobic conditions.
127. φ ×174 is one of the first DNA-based genome to be

sequenced. The genome of this bacteriophage consists of a
single-stranded molecule of DNA, which infects E.coli.
128. When heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with a recessive

parent (tt), then 50% of the offspring will be homozygous
recessive.
129. Mirabilis jalapashows incomplete dominance. In this

scenario, the red-flowered plants that are crossed with white-
flowered plants, produce pink-flowered plants in the
F1generation. When the pink colored flowers are self crossed
in the F2generation, it results in the production of offspring
having the genotypic ratio 1:2:1.
130. The somaclone plants have the same genetic constitution

because they are produced by tissue culture. In this way, the
new plant is genetically similar to the original plant.
131. The eutrophic lake consists of huge growth of algae,

which makes the underneath life devoid of oxygen. As a
result, the fishes die in the eutrophic lake due to unavailability
of oxygen.
132. Glycolysis is a metabolic process for the breakdown of

glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. This process requires
ATP, ADP, NAD+, glucose, and cytoplasmic enzymes.
133. The correct option is (1). This is because the correct

reaction is Pyruvic acid+NAD++Co-A Acetyl Co-
A+NADH.H++CO2
134. The correct option is (3). This is because auxin is
responsible for parthenocarpy in tomato, ABA is responsible
for sensitivity, gibberellin produces bolting, and ethephon is
responsible for the ripening of fruits.
135. The microelements are required in small concentrations

by the plants for their growth. Nitrogen and phosphorous are
known as macroelement as they are needed in a very high
concentration.
136. Lysosomes consist of digestive enzymes, which perform

the function of breaking down the excess and worn-out parts
of cells. Some of the digestive enzymes present with
lysosomes are carbohydrase, protease, lipase, DNase, and
RNase.
137. The chloroplast and mitochondria are the only organelles

apart from the nucleus that contains their own DNA. They
also contain RNA and RNA polymerase
138. The calculations that can be used to solve the given
problem is as follows:
1000 g = 1 mg
1000 ml = 1 litre
1 ppm 1=
= mg per litre 0.001 gm per litre
139. Scientists have narrowed down several of the most likely

causes of mass extinction. Asteroid collision is the most
likely causes of mass extinctions, though several other known
events may also contribute.
140. An hCG level of less than 5 mIU/mL is con sidered

negative for pregnancy, and anything above 25 mIU/mL is
considered positive for pregnancy.
141. The correct option is (1).This is because LSD produces

hallucinogenic effects, morphine is a type of CNS depressant,
the effect of cocaine is to interfere with dopamine, and
nicotine has hallucinogenic effects.
142. Distilled spirit, also called distilled liquor, alcoholic

beverage (such as brandy, whisky, rum, or arrack) that is
obtained by distillation from wine or other fermented fruit or
plant juice or from a starchy material (such as various grains)
that has first been brewed.
143. The optimum pH for pepsin is approximately pH 1.5-2.
144. The correct answer is, 1 – a, 2 – d, 3 – c, 4 - b
145. The correct option is (1).parts of the male reproductive

system of cockroach have been correctly labeled in option
(1).This is because A represents the Phallic gland, B indicates
the seminal vesicle, C shows the vas deferens, D shows the
Ejaculatory duct.
146. Egyptian vulture (Neophron), also called the white

scavenger vulture or pharaoh's chicken. Flightless Ostrich
(Struthiocamelus), Tuatara (Sphenedon) are reptiles endemic
to New Zealand. Although resembling most lizards. Pavo is a
constellation in the southern sky with the Latin name for
peacock. The glass lizards or glass snakes are a genus,
Ophisaurus, of reptiles that resemble snakes, but are actually
lizards.
147. The correct matching is (2).
148. In humans, a simple columnar epithelium lines most

organs of the digestive tract including the stomach, small
intestine, and large intestine.
149. Erythropoiesis is defined as the process that is responsible

for the formation of erythrocytes or red blood cells. This
process occurs in the cells called haemocytoblast. The red
blood cells are produced by the haemocytoblast cells by the
process of erythropoiesis.
150. GnRH is a hormone produced in the hypo thalamus region

of the brain. At the pituitary, GnRH stimulates the synthesis
and secretion of the gonadotropins, follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH).
151. Nephron is the first part of the urinary system present
inside the kidneys. The wastes and water from blood plasma
move to the nephrons through hollow tubules. Nephron is
responsible for 90% absorption of amino acids and glucose by
the process of active transportation.
152. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, a female Anopheles

mosquito (the definitive host) transmits a motile infective
form (called the sporozoite, which is present in salivary
glands of mosquito) to a vertebrate host such as a human (the
secondary host), thus acting as a transmission vector.
153. The full form of GEAC is the genetic engineering

approval committee. Its main role is to approve or deny
various activities.
154. Pyrenoids are defined as the round shaped structures that

are present in the chloroplast of green algal cells. It contains
an enzyme called ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
(RuBisCO) that helps in the process of photosynthesis and
thus, starch formation. Thus, the role of pyrenoids in green
algal cells is the formation of starch.
155. The option is (1). A–Tracheid, B –Vessel, C–Xylem
156. Essential fatty acid are some polyunsaturated acid which

cannot be synthesized in the animal body. Therefore it must
be supplied with food to avoid their deficiency. Linoleic acid,
linolenic acid and arachidonic acids are some examples of
essential fatty acids.
157. In the somatic cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in S

phase. S Phase is the synthesis phase during which replication
of chromosomes occur.
158. In the somatic cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in S

phase. S Phase is the synthesis phase during which replication
of chromosomes occur.
159. Residual air is the amount of air that remains in the lungs
after a maximal expiration. This air mostly occurs in alveoli
(the main site of gas exchange).
160. Resting potential is the membrane potential of a neuron at

rest. It is usually about -70millivolts. The negative sign of this
potential indicates that the inside of the neuron is more
negative than the outside. Potassium ions (K+) and sodium
ions (Na+) contribute to the resting potential. Two potassium
ions (K+) are moved into the cell for every three sodium ions
(Na+) that move out by the sodium-potassium pumps.
161. The process by which an embryo develops from a zygote

is termed as embryogenesis. The cells in a developing embryo
increase by the process of cell division. The cells of the
embryo differentiate by cell division and this result in the
development of an embryo. However, the process of cell
division is not the only factor that controls embryogenesis.
162. Barrier methods include the diaphragm, cervical cap, male

condom, and female condom and spermicidal foam, sponges,
and film. Unlike other methods of birth control, barrier
methods these are used only during sexual intercourse.
163. Animals blend with the surroundings or back ground to

remain unnoticed for protection and aggression.
164. Chaparral is a broad - leaved evergreen shrub forest of

hard and thick leaved small trees and shrubs which usually
contain resin but are resistant to fires.
165. Red data book contains a record of species of an area

which are known to be in danger. Endangered species need to
be noticed because only after that the planning for their
protection and improving their population can be given the
proper direction.
166. All living organisms are made of chemicals. These

chemicals, small and big, belonging to various classes, sizes,
functions, etc., are constantly being made and changed into
some other biomolecules. These conversions are chemical
reactions or metabolic reactions. There are thousands of
metabolic reactions occurring simultaneously inside all living
organisms, be they unicellular or multi-cellular.
167. Trichomonasvaginalis infects vagina of women and

causes the disease known as leucorrhoea. In males, the
parasite produces irritation in urethra. Trichomonasbuccalis
resides in the buccal cavity, which is nearly harmless.
168. Haplontic life cycle is characterized by a haploid thallus

and zygotic meiosis. It is also called as haplobiontic because
only a single type of free living individual is involved in the
life cycle. Spirogyra shows haplontic life cycle and therefore,
it shows zygotic nucleus as well.
169. Following are the characters of cyclostomes showing

an advance over Amphious. A distinct head, however may
be secondary, a so-called cranium, a more advanced brain,
pro and mesonephric kidneys, secondary notochord,
vertebrae introduced (lampreys) etc. Cyclostomes also
have some particular specialization like tongue apparatus,
sucking mouth with horny teeth, sac-like gill pouches,
separate branchial sac with branchial basket etc. The
degenerated characters of cyclostomes are - (i)
toungueappartus (ii) rudimentary paired eyes in hagfishes
(iii) lack of exoskeleton (iv) reduced liver and lack of gall
bladder and bile duct in adult lamperey.
170. Diploid cell produce haploid cell by meiosis. It occurs due

to synapsis. A chromosome has two chromatids, hence a
bivalent has 4 chromatids.
171. In photorespiration, RuBisCoacts as an oxygenase enzyme

instead of carboxylase enzyme. Active site of this enzyme is
same for both of these activities. In C3 plants, some O2
always bind to RuBisCo.
Photorespiration does not produce energy or reducing power.

Rather, it consumes energy. Further, it undoes the work of
photosynthesis. There is 25% loss of fixed CO2.
172. Eli Lilly prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to
A and B chains of human insulin and introduced them in
plasmids of E.coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B
were produced separately, extracted and combined by
creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin. Insulin in
human pancreas is synthesized as a pro-hormone containing
the C peptide, which is removed in mature hormone. The
insulin synthesized by recombinant DNA technology did not
contain C peptide and was prepared in the mature form.
173. Crops engineered through RNAi have proven to be

successful in protection against pest and parasites, including
nematodes. Engineering nematode resistance in crop plants
through host-derived RNAi is largely based on the selection
of the target gene. The expression of nematode-specific
dsRNA in plants generates siRNAs and taken up by
nematodes on feeding. Depending upon the function, level of
expression and silencing efficacy of the target gene,
resistance was determined. We can produce secondary
metabolites by genetically engineering in the plants.
174. The goal of both GM and conventional plant breeding is
to produce crops with improved characteristics by changing
their genetic makeup. Golden rice is genetically modified in
order to produce beta carotene, which is not normally
produced in rice. Beta carotene is converted into Vitamin A
when metabolized by the human body. We need vitamin A
for healthier skin, immune systems, and vision.
175. Secondary metabolites are organic com pounds produced

by plants which are not directly involved in the normal
growth, development, or reproduction of the organ ism. Ricin
and abrin are potent biological toxins that are derived from
plant sources (castor beans and rosary peas, respectively).
More is known about ricin toxicity; however, abrin toxicity is
similar in its mechanism of action. In the body, these toxins
inhibit protein synthesis leading to cell death.
176. Endosperm is formed when two sperm nuclei inside a

pollen grain reach the interior of a female gametophyte
(sometimes called the embryo sac). The cell created in this
pro cess of double fertilization develops into the endosperm.
Endosperm is tissue produced inside the seeds of most of the
flowering plants, following fertilization. It surrounds the
embryo, providing nutrition in the form of starch, may also
contain oils and proteins. Endosperm is not found in
Gymnosperms. It is only found in Angiosperms.
177. The ABO blood group antigens are attached to

oligosaccharide chains that project above the RBC surface.
These chains are attached to proteins and lipids that lie in the
RBC membrane. The ABO gene indirectly encodes the ABO
blood group antigens. The ABO locus has three main allelic
forms: A, B, and O. Blood group AB is the least common,
and these individuals will have A and B antigen.
178. BOD indicates the amount of decaying organic matter

present in water. Therefore, a low BOD is an indicator of
good quality of water, while a high BOD indicates polluted
water. Dissolved oxygen (DO) is consumed by bacteria when
large amounts of organic matter from sewage or other
discharges are present in the water.
179. Carbon sequestrations a natural or artificial process by
which carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and
held in solid or liquid form. It is the long-term storage of
carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean.
Global warming has many effects on the environment.
Glaciers have shrunk, ice on rivers and lakes is breaking up
earlier, plant and animal ranges have shifted and trees are
flowering sooner.
180. The statement given in the assertion that ‘C3 cycle or

Calvin cycle is found to be present in all plants’ is correct.
But the statement given in reason that‘Kranz anatomy is
present in C3 plants’ does not provide the correct explanation
of the assertion despite being correct.
Solutions – GK and Mental ability
181. Interstitium is the 80thorgan of the body.
182. Skin is the largest organ of human body.
183. ZhongZhong and HuaHua area pair of identical crab-

eating macaques (also referred to as cynomolgus monkeys)
184. 350km - 400 km is the range of Prithvi III.
185. The oldest inhabitants of India are considered to be

Negritoes.
186. Odishahas the highest amount of nickel ore resources.
187. NargisDutt was the first woman film star nominated/

elected to the RajyaSabha.
188. The 1955 Indian Coinage (Amendment) Act, which came
into force on April 1, 1957, introduced a 'decimal series'
189. Shah Alam II was the Muhghal emperor at the time of

Ahmad Shah Abdali’s invasion of India.
190. Seals indicate the commercial and economic development,

during Indus Valley.
191. The correct answer is 31.
192. (a), (b), and (c) are all related with sending files.
193. Only statement 1 is required.
194. 9 + 3= 1, ( 3 + 3=
) 6
= 18, ( 6 + 6=
6 + 12 ) 12
12 + 18 =
30
195. Consider the figure below:

The distance from initial and final position is,
AF= 30 + 15
= 45 m
In east direction.
196. Cerebrum is the part of brain and brain is the part of

human body. Liver is the different organ and also part of
human body.
197. The number of persons between Rahul and Nitesh are,

n = ( 36 + 29 ) − 62
=3
198. The pages either new or white but not both,
n 43 + 57
=
= 100
199. The only possible date between 15th May and 18th May
and 21st may and 16th may is 17th of May.
200. When symbol & is at top, then symbol ^ will be at the

bottom.

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AIIMS-MBBS-2018-27 May-Evening

2. In YDSE there is a point P on the screen. What is path

(1) 3.03 ×1012 m

4. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant 800 N

(1) 3.1 ×10−10 C/m 2

(1) 14.86 m/s

8. The minimum and maximum distance of planet from then find

9. If coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is β and heat

10. What is the shortest wavelength present in the paschen series of

12. If an electron of charge e is moving parallel to a current carrying

14. In an LCR circuit inductance is L, resistance is R and quality

15. In forced vibration m = 10 gm, f = 100 Hz and driver force F =

18. The correct unit of thermal conductivity is

20. A ring of radius R is kept on water surface. Surface tension of

22. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block move together on a horizontal

23. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground with

25. A convex lens of focal length 12 cm is placed in contact with a

26. When the load on a wire is increasing slowly from 2 kg to 4 kg,

27. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid of

29. The combination of gates shown below yields

31. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the

32. A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in fig.

33. The resistance of a wire atroom temperature 30°C is found to be

38. A car is fitted with a convex side-view mirror of focal length 20

39. In Young’s double slits experiment, two coherent sources are

40. For a given photosensitive material and frequency (> threshold

41. Assertion: In adiabatic process change in internal energy is

42. Assertion: Gallium arsenide phosphide is used in red L.E.D.

43. Assertion: Viscous force is measurement of resistance of liquid.

45. Assertion: In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, the total

46. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs during

48. Assertion: Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity.

49. Assertion: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate

50. Assertion: A gas can be liquefied at any temperature by

51. Assertion: If amplitude of simple pendulum increases then the

52. Assertion: On going away from a point charge or a small

54. Assertion: Figure shows a current carrying circular loop. The

56. Assertion: The current gain in common base circuit is always

57. Assertion: When the height of a TV transmission tower is

58. Assertion: An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a

59. Assertion: Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a

60. Assertion: Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive nuclei of

61. Give IUPAC name of:

62. Final product of given Reaction :

63. Final product of given reaction:

65. Give correct sequences of reaction for following conversion:

(1) DIBAL–H, NaBH4, H3O⊕/∆

66. Which of the following are not enantiomer pair.

67. Major product of following reaction:

68. What are the suitable reagent for following conversion

(1) Br2/FeBr3, KMnO4, HNO3 / H2SO4

69. Monomers of Natural Rubber and Neoprene are Respectively :

70. Correct order of Acidic strength:

71. Blue colour disappears in which solution by passing SO2

73. Time taken to completely (in hr) decompose 36 g water by

74. In which of the following shape is same but hybridization is

76. At constant temperature Gases A & B, density of (A) is twice

77. Correct order of bond angle is :

78. Time taken for 12.8 g of a radioactive substance to decay to 0.4

79. % s-character of N–H bond is maximum in :