RBFC Neet Chem 7
RBFC Neet Chem 7
RBFC Neet Chem 7
MODULE - 7
INDEX
S.No. Chapter Name Page No.
4. Cheical Kinetics 1 - 42
5. Surface Chemistry 43 - 83
6. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 84 - 113
9. Coordination Compounds 114 - 160
Chemical Kinetics 1
CHEMICAL
KINETICS
Chapter 04
B. 28%
t1/2 = 0.693 / k; st
1 order :
th
n order : 1
independent of t1/2
2.303 [A] 1 1 [A] 0–3
concentration of k log s0 0 3
(n – 1)kt
reactants t [A]1 [A] c [A]00 2
for nth order:
–1 (+a) –1
(mol L ) s
Collision
frequency Can be –ve, not affected by
zero or concentration of affected by unit varies
Steric factor fractional reactants temperature with order
k 2 E s T2 T1
n KINETICS
k1 R T1T2 OF A REACTION
Mechanism
Thermodynamics tells only about the feasibility of a reaction whereas chemical kinetics tells about the rate
of reaction.
In a spontaneous chemical reaction following questions arises.
How fast do the chemical reaction go?
How can the speed of a reaction change?
What is the mechanism of a reaction?
To answer the above question we study chemical kinetics.
So, chemical kinetics is the branch of physical chemistry which deals with study of rates of reactions, the
mechanism by which the reactions proceed and factors affecting rate of reaction.
On the basis of rate, chemical reaction are broadly divided into three categories :-
Very fast or instantaneous reactions : Generally these reactions involve ionic species and known as ionic
reactions. These reactions take about 10–14 or 10–16 seconds for completion. So, it is almost impossible to
determine the rate of these reactions. For example,
AgNO3 NaCl
AgCl NaNO 3 ; BaCl 2 H 2SO 4
BaSO 4 2HCl
(white ppt) (white ppt)
Very slow reactions : These reactions proceed very slowly, may take days or months to show any measur-
able change at room temperature. For example,
Chemical Kinetics 3
Rusting of iron.
Reaction between H2 and O2 to form H2O at ordinary temperature in absence of catalyst.
at room temperature
CO 2H 2 CH3OH
Moderate or slow reactions : This type of reactions proceed with a measurable rates at normal temperatuer
and we can measure the rate of these reactions easily. Mostly these reactions are molecular in nature. For
example,
Decomposition of H2O2 : 2H2O2 2H2O + O2
Decomposition of N2O5 : 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2
Change in the concentration of reactants or products per unit time is called average reaction velocity. If c
is the change in the concentration of reactants and product in t time, then
c
Average velocity = ±
t
Concentration
Concentration
concentration of reactant or product at a instant of time and plotting
concentration versus time.
The instantaneous rate at any time is determined by the slope of the B
tangent at a point on the time-concentration curve corresponding to
the specified time. The slope of the tangent at a point is the limiting
Time
c
value of .
t
c dc
lim
t 0 t dt
dc
In terms of the concentration of reactant, the rate of the reaction = – . The –sign indicates that the
dt
concentration of reactant decreases with time.
dc
In terms of the concentration of product, the rate of the reaction = + . The +sign indicates that
dt
the concentration of product increases with time. In the reaction if at a time t the concentration of product
dx
is x and at time t + dt, the concentration becomes x + dx then the reaction rate = .
dt
2NH 3
For example the rate of reaction : N 2 3H 2
Concentration : Law of mass action associates that greater is the conc. of the reactants, the more rapidly
the reaction proceeds.
Pressure (Gaseous reaction) : On increasing the pressure, volume decreases and conc. increases and
hence the rate increases.
Temperature : It is generally observed that rise in temperature increases the reaction rate.
Nature of the reactants : The rate depends upon specific bonds involved and hence on the nature of
reactants.
g l s
Surface area of the reactants : In heterogeneous reactions, more powdered is the form of reactants, more
is the velocity. [as more active centres are provided]
Chemical Kinetics 5
We can determine the difference in concentration over different intervals of time and thus determine the
rate by dividing [R] by t.
[R]1 × 103 [R]2 × 103 t2 t1 rav 103 [ R2 R1 ] 103
mol L–1 mol L–1 s s mol L–1 s –1 [t 2 t 1 ]
160 80 5 0 16
80 40 10 5 8
40 10 20 10 3
10 2.5 30 20 0.75
(C) From the reaction it is evident that when a mole of A is reacting, 2 moles of B must react. Hence the
decrease in the concentration of B must be twice that of A
d [B] d [A]
2
dt dt
= 2 × 2.6 × 10–2 = 5.2 × 10–2 M sec–1
(A) For a zero order reaction, r = k [A]°. Thus the units of k are the same as that of rate of reaction.
Chemical Kinetics 9
‘‘Molecularity is defined as the number of molecules, atoms, or radicals that must collide simultaneously in
order for the reaction to take place.’’ It is always a whole number and cannot be negative.
In the elementary processes :
Participating species Molecularity
One species participates ..... unimolecular, 1
Two species participates ..... bimolecular, 2
Three species participates ..... trimolecular, 3
For example,
N2O4 2NO2 ...... unimolecular
H2 + I2 2HI ...... bimolecular
2FeCl3 + SnCl2 2FeCl2 + SnCl4 ...... trimolecular
Note : If the reaction takes place in two or more steps then the overall molecularity of the reaction is
monitored by the slow or rate determining step.
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN MOLECULARITY AND ORDER OF REACTION
S.No. Molecularity Order of Reaction
1 Molecularity can neither be zero nor fractional Order of a reaction can be zero, fractional
or integer
2 It is the number of molecules of reactants It is sum of power raised or the rate
concentration terms taking part in elementary expression.
step of a reaction.
3 It can not have negative value. Order of a reaction may have negative
value.
4 Molecularity is a theoretical property. Order is an experimental property.
5 Molecularity concerns with mechanism. Order concerns with kinetic (rate law).
(B), 1 + 0 = 1
10 Chemical Kinetics
Reactions in which rate of reaction remains independent of initial concentration of the reactant are said to
be zero order reactions.
Zero order reactions are relatively uncomon but they occur under special conditions. Some enzyme catalysed
reactions and reactions which occur on metal surfaces are a few examples of zero order reactions.
For example,
h
1. H 2 (g) Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g)
Pt
2. 2NH3 (g)
N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g)
3. Reaction between Acetone and Bromine.
4. Dissociation of HI on gold surface.
5. Adsorption of gases on metal surface.
12 Chemical Kinetics
Differential Rate Equation
A Product
t 0 a 0
t t sec (a x) x
d [A]
k[A]0
dt
dx
k[A]0
dt
Calculation of Rate Constant
Let us take the reaction
A
Product
d [A]
k[A]0 = k
dt
d [A] kdt
– [A]t = kt + C
At t = 0 [A]f = [A]0
– [A]0 = k × 0 + C
C = – [A]0
On substituting the value of C [A]t Slope = – l
– [A]t = kt – [A]0
[A]t = [A]0 – kt [Intergrated rate equation]
y = c – mx t
[A]0 – [A]t = kt
[ A]0 [ A]t x x
k Slope = k
t t
x = kt
t
x = Amount of reactant that will change in product.
For zero order reaction, rate of reaction is equal to rate constant.
Unit of rate constant
k = mol L–1 s–1 = unit of rate of reaction.
Half-life period : The time in which half of the initial amount is consumed.
[A]0
At t = t1/2, [A]t
2
[A]0 [A]0
k t1/2 [A]0 or t1/ 2
2 2k
The half life period for a zero order reaction is directly proportional to the initial concentration of the
reactants.
Time for completion of reaction
[A]t = [A]0 – kt
For completion [A]t = 0
[A]0 [A]0
k t100%
t k
Chemical Kinetics 13
Graphical representawtion
Zero Order
Rate t1/2
Concentration [A]0
A
Product
t 0 a 0
t t sec (a x) x
d [A] dx
k[A] k (a x)
dt dt
Calculation of rate constant
d [A]
k dt
[A]
– ln [A]t = kt + c ...(i)
At t = 0; [A]t = [A]0 C = – ln [A]0
Putting the value of C in equation (i)
– ln [A]t = kt – ln [A]0
ln [A]t = ln [A]0 – kt
y = c – mx
[A]0
ln kt ...(ii)
[A]t
Slope = – k
a
kt ln
ax t
[A]0
2.303 log10 kt
[A]t
2.303 [A]0
k log
t [A]t
14 Chemical Kinetics
From equation (ii)
[A]0
e kt [A]t
[A]t
[A]t
e kt [A]t = [A]0 e–kt Wihelmy equation t
[A]0
2.303
Rate
t1/2
Concentration a a
0.693 0.693
k
t1/ 2 60
2.303 [A ]
t log 0
k [At ]
Chemical Kinetics 15
2.303 [A ]
240 log 0
0.693 [A t ]
60
4 0.693 [A ]
log 0
2.303 [A t ]
A0
At 0.0625[A 0 ]
16
[At] = 6.25% of [A0]
2.303 [A ]
k log 0
t [A t ]
2.303 10
t 3
log
10 2.5
t = 2303 × 0.301 × 2 = 1386 s.
t0.75
Calculate t for a 1st order reaction :
0.50
16 Chemical Kinetics
1 =k t1/2
pe
(a – x) Sl o 1
1 slope =
Half life t1/2 k
ak 1/a
t 1/a
2.303 a
k1 log , a = 100, x = 90, t = 10
t ax
2.303 100
So, k1 log 2.303 101 hour 1
10 10
Now for 99.9% completion : a = 100 and x = 99.9
2.303 100 2.303
t log 3 30 hours
k1 0.1 2.303 101
t = 5 min, a = 100, x1 = 20
2.303 a 2.303 100 2.303 5 2.303
k log log log [log 5 log 4]
t a x1 5 80 5 4 5
2.303 2.303
k [0.6989 0.6020] [0.0969] 0.0446
5 5
Now x2 = 60
2.303 a
k log
t a x2
2.303 100 2.303 2.303
t log [log5 log 2] 0.3979 20.55 min.
0.0446 40 0.0446 0.0446
Chemical Kinetics 17
1386 0.693
(B) t0.75 = 1386 s = 2 × t0.5 ; t0.5 693 s ; k 1 103 s 1
2 693 s
0.693
t1/2 of first order reactions is given by , t3/4 would be equal to
k
0.693 0.346 1.386 0.924
(A) (B) (C) (D)
k k k k
2 0.693 1.386
(C) t3/4 2(t1/ 2 )
k k
A chemical reaction in which value of order of reaction is one but molecularity is more than one are known
as pseudo unimolecular / pseudo first order reaction. For example,
Hydrolysis of ester in acidic medium.
H
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Rate = k [CH3COOC2H5] [H2O]
Water is in excess then its concentration remain constant during the reaction and [H2O] is taken as
constant therefore,
Rate = k' [CH3COOC2H5] where k' = k [H2O]
18 Chemical Kinetics
Inversion of cane sugar.
H
C12 H 22 O11 H 2 O C6 H12 O 6 C6 H12 O 6
Cane sugar Glucose Fructose
On increasing temperature rate of reaction increases whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.
When temperature increases KE of molecules increases, number of activated molecules increases thus rate
of reaction increases.
most probable KE
at T
Fraction of molecules
(N E / N T )
at (T + 10)
threshold
energy
KT of reactant
20 Chemical Kinetics
K Ae Ea / RT ...(1)
A = Arrhenius constant / pre-expoential factor / Frequency factor
Ea = Activation energy
R = gas constant
T = Temperature (Kelvin)
K increases with increase in temperature
If T ; K A
K
e Ea / RT = fraction of molecules having energy
A
e Ea / RT Boltzman factor
On taking logrithm for equation (1) on both sides.
ln K ln A ln e Ea / RT
Ea
2.303 log10 K 2.303 log10 A Ea
RT –
log10 K 2.303 R
Ea
log10 K log10 A
2.303RT 1/T ...(2)
y c mx
Ea of reaction can be determined by measuring rate cosntant at two different temperature
At temperature T1 :
Ea
log10 K1 log10 A ...(3)
2.303RT1
At temperature T2 :
Ea
log10 K 2 log10 A ...(4)
2.303RT2
Equation (4) – Equation (3) gives :
Ea 1 1
log K 2 log K1
2.303R T1 T2
K2 Ea T2 T1
log10
K1 2.303R T1T2
If k and kcat be the rate constant of a reaction at a given temperature T, and Ea and E 'a are the activation
energies of the reaction in absence and presence of catalyst, respectively, the
kcat Ae E 'a / RT
Ae( Ea E 'a ) RT
k Ae Ea / RT
Chemical Kinetics 21
kcat
Since Ea E 'a is positive so kcat > k. the ratio gives the number of times the rate of reaction will
k
increase by the use of catalyst at a given temperature
The rate of reaction in the presence of catalyst at any temperature T1 may be made equal to the rate of
reaction in absence of catalyst but for this sake we will have to raise the temperature. Let this temperature
be
E 'a Ea
T2 e E 'a / RT1 e Ea / RT2 or
T1 T2
Catalyzed pathway Uncatalyzed pathway
Potential energy
Potential energy
Ea Ea
Reactants Reactants
Products Products
k [O ]
[O] 1 3
k 2 [O 2 ]
k1[O3 ]
Rate = k3 [O3] [O] k 3 [O3 ] k [O ] .
2 2
k1k 3 [O3 ]2
Rate
k 2 [O 2 ]
22 Chemical Kinetics
This theory was given by Max Trautz and William Lewis. According to it, for a reaction to occur there must
be collision in between reacting molecules.
Total number of collisions per second in unit volume is called collision frequency(z). Generally its value is
very high for gaseous reactions (10 25 to 10 28 collisions / sec-cm3. But only a small fraction of these
collisions are capable to convert reactant into product. These collisions are called as effective collisions.
For effective collision following two conditions must be satisfied at a time :
1. Reacting molecules must posses a minimum amount of energy.
2. Proper oreintation of collision
Threshold energy : The minimum energy which must be possesedd by reacting molecules for a
chemical reaction to occur.
Activation energy : The minimum extra amount of energy required by reactant molecules for con-
verting into products.
Endothermic reaction
1. Ea (f) = Activation energy for forward reaction
2. Ea (b) = Activation enerlgy for backward reaction
If not specified in questions then consider Ea for forward reaction.
H = Ea(f) – Ea(b) ; H = HP – HR
A A A A A A
Case-I : Proper orientation
B B B B B B
Activated Products
complex
Reactant (transition state)
A
A
A A
A A
Case-II : Improper orientation B B B
B B B
Reactant No Product
Limitations :
1. This theory is mainly applicable for gaseous reactions and also for solutions in which reacting species
are molecules.
2. This theory is mainly applicable for simple bimolecular reactions but fails for complex reactions.
3. It considers molecules to be hard sphere and ignors structural aspect of molecules.
H Ea ( f ) Ea (b ) 20 80 Ea (b )
Ea(b) = 100 kJ/mol
H = Ea(f) – Ea(b)
H = 32 – 58
H = – 26 kJ/mol (exothermic)
E E
E E
(C) (D) AB
A+B x A+B x
AB
t t
Ea
(i) We know, log10 k log10 A ...(i)
2.303RT
1 1.25 104
Given, log k ( s ) 14.34 ...(ii)
T
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Ea
1.25 104
2.303R
(ii) Ea = 1.25 × 104 × 2.303 × 8.314 × 10–3
Ea = 239.339 kJ/mol
Substituting the value of T (670 K) in Eq. (ii),
1.25 104
log k ( s 1 ) 14.34 4.3167
670
k = 4.82 × 10–5 s–1
0.693 0.693
(iii) k t 0.000451sec1
1/2 256 60
log 0.000451 sec–1
1.25 104
= 14.34 – T = 706.79 K
T
k Ea 1 1
log 1
k2 2.303R T1 T2
– Ea 1 1
log 1.60 × 10–5 – log 6.36 × 10–3 = –
2.303 8.314 500 600
Ea 1
5.241 3.8035 Ea 2.5999 19.15 3000
19.15 3000
Ea = 1.49 × 105
C
K1' K 2' K1' K'
(1) (2) 2 2
A 1/T K1 K 2 K1 K2
(1) 2.303 × 2 cal K1' K 2' K1' K 2'
(2) 2/2.303 cal (3) (4)
(3) 2 cal K1 K 2 K1 K 2
(4) None of these
45. Which one is correct for K Ae Ea / RT ?
42. Rate of which reactions increases with temperature:
(1) Ea is energy of activation
(1) of any
(2) of exothermic reactions (2) R is Rydberg constant
(3) of endothermic (3) K is equilibrium constant
(4) of none (4) A is adsorption factor
26 Chemical Kinetics
52. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
1
46. The slope of the line for the graph of log k versus Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at 25°C are
T 3.0 × 10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0 × 1014 s–1 respectively.
1 The value of the rate constant as T is
for the reaction, N 2O 5 2NO 2 + O is – 5000. (1) 2.0 × 10 18 s–1
2 2
(2) 6.0 × 10 14 s–1
Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction
(kJ K–1 mol–1) (3) Infinity
(1) 95.7 (2) 9.57 (4) 3.6 × 10 30 s–1
(3) 957 (4) None 53. Which is incorrect from the theory of Arrhenius’s
47. For a zero order reaction, which of the following equation?
statement is false? (1) The number of effective collisions is proportional
(1) the rate is independent of the temperature of the to the number of molecules above a certain
reaction. threshold energy
(2) the rate is independent of the concentration of (2) As the temperature increases, the number of
the reactants. molecules with energies exceeding the threshold
(3) the half life depends upon the concentration of energy increases
the reactants. (3) The rate constant is a function of temperature
(4) the rate constant has the unit mole L–1 sec–1. (4) activation energy and pre-exponential factors are
temperature-dependent
48. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in
temperature is due to 54. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius
(1) increase in the number of collisions equation as:
(2) the increase in the number of activated molecules
(3) The shortening of mean free path k Ae Ea / RT
(4) the lowering of activation energy In this equation, Ea represents:
(1) The fraction of molecules with energy greater than
49. The rate constant (K’) of one reaction is double of the
rate constant (K”) of another reaction. Then the the activation energy of the reaction
relationship between the corresponding activation (2) The energy abo ve which all the collid ing
energies of the two reactions (Ea' and Ea") will be molecules will react
(1) Ea' > Ea" (2) Ea' = Ea" (3) The energy below which colliding molecules will
(3) Ea' < Ea" (4) Ea' = 4Ea" not react
(4) The total energy of the reacting molecules at a
50. The energy of activations for forward and backward temperature, T
change for an endothermic reaction; X Y are Ef and
Eb, respectively. Which of the following is correct?
55. The H value of the reaction H2 + Cl
2HCl is –
(1) Eb < Ef
(2) Eb > Ef 44.12 kcal. If E1 is the activation energy of the products,
(3) Eb = Ef then for the above reaction
(4) No relation between them (1) E1 > E2
(2) E1 < E2
51. The maximum value of activation energy is equal to: (3) E1 = E2
(1) zero (2) heat of the reaction
(4) H is not related to E1 and E2
(3) threshold energy (4) none of these
Chemical Kinetics 27
4.6 Synopsis
A. Rate of Reaction : Change in concentration of reactants or products as function of time.
(Unit : mol L–1 s–1 or M s–1)
1. Differential Rate Equation
aA bB
c C dD
1 d [A] 1 d [B] 1 d [C] 1 d [D]
Rate
a dt b dt c dt d dt
d [R] d [P]
2. Instantaneous Rate : rins
dt dt
R P
Average Rate : rav
t t
3. Rate Law / Rate Equation :
The expression of rate in terms of molar concentration of reactants.
For eaction, aA bB c C dD
Rate = k [A]x [B]y
Where, k = rate constant or specific reaction rate.
Depends only upon temperature.
1 n
mol
Unit of k s 1 , where n = order of reaction.
L
4. Order of Reaction
Sum of powers of concentration terms in the rate law expression.
e.g. Rate = k [A] [B]2
Order = 1 + 2 = 3
1
For nth order, t1/ 2
a n 1
Experimental concept and can be zero or fractional.
Depends upon pressure and temperature.
5. Molecularity of Reaction
The number of molecules of reactants taking part in a elementary step of a reaction.
Theoretical concept of can never be zero or fractional.
Independent of pressure and temperature.
[ R]0
t1/2 (half-life)
2k t [R]
28 Chemical Kinetics
2. First Order Reaction
2.303 [ R ]0
Rate = k [R] or k log
t [ R]
Unit of k = s–1 ln [R]0
ln [R]
Rate
k = – slope
t1/2 = 0.693 / k
2.303 pi
In terms of pressure, k log
t 2 pi pt t [R]
3. Useful Relations for First Order Reaction :
t75% = 2t1/2, t87.5% = 3t1/2, t93.75% = 4t1/2, t96.87% = 5t1/2, t99.9% = 10t1/2
4. Second Order Reaction
1 1
Rate k[ R]2 or kt
[ R]t [ R]0 1
Rate
Slope = k
Unit of k = L mol s –1 –1
II order [R ]
1 Intercept = 1/[R]0
t1/ 2 2
k[ R]0 (conc.) Time 't'
1. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as 5. In the reaction ; A + 2B 3C + D, which of the
follows ; following expression does not describe changes in the
1 d [C ] 1 d [ D] 1 d [ A] d [ B] concentration of various species as a function of time:
. d [C] 3d [A] 3d [D] d [C]
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt (1) (2)
The reaction can be : dt dt dt dt
(1) 4 A + B 2C + 3D 3d [B] 2d [C] 2d [B] d [A]
(2) B + 3D 4A + 2C (3) (4)
dt dt dt dt
(3) 4A + 2B 2C + 3D
(4) B + (1/2) D 4A + 3C 6. In the following reaction : xA yB
d [A] d [B]
2. Consider the chemical reaction : log log dt log 2
dt
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g)
where –ve sign indicates rate of disappearance of the
The rate of this reaction can be expressed ; in terms of
reactant. Thus, x : y is :
time and of concentration of N2(g), H2(g) or NH3(g).
Identify the correct relationship amongest the rate ex- (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
pressions. (3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 10
17. If a reaction gets completed in finite time then its order log t50%
can be :
(1) 3 (2) 2 log a
(3) 1 (4) Zero 1
(1) n 1; t1/ 2 a (2) n 2 ; t1/ 2
18. For the irreversible process, A + B products, the a
rate is first–order w.r.t. A and second–order w.r.t. B. If 0.693
1.0 mol each of A and B introduced into a 1.0 L vessel, (3) n 1; t1/ 2 (4) None of these
k
and the initial rate was 1.0 × 10 –2 mol L–1 s–1, rate when
half reactants have been turned into products is : 26. In a first order reaction the concentration of the reac-
(1) 1.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 tant is decreased from 1.0 M to 0.25 M in 20 min. The
(2) 1.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 rate constant of the reaction would be –
(3) 2.50 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (1) 10 min–1 (2) 6.931 min–1
–1
(4) 2.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 (3) 0.6931 min (4) 0.06931 min–1
Chemical Kinetics 31
27. In a certain reaction, 10% of the reactant decomposes d [ A]
in one hour, 20 % in two hours, 30% in three hours and 34. For the reaction A Products, – = k and at
dt
so on the dimensions of the rate constant is : different time interval, [A] values are :
(1) hour –1
(2) mole litre–1 sec–1 Time 0 5 min 10 min 15 min
(3) litre mole–1 sec–1 [A] 20 mol 18 mol 16 mol 14 mol
(4) mole sec–1 At 20 minute, rate will be :
(1) 12 mol /min (2) 10 mol/min
28. If a first order reaction is completed to the extent of
75% and 50% in time intervals, t1 and t2, what is the (3) 8 mol/min (4) 0.4 mol/min
ratio, t1 : t2 ? 35. The rate law for a reaction A + B product is rate =
ln (3/ 4) K [A]1 [B] 2. Then which one of the following statement
(1) ln 2 (2) is false :
ln 2
(3) 2 (4) 1/2 (1) If [B] is held constant while [A] is doubled, the
reaction will proceed twice as fast
ln 2 (2) If [A] is held constant while [B] is reduced to one
29. The rate constant for a reaction is min–1. What quater, the rate will be halved
10
will be the order of reaction and time taken to change (3) If [A] and [B] are both doubled, the reaction will
concentration from 1 M to 0.25 M. proceed 8 times as fast
(1) one, 10 min (2) zero, 10 min (4) This is a third order reaction
(3) one, 20 min (4) two, 20 min
36. The reaction A(s) 2 B(g) + C(g) is first order.
30. In the first order reaction 75% of the reactant disap- The pressure after 20 min. and after very long time are
peared in 1.388 hrs. Calculate the rate constant of the 150 mm Hg and 225 mm Hg. The value of rate constant
reaction : and pressure after 40 min. are :
(1) 1 s–1 (1) 0.05 ln 1.5 min–1, 200 mm
(2) 2.8 × 10–4 s–1 (2) 0.5 ln 2 min–1, 300 mm
(3) 17.2 × 10–3 s–1 (3) 0.05 ln 3 min–1, 300 mm
(4) 1.8 × 10–3 s–1 (4) 0.05 ln 3 min–1, 200 mm
31. In the case of zero order reaction, the ratio of time re- METHODS TO MONITOR THE PROGRESS OF THE RE-
quired for 75% completion to 50% completion is : ACTION
(1) ln 2 (2) 2 37. Consider the reaction 2A(g) 3B(g) + C(g). Start-
(3) 1.5 (4) None ing with pure A initially, the total pressure doubled in 3
32. The data for the reaction : A + B C is hrs. The order of the reaction might possibly be
(1) zero
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate (2) first
1 0.012 0.035 0.10 (3) second
2 0.024 0.035 0.80 (4) unpredictable from this data
3 0.012 0.070 0.10
4 0.024 0.070 0.80 38. Let there be as first-order reaction of the type, A
B + C. Let us assume that only A is geseous. We are
(1) r = k [B]3 required to calculate the value of rate constant based
(2) r = k [A]3 on the following data :
(3) r = k [A] [B]4
Time 0 0
(4) r = k [A]2 [B]2.
Partial pressure of A P0 Pt –
dx
33. A + B Product, = k [A]a [B]b 1 P 1 P
dt (1) k ln 0 (2) k ln t
t Pt t P0
dx
If = k, then order is :
dt 1 2P 1 P
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) k ln 0 (4) k ln t
t Pt t 2 P0
(3) 1 (4) 0
32 Chemical Kinetics
39. Let there be a first order reaction, A B + C. Let us 45. The activation energy for the forward reaction X Y
assume all there are gases. We are required to calculate is 60 KJ mol–1 and H is – 20 KJ mol–1. The activation
the value of rate constant based on the following data energy for the backard reaction Y X is :
(1) 80 KJ mol–1
Time 0 t
– (2) 40 KJ mol–1
Total pressure P0 Pt
(3) 60 KJ mol–1
Calculate the expression of rate constant. (4) 20 KJ mol–1
1 2P P 1 P0 46. For producing the effective collisions, the colloiding
(1) k ln 0 t (2) k ln
t P0 t 2 P0 Pt molecules must posses :
(1) A certain minimum amount of energy
t P0 1 Pt (2) Energy equal to or greater than threshold en-
(3) k ln (4) k ln ergy
1 2 P0 Pt t 2 P0 Pt
(3) Proper orientation
40. Rate of which reactions increases with temperature : (4) Threshold energy as well as proper orientation of
(1) of any collision.
(2) of exothermic reactions 1
(3) of endothermic 47. In a gaseous state reaction, A2(g) B(g) + C (g),
2
(4) of none. The increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm is
41. For a zero order reaction. Which of the following state- notices in 5 minutes. The average rate of disapearance
ment is false : of A2 in mm min–1 is :
(1) the rate is independent of the temperature of the (1) 4
reaction. (2) 8
(2) the rate is independent of the concentration of (3) 16
the reactants. (4) 2
(3) the half life depends as the concentration of the 48. The first order rate constant k is related to temp. as log
reactants. k = 15.0 – (10 6 /T) Which of the following pair of value
(4) the rate constant has the unit mole lt–1 sec–1. is correct ?
42. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in (1) A = 10 15 and E = 1.9 × 10 4 KJ
temperature is due to (2) A = 10 –15 and E = 40 KJ
(A) increase in the number of collisions (3) A = 10 15 and E = 40 KJ
(2) the increase in the number of activated mol- (4) A = 10 –15 and E = 1.9 × 10 4 KJ.
ecules 49. For a given reaction, energy of activation for forward
(3) The shortening of mean free path reaction (Eaf) is 80kJ.mol–1. H = – 40 kJ .mol–1 for the
(4) the lowering of activation energy reaction. A catalyst lowers Eaf to 20 kJ.mol –1. The ratio
43. According to collision theory of reaction rates : of energy of activation for reverse reaction before
and after addition of catalyst is :
(1) Every collision between reactant leads to chemi-
cal reaction (1) 1.0
(2) Rate of reaction is proportional to velocity of (2) 0.5
molecules (3) 1.2
(3) All reactions which occur in gaseous phase are (4) 2.0
zero order reaction 50. Following mechanism has been proposed for a
(4) Rate of reaction is directly proportional to colli- reaction.
sion frequency. 2A + B D + E
44. Activation energy of a reaction is : Step -1 A + B C + D – (slow)
(1) The energy released during the reaction Step -2 A + C E – (fast)
(2) The energy evolved when activated complex is The rate law expression for the reaction is :
formed (1) r = K [A]2 [B]
(3) Minimum amount of energy needed to overcome (2) r = K [A] [B]
the potential barrier of reaction (3) r = K [A] 2
(4) The energy needed to form one mole of the product. (4) r = K [A][C]
Chemical Kinetics 33
(Concept Builder)
1. The role of a catalyst is to change : 5. Consider the following figure & mark the correct option.
(1) Gibbs energy of reaction
(2) enthalpy of reaction E1
(3) activation energy of reaction
Energy
Products
(4) equilibrium constant E2
2. In the presence of a catalyst, heat evolved or absorbed Reactants
during reaction :
Reaction Coordinate
(1) increases
(1) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2
(2) decreases and product is less stable than reactant.
(3) remains unchanged (2) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2
(4) may increase or decrease and product is more stable than reactant.
(3) Activation energy of both forward and backward
3. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
reactions is E 1 + E 2 and reactant is more stable
determined by : than product.
(1) determining the rate constant at standard (4) Activation energy of backward reaction is E, and
temperature product is more stable than reactant.
(2) determining the rate constants at two temperatures 6. According to Arrhenius equation rate constant k is
(3) determining probability of collision equal to Ae Ea / RT . Which of the following options
(4) using catalyst represents the graph of In k versus (1/T)?
(2)
50 30
(iii) Reactants Products
V3 V2
(3)
40 30
Reactants coordinate
V3 V1
(4) (1) (i) only (2) (ii) only
40 20 (3) (iii) only (4) both (i) and (ii)
Chemical Kinetics 35
14. Rate law for the reaction ‘B’ is doubled, keeping the 19. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order
concentration of ‘A’ con stant, the value of rate reaction :
constant will be : (1) depends on the concentration of reactants present
(1) the same (2) doubled in small amount
(3) quadrupled (4) halved
(2) depends on the concentration of reactants present
15. Which of the following statement is incorrect about in excess
the collision theory of chemical reaction? (3) is independent of the concentration of reactants
(1) It considers reacting molecules or atoms to be
(4) depends only on temperature
hard spheres and ignores their structural features.
(2) Number of effective collisions determines the rate 20. Consider the reaction A B. The concentration of
of a reaction. both the reactants and the prod ucts varies
(3) Collision of atoms or molecules possessing exponentially with time. Which of the following figures
sufficient threshold energy resul ts into the correctly describes the change in concentration of
product formation. reactants and products with time?
(4) Molecules should collide with sufficient
threshold energy and proper orientation for the
collision to be effective. [B]
Concentration
16. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26×1014 s.
How much time would it take for 100% completion?
(1)
(1) 1 26 × 1015 s (2) 2.52×1014 s
[A]
(3) 2.52 × 10 28 s (4) infinite
Time
17. Compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ react according to the following
chemical equation. [B]
A(g) + 2B(g) 2C(g)
Concentration of either ‘A’ or ‘B’ were changed keeping
Concentration
–1 –1
Initial rate of formation of [C]/mole L s 0.10 0.40 0.20
(1) k[A]2 [B]y
(2) k[A] [B]2 (3)
(3) k[A] [B]y [A]
(4) k[A]2 [B]
Time
18. Which of the following statement is not correct for the
catalyst?
[A]
(1) It catalyses the forward and backward reactions
Concentration
to a small value and remains constant for most of the Statement II : Slowest step is the rate determining step
duration of the reaction. so B C is rate determining step.
6. Assertion : Half-life period of a reaction of first order 14. Statement I : For A + 2B C (rate = K[A] 1 [B] 0), the
is independent of initial concentration. half life time of reaction is only defined when conc. of
Reason : Half-life period for a first order reaction A and B are in stoichiometric ratio.
2.303 Statement II : For above given order half life of
t1/ 2 log 2.
K reaction is directly proportional to conc. of A and not
7. Assertion : Half life of a certain radioactive element to conc. of B due to its zero order.
is 100 days. After 200 days, fraction left undecaye will 15. Statement I : Many reactions occurring on solid sur-
be 25%. face are zero order reactions.
Ct 1
n
Au 1
Reason : Statement II : N 2O(g) N 2 (g) O2 ;
C0 2 2
where symbols have standard meaning. rate = k [N 2O] 0 = k = constant is a zero order reaction
Chemical Kinetics 37
(Direct from
NCERT)
Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct (c) Rate = k [A] 3/2 [B] 1/2 (iii) First order
combination from the options given. when A is in excess
1. Match the following: (d) Rate = k [A] 2 [B] 1 (iv) Second order
List – I List – II when B is in excess
1. The reaction, A B follows first order kinetics. The 8. For the reaction, [AIPMT-2006]
time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 2A + B 3C + D
1h. what is the time taken for the conversion of 0.9 which of th e following does not express the
mole of A to 0.675 mole of B? [AIPMT-2003] reactionrate ?
(1) 0.25h (2) 2h
d [C ] d [ B]
(3) 1h (4) 0.5 h (1) (2)
3dt 3dt
2. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a d[ D] d [ A]
chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius (3) (4)
equation, k = Ae –E*/RT , Activation energy (E*) of the dt 2dt
reaction can be calculated by plotting [AIPMT-2003] 9. Consider the reaction :
N2(g) +3 H2(g) 2NH3(g)
1 1
(1) log k vs (2) log k vs The equality relationship between
T log T
d [NH3 ] d [H 2 ]
1 and is [AIPMT-2006]
(3) k vs T (4) k vs dt dt
log T d [NH3 ] 1 d [H 2 ]
3. If the rate of a reaction is equal to the rate constant, (1)
dt 3 dt
the order of the reaction is [AIPMT-2003]
d [NH3 ] 2 d [H 2 ]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (2)
dt 3 dt
(3) 0 (4) 1
d [NH3 ] 2 d [H 2 ]
4. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction, (3)
AB is Ea in forward direction. The activation energy dt 3 dt
for reverse reaction [AIPMT-2003] d [NH3 ] d [H 2 ]
(4)
(1) can be less than or more than Ea dt dt
(2) is always double of Ea 10. In a first order rection, A B, if k is rate constant and
(3) is negative of Ea initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then
the half-life is [AIPMT-2007]
(4) is always less than E a
5. The rate of first order reaction is 1.5 × 10 –2 mol L–1
0.693 log 2
(1) (2)
min –1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The half- 0.5 k k
life on the reaction is [AIPMT-2004]
log 2 ln 2
(1) 0.383 min (3) (4)
k 0.5 5
(2) 23.1min
(3) 8.73 min 12. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine mono-chloride is
(4) 7.53 min given as [AIPMT-2007]
6. For a fistt order reaction, A B, the reaction rate at H2(g) + 2ICl(g) 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to be 2.0 × This reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and
10 –5 mol L –1 s –1. The half-life period of the reaction is ICl(g), following mechanisms wee proposed
(1) 220 s (2) 30 s [AIPMT-2005] Mechanism A : H2(g)2 + ICl(g) 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
(3) 300 s (4) 347 s Mechanism B : H2(g) + ICl(g) HCl(g) + HI(g), slow
7. The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B HI(g) + ICl (g) HCl (g) + I2 (g) fast
decreases by a factor of 4, if the concentration of
Which of the above mechanism (s) can be consistent with
reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with
respect to reactant B is [AIPMT-2005] the given information about the reaction?
12. If 60% of a first order reactionwas completed in 60 min, 18. In the reaction,
50% of the same reaction would be completed in BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ 3Br2 (l) + 3 H2O(l)
approximately (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) [AIPMT-2007] the rate of appearance of bromine (Br 2) is related to
(A) 50 min (2) 45 min rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following :
(3) 60 min (4) 40 min
d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br ]
13. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution (1) [AIPMT-2009]
dt 5 dt
is represented by this equation
CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) d [Br2 ] 5 d [Br ]
(2)
CH3COCH2Br (aq) + H+ (aq) + Br– (aq) dt 3 dt
These kinetic data ware obtained for given reaction d [Br2 ] 5 d [Br ]
concentrations. (3)
dt 3 dt
Initial concentrations,M
d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br ]
[CH3COCH3] [Br 2] [H+] (4)
dt 5 dt
0.30 0.05 0.05
19. During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B C
0.30 0.10 0.10 + D, following results were obtained
0.40 0.05 0.20
Initial rate, disappearance of Br2, Ms–1
Run A/mol L–1 B/Mol L–1 Initial rate of formation of
D/mol L–1 min–1
5.7 × 10 -5 5.7 × 10 –5 1.2 × 10–4 3.1 × 10–4 –3
I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10
Based on these data, the rate equation is –2
II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10
(1) rate = k [CH3 COCH3][H+] [AIPMT-2008] –1
III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10
(2) rate = k [CH2 = COCH3] [BR2] IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10
–2
37.
For the chemical : N2 + 3H2
2NH3 [NEET-2019] 45. The half life of a first order reaction is 2000 years. If the
concentration after 8000 years is 0.02 M, then the initial
1 d [H 2 ] 1 d [NH3 ] d [N 2 ] d [NH3 ] concentration was: [NEET-2022]
(1) (2) 2
3 dt 2 dt dt dt (1) 0.16 M (2) 0.32 M
(3) 0.08 M (4) 0.04 M
d [N 2 ] 1 d [NH3 ] d [H 2 ] d [NH3 ]
(3) (4) 3 2 46. For a chemical reaction [NEET-2022]
dt 2 dt dt dt
4 A 3 B 6C 9 D
38. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 ×
10 –3 s –1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant rate of formation of C is 6×10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and rate of
to 0.2 g is : [NEET-2020] disappearance of A is 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of
reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of 10
(1) 1000 s (2) 100 s
seconds, respectively will be
(3) 200 s (4) 500 s (1) 1× 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 30 × 10–2 mol L–1
39. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a (2) 10× 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1
reaction leads to change in : [NEET-2020]
(3) 1× 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1
(1) collision frequency (2) activation energy (4) 10× 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 30 × 10–2 mol L–1
(3) heat of reaction (4) threshold energy 47. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a
40. The half-life for a zero order reaction having 0.02 M
reaction. [NEET-2022]
initial concentration of reactant is 100 s. The rate
constant (in mol L–1 s–1) for the reaction is [NEET-2020]
(1) 1.0 × 10 –4 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
Constant tem. T
y
(3) 2.0 × 10 –3 (4) 1.0 × 10–2
41. In collision theory of chemical reaction, ZAB represents
[NEET-2020]
(1) the fraction of molecules with energies greater x
than E a The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions,
(2) the collision frequency of reactants, A and B respectively are
(3) steric factor (1) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first
(4) the fraction of molecules with energies equal to Ea order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
42. Match List - I with List - II [NEET-2021] (2) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first
List - I List - II order (y = rate and x = t½)
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal (3) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first
order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
(b) SF 6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(4) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal 48. For a fi rst order reaction A Products, initial
Choose the correct answer from the options given concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M
below: after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) is [NEET-2022]
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (1) 0.4606 (2) 0.2303
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) 1.3818 (4) 0.9212
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 49. The half life of a first order reaction is 2000 years. If the
concentration after 8000 years is 0.02M, then the initial
1
The slope of Arrhenius Plot ln k v/s concentration was : [NEET-2022]
T
43. of first order
(1) 0.16 M (2) 0.32 M
reaction is –5 × 103 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. (3) 0.08 M (4) 0.04 M
Choose the correct option for your answer. [Given R = 50. For a chemical reaction : 4A + 3B 6C + 9D
8.314 JK–1 mol–1] [NEET-2021]
rate of formation of C is 6 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and rate of
(1) 41.5 kJ mol–1 (2) 83.0 kJ mol–1 disappearance of A is 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of
(3) 166 kJ mol–1 (4) – 83 kJ mol–1 reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of 10
44. For a chemical reaction [NEET-2021] seconds, respectively will be : [NEET-2022]
4A + 3B 6C + 9D (1) 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 30 × 10–2 mol L–1
rate of formation (2) 10 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1
(1) 41.5 kJ mol–1 (2) 83.0 kJ mol–1 (3) 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1
–1
(3) 166 kJ mol (4) – 83 kJ mol–1 (4) 10 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 30 × 10–2 mol L–1
42 Chemical Kinetics
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 01 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1)
46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (2) 50. (2)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3)
NCERT EXEMPLAR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 02 1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (1)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (3)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (2)
41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3)
46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3) 50. (1)
51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) ARCHIVE QUESTIONS
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2)
MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS FROM NCERT
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (2) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3)
16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (2)
21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2)
26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (2) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 41. (2) 42. (1) 43. (1) 44. (*) 45. (2)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (2) 40. (1) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (1)
Surface Chemistry 43
SURFACE
CHEMISTRY
Chapter 05
Percentage of Questions in Last 34 Years' in NEET / AIPMT from this Chapter
C . 9%
B. Adsorption 37%
A. 54% B. 37%
C. Catalysis 9%
Absorption Adsorption
Sorption
Physisorption Adsorbent
ADSORPTION
Chemisorption Adsorbate
Ultracentrifugation
Oxidation
Mechanical Reduction
Physical methods
Preparation
Peptisation Hydrolysis
Bredig’s arc Double decomposition
The phenomenon of attracting and retaining the molecules of a substance on the surface of a liquid or a solid
resulting into a higher concentration of the molecules on the surface is called adsorption. As a result of
adsorption, there is a decrease of surface energy.
The process of removal of an adsorbed substance from the surface on which it is adsorbed is called desorp-
tion. It is the reverse of adsorption and can be brought about by heating or by reducing the pressure.
ABSORPTION ADSORPTION
It is the phenomenon in which the particles of gas It is the phenomenon of higher concentration of
or liquid get uniformly distributed throughout the gas or liquid on the surface than in the bulk of
body of the solid. the solid.
The concentration is the same throughout the The concentration on the surface of the adsorbent
material. Therefore, it is a bulk phenomenon. is different (has higher concentration) from that in
the bulk. Therefore, it is a surface phenomenon.
Absorption occurs at uniform rate. Adsorption is rapid in the beginning and its rate
slowly decreases.
It is less specific in nature, all gases are adsorbed It is highly specific in nature and occurs only
on the surface of a solid to some extent. when there is bond formation between adsorbent
and adsorbate molecules.
It forms multimolecular layers. It forms mono-molecular layer.
The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is affected by the following factors:
The nature of the gas (i.e. nature of the adsorbate). The easily liquefiable gases such as HCl, NH3, Cl2
etc. are adsorbed more than the permanent gases such as H2, N2 and O2. The ease with which a gas can be
liquefied is primarily determined by its critical temperature. Higher the critical temperature (Tc) of a gas, the
more easily it will be liquefied and, therefore, more readily it will be adsorbed on the solid.
Gas SO2 CH4 H2
TC 330 K 190 K 33 K
Nature of adsorbent : The extent of adsorption of a gas depends upon the nature of adsorbent. Activated
charcoal (i.e. activated carbon), metal oxides (silica gel and aluminium oxide) and clay can adsorb gases
which are easily liquified. Gases such as H2, N2 and O2 are generally adsorbed on finely divided transition
metals Ni and Co.
Activation of adsorbent :
Metallic adsorbents are activated by mechanical rubbing or by subjecting it to some chemical
reactions.
To increase the adsorbing power of adsorbents, they are sub-divided into smaller pieces. As a results,
the surface area is increased and therefore, the adsorbing power increases.
Effect of temperature : Mostly the process of adsorption is exothermic and the reverse process or
desorption is endothermic. If the above equilibrium is subjected to increase in temperature, then accord-
ing to Le-Chaterlier’s principle, with increase in temperature, the desorption will be favoured. Physical
adsorption decreases continuously with increase in temperature whereas chemisorption increases initially,
shows a maximum in the curve and then it decreases continuously.
x x
m m
Temperature Temperature
The initial increase in chemisorption with increase in temperature is because of activation energy required.
This is why the chemical adsorption is also known as “Activated adsorption”.
A graph between degree of adsorption (x/m) and temperature ‘t’ at a constant pressure of adsorbate gas is
known as adsorption isobar.
Effect of pressure :
The extent of adsorption of a gas per unit mass of adsorbent x/m
depends upon the pressure of the gas. The variation of extent of
adsorption expressed as x/m (where x is the mole of adsorbate
and m is the mass of the adsorbent) and the pressure is given as
below. A graph between the amount of adsorption and gas pres-
sure keeping the temperature constant is called an adsorption O P Ps
isotherm. Figure-1
48 Surface Chemistry
It is clear from the figure-1 that extent of adsorption (x/m) increases with pressure and becomes
maximum corresponding to pressure Ps called equilibrium pressure. Since adsorption is a reversible
process, the desorption also takes place simultaneously. At this pressure (Ps) the amount of gas adsorbed
becomes equal to the amount of gas desorbed.
The variation of extent of adsorption (x/m) with pressure (P) was given mathematically by Freundlich.
At low pressure the graph is almost straight line which indicates that x/m is directly proportional to the
pressure. This may be expressed as :
(x / m) p or (x / m) = kp where k is constant.
At high pressure the graph becomes almost constant which means that x / m becomes independent of
pressure. This may be expressed as :
(x / m) = constant or (x / m) p° (since p° = 1) or (x / m) = kp°.
Thus, in the intermediate range of pressure, x / m will depend upon the power of pressure which lies
between 0 to 1, fractional power of pressure. This may be expressed as :
(x / m) p1/n or (x / m) = kp1/n
Where n can take any whole number value which depends upon the nature of adsorbate and adsorbent. The
above relationship is also called Freundlich’s adsorption isotherm.
The constant k and n can be determined as explained below :
Taking logarithms on both sides of
Eq. (x / m) = kp1/n we get
log (x / m) = log k + (1/n) log p.
One of the drawbacks of Freundlich isotherm is that it fails at high pressure of the gas.
This equation applicable only when adsorbate substance form unimolecular layer on adsorbent
surface. i.e. chemical adsorption.
Adsorption
Adsorption
(4) Irreversible
Adsorption
Adsorption
(4) It does not require activation energy
x T T
(1) kp1/n
m 14. Adsorption is the phenomenon in which a substance:
(2) x = mkp 1/n (1) accumulates on the surface of the other substance
(3) x/m = kp –n (2) goes into the body of the other substances
(4) All of these (3) remains close to the other substance
(4) none of these
12. Adsorption due to strong chemical forces is called
15. Which is not a purely surface phenomena?
(1) Chemisorption
(1) surface tension
(2) Physiosorption
(2) adsorption
(3) Reversible adsorption
(3) absorption
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) none of these
Berzillus in 1835 used the word catalyst first time for some substance which alter rate of chemical reaction
and themselves remain chemically and quantitatively unchanged after the reaction and the phenomenon is
known as catalysis.
For example, potassium chlorate when heated at 653K to 873K, it gives O2. When MnO2 is used in this
reaction the O2 is quickly at the low temperature hence MnO2 is a catalyst
2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
When catalysts and reactants are in same phase then the process is said to be homogeneous catalysis and
For example,
NO(g)
1. 2SO2 (g) O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
HCl( l )
2. CH3COOCH3 (l ) CH3COOH(aq)
H 2SO4 ( l )
3. C12 H 22 O11 (aq) H 2 O(l ) C6 H12 O6 (aq) C6 H12 O 6 (aq)
Glucose Fructose
When catalysts and reactants are in different phases, then process a know as heterogenous catalysis and
catalyst is called heterogeneous catalyst. For example,
Pt(s)
1. 2SO3 (g) O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
Surface Chemistry 51
Fe(s)
2. N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
Pt(s)
3. 4NH3 (g) 5O2 (g) 4NO(g) 6H 2 O(g)
Ni(s)
4. Vegetable oils (l ) H 2 (g) Vegetable ghee (s).
TYPES OF CATALYSIS
Positive Catalysis : A substance which increase the rate of chemical reaction is called positive catalyst
and this process called positive catalysis.
Pt (s) Fe(s)
1. 2SO 2 (g) O 2 (g)
positive catalyst
2SO3 (g) 2. N 2 (g) 3H 2 (g)
Positive catalyst
2NH 3 (g)
Negative Catalysis : A substance which decrease the rate of chemical reaction is called negative catalyst
and this process called negative catalysis. For example,
H3 PO4 or glycerol
1. 2H 2 O2
negative catalyst
2H 2 O O2
2. Decomposition of chloroform reduces in the presence of 1% ethyl alcohol.
1 1% ethyl alcohol
CHCl3 O 2
negative catalyst
COCl2 HCl
2
Auto Catalysis : When one of the reaction product behave as catalyst for that reaction and increase the
rate of reaction then the phenomenon is called autocatalysis. “Auto catalytic reactions are slow in the
beginning but become increasingly rapid as the reaction proceeds.” For example,
1. CH3COOC2 H5 HOH
CH3COOH (Auto catalyst) + C2 H5OH
2. 2KMnO 4 5COOH 3H 2 SO 4
K 2 SO 4 MnSO 4 (Auto catalyst) 8H 2 O 10CO 2
COOH
Induced Catalyst : When one reaction catalyse an other reaction than the phenomenon is called induced
catalysis and that reaction is called induced catalyst. For example,
1. Sodium sulphite (Na2SO3) is oxidised to Na2SO4 in atmosphere but sodium arsenite (Na3AsO3) does
not oxidises to Na3AsO4 in air. When both are kept together both are oxidised in air. Here oxidation of
Na2SO3 catalyse the oxidation of Na3AsO3. Hence oxidation reaction of Na2SO3 act as an induced
catalyst for oxidation reaction of Na3AsO3.
2. Similarly reduction of HgCl2 to Hg2Cl2 by oxalic acid is very slow while that of KMnO4 is fast but
mixture of HgCl2 and KMnO4 is reduced rapidly by oxalic acid.
Promoters / Activators : Substance which themselves are not catalyst but its presence can increase the
catalytic activity of catalyst. A promoters increase the number of active sites on the surface. For example,
Fe(catalyst)
1. N 2 3H 2
Mo(Promoter)
2NH 3
Ni (catalyst)
2. Vegetable Oil + H2
Cu (promoter)
Vegetable ghee.
ZnO
3. CO 2H 2
Cr2 O3 (promoter)
CH3OH
Catalytic Poisons / Anti catalysts / Catalyst Inhibitor : Substance which themselves are not catalyst
but whose presence decrease the activity of the catalyst. Poisoning is due to preferential adsorption of
poison on the surface of the catalyst. For example,
Fe (catalyst)
1. N 2 3H 2
CO / H 2S (Catalystic poisons)
2NH3
Platinised asbestos (catalyst)
2. 2SO2 O2
As 2S3 (Catalytic poisons)
2SO3
Pd (catalyst)
3. Rosunmund Reactions : RCOCl H 2
BaSO4 (poisons catalyst )
RCHO HCl
52 Surface Chemistry
CHARACTERISTICS OF CATALYSIS
A Catalyst remains unchanged in mass and chemical compositions at the end of reactions. However
its physical state can be change. For example, granular MnO2 during decomposition of KClO3 is left as
powder at the end of the reaction.
Finely devided state of catalyst is more efficient for the reactions because surface area increases and more
adsorption take place.
A small amount of catalyst is generally sufficient to catalyse almost unlimited reaction but in some cases the
rate of reaction depends on amount of catalyst.
Exception :
1. In Friedal Craft reaction more amount of catalyst is required.
2. Hydrolysis of ester in acidic and alkaline medium its rate of reaction is proportional to concentration of
H+ or OH– ions.
A catalyst cannot initiate reaction. But some times the activation energy is so large that practically a reac-
tion may not start until a catalyst lowers the activation energy significantly. For example, mixture of hydro-
gen and oxygen do not react at room temperature but the reaction occurs very rapid in presence of Pt black.
room temperature
H 2 O2 No reaction
Pt black
H 2 O2 H2O
Catalyst are generally specific in nature. A substance which act as a catalyst in a particular reaction, fails to
catalyse other reaction.
Catalyst cannot change equilibrium state but it help to attain equilibrium quickly.
A catalyst does not change the enthalpy, entropy and free energy of a reaction.
Optimum temperature : There is a particular temperature at which the efficiency of a catalyst a maxi-
mum this temperature is known as optimum temperature. On either side the optimum temperature, the
activity of catalyst decreases.
This theory explain the mechanism of heterogeneous catalyst. This theory is combination of two theory,
intermediate compound formation theory and the old adsorption theory, the catalytic activity is localised on
the surface on the catalyst. The mechanism involve 5 steps.
1. Diffusion of reactant to the surface of the catalyst.
2. Adsorption of reactant molecules on the surface of the catalyst.
3. Formation of activated intermediate.
4. Formation of reactions product on the catalyst surface.
5. Diffusion of reactions product from the catalyst surface or desorption.
Examples, Let us consider addition of H2 gas to ethelene in presence of Ni catalyst, the reaction take
places as follows.
HH
HH
diffusion of H2 Physical adsorption
Ni Ni + H H Ni Ni Ni Ni
catalyst chemical adsorption
H H
C C CH2=CH2 strain
H H
H H H H H H
chemical adsorption diffusion of C2H4
Ni Ni Ni Ni Ni Ni
Surface Chemistry 53
activated intermediate
formation
CH3 – CH3
diffusion of product
Ni Ni Ni Ni + CH3 – CH3
or desorption product
catalyst
Enzymes are complex nitrogenous organic compounds which are produced from living plants and animals.
They are actually protein molecules of high molecular mass and form colloidal solutions in water.
They catalyse biochemical reactions.
Highly efficient : One molecule of an enzyme may transform one million molecules of the reactant per
minute.
Highly specific nature : One catalyst cannot catalyse more than one reaction.
Highly active under optimum temperature (298 K to 310 K)
Highly active under optimum pH (5 to 7)
Increasing activity in presence of cofactor (Na+, Mn2+, Co2+, Cu2+ etc.) and co-enzymes
These are number of active centres of definite shape present on the surface of colloidal particles of
enzymes. The molecules of the reactant (substrate), which have complementary shape fit into these cavities
just like a key fits into a lock. On account of the presence of active groups an activated complex is formed
which then decomposes to yield the product.
Enzyme Substrate Activated complex Enzyme Products
E + S
[E – S] E + P
54 Surface Chemistry
The calatytic reaction that depends upon the the pore structure of the catalyst & the size of the reactant is
called shape selective catalyst. The pore size is generally in range 260-740 pm. For example,
1. Zeolite (honey comb – like structure).
2. Formula of Zeolite is Nax/n [(AlO2)x (SiO2)y]z H2O
Zeolite is also called sodium alumino silicate, water softner & cationic exchanger (Exchange only cation
from hard water).
Zeolite is 3D silicate.
Zeolite, before using as catalyst are heated in vacuum so that the water of hydration is lost and as a result
Zeolite becomes porous.
Surface Chemistry 55
Colloid State : A substance is said to be in colloidal state when the size of the particle of disperse phase is
greater than particle of true solution and less than that of suspension solution particle, their range of diam-
eters between 1 and 1000 nm (10–9 to 10–6 m).
Colloid solution : It is a heterogeneous system consisting of 2 phase :
1. Disperse Phase (D.P) : The phase which is dispersed through the medium is called dispersed phase
or discontinuous phase or internal phase.
2. Dispersion Medium (D.M) : A medium in which colloidal particles are dispersed is called dispersion
medium. It is also known as continuous phase or outer phase or external phase.
Colloidal solution = D.P. + D.M.
For example, in n Gold sol, Gold is D.P and water is D.M.
Multimolecular colloids : In this type, the particles consist of an aggregate of atoms or small molecules
size less than 1 nm. For example, sols of gold atoms and sulphur (S8) molecules. In these colloids, the
particles are held together by van der Waal’s forces.
Macromolecular colloids : In this types, the particles of the dispersed phase are sufficiently big in size
(macro) to be of colloidal dimensions. These macromolecules forming the dispersed phase are generally
polymers having very high molecular masses. These colloids are quite stable and resemble true solutions in
many respects. Naturally occuring macromolecules are starch, cellulose, proteins, enzymes, gelatin, etc.
Associated colloids (Micelles) : These are the substances which behave as normal strong electrolytes at
low concentration but behave as colloidal particles at higher concentration. These associated particles are
also called micelles. Ex. Soap.
COO¯ Na+
+ COO¯
Na
COO¯ COO¯ +
Na+ COO¯ Na
+
Na
Similarly, in case of detergents, e.g., sodium lauryl sulphate viz. CH3(CH2)11SO4– Na+, the polar group is –
SO4– along with the long hydrocarbon chain. Hence, the mechanism of micelle formation is same as that of
soaps.
CRITICAL MICELLE CONCENTRATION [CMC] :
The minimum concentration required for micelle formation is called critical micelle concentration. Its value
depends upon the nature of D.P. and D.M. For example, surface active agent (surfactants, which de-
crease the surface tension) like soaps and detergents form micelle beyond CMC (~10–3 mol/litre for soaps).
Usually longer the hydrophobic chain, smaller is its CMC.
Also CMC increase with decreasing polarity of the D.M.
The micelles ‘formation takes place only above a particular temperature called as Kraft Temperature (Tk).
At CMC, the micelles are spherical in shape, but that start flattening with increase in concentration and
ultimately form sheet or film like structures which have a thickness of two molecules. These are called
lamelar micelles or McBain Micelles.
Example of micelles :
1. Sodium stearate C17H35COO–Na+(Soap).
2. Sodium lauryl sulphate CH3 [CH2]11 SO4– Na+ (Detergent).
3. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide (Detergent). CH3(CH2)15N+(CH3)3Br–.
Grease
In these methods particles of atomic or molecular size are induced to combine to form aggregates having
colloidal dimensions. For this purpose chemical as well as physical methods can be applied.
reduction
2AuCl3 3SnCl2
3SnCl4 2Au(sol)
Reduction
AgNO3 tannic acid silver sol.
NH2NH2 can also be used as reducing agent.
*Sol of gold is also known as purple of cassius.
Hydrolysis : A colloidal sol of metal hydroxides like Al(OH)3 or Cr(OH)3 is obtained by boiling a dilute
solution of FeCl3, AlCl3 or CrCl3.
FeCl3 + 3H2O Fe(OH)3 (sol) + 3HCl ; AlCl3 + 3H2O Al(OH)3 (sol) + 3HCl
The colloidal sol of sillicic acid is also obtained by hydrolysis of dilute solution of sodium silicate with hydro-
chloric acid.
Na4SiO4 + 4HCl Si(OH)4 (sol) + 4NaCl.
peptizing agent
The colloidal sols obtained by various methods are impure and contain impurities of electrolytes and other
soluble substances. These impurities may destabilise the sol. Hence, they have to be removed. A very
important method of removal of soluble impurities from sols by a semipermeable membrane is known as
dialysis.
Surface Chemistry 63
Tyndall cone
Light source
Scattered light
The particles of the colloids are electrically charged and carry positive or negative charge.
The dispersion medium has an equal and opposite charge making the system neutral as a whole.
Due to similar nature of the charge carried by the particles, they repel each other and do not combine to
form bigger particles.
That is why, a sol is stable and particles do not settle down. Arsenious sulphide, gold, silver and platinum
particles in their respective colloidal sols are negatively charged while particles of ferric hydroxide,
aluminium hydroxide are positively charged.
The existence of the electric charge is shown by the phenomenon of electrophoresis.
It involves the 'movement of colloidal particles either towards the cathode or anode, under the influence of
the electric field'. The apparatus used for electrophoresis as shown in fig.
Electrode
Coagulated sol
particles
As2S3 sol
(negatively charged)
Positive charge on colloidal sol is due to adsorption of Fe3+ ion [common ion between Fe(OH)3 and FeCl3].
As2S3 colloidal sol is obtained when As2O3 is saturated with H2S :
As2O3 + 3H2S As2S3 + 3H2O.
2–
As2S3 adsorbs S ions (common between H2S and As2S3 and thus is negatively charged).
As2S3 + H2S As2S3 | S2– : 2H+
AgI in contact with AgNO3 forms positively charged colloidal sol due to adsorption of Ag+ ion.
AgI + AgNO3 [AgI]Ag+ : NO3–, AgI in contact with KI forms negatively charged colloidal sol due to
adsorption of I– ion
AgI + KI AgI | I– : K+.
SnO2 in acidic medium forms positively charged colloidal sol due to adsorption of Sn4+ formed.
SnO2 + 4H+ Sn4+ + 2H2O SnO2 + Sn4+ SnO2 + Sn4+
SnO2 in alkaline medium forms negatively charged colloidal sol due to adsorption of SnO32– formed.
SnO2 + 2OH– SnO32– + H2O SnO2 + SnO32– SnO2 + SnO32–
ELECTRIC DOUBLE LAYER THEORY OR HELM-HOLTZ ELECTRIC DOUBLE LAYER P.No.: 143
The surface of colloid particles acquire a positive or negative charge by the selective (preferential) adsorp-
tions of common ions carrying positive or negative charge respectively to form first layer.
This layer attract counter ions from D.M. form a second layer.
The combination of two layers of opposite charge around the colloidal particle is called Helm-holtz electric
double layer.
The first layer of ions is firmely held and is termed as fixed layer while the second layer is mobile which is
termed as diffused layer. The charge of opposite ions of fixed and diffused layer double layer results in a
difference in potential between two opposite charge layer is called the electrokinetic potential or zetapotential
Example : When silver nitrate solution is added to KI solution, the precipitation of AgI adsorb iodide ions
from the D.M with the formation of fixed layer and negatively charged colloidal solution form, however
when KI solution is added to AgNO3 solution positive charge sol result due to the adsorbs of Ag+ ions from
D.M.
AgI / I– AgI / Ag+
Negative charged Positively charged.
This fixed layer attracts counter ions from the medium forming a second layer.
68 Surface Chemistry
Fixed layer
+
K
+
K
+
K
I– –
I
– I K
+
–
I– AgI I
K
+ I– I
–
– –
I I
– I K
+
Zetapotential K+ +
K
K
+
Diffused layer
+ ++ + + + + +
+ ++ + +
+ ++
+ + + + +
+ ++ +++ + + +
+ ++ +
+ ++
++ +
+ ++
+ ++ +
+ + + + ++ ++ ++ + + +
+
+ + +
+ ++
+
+
+ +
+ + ++ + +
+ + ++ + ++ +
+ +
++ + + + + + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + +
+ ++ + + +
+ +
+ + + + ++ +
+ + + + ++ +
++ + + + +
+ + +++ +
++
+
+ ++ + + +
+ ++ ++
+ ++ +
+ ++ +
+ + +
+ + +
+ ++
+ ++
+++
+ ++
+ +
+
+
+
Neutralised
sol particles Coagulated sol
Coagulation of lyophobic sols can be carried out by the following methods.
1. By electrophoresis
2. By mutual precipitation : It is a process in which oppositely charged sol are mixed in proper propor-
tion to neutralise the charge of each other causing coagulation of both the sol.
Example : Positively charged Fe(OH)3 and negatively charged As2S3 colloidal particle containing sol
on mixing get coagulated.
3. By Prolonged Dialysis : On prolonged dialysis, traces of the electrolyte present in the sol are
removed almost completely and the colloidal unstable and ultimately coagulate.
4. By Boiling : Sols such as sulphur and silver halides dispersed in water may be coagulated by boiling
because increased collisions between sol particle and the water molecule removed the adsorbed elec-
trolytes. This takes away the charge from the particles and helps them to coagulate.
5. By cooling : Certain sol can also be coagulated by lowering temperature. For example, accumula-
tion of cream on the surface of milk on cooling. This is because at lower temperature the dispersion
medium molecules do not exert sufficient force on to the dispersed particles and hence the Brownian
motion becomes less effective.
6. By the addition of electrolyte : When excess of an electrolyte is added, the colloidal particles are precipitated.
Surface Chemistry 69
It needs to be noted that the coagulation of a colloidal solution by an electrolyte does not take place until
the added electrolyte has certain minimum concentration in the solution. The minimum concentration of
electrolyte in millimoles required to cause coagulation of one litre of colloidal solution is called coagula-
tion value. It is express in terms of millimoles/litre.
millim oles of electrolyte
Coagulation value = volumeof sol in litre
Comparision of relative coagulating power of two electrolyte for the same colloidal solution : The
coagulation value decrease with increase in charge of the coagulating ion.
1
Coagulating power coagulation value
Factor-Affecting Coagulations :
1. Nature of sols : The lyophobic colloid can easily coagulate because it is a less stable colloid, but
lyophilic colloids coagulate hardly by the addition of electrolyte due to protective layer of D.M.
surrounding the colloidal particle.
2. Nature of electrolyte : In equimolar electrolyte, strong electrolyte have greater coagulating power
than weak electrolyte. For example,
0.1 M NaCl > 0.1M CH3COOH.
Lyophilic colloidal sols are much more stable than lyophobic colloidal sols.
This is due to the extensive solvation of lyophilic colloidal sols, which forms a protective layer outside it and
thus prevents it from forming associated colloids.
Lyophobic sols can easily precipitate by addition of small amount of an electrolyte. They can be prevented
from coagulation by previous addition of some lyophilic colloid.
This is due to formation of a protective layer by lyophilic sols outside lyophobic sols. Process of protecting
the lyophobic colloid solution from precipitation by an electrolyte due to previous addition of some lyo-
philic colloid is called protection of colloid and lyophilic colloidal sols are called protective sols.
For example, Gelatin, Sodium caseinate, Egg albumin, Gum arabic, Potato starch etc.,
Gelatin (lyophilic) protects gold sol (lyophobic) colloids is expressed in terms of gold number.
70 Surface Chemistry
GOLD NUMBER :
Zsigmondy (1901) introduce a term called gold number it is defined as the minimum amount of the protective
colloid in milligrams which when added to 10 ml of a standard gold sol is just sufficient to prevent a colour
change from red to blue on the addition of 1 ml of 10% sodium chloride solution. It may be noted that
smaller of the gold number, greater will be protecting power of the protective colloid.
1
Protecting power .
gold number
Colloids including emulsions find a number of uses in our daily life and industry. Some of the uses are given
below.
In medicines : A wide variety of medicinal and pharmaceutical preparations are emulsions. Colloidial
medicines are easily adsorbed by the body tissue because of large surface area.
* Colloidal antimony is used in curing kalaazar.
* Milk of magnesia, an emulsion, is used for stomach disorder.
* Colloidal gold is used for intramuscular injection.
* Colloidal sulphur are used as Germicides.
* Argyrol is a silver sol used as an eye lotion.
* Colloidal Fe(OH)3 is given to arsenic poisoning patients as it adsorbs arsenic and then gets omited out.
Tanning : Animal hides are colloidal in nature. Which contain positive charge colloidal particles of protein.
This hide is kept in a tank containing tannic acid, which contains negatively charge colloidal particle. There-
fore, mutual coagulation takes place this results in hardening of leather, this process is termed as tanning of
leather. Chromium salts are also used in place of tannic acid.
Photographic plate & Film : Photographic plate or films are prepared by coating an emulsion of the light
sensitive silver bromide in gelatin over glass plates or celluloid films. Gelatin prevent the coagulation of
colloidal particle of AgBr.
Rubber plating : The negatively charged rubber particles from rubber sol are deposited on wares and
handles of different tools. Rubber gloves are formed by rubber plating on suitable templates.
Sewage disposal : Sewage water contains charged colloidal particles of dirt, rubbish, etc., and these do not
settle down easily. The particles can be removed by discharging them at electrodes. Dirty water is passed
through a tunnel fitted with metallic electrodes which are maintained at high potential difference. The par-
ticles migrate to the oppositely charged electrode, lose their charge and get coagulated. The deposited
matter is used as a manure and the water left behind is used for irrigation.
Cottrell smoke precipitator : Smoke is a dispersion of negatively charged colloidal particles of carbon in
air and can be made free of these colloidal particles by passing it through cottrell precipitator as shown in
fig. installed in the chimney of an industrial plant. It consists of two metal discs charged to a high potential.
The carbon particles get discharged and precipitate, while gases come out from the chimney.
Gases free
from carbon
particles
Precipitated ash
Smoke
5.7 Synopsis
ADSORPTION Concentration of the adsorbate is more on the
Definition and Properties surface of the adsorbent than in the bulk.
The accumulation of molecular species at the Chemisorption
surface rather than in the bulk of a solid or liquid. Concentration of the adsorbate increases in
Surface phenomena. the bulk after adsorption.
Spontaneous, exothermic & leads to lowering Adsorption Isotherms
of entropy.
195 K
Terminology b
q
Adsorbate : Substance adsorbed. a
Adsorbent : Substance on the surface of x 244 K 1
x Slope =
which adsorbate is adsorbed. 273 K log n
Desorption : Reverse of adsorption.
m m
Occlusion : Adsorption of gases on the log K (Intercept)
surface of metals.
Sorption : Adsorption and absorption take P log P
place simultaneously. Adsorption isotherm Freundlich isotherm
Types CATALYSIS
Physisorption Definition
Molecules are held by weak van der Waals forces. The phenomenon of enhancing the rate of a
Low heat of adsorption and non-specific. chemical reaction by using catalyst.
No compound is formed. Terminology
Descreases with increase in temperature. Promoters : Substances that enthane the
Forms multimolecular layer and is reversible. activity of a catalyst.
Chemisorption Poisons : Substance which decrease the
Molecules are held by strong chemical bonds. activity of a catalyst.
High heat of adsorption and specific. Activity : Capacity to increase the speed of
Surface compounds are formed. the chemical reaction.
Increases with increase layer & is irreversible. Selectivity : Ability of a catalyst to direct
Positive adsorption the reaction to yield a particular product.
74 Surface Chemistry
Types – Water in oil type emulsions e.g., butter.
Homogeneous catalysis : When the reac- Based on nature of interaction between dis-
tants and catalyst are in the same phase e.g., persed phase and dispersion medium :
oxidation of SO2 to SO3 in presence of NO Lyophilic colloids : Liquid-loving, directly
as catalyst (lead chumber process) formed, reversible in nature, quite stable, can-
Heterogeneous catalysis : When the re- not be easily congulated.
actants and catalyst are in different phasees Lyophobic colloids : Liquid-hatingm, pre-
e.g., manufacture of NH3 from N2 and H2 pared by special methods, readily coagulated,
using Fe as catalyst. (Haber’s process) irreversible, not stable, and need stabilising
Autocatalysis : One of the products formed agents for their preservation.
itself acts as a catalyst e.g., titration of Based on type of particles of the dispersed phase:
oxalic acid with KMnO 4 in presence of Multimolecular colloids : Formed by ag-
dil.H2SO4. gregation of a large number of atoms or mol-
Induced catalyst : One reaction influences ecules (diameter < 1 nm) held by weak van
the rate of other reaction, which does not der Waals forces.
occur under ordinary conditions e.g., oxidation Macromolecular colloids : Formed by mol-
of sodium arsentite is induced by oxidation of ecules of large size.
sodium sulphite. Associated colloids : Formed by substances
Positive catalysis : Catalyst increases the which at low concentrations behave as nor-
speed of a reaction. mal strong electrolytes, but at higher concen-
Negative catalysis : Catalyst decreases the tration exhibit colloidal behaviour due to the
speed of a reaction. formation of aggregates (called micelles).
Important Processes and Properties
Shape-Selective Catalysis :
Tyndall effect : Scattering of light by the
Depends upon the pore structure of catalyst
colloidal particles.
and size of reactant and product molecules.
Brownian movement : Continuous zig-zag
Zoolites are good shape-selective catalysis
movement of colloidal particles.
due to honey comb-like structures.
Peptization : Converting a precipitate into
Enzymes
colloidal sol by shaking it with dispersion
Biocatalysts medium in the presence of a small amount of
Highly efficient and specific in nature. electrolyte.
Highly active under optimum temperature and Dialaysis : Separation of colloidal particles from
pH. crystalloids by filtration using ultrafilter papers.
Activity increases in the presence of activators Coagulation : Setting of colloidal particles.
and co-enzymes. Zeta potential : Potential difference
Activity inhibited by inhibitors and poisons. between the fixed layer and the diffused layer
COLLOIDS of opposite charges, also called electrokinetic
Definition potential.
A heterogeneous system in which particle size Have a Look !
is between 1 and 1000 nm. Higher the critical temperature of a gas, more
strongly it is adsorbed.
Terminology A more strongly adsorbable substance can displace
Dispersed phase : Substance which is dis- a weakly adsorbed substance from the surface of
persed. It is a discontinuous phase. the adsorbent.
Dispersion medium : Medium in which the The minimum amount of an electrolyte (millimoles)
substance is dispersed. It is a continuous phase. that must be added to one litre of a colloidal solu-
Classification : tion for complete coagulation is called the coagu-
Based on physical state of dispersed phase lation or flecculation or precipitatiton value of
and dispersion medium : the electrolyte and smaller the value, greater is its
Sols : Solids in liquids e.g., paints coagulating power.
Gels : Liquids in solids e.g., cheese According to Hardy-Schulze rule, greater the va-
Emulsions : Liquids in liquids. lency of th eflocculating ion added, greater is its
– Oil in water type emulsions e.g., milk power to cause precipitation.
Surface Chemistry 75
1. Which of the following statements about physical 8. Which one is false in the following statement ?
adsorption is not correct ? (1) A catalyst is specific in its action
(1) It is usually monolayer (2) A very small amount of the catalyst alters the rate
(2) It is reversible in nature of a reaction
(3) It involves van der Waals interactions between (3) The number of free vacancies on the surface of
adsorbent and adsorbate the catalyst increases on sub-division
(4) It involves small enthalpy of adsorption as com- (4) Ni is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of am-
pared to chemisorption. monia
2. Which of the following statements regarding adsorp- 9. Softening of hard water is done using sodium alu-
tion is not correct ? minium silicate (zeolite). The causes :
(1) Extent of adsorption of gases on charcoal in- (1) adsorption of Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions of hard water
creases with increase in pressure of the gas replacing Na+ ions.
(2) Extent of adsorption is independent of temperature (2) adsorption of Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions of hard water
(3) Extent of chemisorption by a given mass of ad- replacing Al3+ ions.
sorbent is limited (3) both (A) and (B)
(4) Extent of adsorption is dependent on the nature (4) none of these
of adsorbent 10. Which requires catalyst ?
3. There is desorption of physical adsorption when: (1) S + O2 SO2 (2) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(1) temperature is increased (3) C + O2 CO2 (4) All
(2) temperature is decreased 11. A catalyst in a reaction :
(3) pressure is increased (1) increases the activation energy of the forward re-
(4) concentration is increased action.
4. The rate of chemisorption : (2) increases the activation energy of the backward
(1) decreases with increase of pressure reaction.
(2) increases with increase of pressure (3) increases the activation energy of both the reac-
(3) is independent of pressure tions.
(4) is independent of temperature (4) decreases the activation energy of both the reac-
tions.
5. Which of the following statements about chemisorp-
tion is not applicable? 12. A catalyst in a reaction changes which of the follow-
ing ?
(1) It involves chemical forces between adsorbent
and absorbate (1) Equilibrium constant
(2) It is irreversible in nature (2) Entropy
(3) It involves high heat of adsorption (3) Rate constant
(4) It involves low activation energy (4) Nature of products.
6. Which of the following is not characteristic of chemi- 13. Consider the following reactions ;
sorption? (i) 2SO
2SO2 + O2 3
(1) it is irreversible
(ii) 2NH
N2 + 3H2 3
(2) it is specific
(3) it is multilayer phenomenon 2NO
(iii) N2 + O2
(4) heat of adsorption of about – 400 kJ 2HI
(iv) H2 + I2
7. A catalyst increases rate of reaction by :
The reactions which require a catalyst are :
(1) decreasing enthalpy
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) decreasing internal energy
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) decreasing activation energy
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) increasing activation energy
(4) all of these
76 Surface Chemistry
14. Which of the following kind of catalysis can be ex- 24. Colloidal gold is prepared by :
plained by the adsorption theory ? (1) mechanical dispersion
(1) Homogeneous catalysis (2) peptisation
(2) Acid-bas catalysis (3) Bredig's arc method
(3) Heterogeneous catalysis (4) hydrolysis
(4) Enzyme catalysis 25. Tyndall effect is observed in :
15. A biological catalyst is essentially : (1) solution (2) precipitate
(1) an enzyme (2) a carbohydrate (3) sol (4) vapour
(3) an amino acid (4) a nitrogeneous base 26. Lyophillic colloids are stable due to :
16. Colloidal solution of gold prepared by different meth- (1) charge on the particle
ods of different colours because of : (2) large size of the particle
(1) different diameters of colloidal gold particles (3) small size of the particle
(2) variable valency of gold
(4) layer of dispersion medium on the particles
(3) different concentration of gold particles
27. Peptization is a process of :
(4) impurities produced by different methods
(1) precipitation of colloidal particles.
17. An example of intrinsic colloid (lyophilic colloids) is :
(2) purification of colloids.
(1) As 2S 3 sol (2) Fe(OH)3 sol
(3) dispersing precipitate into colloidal sols.
(3) Egg albumin (4) Au sol
(4) movement of colloidal particles in the electrical field.
18. Which of the following sols is negatively charged?
28. Gold number of a lyophilic sol is such property that:
(1) Arsenious sulphide
(1) the larger its value, the greater is the peptising
(2) Aluminium hydroxide power
(3) Ferric hydroxide (2) the lower its value, the greater is the peptising
(4) Silver iodide in silver nitrate solution power
19. Peptisation is: (3) the lower its value, the greater is the protecting
(1) conversion of a colloidal into precipitate form power
(2) conversion of precipitate into colloidal sol (4) the larger its value, the greater is the protecting
(3) conversion of metal into colloidal sol by passage power
of electric current 29. Protective sols are :
(4) conversion of colloidal sol into macromolecules (1) lyophilic
20. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chlo- (2) lyophobic
ride. This is because: (3) both (1) and (2)
(1) the blood starts flowing in opposite direction (4) none of (1) and (2)
(2) the blood reacts and forms a solid, which seals 30. Which of the following ions is most effective in the
the blood vessel coagulation of an arsenious sulphide solution ?
(3) the blood is coagulated and thus the blood ves- (1) K+ (2) Mg 2+
sel is sealed (3) Al 3+
(4) C
(4) the ferric chloride seals the blood vessel. 31. Which of the following ions is most effective in the
21. Which of the following is a hydrophilic colloidal sol ? coagulation of ferric hydroxide solution ?
(1) Barium sulphate sol (1) Cl¯ (2) Br–
(2) Arsenious sulphide sol (3) NO 2 ¯ (4) SO 42–
(3) Starch sol 32. Gold number gives :
(4) Silver iodide sol (1) the amount of gold present in the colloid.
22. Cloud is an example of : (2) the amount of gold required to break the colloid.
(1) solid dispersed in gas (3) the amount of gold required to product the colloid.
(2) liquid dispersed in gas (4) none of the above.
(3) liquid dispersed in solid 33. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice cream in order to:
(4) solid dispersed in liquid (1) prevent making of a colloid.
23. Which one among the following sols is hydrophobic ? (2) stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization.
(1) Gum (2) Gelatin (3) stabilize the mixture.
(3) Starch (4) Sulphur (4) enrich the aroma.
Surface Chemistry 77
34. Which one of the following will have the highest 43. Purification of colloids is done by the process of
coagulation power for a ferric hydroxide sol ? (1) Electrophoresis
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl2 (2) Electrodispersion
(3) K2CrO4 (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] (3) Peptization
35. Small liquid droplets dispersd in another liquid is called: (4) Ultrafiltration
(1) Suspension (2) Emulsion 44. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above
(3) Gel (4) True solution certain concentration?
36. At CMC, the surfactant molecules : (1) Urea
(1) Decomposes (2) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
(2) Become completely soluble (3) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(3) Associate (4) Sodium acetate
(4) Dissociate 45. Fog is an example of
37. Some type of gels like gelatin loose water slowly. The (1) Solid dispersed in gas
process is known as : (2) Liquid dispersed in gas
(1) synerisis (2) thixotropy (3) Liquid dispersed in solid
(3) peptisation (4) imbibition (4) Solid dispersed in liquid
38. In which one of the following properties emulsions 46. Liquid-liquid sol is known as
differ from colloidal sols ? (1) aerosol (2) foam
(1) Tyndall effect (3) emulsion (4) gel
(2) Brownian movement 47. The ability of ion to bring about coagulation of a given
(3) Electrophoresis colloidal solution depends upon
(4) Size of the particles of the dispersed phase (1) Its size of ion
39. Cod liver oil is : (2) The magnitude of charge
(1) fat dispersed in water (3) The sign of charge
(2) water dispersed in fat (4) Both magnitude and sign of charge
(3) water dispersed in oil 48. A coagulating agent frequently added to water to
(4) fat dispersed in oil remove the suspended and colloidal impurities is
40. The efficiency of an enzyme in catalysing a reaction is (1) Mohr salt
due to its capacity (2) Alum
(1) To form a strong enzyme–substrate complex (3) Bleaching powder
(2) To decrease the bond energies o f substrate (4) Copper sulphate
molecule 49. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding cut because
(3) To change the shape of the substrate molecule (1) Fe 3+ ion coagulates blood, which is a negatively
(4) To lower the activation energy of the reaction charged sol
41. Which of the following is true about catalyst? (2) Fe 3+ ion coagulates blood, which is a positively
(1) It initiates reaction charged sol
(2) It changes equilibrium point (3) Cl – ion coagulates blood, which is a positively
(3) It increase average kinetic energy charged sol
(4) It accelerates the rate of reaction (4) Cl – ion coagulates blood, which is a negatively
42. In which of the following processes, platinum is used charged sol
as a catalyst 50. Alum helps in purifying water by
(1) Oxidation of ammonia to form nitric acid (1) Forming Si complex with clay particles
(2) Hardening of oils (2) Sulphate part which combines with the dirt and
(3) Production of synthetic rubber removes it
(4) Synthesis of methanol (3) Aluminium which coagulates the mud particles
(4) Making mud water soluble
78 Surface Chemistry
(Concept Builder)
1. Which of the following process does not occur at the 11. Which of the following is an example of absorption?
interface of phases? (1) Water on silica gel
(1) Crystallisation (2) Water on calcium chloride
(2) Heterogeneous catalysis (3) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel
(3) Homogeneous catalysis (4) Oxygen on metal surface
(4) Corrosion 12. On the basis of data given below predict which of the
2. At the equilibrium position in the process of adsorption: following gases shows least adsorption on a definite
(1) H > 0 (2) H = TS amount of charcoal?
(3) H > TS (4) H < TS Gas CO 2 SO 2 CH 4 H2
3. Which of the following interface cannot be obtained? Critical temp./K 304 630 190 33
(1) Liquid-liquid (2) Solid-liquid (1) CO 2 (2) SO
(3) Liquid-gas (4) Gas-gas (3) CH 4 (4) H2
4. The term ‘sorption’ stands for : 13. In which of the following reactions heterogeneous
(1) absorption catalysis involved?
(2) adsorption NO
(g )
(i) 2SO 2(g) O 2(g) 2SO3(g)
(3) both absorption and adsorption
Pt
(4) desorption (ii) (s )
2SO2(g) 2SO3(g)
5. Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with :
Fe(s )
(1) increase in temperature (iii) N 2(g) 3H 2(g) 2NH3(g)
(2) decrease in temperature HCl
(l )
(3) decrease in surface area of adsorbent (iv) CH3COOCH3( l ) H 2 O( l )
(4) decrease in strength of van der Waals forces CH3COOH(aq) CH3OH (aq)
6. Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution phase (1) (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
increases with : (3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (iv)
(1) increase in amount of adsorbate in solution 14. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves
(2) decrease in surface area of adsorbent as :
(3) increase in temperature of solution (1) molecular colloid
(4) decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution (2) associated colloid
7. Which one of the following is not applicable to the (3) macromolecular colloid
phenomenon of adsorption? (4) lyophilic colloid .
(1) H > 0 (2) G < 0 15. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
(3) S < 0 (4) H < 0 (1) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle
8. Which of the following is not a favourable condition concentration.
for physical adsorption? (2) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle
(1) High pressure concentration.
(2) Negative H (3) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride.
(3) Higher critical temperature of adsorbate (4) Aqueous solution of sugar.
(4) High temperature 16. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected?
9. Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change (1) By addition of oppositely charged sol
to chemical adsorption with : (2) By addition of an electrolyte
(1) decrease in temperature (3) By addition of lyophilic sol
(2) increase in temperature (4) By boiling
(3) increase in surface area of adsorbent 17. In physisorption, adsorbent does not show specificity
(4) decrease in surface area of adsorbent for any particular gas because :
10. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted (1) involved van der Waals forces are universal
to colloidal solution by : (2) gases involved behave like ideal gases.
(1) coagulation (2) electrolysis (3) enthalpy of adsorption is low
(3) diffusion (4) peptisation (4) it is a reversible process.
Surface Chemistry 79
18. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum 22. Which of the following process is responsible for the
coagulating value for AgI/Ag + sol? formation of delta at a place where rivers meet the sea?
(1) Na 2 S (2) Na 3PO 4 (1) Emulsification (2) Colloid formation
(3) Na 2SO 4 (4) NaCl (3) Coagulation (4) Peptisation
19. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a 23. Which of the following curves is in accordance with
dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
classified as :
(1) solid sol (2) gel
log x/m
log x/m
(3) emulsion (4) sol
20. The values of colligative properties of colloidal
(1) (2)
solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by tru e solutions of same co ncentration p p
because colloidal particles :
(1) exhibit enormous surface area
(2) remain suspended in the dispersion medium
log x/m
log x/m
(3) form lyophilic colloids
(4) are comparatively less in number (3) (4)
21. Arrange the following diagrams in correct sequence of p p
steps involved in the mechanism of catalysis, in
24. Which of the following process is not responsible for
accordance with modem adsorption theory.
the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?
(1) Electron capture by sol particles
A
(2) Adsorption of ionic species from solution
(3) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer
(i) (4) Absorption of ionic species from solution
B 25. Which of the following phenomenon is applicable to
the process shown in the figure?
A
(ii) B
Solution of
raw sugar
A (yellowish brown)
(iii) B
A Column of
animal charcoal
(iv) B
A
(v) Colourless
B solution of sugar
(1) i ii iii iv v
(2) i iii ii iv v
(3) i iii ii v iv (1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(4) i ii iii v iv (3) Coagulation (4) Emulsification
80 Surface Chemistry
• Instructions for Questions 1 to 10 8. Assertion : A gas with higher critical temperature gets
adsorbed to more extent than a gas with lower critical
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Reason : The easily liquefiable gases get adsorbed to
appropriate answer from the options given below : more extent which have higher critical temperature.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
9. Assertion : When AgNO3 is treated with excess of KI,
explanation of (A)
colloidal particles gets attracted towards anode.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) Reason : Colloidal particles adsorb common ions and
(3) (A) is correct the (R) is not correct thus become charged.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 10. Assertion : Tetraethyl lead minimises the knocking
effect when mixed with petrol.
1. Assertion : Gold number is the measure of protective
powers of different colloids. Reason : Because tetraethyl lead acts as a –ve catalyst.
Reason : The smaller the gold number of lyophilic
• Instructions for Questions 11 to 15
colloid, the smaller is its protective power.
2. Assertion : The property of adsorption is shown by Given below are two statements :
In the light of the above s tatements, choose the most
solids to a much larger extent than liquids.
appropriate answer from the options given below :
Reason : Solids, particularly when finely divided, have (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
a large surface area. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3. Assertion : Aqueous gold colloidal solution is red in
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
colour.
Reason : The colour arises due to scattering of light of 11. Statement I : Deep electric shock causes death of an
colloidal gold particles. animal.
4. Assertion : All colloidal dispersions give very low Statement II : Electric shock coagulate the blood.
osmotic pressure and show very small freezing point 12. Statement I : All colloidal dispersions give very low
depression or boiling point elevation. osmotic pressure and show very small freezing point
Reason : Tyndall effect is due to scattering of light depression or boiling point elevation.
from the surface of colloidal particles. Statement II : Tyndall effect is due to scattering of
light from the surface of colloidal particles.
5. Assertion : The Brownian movement is due to the
bombardment on colloidal particles by the molecules 13. Statement I : A catalyst is more effective in finely
of dispersion medium which are in the constant motion divided form.
like molecules in a gas. Statement II : Finely divided form has more surface
Reason : Brownian movement provides a visible proof area.
of the random kinetic motion of molecules in a liquid. 14. Statement I : The Brownian movement is due to the
6. Assertion : In the coagulation of negatively charged bombardment on colloidal particles by the molecules
arsenic sulphide sol, the coagulating power decreases of dispersion medium which are in the constant
in the order, Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+. motion like molecules in a gas.
Reason : Generally greater the valency of coagulating Statement II : Brownian movement provides a visible
ion, the greater is its power of coagulation. proof of the random kinetic motion of molecules in a
liquid.
7. Assertion : Isoelectric point is pH at which colloidal
15. Statement I : In physisorption, adsorbtion increases
can move towards either of electrode
with increases in temperature.
Reason : At isoelectric point, colloidal particles become
Statement II : Physisorption is exothermic in nature.
electrically neutral.
Surface Chemistry 81
(Direct from
NCERT)
Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct (2) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (iii, iv); (d) – (ii)
combination from the options given. (3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (ii, iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv, i); (d) – (iii, iv)
1. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II 4. Match the List – I with List – II and Select the correct
(a) Mist (i) Jellies answer:
(b) Rain (ii) Whipped cream List – I List – II
(c) Gel (iii) Aerosol (a) Coagulation (i) Scattering of
(d) Foam (iv) Solid or liquid light
dispersed in air (b) Dialysis (ii) Formation of
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : colloidal solution
(1) (a) – (iii, i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (iii, iv) from precipitation
(2) (a) – (i, ii); (b) – (iii, iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (iv, i) (c) Peptization (iii) Purification of
(3) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (iv) colloids
(4) (a) – (iii, iv); (b) – (iii, iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (ii) (d) Tyndall effect (iv) Accumulation of
colloidal sols
2. Match List – I with List – II Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
List – I List – II (1) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)
(a) Precipitation of (i) Peptisation (2) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (iii)
colloidal Sol (3) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii)
(b) Purification (ii) Coagulation (4) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (iii); (d) – (ii)
(c) Gold number (iii) Measure of
protective power 5. Match List – I with List – II
(d) Formation of Sol (iv) Dialysis List – I List – II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (a) Adsorption (i) Enthalpy of
(1) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (iii) adsorption is
(2) (a) – (ii); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (iii) quite low
(3) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)
(b) Physisorption (ii) Rate of adsorption
(4) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii) decreases as
pressure increase
3. Match List – I with List – II (c) Desorption (iii) Rate remains
List – I List – II same throughout
(a) BaSO4 (i) Inhibitor for the process
decomposition (d) Chemisorption (iv) Endothermic in
of H2O2 nature
(b) Acetamide (ii) Catalyst Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(c) Zeolite (iii) Removes hardness (1) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)
of water (2) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (iii)
(d) Nickel (iv) Poison for Pd in (3) (a) – (ii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (iii)
Lindlar catalyst
(4) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii); (c) – (i); (d) – (iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii, iii); (d) – (iv)
82 Surface Chemistry
1. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the 8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
speed of the reaction increases because about enzyme catalysis? [AIPMT-2012]
(1) Adsorption produces heat which increases the (1) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
speed of the reaction [AIPMT 2003] (2) Enzyme action is specific
(2) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the (3) Enzymes are denaturated by UV rays and at high
reaction temperature
(3) The concentration of reactant moleculer at the (4) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature
active centres of the catalyst becomes high due
9. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is
to adsorption
(1) between 0 and 1 in all cases [AIPMT-2012]
(4) In the process of adsorption, the activation energy
of the molecules becomes large (2) between 2 and 4 in allcases
2. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above (3) 1 in case of physical adsorption
certain concentration? [AIPMT-2004] (4) 1 in case of chemisorption
(1) Sodium ethyl sulphate 10. Which of the following statements is correct for the
(2) Sodium acetate (3) Urea spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
(4) Cetyl trimethyl ammounium bromide (1) S is negative and therefore, should be highly
positive [AIPMT-2014]
3. Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous
solution above certain concentration? (2) S is negative and therefore, should be highly
negative
(1) Urea [AIPMT-2005]
(3) S is positive and therefore should be negative
(2) Dodecyl trimethyl ammounium chloride
(4) S is positive and therefore, should also be
(3) Pyridinium chloride (4) Glucose
highly positive
4. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log
11. Which property of colloidal solution is independent
(x / m) vs log p is linear with slope equal to (n being a
of charge on the colloidal particles? [AIPMT-2014]
whole number) [AIPMT-2006]
(1) Coagulation (2) Electrophoresis
(1) k (2) log k
(3) Electroosmosis (4) Tyndall effect
(3) n (4) 1 / n
12. The suspension of slaked lime in water is knows as
5. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced by using
the assumption that [AIPMT-2007] (1) Limewater [NEET-2016]
(1) the adsorption takes place in multilayers (2) Quicklime
(2) the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability (3) Milk of lime
to adsorb the particles (4) aqueous solution of slaked lime
(3) the heat of adsorption varies with coverage 13. The coagulation values in milliomoles per litre of the
(4) the adsorbed molecules interact with each other electroytes used for the coagulation of As2 S3 are given
below [NEET-2016]
6. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of
adsorbent, which of the following relations is not I. (NaCl) = 52,
related to adsorption process? [AIPMT-2011] II. (BaCl2) = 0.69
x III. (MgSO4) = 0.22
(1) ƒ(T ) at constant P The correct order of their coagulating power is
m
x (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(2) p ƒ(T ) at constant (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
m
x 14. Which one of the following charact eristics is
(3) p T associated with adsorption ? [NEET-2016]
m (1) G,H and S all are negative
x
(4) ƒ( p ) at constant T (2) G and H are negative but H is positive
m (3) G and S are negative but H is positive
7. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is
expressed in terms of [AIPMT-2012] (4) G is negative but and S are positive
(1) Coagulation value (2) Gold number 15. Fog is a colloidal solution of [NEET-2016]
(3) Critical micelle concentration (1) Gas in liquid (2) Solid in gas
(4) Oxidation number (3) Gas in gas (4) Liquid in gas
Surface Chemistry 83
16. On which of the following properties does the coagu- 19. Shown below are adsorption isotherms for a gas ‘X’ at
lation power of an ion depend [NEET-2018] temperature T1, T2 and T3 [NEET-2022]
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion T1
(2) Size of the ion alone T2
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone T3
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone x
17. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation m
of negatively charged colloidal [AgI]I– solution?
[NEET-2019]
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI p
(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI x
p and represent pressure and extent of adsorption,
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI m
respectively. The correct order of temperatures for the
18. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is
given adsorption is
exhibited by”, is : [NEET-2021]
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T3 > T2 > T1
(1) NaCl solution (2) Glucose solution
(3) T1 = T2 = T3 (4) T1 = T2 > T3
(3) Starch solution (4) Urea solution
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 01 21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3)
26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3)
1. (2 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (4)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (2)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 02 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (1) 50. (3)
16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) NCERT EXEMPLAR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (1)
26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3) 1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (2)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 03 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (4)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (2) 21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (1)
ASSERTION–REASON & STATEMENT QUESTIONS
46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (2)
51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (4) 1. (3) 2 (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 04
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (4)
56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4)
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (3) 65. (1) MATRIX TYPE QUESTIONS
66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3) 1. (4) 2 (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (3)
ARCHIVE QUESTIONS
MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS FROM NCERT
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (1,2) 18. (3) 19. (2)
16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3)
GENERAL PRINCIPLES
& PROCESSES OF
ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS
Chapter 06
Percentage of Questions in Last 34 Years’ in NEET / AIPMT from this Chapter
Percentage
A • Electrochemical series, Electro- 50%
potential, Nernst Equation
C. 23%
B. 27%
C • Electrolysis 23%
Concentration
Calcination
To drive away moisture
expell volatile impurities
Calcined ore + coke + limestone subjected to smelting in blast furnace
Iron oxides reduced by coke above 1073 K and by carbon monoxide
below 1073 K. Silica present as acidic impurity is removed as a slag
i.e., (calcium silicate)
INTRODUCTION
The branch of chemistry which deals with the method of extraction of metals from their ores. A few elements
like carbon, sulphur, gold and noble gases, occur in free state while others in combined forms in the earth’s
crust. The extraction and isolation of an element from its combined form involves various principles of
chemistry. A particular element may occur in a variety of compounds. The process of metallurgy and isolation
should be such that it is chemically feasible and commericially viable. Still, some general principles are
common to all the extraction processes of metals. For obtaining a particular metal, first we look for minerals
which are naturally occurring chemical substances in the earth’s crust obtainable by mining. Out of many
minerals in which a metal may be found, only a few are viable to be used as sources of that metal. Such
minerals are known as ores.
Rarely, an ore contains only a desired substance. It is usually contaminated with earthly or undesired mate-
rials known as gangue. The extractin and isolation of metals from ores involve the following major steps:
Concentration of the ore,
Isolation of the metal from its concentrated ore, and
Purification of the metal.
The entire scientific and technological process used for isolation of the metal from its ores is known as
metallurgy.
METALLURGY
The scientific and technological process used for the extraction/isolation of the metal from its ore is called
as metallurgy.
The isolation and extraction of metals from their ores involve the following major steps:
(A) Crushing of the ore. (B) Dressing or concentration of the ore.
(C) Isolation of the crude metal from its ore (D) Purification or refining of the metal
The concentrated ore must be converted into a form which is suitable for reduction.
Usually the sulphide ore is converted to oxide before reduction. Oxides are easier to reduce.
Thus isolation of metals from concentrated ore involves two major steps as given below.
(i) Conversion to oxide (ii) Reduction of the oxide to metal.
CONVERSION TO OXIDE
Conversion of ore into oxide is carried out in two ways depending upon the nature of ore.
Calcination : It is a process of heating the concentrated ore strongly in a limited supply of air or in the
absence of air. The process of calcination brings about the following changes :
The carbonate ore gets decomposed to form the oxide of the metal, e.g.,
FeCO3 (siderite) FeO + CO2 ; PbCO3 (ceurssite) PbO + CO2
CaCO3 (calcite ore / lime stone) CaO + CO2
ZnCO3 (calamine) ZnO + CO2
Water of crystallisation present in the hydrated oxide ore gets lost as moisture, e.g.,
2Fe2O3.3H2O (limonite) 2Fe2O3(s) + 3H2O(g)
Al2O3.2H2O (bauxite) Al2O3 (s) + 2H2O(g)
Organic matter, if present in the ore, gets expelled and the ore becomes porous. Volatile impurities are
removed.
Roasting : It is a process of heating the concentrated ore (generally sulphide ore) strongly in the excess of
air or O2 below its melting point. Roasting is an exothermic process once started it does not require additional
heating. Some of the reactions involving sulphide ores are :
2PbS + 3O2 2PbO + 2SO2 ; 2ZnS + 2O2 2ZnO + 2SO2 ;
2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
* Some times roasting may not bring about complete oxidation.
2CuFeS2 (copper pyrite) + 4O2 Cu2S + 2FeO + 3SO2
The reduction of the sulphide ore directly into metal by heating it in air or O2 is called by various names
like self-reduction, auto-reduction, air-reduction etc. The SO2 produced is utilised for manufacturing of
H2SO4.
Most metals of industrial importance are obtained by chemical reduction of their oxide and the free energy
changes occurring during these processes are of more fundamental importance. For a spontaneous reaction
the change in free energy G must negative, G = H – TS.
It is sufficient to consider G because it is related to the equilibrium constant through, G = – RT ln K.
Here a negative value of G corresponds to K > 1 and, therefore, a favourable reaction. Reaction rates are
also relevant, but at high temperature reactions are often fast and we can normally assume that any
thermodynamically permissible process can occur.
The problem of extracting a metal from its ore is essentially concerned with decomposing the oxide of the
metal (apart from simple binary compounds such as metal sulfides and chlorides that occur in nature).
Most metal ores consist essentially of a metal oxide in association with one or more nonmetal oxides. Ores
like carbonates, sulphides etc., are also converted to oxides, prior to reduction.
The free energy of formation G is the standard free energy of the reaction.
y 2x 2
xM O2 M x O y ....(1) or y M O2 M x Oy
y ....(2)
2
G is the free energy of formation per mole of O2 consumed.
If the standard free energy of formation G has a negative sign at a given temperature, then the oxide can be
expected to form spontaneously from the metal plus oxygen. If G has a positive sign, the oxide will be
expected to decompose spontaneously to its elements.
The free energy of formation of an oxide can now be determined, provided we know the entropy of forma-
tion.
G = H – TS ...(3)
In reaction (2) oxygen is used up in the course of reaction. Gases have a more random structure (less
ordered) than liquid or solids. In this reaction the entropy or randomness decreases, and hence S is negative
(provided that neither the metal nor its oxide MxOy are vaporized). Thus, if the temperature is raised then
TS becomes more negative. Since TS is subtracted in equation (3), G then becomes less negative.
92 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
Thus, the change in free energy
decreases with increase in temperature.
The free energy change that occurs
when 1 mol of common reactant (in
this case O2) is used may be plotted
graphically against temperature for
a number of reaction of metals to
their oxides. This graph is shown in
following figure and is called an
Ellingham diagram for oxides.
Similar diagrams can be produced for
1 mol of S, giving Ellingham diagram
for sulphides and similarly for
halides using 1 mol of halogen.
This figure shows a number of oxide
plots with slopes defined by G / T
= – S. It is noted that the entropy
change in reaction (2) is roughly the
same for all metal oxides provided
that the boiling point of neither the
metal nor oxide is exceeded. Thus,
below the boiling point of metal the
slope of all the graphs are roughly
the same, since TS factor is same
whatever be the metal. Figure : Gibbs energy (G) vs T plots (schematic)
When the temperature is raised a point for the formation of some oxides (Ellingham diagram)
will be reached where the graph crossed the G = 0 line. Below this temperature the free energy of formation
of oxide is negative, so the oxide is stable.
Above this temperature the free energy of formation of the oxide is positive, and the oxide becomes unstable
and should decompose into metal and oxygen.
This explains why HgO, for instance, decomposes spontaneously into its elements when heated. Theoretically,
all oxides can be decomposed to give metal and oxygen if a sufficiently high temperature can be attained. In
practice, that are easily attainable and these metals can be extracted by thermal decomposition of their
oxides.
The diagram predicts that MgO and ZnO ought to decompose if heated strongly enough, but it does not hold
out much hope for obtaining say pure Mg by straight forward heating of the oxide to a high temperature
where the boiling point of the metal is exceeded. However the slope increases since the reaction is now
involving a larger entropy change as the randomness increases in reactants. For example,
2Mg (g) + O2 (g) 2 MgO(s)
Here, three moles of gas phases are converted into solid phase in the reaction. This takes place above
1120°C, which is the boiling point of Mg.
Similarly Hg-HgO line changes slope at 365°C. Several of the plots show abrupt changes in the slopes.
These breaks occur at temperature at which the metal undergoes a phase transition.
A smaller effect is seen at the melting point. If, however the oxide undergoes a phase change, there will be
an increase in the entropy of the oxide, and at such a point the curve becomes less steep. For example in the
case of Pb, the oxide (PbO) boils while lead is liquid. In these instances the entropy change becomes
positive for the reaction and hence the slope G/T changes sign, the situation reverting to normal once the
boiling point of Pb is reached.
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 93
In principle, when the plot of one metal lies below that of another, the first metal is capable of reducing the
oxide of the second.
A vertical line drawn on the Ellingham plot of the metal oxides at any T gives the sequence of the stabilities
of metal oxides. A metal forming a more stable oxide (higher – G) will be potential reducing agent for a
less stable oxide. If the two lines intersect, the free energy change for the reduction will be zero at that
temperature and equilibrium results, but a change of temperature will make the reaction proceed provided
no kinetic barriers (activation energy) exist. Thus, Mg metal will reduce CuO and FeO but not CaO. Also,
it is seen that at room temperature (27°C) the order of reducing ability approximates that of standard electrode
potential.
Although the SiO2 line is above the MgO line, Si can successfully reduce MgO to free metal. Upto 1100°C,
the normal boiling point of Mg, the G plot for formation of SiO2 and MgO are parallel. However, above
1100°C the plot for MgO changes slope owing to the increased entropy effect, and above 1700ºC the reaction
between Si and MgO proceeds with decrease in free energy. In practice, the reaction is further enhanced by
the distillation of Mg metal from the reaction mixture.
2MgO + Si 2Mg + SiO2
–100
O2
–200 2C
of O 2 O 2
–300 CO+
2 C + O 2 CO 2
–1
fGº/k Jm ol
2C +
–400 O2
2CO
–500
–600
–700
24. Select correct statement 27. The minimum voltage required to electrolyse alumina in
(1) In the decomposition of an oxide into oxygen and the Hall-Heroult process is [Given, G°f (Al2O3) = – 1520
solid/liquid metal, entropy increases. kJ/mol and G°f (CO2) = 394 kJ/mol]
(2) Decomposition of an oxide is an endothermic (1) 1.60 V (2) 1.575 V
change. (3) 1.312 V (4) –2.62 V
(3) To make G° negative, temperature should be high 28. The main reaction occurring in blast furnace during the
enough so that TS° > H°. extraction of iron from haematite is
(4) All statements are correct. (1) Fe2O3 + 3C 2Fe + 3CO
25. Ellingham diagram represents a graph of (2) FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
(1) G vs T (2) S° vs T (3) Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe3O4 + CO2
(3) G° vs T (4) G vs P (4) CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3
26. Formation of metallic copper from sulphide ore in the 29. Which of the following statement is true?
normal thermometallurgical process essentially involves (1) Reduction of a metal oxide is easier if the metal
which of the following reactions formed is in liquid state at reduction temperature
3 (2) Reduction of metal oxide is normally less feasible
(1) CuS O2 CuO SO2 , CuO C Cu CO
2 at high temperature
3 (3) The oxidation of CO into CO2 will have a negative
(2) CuS O2 3Cu SO2 , 2CuO CuS 3CuO SO2 slope on Ellingham diagram
2
(4) The reactive metals have positive slope for oxidation
(3) CuS 2O 2 CuSO 4
on Ellingham diagram whereas non-reactive metals
3 have a negative slope
(4) CuS O2 CuO SO 2
2
EXTRACTION OF COPPER
From cuprous oxide [copper (I) oxide] :
In the graph of rG° vs T for formation of oxides the Cu2O line is almost at the top. So it is quite easy
to reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by heating with coke (both the lines of C, CO and
C, CO2 are at much lower positions in the graph particularly after 500 - 600K). However most of the
ores are sulphide and some may also contain iron. The sulphide ores are roasted / smelted to give
oxides :
2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
The oxide can then be easily reduced to metallic copper using coke:
Cu2O + C 2Cu + CO
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 97
From copper glance / copper pyrite (self reduction) :
In actual process the ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica. In the furnace,
iron oxide ‘slags of’ as iron silicate and copper is produced in the form of copper matte. This contains
mostly Cu2S and some FeS.
2CuFeS2 + 4O2 Cu2S + 2FeO + 3SO2
Cu2S + FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3 (fusible slag) + Cu2S(matte)
Copper matte is then charged into silica lined convertor (Bessemer convertor). Some silica is also
added and hot air blast is blown to convert the remaining FeS2, FeO and Cu2S/Cu2O to the metallic
copper. Following reactions take place :
2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2 ; FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2 ; 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2 (self reduction)
The solidified copper obtained has blistered appearance due to the evolution of SO2 and so it is called
blister copper.
Electrolytic reduction can be regarded as a technique for driving a reduction by coupling it through electrodes
and external circuitry to a reactive or a physical process with a more negative G.
The free energy available from the external source can be assessed from the potential it produces across the
electrodes using the thermodynamic relation :
G = nFE ...(i)
where n is the number of electrons transferred, F is Faraday’s constant (F = 96.5 kcal/mol) and E° is
electrode potential of the redox coupled formed in the system.
Hence, the total Gibb’s energy of the coupled internal and external process is
G + G (external) = G – nFEext
If the potential difference of the external source exceeds
G
E ext
nF
the reduction is thermodynamically feasible; thus, the overall process occurs with a decrease in free energy.
More reactive metals have large negative values of the electrode potential. So their reduction is difficult. If
the difference of two E° values corresponds to a positive E° and consequently negative G° in equation (i),
then the less reactive metal will come out of the solution and the more reactive metal will go to the solution,
e.g.,
Cu2+ (aq) + Fe(s) Cu(s) + Fe2+ (aq)
n+
In simple electrolysis, the M ions are discharged at negative electrodes (cathodes )and deposited there.
Precautions are taken considering the reactivity of the metal produced and suitable materials are used as
electrodes. Sometimes a flux is added for making the molten mass more conducting.
EXTRACTION OF ALUMINIUM
It involves the following processes
Purification of Bauxite
(i) Bayer’s Method (ii) Hall's Method (iii) Serpeck’s Method
(used for red bauxite containing Fe2 O3 and (used for red bauxite containing Fe2O3 and (used for white bauxite containing
silicates as impurities) silicates as impurities) silica as impurities)
Al2O3 . 2H2O + 2NaOH Al 2O3 . 2H2O + Na2CO3
Al2O3 . 2H2O + 3C + N2
2NaAlO2 (soluble) + CO2 + 2H2O
2NaAlO2 (soluble) + 3H2O 2AlN + 3CO + 2H2O
Fe2O3 insoluble separated as red mud by 2NaAlO2 + 3H2O + CO2 2AlN + 3H2O Al(OH)3 + NH3
filteration Solution is diluted with water and 2Al(OH)3 + Na2CO3 SiO2 + 2CO 2CO2 + Si
seeded with freshly prepared Al(OH)3. It induces Silicone volatilises at this temp.
1473 K
the precipitation of Al(OH)3. Al(OH)3 is filtered 2Al(OH)3 Al2O3 + 3H2O .
Iron
pot
Molten Electrolyte Dynamo
–
(Al 2O 3 + Na3AlF6)
Molten
Carbon lining aluminium
(cathode)
SOME OF THE METALS OBTAINED BY HYDROMETALLURGY
Copper from low grade ores and scraps :
Leaching of cuprite (Cu2O) or copper glance (Cu2S) with dil. H2SO4 in presence of air, gives a solution
of CuSO4 and the impurities present in the ores remain undissolved in the acid. Leaching of malachite
green, Cu(OH)2. CuCO3 with dil. H2SO4 also gives a solution of CuSO4.
2Cu2O (cuprite) + 4H2SO4 + O2 4CuSO4 (solution) + 4H2O
Copper metal can be recovered from CuSO4 solution (obtained as above) either by electrolysing it
(cathode is of Cu-metal and anode is of lead) Cu-metal is collected at cathode or by treating it with
scrap iron which, being more reactive than Cu, displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution and Cu gets
precipitated (Metal displacement method).
CuSO4 (aq) + Fe(s) FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s) ; Cu2+ (aq) + H2(g) Cu(s) + 2H+ (aq)
Leaching of low grade ores and scraps can be carried out using bacteria.
Metals obtained by reduction processes still contain some objectionable impurities and have to be refined.
Refining techniques vary widely from metal to metal and also depend on the use to which a metal has to be
put. Sometimes during refining some substances may have to be added to impart some desirable characteristic
to the metal. In some cases a metal is refined to recover some valuable by products, for example, Ag, Au, Pt
etc., may be present as impurities. Numerous techniques are available, including the following :
Liquation Process
This process is used for the purification of the metal, which itself is readily fusible, but the impurities
present in it are not, i.e., the impurities are infusible. In other words, we can say that the melting point of
the metal to be purified should be lower than that of each of the impurities associated with the metal.
This process is used for the purification of Sn and Zn, and for removing Pb from Zn-Ag alloy, which is
obtained at the end of Parke’s process and contains Pb as impurity.
Distillation Process
This process is used to purify those metals which themselves are volatile and the impurities in them are
nonvolatile and vice-versa. Zn, Cd and Hg are purified by this process.
Zone Refining Method (Fractional Crystallisation Method)
This process is used when metals are required in very high purity, for specific application. For example
pure Si and Ge are used in semiconductors and hence are purified by this method.
Zone refining method is based on the principle that an impure molten metal on gradual cooling will deposit
crystals of the pure metal, while the impurities will be left in the remaining part of the molten metal.
Germanium metal, which is used in semiconductor devices, is refined (purified) by the zone refining method.
The impure germanium metal to be refined is taken in the form of a rod.
A circular heater H is fitted around this rod and this heater is slowly moved along the length of the rod.
When the heater is at the extreme left end of the impure germanium rod, it melts a narrow zone (narrow
region) of the germanium rod at that place.
Now, when the heater moves on a little to the right side, then the molten metal at the previous position cools
down and crystallizes to give pure metal at region X of the rod.
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 101
The impurities, which were initially present in region X of germanium rod, now pass on to the region Y in
the adjacent molten zone. Now, as the heater is shifted more and more to the right side on the germanium
rod, the impurities also keep on shifting to the right side in to the newer and newer molten zones. Ultimately,
the impurities reach the extreme right end Z of the germanium rod. This end Z of the germanium rod
containing all the impurities is then discarded. The remaining rod is now of highly pure germanium metal.
In addition to germanium, silicon and gallium used as semiconductors are also refined by the zone refining
method.
Chromatographic Methods
This method is based on the principle that different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an
adsorbent. The mixture is put in a liquid or gaseous medium which is moved through the adsorbent.
Different components are adsorbed at different levels on the column. Later the adsorbed components are
removed (eluted) by using suitable solvent (eluant).
Depending upon the physical state of the moving medium and the adsorbent material and also on the process
of passage of the moving medium, the chromatographic method is given the name. In one such method the
column of Al2O3 is prepared in a glass tube and the moving medium containing a solution of the components
is in liquid form. This is an example of column chromatography.
This is very useful for purification of the elements which are available in minute quantities and the impurities
are not very different in chemical properties from the element to be purified. There are several
chromatographic techniques such as paper chromatography, column chromatography, gas chromatography,
etc. Procedures followed in column chromatography have been depicted in the following figures.
Electrolytic Refining
Some metals such as Cu, Ni, and Al are refined electrolytically.
The Hooper process is a process for the electrolytic refining of aluminum. Impure Al forms the anode and
pure Al forms the cathode of the Hooper’s cell which contains three liquid layers. The bottom layer is
102 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
molten impure Al, the middle is a fused salt layer containing aluminum fluoride, and the top layer is pure
Al. At the anode (bottom layer), Al passes with solution as aluminum ion (Al3+), and at the cathode (top
layer), these ions are reduced to the pure metal. In operation, molten metal is added to the bottom of the cell
and pure aluminum is drawn off the top.
At anode : Al Al3+ + 3e–
At cathode : Al3+ + 3e– Al
Copper obtained from the reduction of ores must be purified for use in making electrical wiring because
impurities increase its electrical resistance.
Impure Cu obtained from ores is converted to pure Cu in an electrolyte cell that has impure copper as the
anode and pure copper as the cathode.
The electrolyte is an aqueous solution of CuSO4. At the impure Cu anode, Cu is oxidized along with the
more easily oxidized metallic impurities such as Zn and Fe.
The less easily oxidized impurities such as Ag, Au, and Pt fall to the bottom of the cell as anode mud, which
is reprocessed to recover the precious metals. At the pure Cu cathode, Cu2+ ions get reduced to pure copper
metal, but the less easily reduced metal ions (Zn2+, Fe2+ etc.) remain in the solution.
Anode (oxidation) : M (s) M2+ (aq) + 2e– ; (M = Cu, Zn, Fe)
Cathode (reduction) : Cu2+ (aq) + 2e– Cu(s)
Thus, the net cell reaction simply involves transfer of Cu metal from the impure anode to the pure cathode,
Cu obtained by this process is 99.95% pure.
Vapour Phase Refining
In this method, the metal is converted into its volatile compound and then collected. It is then heated so that
it gets decomposed to give pure metal. So, following two requirements are essential for vapour phase
refinning.
1. The metal should form a volatile compound with an available reagent.
2. The volatile compound should be easily decomposable, so that the recovery is easy.
Extraction of Nickel (Mond’s process) : Nickel forms a complex, the tetracarbonylnickel (0), [Ni(CO)4]
with carbon monoxide. This substance is readily volatilized (boiling point 43°C). This complex on heating
decomposes, giving pure metal and CO, which is recycled. The sequence of reaction is
H2O(g) + C CO(g) + H2 ; Ni(s) + 4 CO(g)
50 C
[Ni(CO4)] (g)
[Ni (CO)4](g) 200 C
Ni + 4CO (g)
Van Arkel–De Boer process : Small amounts of very pure metals (Ti, Zr, or Bi) can be produced by this
method. This process is based on the fact that iodides are the least stable of the halides. The impure element
is heated with iodine, producing a volatile iodide, TiI4, ZrI4, or BiI3. These are decomposed by passing the
gas over an electrically heated filament of tungsten or tantalum that is white hot. The element is deposited
on the filament and the iodine is recycled.
50 250 C 1400 C
Impure Ti + 2I2 TiI4
Tungsten filament
Ti 2I 2
The method is very expensive and is employed for the preparation of very pure i.e. ultra pure metal for
specific use.
Aluminium :
1. Aluminium foils are used as wrappers for chocolates.
2. The fine dust of the metal is used in paints and lacquiers.
3. Aluminium being highly reactive is used in the extraction of chromium and manganese from their
oxides.
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 103
4. Wires of aluminium are used as electricity conductors.
5. Alloys containing aluminium, being light, are very useful e.g.: used in body of aircraft, in utensils etc.
Copper :
1. Copper is used for making wires used in electrical industry and for water and steam pipes.
2. It is used in several alloys that are rather tougher than the metal itself e.g.: brass (with zinc), bronze
(with tin) and coinage alloy (with nickel).
Zinc :
1. Zinc is used for galvanising iron.
2. It is used in large quantities in batteries, as a constituent of many alloys, e.g.: brass, (Cu, 60%, Zn
40%) and german silver (Cu 25-30%, Zn 25-30%, Ni 40-50%).
3. Zinc dust is used as a reducing agent in the manufacture of dye-stuffs, paints, etc.
Iron :
1. Cast iron is used for casting stoves, railway sleepers, gutter pipes, toys etc.
2. It is used in the manufacture of wrought iron and steel.
3. Wrought iron is used in making anchors, wires, bolts, chains and agricultural implements.
4. Steel finds a number of uses. Nickel steel is used for making cables, automobiles and aeroplane parts,
pendulum, measuring tapes, chrome steel for cutting tools and crushing machines, and stainless steel
for cycles, automobiles, utensils pens, etc.
6.9 Synopsis
Occurrence : Oxygen is most abundant non-metal while aluminium is the most abundant metal. Hydrogen
is most abundant in cosmic region and water (oceans). More electropositive metals occur as oxides or
chlorides while less electropositive metals occur as sulphides.
Minerals are the naturally occurring solid substances in the form of which a metal exist in earth’s crust.
Ores are those minerals from which a metal can be extracted, conveniently, economically and in large
amounts.
Gangue or matrix is the term used for impurities (earthy impurities) associated with ore.
Flux are the substances used to convert infusible mass into fusible mass called slag. For an acidic impurity,
basic flux like MgO, CaO, etc., are used and for a basic impurity, acidic flux like SiO2 is used.
Metallurgy refers to complete scientific and technological process used for the extraction of an element in
its pure form from its ores. If it is done in aqueous medium, term hydrometallurgy is involved, it is called
electrometallurgy.
Ore dressing or concentration is the pretreatment of ores based on physical properties and without bringing
out any major chemical change in the ore. In case of heavy ores (like tin stone, chromite) gravity separation
is used, for magnetic substances (to separate them from non-magnetic substance) magnetic separation is
used. In case of sulphide ores, Froth floatation process is used. Leaching is done for Ag, Au, Al etc.
104 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
Calcination is the process of heating of concentrated ore below its melting point in absence of air while
roasting is the process of heating of concentrated ore below its melting point in excess of air. Both the
processes are carried out in reverberatory furnce.
Ellingham diagrams are the plots of Gibbs free energy change for the formation of metal oxides against
temperature and for a reaction to be spontaneous, the net G of the two sub reactions must be negative.
However, from these diagram, no idea is obtained about the rate (speed) of reaction.
Smelting is the process of reduction of oxides of less electropositive metals by coke or CO. It is carried out
in blast or reverberatory furnace.
If oxide is reduced by its own, the process is called auto or self reduction. If aluminium is used as reductant
the process is called Goldschmidt alumino thermic process. In case of highly electropositive elements,
electrolytic reduction is used. Hydrogen and other metals like Mg, Na, can also be used as reductant in
some cases.
Refining is the process of purification of metal and is done by distillation (for Zn, Hg, Cd), liquation (for
Sn), electrolysis (for Cu, Ag, Au, Pb, Zn, Al), vapour phase refining (Mond’s process) for Ni and van Arkel
method (for Ti or Zr). Zone refining (for Si, Ge, B etc.) poling (for Cu), Cupellation (for Ag), chromatography
etc.
Metal Occurrence
Copper Copper pyrites, CuFeS2 copper glance, Cu2S
Malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2, cuprite, Cu2O
Zinc Zinc blende or sphalerite, ZnS calamine, ZnCO 3, zincite, ZnO
Aluminium Bauxite, Al2O3.xH2O cryolite, Na3AlF6
Iron Haematite, Fe2O 3 magnetite, Fe3O 4
Tin Cassiterite (tie stone) SnO 2
Silver Aregentite Ag2S, horn silver AgCl
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Silver glance mainly contains silver sulphide. (1) Beneficiation of ores involve the processes which
(2) Copper pyrites mainly contains CuFeS2. are used for the removal of unwanted impurities.
(3) Zinc blende mainly contains ZnSO4. (2) In metallurgy, flux is a substance which is used to
(4) Magnetite is the mixed oxide of FeO and Fe2O3 i.e. convert infusible impurities to fusible mass.
Fe3O4. (3) Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of
2. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is : alumina.
(1) calamine and siderite are carbonates (4) In smelting processes the metal is obtained in fused
(2) argentite and bauxite are oxides state.
(3) zinc blende and galena are sulphides 11. Which of the following processes are used for the
extraction of Mg and Ag respectively?
(4) malachite and azurite are ores of copper
(1) Carbon reduction and cyanide process.
3. Dolomite is mineral whose formula is :
(1) CaMg(CO3)2 (2) MgCO3 (2) Cyanide process and electrolytic reduction.
(3) CaCO3.MgCO3 (4) MgSO4.7H2O (3) Electrolytic reduction and cyanide process.
4. Magnetic separation process is not used for the (4) Carbon monoxide reduction and cyanide process.
concentration of : 12. Slag formed during smelting process in the extraction of
(1) cassiterite (2) bauxite Fe (from haematite) and Cu (from copper pyrites) are
respectively :
(3) haematite (4) chromite
(1) both CaSiO3 (2) both FeSiO3
5. Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide
ores is an illustration of the practical application of: (3) CaSiO3 and FeSiO3 (4) FeSiO3 and CaSiO3
(1) adsorption (2) absorption 13. When bauxite is heated with carbon in the atmosphere of
(3) sedimentation (4) coagulation nitrogen, products formed are :
6. Which one of the following is not a method of (1) Al + CO (2) Al + CO2
concentration of ore ? (2) Al + CO + CO2 (4) AlN + CO
(1) electromagnetic separation 14. Bauxite is leached with :
(2) smelting (1) KCl (2) NaCN
(3) gravity separation (3) NaOH (4) Na2SO4
(4) froth floatation process 15. Leaching the silver and gold metal with CN– :
7. Froth floatation process used for the concentration of (1) is oxidation reaction
sulphide ore : (2) is complexation reaction
(1) is based on the difference in wetability of different (3) is reduction reaction
minerals. (4) is both (1) and (2)
(2) uses Xanthates and fatty acids as collector. 16. Leaching of low grade copper ores is carried out by :
(3) uses NaCN as depressant in the mixture of ZnS and (1) sulphuric acid (2) sodium hydroxide
PbS when ZnS forms soluble complex and PbS
(3) sodium sulphate (4) sodium nitrate
forms froth.
17. Which of the following reactions represents Goldschmidt
(4) All are correct statements.
aluminothermite process?
8. The reason, for floating of ore particles in concentration
(1) 2Al + HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2
by froth floatation process is that :
(2) Al2O3 + 2NaOH + 2H2O 2NaAlO2 + 3H2O
(1) they are light (2) they are insoluble
(3) 2Al + N2 2AlN
(3) they are charged (4) they are hydrophobic
(4) 2Al + Cr2O3 2Cr + Al2O3
9. In which of the following metallurgical processes leaching
is not involved ? 18. Calcium is extracted by the electrolysis of :
(1) Al from Al2O3 (1) fused mixture of CaCl2 and CaF2
(2) Ag from Ag2S (2) fused mixture of CaCl2 and NaF
(3) Mg from MgCl2 (anhydrous) (3) aqueous solution of CaCl2
(4) From low grade copper ore and scrapes (4) aqueous solution of Ca3(PO4)2 solution
106 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
19. The materials which are added along with the calcined 25. Which one of the following reactions occurs during
iron ore into the blast furnance in the extraction of iron smelting in the reduction zone at lower temperature (in
from haematite ore are : iron metallurgy) ?
(1) coke and silica (1) CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3 (slag)
(2) coke and lime stone (2) Fe2O3 + 3C 2Fe + CO
(3) lime stone and silica (3) 3Fe2O3 + CO 2Fe3O4 + CO2
(4) coke and borax (4) CO2 + C 2CO
20. In the extraction of aluminium 26. Extraction of silver from Ag2S by the use of sodium
Process X : employed for red bauxite to remove iron oxide cyanide is an example of :
(main impurity) (1) roasting
Process Y : (Serpeck’s process) : used for white bauxite (2) hydrometallurgy
to remove Z (main impurity) then, (3) electrometallurgy
Select correct option for the process X and impurity Z. (4) smelting
(1) X = Hall and Heroult’s process and Z = SiO2 27. In the purification of aluminium by Hoope’s process,
(2) X = Bayer’s process and Z = SiO2 impurities of silicon and copper are added to molten
(3) X = Serpeck’s process and Y = iron oxide aluminium in order to :
(4) X = Bayer’s process and Y = iron oxide (1) make the melt conducting
21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding (2) lower the melting point of the melt
the slag obtained during the extraction of a metal like (3) smooth deposit of aluminium
copper or iron ? (4) make the melt heavier
(1) The slag is lighter and has lower melting point than 28. Which method is not correctly matched for refining of
the metal crude metals ?
(2) The slag is heavier and has lower melting point than (1) Distillation : zinc and mercury
the metal (2) Liquation : tin
(3) The slag is lighter and has higher melting point than (3) Van Arkel : titatnium
the metal
(4) Mond process : lead
(4) The slag is heavier and has higher melting point than
29. Silver ore dissolves in dilute solution of NaCN in the
the metal
presence of air to form :
22. Choose the correct option using the code regarding
(1) AgCN (2) [Ag(CN)2] –
roasting process.
(3) AgCNO (4) [Ag(CN)3]3–
I. It is the process of heating the ore in air in a
reverberatory furnace to obtain the oxide. 30. Which of the following metals may be present in the anode
mud during electror-fining of copper?
II. It is an exothermic process.
I. Gold ; II. Iron,
III. It is used for the concentration of sulphide ore.
III. Silver ; IV. Magnesium
IV. It removes easily oxidisable volatile impurities
present in the concentrated ore. (1) I and II (2) II and IV
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) I and III (4) III and IV
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV 31. Which one of the following processes involves the
principle of fractional crystallisation for the refining of
23. A sulphide ore like ZnS is first roasted into its oxide prior
impure metals ?
to reduction by carbon because :
(1) Parke’s process
(1) a sulphide ore cannot be reduced to metal at all
(2) Mond’s process
(2) no reducing agent is found suitable for reducing a
sulphide ore. (3) Van Arkel process
(3) the Gibb’s free energy of formation of most (4) Zone refining
sulphides are greater than that for CS2. 32. Which does not represent correct method ?
(4) a metal oxide is generally less stable than the metal (1) TiCl2 + 2Mg Ti + 2MgCl2 : Kroll
sulphide. (2) Ni(CO)4 Ni + 4CO : Mond
24. In the metallurgy of iron, the upper layer obtained in the
bottom of blast furnace mainly contains : 1
(3) Ag2CO3 2Ag + CO2 + O : Van Arkel
(1) CaSiO3 (2) spongy iron 2 2
(3) Fe2O3 (4) FeSiO3 (4) ZrI4 Zr + 2I2 : Van Arkel
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 107
33. Match column I with column II and select the correct (3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS
answer using the codes given below the lists : forms froth
Column I Column II (4) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process
I. Cyanide process. A. Ultra pure Ge 38. Gravity separation method is based upon:
II. Froth floatation B. Pine oil. (1) preferential washing of ores and gangue particles.
process. (2) difference in densities of ore particles and
III. Electrolytic C. Extraction of Al. impurities.
reduction. (3) difference in chemical properties of ore particles and
impurities.
IV. Zone refining. D. Extraction of Au.
(4) none of these.
(1) I–(C), II–(A), III–(D), IV-(B)
39. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(2) I–(D), II–(B), III–(C), IV–(A)
(1) Silver glance mainly contains silver sulphide
(3) I–(C), II–(B), III–(D), IV-(A)
(2) Gold is found in native state
(4) I–(D), II–(A), III–(C), IV-(B)
(3) Zinc blende mainly contains zinc chloride
34. Which of the following is obtained by zone refining
(4) Copper pyrites also contain Fe2S3
method?
40. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is
(1) Highly pure ore
(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates
(2) Highly pure aluminium
(2) Argentite and cuprite are oxides
(3) Ultra pure oxide
(3) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides
(4) Ultra pure metals used as semi-conductors
(4) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
35. Which of the following is not an ore? 41. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) Bauxite (2) Malachite (1) A mineral cannot be an ore
(3) Zinc blende (4) Pig iron (2) An ore cannot be a mineral
36. Which is not a mineral of aluminium? (3) All minerals are ores
(1) Anhydrite (2) Bauxite (4) All ores are minerals
(3) Corundum (4) Diaspore 42. In the manufacture of iron limestone added to the blast
37. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth flotation process furnace, the calcium ion ends in the form of
as a depressant when ZnS and PbS minerals are expected (1) Slag (2) Gangue
because: (3) Calcium metal (4) CaCO3
(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS 43. In smelting the furnace most suitable is
(2) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS (1) Reverberatory furnace (2) Blast furnace
forms froth (3) Open hearth furnace (4) Muffle furnace
108 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
(Concept Builder)
1
(1) Cl(aq ) Cl 2(g) e ; E ocell 1.36 V 11. Choose the correct option of temperature at which carbon
2
reduces FeO to iron and produces CO.
(2) 2H 2O(l ) O2(g) 4H 4e ; E cell
o
1.23 V (1) Below temperature at point A
(2) Approximately at the temperature corresponding to
(3) Na (aq) e Na (s) ; E cell
o
2.71 V point A
(3) Above temperature at point A but below temperature
1 at point D
(4) H(aq) e H 2(g ) ; Ecell
o
0.00 V
2 (4) Above temperature at point A
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 109
12. Below point ‘A’ FeO can : (2) Gº value for the overall reduction reaction with a
(1) be reduced by carbon monoxide only mixture of 1 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen is
(2) be reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon positive.
(3) be reduced by carbon only (3) Gº value for the overall reduction reaction with a
(4) Cannot be reduced by both carbon and carbon mixture of 2 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen will be
monoxide positive.
13. For the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding (4) Gº value for the overall reduction reaction with
to point D, which of the following statement is correct? carbon monoxide is negative.
(1) Gº value for the overall reduction reaction with
carbon monoxide is zero.
110 General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements
• Instructions for Questions 1 to 10 8. Assertion : Wrought iron is prepared from cast iron by
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion oxidising impurities in a reverberatory furnace lined with
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). haematite.
In the light of the above s tatements, choose the most Reason : Haematite oxidises carbon to carbon monoxide.
appropriate answer from the options given below : 9. Assertion : Sulphide ores of Zn and Pb are generally
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct converted into their respective oxides, prior to reduction.
explanation of (A) Reason : The zinc oxide and lead oxide are reduced by
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct carbon to their respective free metals.
explanation of (A)
10. Assertion : CuFeS2 is concentrated by froth floatation
(3) (A) is correct the (R) is not correct
method
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Reason : CuFeS2 is main ore of copper
(Direct from
NCERT)
Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
combination from the options given. (1) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (i, iii); (d) – (i, iv)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i); (d) – (iv)
1. Match the name of the processes given in List – I with
Type(s) of metallurgical methods given in List – II. (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv); (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iv, v), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i, ii); (d) – (iv)
List – I List – II
(a) Hall-Heroult (i) Molten Al2O3 + Na3AIF6 4. Match the following:
process electrolysis. List - I List - II
(b) Dow’s sea water (ii) Molten MgCl2 + CaCl2
process + NaCl electrolysis. (a) Reduction of oxides with Al (i) Ti
(b) Reduction of chlorides with Mg (ii) Cu
(c) Hoop’s process (iii) Molten impure aluminium
+ fluorides of Na+, Ba2+ and at higher temperature
(c) Autoreduction of sulphides (iii) Cr
Al3+ electrolysis.
during reduction
(d) Mac-Arthur (iv) Complex formation and
Forrest process displacement method. (d) Strong heating of metal oxides (iv) Ag
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (iv) (1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i); (d) – (iv) (2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv); (d) – (i) (3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (iv, v), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i, ii); (d) – (iv) (4) (a) – (iv, v), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i, ii), (d) – (iii)
1. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the 8. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
principle of [AIPMT-2003] [AIPMT-2012]
(1) Greater noble character of the solid metal than that (1) Malachite (2) Cassiterite
of the impurity (3) Pyrolusite (4) Magnetite
(2) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state 9. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al 2 O 3 ) by
than in the solid electrolysis of a molten mixture of [AIPMT-2012]
(3) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of (1) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4
impurity (2) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
(4) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of (3) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2
the pure metal (4) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6
2. A solid compount X on heating gives CO 2 gas and a 10. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct.
residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing an excess This is a colourless gas with choking smell of burnt
of CO2 through Y inwater, a clear solution Z is obtained. sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as
On boiling Z, compound X is reformed. The compound a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acideic acts
X is [AIPMT-2004] as a reducing agent and its acid has never been insolated.
(1) Ca(HCO3)2 (2) CaCO3 The gas X is [NEET-2013]
(3) Na2CO3 (4) K2CO3 (1) H2S (2) SO2
3. Which of the following statements, about the advantage (3) CO2 (4) SO3
of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true? 11. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal
[AIPMT-2007] finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with
(1) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents [AIPMT-2015]
for metal sulphides (1) iron (II) sulphide (2) carbon monoxide
(2) The fG° of the sulphide is greater than those for (3) copper (I) sulphide (4) sulphur dioxide
CS2 and H2S
12. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II
(3) The fG° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to and assign the correct code. [NEET-2016]
oxide
Column I Column II
(4) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is
(a) Cyanide process 1. Ultrapure Ge
thermodynamically feasible
(b) Froth floatation 2. Dressing of ZnS
4. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth
process
floatation process. Which one of the following sulphide
ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical (c) Electrolytic reduction 3. Extraction of Al
leaching [AIPMT-2007] (d) Zone refining 4. Extraction of Au
(1) Argentite (2) Galena 5. Purification of Ni
(3) Copper pyrite (4) Sphalerite (1) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1, d - 5
5. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van (2) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
Arkel method ? [AIPMT-2011] (3) a - 3, b - 4, c - 5, d - 1
(1) Zr and Ti (2) Ag and Au (4) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1
(3) Ag and Au (4) Ni and Fe 13. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN–
6. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity ion. Silver is later recovered by [NEET-2017]
to the maximum extent in the pig iron? [AIPMT-2011] (1) liquation (2) distillation
(1) Carbon (2) Silion (3) zone refining (4) displacement with Zn
(3) Phosphorus (4) Manganese 14. Identify the correct statement from the following
7. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal [NEET-2020]
is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprus oxide with (1) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
[AIPMT-2012] (2) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
(1) copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S) (3) Blister copper has blistered appearance due to
(2) Sulphur dioxide evolution of CO2.
(3) Iron sulphide(FeS) (4) Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by
(4) Carbon Monoxide (CO) Van Arkel method.
General Principles & Processes of Isolation of Elements 113
15. Match the elements in Column I with methods of 17. Match List-I with List-II. [NEET-2022]
purification in Column II. [NEET-2020] List-I (Ores) List-II (Composition)
Column I Column II (a) Haematite (i) Fe3O4
(a) Boron (i) Van Arkel method (b) Magnetite (ii) ZnCO3
(b) Tin (ii) Mond’s process (c) Calamine (iii) Fe2O3
(c) Zirconium (iii) Liquation (d) Kaolinite (iv) [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]
(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii) 4 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
18. Which one of the following is not a calcination reaction?
16. Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain
highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature ? 4 (1) ZnCO 3 ZnO CO 2 [NEET-2022]
[NEET-2021]
(2) Fe2O3 .xH 2O Fe 2O3 xH 2O
(1) Electrolysis
(2) Chromatography (3) CaCO3 .MgCO3 CaO MgO 2CO 2
(3) Distillation
(4) CaCO3 2HCl CaCl2 H 2O CO 2
(4) Zone refining
6.15
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 01 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2)
21. (1) 22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3)
6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (3)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 02 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (2)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) NCERT EXEMPLAR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3)
26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1) 1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 03 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1)
30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (1) ASSERTION–REASON & STATEMENT QUESTIONS
35. (3) 36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2)
40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 04 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2)
45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (4)
MATRIX TYPE QUESTIONS
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 05 1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (2) ARCHIVE QUESTIONS
MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS FROM NCERT 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1)
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2)
6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (4)
114 Coordination Compounds
COORDINATION
COMPOUNDS
Chapter 09
Percentage of Questions in Last 34 Years' in NEET / AIPMT from this Chapter
%
C. 1 0
Stability
VBT CFT
Magnetic Properties
ISOMERISM
Structural Stereo
Isomerism Isomerism
Ionisation
Linkage Geometrical (cis-trans) Optical (object - mirror image)
Hydrate
Square planar complexes Octahedral complexes Criteria
Co-ordination
Ma2b2 Ma4b2 Examples
Ma2bc Ma3b3
M(XY)2 M(XX)2b2
M(XX)2bc
The concept of co-ordination compounds arises from the complex formation tendency of transition elements.
These compounds play a vital role in our lives, as chlorophyll of plants, vitamin B12 and haemoglobin of animal
blood are the co-ordination compounds of Mg, Co and Fe respectively.
The co-ordination compounds play important role in analytical chemistry, polymerisation reactions, metallurgy
and refining of metals, photography, water purification etc.
Co-ordination compounds also find many applications in electroplating, textile dyeing and medicinal chemistry.
ADDITION COMPOUNDS :
They are formed by the combination of two or more stable compounds in stoichiometric ratio.
Addition Compounds
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS : Those addition compounds which retain their identity (i.e. doesn’t lose
their identity) in solution are called coordination compounds. For example, when KCN solution is added to
Fe(CN)2 solution, the species formed when dissolved in water no longer gives tests of Fe2+ and CN–.
Fe(CN)2 + 4KCN Fe(CN)2 . 4KCN or K4 [Fe(CN)6] (aq.) 4K+ (aq.) + [Fe(CN)6]4– (aq.)
Other examples are, [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (aq.) + SO42– (aq.)
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (aq.)
2K+ (aq.) + [Zn(CN)4]2– (aq.)
K2[Zn(CN)4] (aq.)
1. Coordination compounds are also acid-base adducts and are frequently called complexes or, if charged then
complex ions.
2. Coordination compound is defined as a species in which metal atom or ion is attached to group of neutral
molecules / ions by coordinate covalent bonds.
Several theories were proposed but none of them could satisfactorily explain the observed properties of
Co(III) ammines and of other similar compounds like Pt(IV) ammines which had been prepared by them. It
was only in 1893, that Werner presented a theory known as Werner's coordination theory which could
explain all the observed properties of complex compounds. According to him most elements exhibit two
types of valencies : (a) Primary valency and (b) Secondary valency.
Primary valency :
1. This corresponds to the oxidation state of the metal ion.
2. This is also called as the principle, ionisable or ionic valency.
3. It is satisfied by the negative ions and its attachment with the central metal ion is shown by dotted
lines.
Coordination Compounds 117
Secondary or auxiliary valency :
1. It is also termed as the coordination number (usually abbreviated as CN) of the central metal ion.
It is non-ionic or non-ionisable (i.e. coordinate covalent bond type).
2. This is satisfied by either negative ions or neutral molecules having lone pair of electrons (e.g.,
H2O, NH3 etc.) or even sometimes by some positive groups.
3. The ligands which satisfy the coordination number are directly attached to the metal atom or ion
and shown by thick lines.
4. Every element tends to satisfy both its primary and secondary valencies. In order to meet this
requirement a negative ion may often show a dual behaviour, i.e. it may satisfy both primary and
secondary valencies since in every case the fulfillment of coordination number of the central
metal ion appears essential. This dual behaviour is represented by both thick and dotted lines. For
example, [CoCl(H2O)5]Cl2 is represented as
H2O
H2O H2O
Cl Co Cl
Cl H2O
H2O
5. Every metal has a fixed number of secondary valencies, e.g., cobalt(III) and platinum(IV) have
six secondary valencies and copper(II) four.
6. The coordination number of a metal in a particular oxidation state is generally fixed but certain
oxidation states of certain metals have found to possess more than one coordination number.
7. The ions/groups bound by the secondary valencies have characteristic spatial arrangements corre-
sponding to different coordination number. In the modern terminology, such spatial arrangements
are called coordination polyhedra and various possibilities are
C.N. = 2 linear C.N. = 3 Triangular
C.N. = 4 tetrahedral or square planar C.N. = 6 octahedral.
8. To distinguish between the two types of valencies, Werner introduced the square brackets [ ] to
enclose those atoms making up the coordination complex and which are, therefore, not ionized.
9. On the basis of the above postulates Werner formulated the coordination compounds, CoCl3 .
6NH3, CoCl3 . 5NH3 and CoCl3 . 4NH3 as : [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
respectively; the species within the square brackets being the coordination entities (complexes)
and the ions outside the square brackets the counter ions. He further postulated that octahedral,
square, planar and tetrahedral geometrical shapes are more common in coordination compounds
of transition metals. Thus, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [CoCl(NH3)5]2+, [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ are octahedral entities,
while [Ni(CO)4] and [PtCl4]2– are tetrahedral and square-planar respectively.
Secondary valency
S.No. Werner complex Modern notation Ionisation Primary valency satisfied by
satisfied by
1 CoCl3.6NH3 [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 [Co(NH3)6]3++3Cl– six (NH3) three (Cl–)
three (Cl–) including one (Cl–)
2 CoCl3.5NH3 [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 [Co(NH3)5Cl]2++2Cl– five (NH3) and one (Cl–)
with dual nature
three (Cl–) including
3 CoCl3.4NH3 [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl [Co(NH3)4Cl2]++ Cl– four (NH3) and two (Cl–)
two (Cl–) with dual nature
4 CoCl3.3NH3 [Co(NH3)3Cl3] [Co(NH3)3Cl3] three (NH3) and three (Cl–) three (Cl–) all with dual nature
10. From the above table it is clear that (i) the solution conductivities of complexes 1, 2 and 3
correspond to 1 : 3, 1 : 2 and 1 : 1 electrolyte respectively and thus the increasing order of the
conductivity can be represented as CoCl3.3NH3 < CoCl3. 4NH3 < CoCl3.5NH3 < CoCl3.6NH3 and
(ii) the complexes 1, 2 and 3 will react with silver nitrate and give 3, 2 and 1 mole of the white
precipitate of silver chloride respectively.
118 Coordination Compounds
(A)
The electrical conductance of the complexes depend upon the number of ions given by them in the aqueous
solutions.
(i) K2[PtCl6] aq
+ 2–
2K (aq) + [PtCl6] (aq)
(ii) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] aq
[Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (aq)
(iii) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl aq
+ –
[Pt(NH3)3Cl3] (aq) + Cl (aq)
(iv) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 aq
3+
[Pt(NH3)5Cl] + 3Cl
–
01 (3) 1 (4) 5
7. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M
1. Which of the following has the highest molar conductivity solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III) chloride. The
in solution? number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be:
(1) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (2) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (1) 0.002 (2) 0.001
(3) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (4) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl (3) 0.003 (4) 0.01
2. An imperfect complex of a complex compound is 100% 8. One mole of complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl 3 gives 3
ionized; the compound is called: moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of same
(1) acid salt (2) complex salt complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 to yield two
moles of AgCl(s). The complex is:
(3) double salt (4) normal salt
(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.NH3
3. Some salts although containing two different metallic
elements give test for one of them in solution. Such salts (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2.NH3
are: (3) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(1) double salts (2) complex salts (4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3].2NH3
(3) normal salts (4) none of these 9. Formation of complex compound can be detected by
4. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic (1) Change in colour
conductivity? (2) Change in solubility
(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (2) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (3) Change in pH
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) Change in electrical conductivity
5. Aqueous solution of which of the following complexes 10. Which of the following is the most likely structure of
would exhibit the highest molar conductance? CrCl3.6H2O, if 1/3 of total chlorine of the compound is
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) K2[PtCl4] precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution:
(3) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] (4) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (1) CrCl3·6H2O
6. Number of ions produced when [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2 is (2) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3](H2O)3
dissolved in water is/are (3) [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl2H2O
(1) 3 (2) 2 (4) [CrCl.(H2O)5]Cl2H2O
sdfs
Coordination Compounds 119
H3C — C == N N == C — CH3 Cl N
2+
Ni CH 2
Pt
H3C — C == N N == C — CH3 N CH
Cl 2
– H2
O—H O
The chelate complexes are more stable than similar complexes containing unidentate ligands. The greater
stability of the chelate complex in comparison to normal complex is called chelate effect. For example,
[Ni(NH3)6]2+ (aq)
Ni2+ (aq) + 6 NH3 (aq) Kformation = 108
Ni2+ (aq) + 3 NH2CH2CH2NH2(aq) [Ni(en)3]2+ (aq) Kformation = 1018
The five and six membered rings are more stable.
It is not necessary that all the donor items present in the polydentate ligands should form coordinate bonds
with the central metal atom or ion i.e. a polydentate ligand which is found to have different denticity in
different coordination compounds is called a flexidentate ligand. Note that in a particular complex denticity
of a particular ligand is fixed, it can not be flexible in the same compound.
EDTA can act as hexa, penta as well as tetra dentate ligand. For example ; EDTA usually acts as hexadentate
ligand but in [Cr(III)(OH)(EDTA)]2– and [Co(III)Br(EDTA)]2– as pentadentate and in [Pd(II)H2(EDTA)]0 as
a tetradentate ligand.
Sulphate ion, SO42– can also be mono or bi dentate ligand. For example ; O
+
+
NH 3 S
en
O O O O
NH3
Co3+ S Co
3+
O
O O NH3 NH3
en
NH3
Ligands which can ligate through two different atoms present in it are called ambidentate ligands.
Examples of such ligands are the CN–, NO2– and SCN¯ ions. NO2– ion can coordinate through either the
nitrogen or the oxygen atoms to a central metal atom/ion. Similarly, SCN¯ ion can coordinate through the
sulphur or nitrogen atom.
Such possibilities give rise to linkage isomerism in coordination compounds. For example ;
O
M N nitrito-N
O
MO—N=O nitrito-O
M SCN thiocyanato or thiocyanato-S
M NCS isothiocyanato or thiocyanato-N
Note : Although ambidentate ligands have two or more donor atoms but during complex formation only one
donor atom can be used by them.
The coordination number of the central atom/ion is de- Some common co-ordination number of
termined by the number of sigma bonds between the important metals are as given below
ligands and the central atom/ion i.e. the number of Metal Coordination Metal Coordination
ligand donor atoms to which the metal is directly Number Number
attached. Pi-bonds, if any, between the ligating atom Cu +
2, 4 Ni 2+
4, 6
and the central atom/ion are not considered for the de- Ag +
2 Fe 2+
4, 6
termination of coordination number. The sigma Au + 2, 4 Fe 3+ 6
bonding electrons may be indicated by a pair of dots,
Hg 22+ 2 Co 2+ 4, 6
preceding the donor atom in the ligand formula as in :
Cu 2+ 4, 6 Co 3+ 6
[Co (: NH3)6]3+, [Fe (: CN)6]3–, [Ni (: CO)4], [Co (: Cl4)]2–. Ag 2+
4 Al 3+ 6
Coordination number of 6 (most common), 4 (after 6) Pt 2+
4 Sc 3+
6
and 2 ( after 4) are the most common coordination num- Pd 2+ 4 Pt 4+ 6
bers and odd coordination numbers are generally not Mg 2+
6 Pd 4+
6
found (rare).
Coordination Compounds 123
02 17.
(3) 36 (4) 32
In the complex [Pt(py)4][PtCl4], the oxidation numbers
11. The oxidation number of Co in the complex ion of Pt atom in former and latter part of the compound
[CoCl(NH3)5]+2 is: are respectively
(1) +2 (2) +3 (1) 0 and 0 (2) +4 and +2
(3) +4 (4) +6 (3) +2 and +2 (4) 0 and +4
12. Which is a pair of ambidentate ligands among the 18. Which of the following is correct value of x in Cr(CO)x?
following? (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) CN–, NO2– (2) NO3–, NO2– (3) 6 (4) unpredictable
(3) CNS–, C2O4–2 (4) C2O4–2, SO4–2 19. The EAN of platinum in potassium hexachloroplatinate
13. What is the coordination number of Cr in K3[Cr(Ox)3] (IV) is:
(1) 6 (2) 4 (1) 86 (2) 46
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 36 (4) 84
14. The EAN of nickel in Ni(CO)4 is: 20. Which one is bidentate ligand?
(1) 38 (2) 36 (1) C2O4– (2) NH2.CH2.CH2.NH2
(3) 28 (4) 54 (3) None of these (4) Both (1) and (2)
15. NH2 . NH2 serves as: 21. The value of x on the [Ni(CN)4] x is:
(1) monodentate ligand (2) Both (1) and (3) (1) +2 (2) 0
(3) bridging ligand (4) chelating ligand (3) –2 (4) +4
16. What is the EAN of central metal in [Ni(gly)2] (At. No. 22. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3] 4– is:
of Ni = 28) (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 30 (2) 34 (3) 5 (4) 6
124 Coordination Compounds
9.3.1
9.3.2
cis– trans–
9.3.3
Ist case : The name of a bridge complex is prefixed by µ–.
If the situation on both sides of the bridge is symmetrical then we can write the name of remaining complex
at one place like
5
(NH3 )5 Cr — OH — Cr(NH3 )5 Cl5
µ–hydroxidobis(pentaamminechromium(III)) chloride
OR we could also have written the name of one side of the bridge ligand and then the name of bridge ligand
and then the other side of the bridge, like
5
(NH3 )5 Cr — OH — Cr(NH3 )5 Cl5
pentaamminechromium(III)–µ–hydroxidopentaamminechromium(III) chloride
IInd case : If the compound is unsymmetrical on both sides of the bridge then we have to follow the second
rule, i.e. write the name of one side then that of the bridge and then that of the second side, like
OH–
(H2O)4 Co Cr (NH3)4 (SO4)2
NH2
tetraaquacobalt(III)–µ–amido–µ–hydroxidotetramminechromium(III) sulphate
126 Coordination Compounds
STRUCTURAL ISOMERISM
9.4.1 IONISATION ISOMERISM P.No.: 253
This type of isomerism occurs when the counter ion in a coordination compound is itself a potential ligand
and can displace a ligand which can then become the counter ion. For example, following complexes show
ionisation isomerism.
[Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3 and [Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4
[Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]Cl and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2.
[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Br2 and [Co(NH3)4BrCl]Br.H2O. [Also an example of hydrate isomers.]
[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 and [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2.
[CoCl(en)2(NO2)]SCN, [Co(en)2(NO2)SCN]Cl and [Co(en)2(SCN)Cl]NO2
This type of isomerism arises in heteroleptic complexes due to different possible geometric arrangements
of theligands. Geometrical isomerism is common among coordination compounds with coordination
numbers 4 and 6.
Coordination Number Four :
1. Tetrahedral Complex : The tetrahedral compounds can not show geometrical isomerism as we all
know that all four positions are equivalent in tetrahedral geometry.
2. Square Planar Complex : In a square planar complex of
Cl NH3 Cl NH3
formula [Ma2b2] [a and b are unidentate], the two ligands
‘a’ may be arranged adjacent to each other in a cis isomer, Pt Pt
or opposite to each other in a trans isomer as depicted. Cl NH3 NH3 Cl
cis– trans–
Geometrical isomers (cis and trans) of Pt(NH3)2Cl2.
Square planar complex of the type Ma 2bc (where a, b, c are unidentates) shows two geometrical
isomers.
a b a c
M M
a c b a
cis– trans–
Square planar complex of the type Mabcd (where a,b,c,d are unidentates) shows three geometrical
isomers.
a b a d a b
M M M
d c c b c d
aTc aTb aTd
Example is [Pt(NH3)BrCl(py)]. Three isomers of the complex [Pt(NH3)(NH2OH)(py)(NO2)]+ have been
isolated and identified.
Square planar complex of the type M(AB)2 (where A A A B
AB are unsymmetrical bidentates) shows two geo-
metrical isomers. Example is [Pt(gly)2] in which gly M M
is unsymmetrical ligand.
B B B A
Similarly, M(AB)(CD) also shows two geometrical cis– trans–
isomers.
Coordination Compounds 129
Note : M(AA) 2, (where AA are symmetrical bidentates) does not show geometrical isomerism. e.g.,
[Cu(en)2]2+ [Pt(ox)2]2–, etc.
COORDINATION NUMBER SIX : Geometrical isomerism is also possible in octahedral complexes.
+ +
Cl Cl
NH3 Cl NH 3 NH3
Co Co
NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3
NH3 Cl
cis– trans–
Geometrical isomers (cis and trans) of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
Number of possible isomers and the spatial arrangements of the ligands around the central metal ion for the
specific complexes are given below.
Complexes containing only unidentate ligands Unsymmetrical bidentate ligands also show fac-
1. Ma2b4 – 2 (aa)(bb)(bb) mer isomerism.
(ab)(ab)(bb) 4. Ma3b2c – 3 (aa)(ab)(bc)
2. Ma4bc – 2 (aa)(aa)(bc) (aa)(bb)(ac)
(aa)(ab)(ac) (ab)(ab)(ac)
3. Ma3b3
5. Ma3bcd – 4 (aa)(ab)(cd)
Complexes of the formula Ma3b3, where a
(aa)(ac)(bd)
and b are monodentate ligands, may show
(aa)(ad)(bc)
two isomeric forms called fac– and mer–.
(ab)(ac)(ad)
Facial isomers have three identical ligands
on one triangular face where as meridional 6. Ma2b2c 2 – 5 (aa)(bb)(cc)
isomers have three identical ligands in a (aa)(bc)(bc)
plane bisecting the molecule. Similar isomers (bb)(ac)(ac)
are possible with some chelating ligands. (cc)(ab)(ab)
NH3 NH3 (ab)(ac)(bc)
O2N NH 3 H3 N NO2
Co Co 7. Ma2b2cd – 6
O2N NH 3 O2 N NO2
NO2 NH3 8. Ma2bcde– 9
fac– mer– 9. Mabcdef, [Pt(py)(NH3)(NO2)(Cl)(Br)(I)]– 15
The facial(fac) and meridional(mer) Note : Ma6 and Ma5b have only one form.
isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3].
Compounds containing bidentate ligand and 2. M(AA)a2b2 – Three geometrical isomers are
unidentate ligands possible.
1. M(AA)a3b – Two geometrical isomers are a a b
possible. A b A a A a
b a
A a A a M M M
M M A b A b A a
A A a b b
a b aTa aTb bTb
a a Note : With [M(AA)b4], only one form is pos-
bTa aTa sible. M(AA)abcd have six geometrical isomers.
130 Coordination Compounds
3. M(AA)2a2 – Two geometrical isomers are possible.
Cl Cl
Cl
en Co en Co en
Cl
en
Geometrical isomers (cis and trans) of [CoCl2(en)2]
en en
dextro mirror laevo
d and l of [Co(en)3]3+
Cis-isomer of [PtCl2(en)2]2+ show optical isomerism as shown below because of the absence of plane of
symmetry as well as centre of symmetry.
2+ 2+
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
en Pt Pt en
en en
dextro mirror laevo
d and l of cis-[PtCl2(en)2]2+
But trans isomer of [PtCl2(en)2]2+ does not show optical isomerism.
cis-[Co(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+ can show optical isomerism due to the absence of plane of symmetry as well as
centre of symmetry.
+ +
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
en Co3+ Co3+ en
NH3 NH 3 NH3 NH
3
M M As As
d b b d H3 C C 2H 5 H 5C2 CH3
–
c c C6H4COO– C 6H 4COO
Mirror plane Mirror plane
Here it may be noted that 4 different groups round the central metal ion are not the only requirement to
make the complex to show mirror-image isomerism. All that is required is that the molecule should be
asymmetric (i.e., unsymmetrical), i.e., it should have no plane of symmetry so that it can exist in two
mirror-image forms.
05 Cl CH = CH Cl Cl
Alfred-Werner described the bonding characteristic in coordination compounds. But this theory failed to
explain certain basic questions like :
1. Why only certain elements possess the remarkable property of forming compounds?
2. Why the bonds in coordination compounds have directional properties?
3. Why coordination compounds have the characteristic magnetic and optical properties?
Many theories/approaches have been put forward to explain the nature of bonding in coordination
compounds; these are valence bond theory (VBT), crystal field theory (CFT), ligand field theory (LFT) and
molecular orbital theory (MOT).
In the diamagnetic octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)6]3+, the cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has the
electronic configuration represented as shown below.
4s 4p
Co3+,[Ar]3d6
[Co(NH3)6]3+
[FeF6]4–
sp3d2 hybrid orbitals
Six pairs of electrons from six F– ions.
In the paramagnetic and tetrahedral complex [NiCl4]2–, the nickel is in +2 oxidation state and the ion has
the electronic configuration 3d8. The hybridisation scheme is as shown in figure.
3d 4s 4p
2+ 8
Ni , [Ar]3d
[NiCl4]2–
[Ni(CO)4]
sp3 hybrid orbitals
Four pairs of electrons from four CO molecules.
Coordination Compounds 135
Complexes of Pd(II) and Pt (II) are usually four-coordinate, square planar, and diamagnetic and this
arrangement is often found for Ni(II) complexes as well, e.g., in [Ni(CN)4]2– (here nickel is in +2 oxidation
state and has electronic configuration 3d8). In as much as the free ion is in the ground state each case is
paramagnetic, the bonding picture has to include pairing of electrons as well as ligand-metal-ligand bond
angles of 90° and this occurs via hybridisation of one (n – 1) d, one ns and two np orbitals to form four
equivalent dsp2 hybrid orbitals directed toward the corners of a square. These orbitals then participate in
covalent coordinate s bonds with the ligands, the bonding electron pairs being furnished by the ligands. The
hybridisation scheme for [PtCl4]2– is as shown in figure.
5d 6s 6p
Pt2+, [Xe]4f14 5d8
[PtCl4]2–
dsp2 hybrid orbitals
Four pairs of electrons from four Cl– ions.
Similarly the hybridisation scheme for [Ni(CN)4]2– is as shown in figure.
3d 4s 4p
Ni2+, [Ar]3d8
[Ni(CN)4]2–
dsp2 hybrid orbitals
Four pairs of electrons from four CN– ions.
It is found that [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is square planar and paramagnetic with one unpaired electron in 4p-orbital.
The hybridisation scheme is as follow.
3d 4s 4p
Cu2+, [Ar]3d9
[Cu(NH3)4]2+
dsp2 hybrid orbitals
Four pairs of electrons from four NH3 molecules.
3–
Note : [Ni(CN)5] is found to be diamagnetic with 2 types of Ni – C bond lengths, out of which four bond
lengths are found to be equal and the fifth one is different. The hybridisation scheme for [Ni(CN)5]3– is as
shown in figure.
3d 4s 4p
2+ 8
Ni , [Ar]3d
[Ni(CN)5]3–
dsp3 hybrid orbitals
Five lone pairs of electrons from five CN – ions.
CN
CN CN
Ni square pyramidal.
CN CN
136 Coordination Compounds
9.5.4
The drawbacks of VBT of coordination compounds are, to a considerable extent, removed by the Crystal
Field Theory.
The crystal field theory (CFT) is an electrostatic model which considers the metal-ligand bond to be ionic
arising purely from electrostatic interaction between the metal ion and the ligand.
Ligands are treated as point charges in case of anions or dipoles in case of neutral molecules. The five d
orbitals is an isolated gaseous metal atom/ion have same energy, i.e., they are degenerate.
This degeneracy is maintained if a spherically symmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal
atom/ion. However, when this negative field is due to ligands (either anions or the negative ends of dipolar
molecules like NH3 and H2O) in a complex, it becomes asymmetrical and the degeneracy of the d orbitals is lost.
It results in splitting of the d orbitals. The pattern of splitting depends upon the nature of the crystals field.
CRYSTAL FIELD SPLITTING IN OCTAHEDRAL COORDINATION ENTITIES P.No.: 257
In an octahedral coordination entity with six ligands surrounding the metal atom/ion, there will be
repulsion between the electrons in metal d orbitals and the electrons (or negative charges) of the ligands.
Such a repulsion is more when the metal d orbital is directed towards the ligand than when it is away from
the ligand. Thus, the d x y and d z orbitals (axial orbitals) which point towards the axis along the direction
2 2 2
of the ligand will experience more repulsion and will be raised in energy ; and the dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals
(non-axial orbitals) which are directed between the axis will be lowered in energy relative to the average
energy in the spherical crystal field.
Thus, the degeneracy of the d orbitals has been removed due to ligand electron-metal electron repulsions in the
octahedral complex to yield three orbitals of lower energy, t2g set and two orbitals of higher energy, eg set.
This splitting of the degenerate levels due to the presence of ligands in a definite geometry is termed as
crystal field splitting and the energy separation is denoted by 0 (the subscript o is for octahedral). Thus,
the energy of the two eg orbitals will increase by (3/5)0 and that of the three t2g will decrease by (2/5) 0.
Z
Energy Y Energy correspond
dx 2
y2
, dz 2
eg to absorption.
3/5 0 or + 0.6 0 average
X + 6L 0 energy (Bari center)
2/5 0 or – 0.4 0
Metal Average energy level
of 'd ' orbitals in spherical t2g
d orbitals dxy, dxz , dyz
crystal field Energy corresponds to
Crystal field splitting evolution of energy.
for octahedral complex
Free metal ion
Figure showing crystal field splitting in octahedral complex.
The crystal field splitting, 0, depends upon the fields produced by the ligand and charge on the metal ion.
Some ligands are able to produce strong fields in such a case, the splitting will be large whereas others
produce weak fields and consequently result in small splitting of d orbitals. In general, ligands can be
arranged in a series in the orders of increasing field strength as given below :
I– < Br– < S2– < Cl– < NO3– < F– < OH– < EtOH < C2O42– < H2O < NCS– < EDTA < NH3 < en < NO2– < CN–
< CO
Such a series is termed as spectrochemical series.
It is an experimentally determined series based on the absorption of light by complexes with different
ligands. For d4 configuration, the fourth electron will singly occupy eg orbital (according to Hund’s rule) or
will undergo pairing in t2g orbital, which of these possibilities occurs, depends on the relative magnitude of
the crystal field splitting, 0 and the pairing energy, P (P represents the energy required for electron pairing
in a single orbital). The two possibilites are :
Coordination Compounds 139
1. If 0 < P, the fourth electron enters one of the eg orbitals giving the configuration t32geg1. Ligands for
which 0 < P are known as weak field ligands and form high spin complexes.
2. If 0 > P, it becomes more energetically favourable for the fourth electron to occupy a t2g orbital with
configuration t2g4 eg0. Ligands which produce this effect are known as strong field ligands and form low
spin complexes.
In tetrahedral coordination entity formation, the d orbital splitting is inverted and is smaller as compared to
the octahedral field splitting. For the same metal, the same ligands and metal-ligand distances, it can be
shown that t = (4/9)0. This may attributes to the following two reasons.
1. There are only four ligands instead of six, so the ligand field is only two thirds the size ; as the ligand
field spliting is also the two thirds the size and
2. The direction of the orbitals does not concide with the direction of the ligands. This reduces the
2 2 4
crystal field spliting by roughly further two third. So t 0 .
3 3 9
Consequently, the orbital splitting energies are not sufficiently large for forcing pairing and, therefore, low
spin configurations are rarely observed.
It considers only the metal ion d-orbitals and gives no consideration at all to other metal orbitals (such as s,
px, py and pz orbitals).
It is unable to account satisfactorily for the relative strengths of ligands. For example it gives no explana-
tion as to why H2O is a stronger ligand than OH– in the spectrochemical series.
According to this theory, the bond between the metal and ligands are purely ionic. It gives no account on
the partly covalent nature of the metal ligand bonds.
The CFT cannot account for the -bonding in complexes.
Coordination Compounds 141
(1) 3 (2) 2 101. The val ue of 0 for RhCl 6 3– is 243 kJ /mol what
wavelength of light will promote an electron from. The
(3) 5 (4) 4 colour of the complex is
94. Which of the following complex ions is expected to
(1) Blue (2) Green
absorb visible light?
(3) Yellow (4) Orange
(1) [Zn(NH3)6] 2+ (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
6 2
102. For the t e system, the value of magnetic moment
(3) [Ti(en)2NH3)2] 4+ (4) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3] 3+ 2g g
(µ) is:
95. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) 2.83 B.M. (2) 1.73 B.M.
(i) In octahedral complexes, dz2, dx2 – y2 orbitals have
higher energy than d xy, dyz and d zx orbitals. (3) 3.87 B.M. (4) 4.92 B.M.
(ii) In tetrahedral complexes d xy, d yz and d zx orbitals 103. Which of the following system has maximum number
have higher energy than dz2, dx2 – y2 orbitals. of unpaired electrons?
(iii) The colours of complexes are due to electronic (1) d5 (octahedral)
transitions from one set of d–orbitals to another (2) d9 (octahedral)
set of orbitals.
(3) d7 (octahedral)
9 (4) d6 (octahedral)
(iv) tedrahedral = , octahedral
4 104. Which ion produces a small crystal field splitting (a
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) weak ligand field)?
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (1) I– (2) Cl–
–
96. In crystal field splitting for a tetrahedral complex, the (3) F (4) All
number of orbitals pushed down in energy are 105. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) 3 (2) zero (1) Effective atomic number of Pt in [PtCl6] 2– = 84
(3) 5 (4) 2 (2) Absorption peak for [Cr III (NH 3 ) 6 ] 3+ = 21680
97. Among the ligands NH3, en, CN– and CO, the correct cm–1
order of their increasing field strength, is
(3) Crystal field stabilization energy of d 2 in weak
(1) CO < NH3 < en < CN– ligand field = (–)0.8 0
(2) NH3 < en < CN– < CO (4) Example of weak ligand field for d5 configuration
(3) CN– < NH3 < CO < en = [MnII F6] –4
(4) en < CN– < NH3 < CO
142 Coordination Compounds
The stability of a coordination compound [MLn] is measured in terms of the stability constant (equilibrium
constant) given by the expression,
n = [MLn] / [M(H2O)n][L]n
For the overall reaction :
M(H2O)n + nL ML + nH O
n 2
By convention, the water displaced is ignored, as its concentration remains essentially constant. The above
overall reaction takes place in steps, with a stability (formation) constant, K1, K2, K3, ...... Kn for each step
as represented below :
ML(H O) + H O ; K = [ML(H O) ] / {[M(H O) ][L]}
M(H2O)n + L 2 n–1 2 1 2 n–1 2 n
ML n nH 2 O
M(H 2 O) n nL
n = K1 × K2 × K3 × ........ × Kn
n, the stability constant, is related to thermodynamic stability when the system has reached equilibrium.
Most of the measurements have been made from aqueous solutions, which implies that the complex is
formed by the ligand displacing water from the aqua complex of the metal ion. Ignoring the charge and
taking L as an unidentate ligand, the stepwise formation of the complex is represented as shown above. K1,
K2, K3 ..... Kn representing the stepwise stability (or formation) constants.
The above is thermodynamic stability criteria, there can be another kind of stability called kinetic stability,
which measures the rate of ligand replacement.
MONOMERIC
Those metal carbonyls which contain only one metal atom per molecule are called monomeric carbonyls.
For examples : [Ni(CO)4] (sp3, tetrahedral) ; [Fe(CO)5] (dsp3, trigonal bipyramidal);
Coordination Compounds 143
[Cr(CO)6] (d2 sp3, octahedral) ; [V(CO)6] (d2 sp3, octahedral, only carbonyl which is paramagnetic having
one unpaired electron ; this is least stable among all the four carbonyls)
CO CO CO
OC CO CO
Ni Fe CO Cr
OC CO OC CO CO
CO CO CO
Ni(CO)4 Fe(CO)5 Cr(CO)6
Tetrahedral Trigonal bipyramidal Octahedral
POLYMERIC
Those metal carbonyls which contain two or more than two metal atoms per molecule and they have
metal-metal bonds are called polymeric carbonyl. For examples : Mn2 (CO)10, Co2(CO)9, etc.
CO CO CO CO
CO CO OC CO
OC Mn Mn CO Co Co
CO CO OC OC CO
CO CO CO
[Mn2(CO)10] [Co2(CO)8]
Metal carbonyls are mostly solids at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.
The mononuclear carbonyls are volatile and toxic. With the exception of Fe2(CO)9, carbonyls are soluble in
hydrocarbon solvents.
Mononuclear carbonyls are either colourless or light-coloured.
Polynuclear carbonyls are more deeply coloured. Fe3(CO)12, dodecacarbonyltriiron(o), For examples : is a
deep grass green solid.
Metal carbonyls find use as industrial catalysts and as precursors in organic synthesis.
The metal–carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess both and character.
The M — C bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon (CO is a
weak base) into a vacant orbital of the metal.
The M — C bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of metal into the
vacant antibonding * orbital of carbon monoxide.
Thus carbon monoxide acts as donor (OC M) and a acceptor (OC M), with the two interactions
creating a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal as shown in figure.
p p*
M s C O
p
Synergic bonding
1. As M — C bonding increases, the C — O bond becomes weaken. The greater the positive charge on
the central metal atom, the less readily the metal can donate electron density into the * orbitals of the
carbon monoxide ligands to weaken the C — O bond.
144 Coordination Compounds
2. In contrast, in the anionic complex (i.e. carbonylate anion) the metal has a greater electron density to
be dispersed, with the result that M — C bonding is enhanced and the C — O bond is diminished in
strength. For example ; in isoelectronic complexes the strength of metal-ligand bond increases and
strength of C — O bond in CO decreases (because bond order decreases) as the negative charge on the
complexes increases.
Thus order of CO bond strengths ;
(a) [Mn(CO)6]+ > [Cr(CO)6] > [V(CO)6]– > [Ti(CO)6]2–.
(b) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4]– > [Fe(CO)4]2–.
Zeise's salt :
In Zeise’s salt structure, the ethylene occupies the fourth coordination site of the square planar complex
with the C — C axis perpendicular to the platinum ligand plane.
Relative to free ethylene the C — C bond is lengthened (from 133.77 H H –
pm to 137.5 pm), and the hydrogen are slightly tilted back from a C
planar arrangement. ||
The bond between the ethylene molecule and the metal ion may be Cl C
K+
considered as a dative bond to an available orbital on the metal.
Pt H H
The bonding scheme is analogous to that in carbon monoxide com-
plexes in which there is a ligand metal donation and a reciprocal Cl Cl
metal to ligand bonding. The extent of back bonding varies depend-
ing on the metal, the substituents on ethylene, and the other ligands K [PtCl3 (2 – C2H4)]
on the metal,
–1
Fe 2+ Cr
Fe (5 – C5H5)2 and Cr (6 – C6H6)2
–1
Coordination Compounds 145
Coordination compounds are of great importance in biological systems. Example being – chlorophyll (the
green pigment in plants); haemoglobin (the red pigment of blood, which acts as oxygen carrier) along with
myoglobin (which stores oxygen and is a regulator of respiration); Vitamin B12, cyanocobalammine, the
anti-pernicions anaemia factor. All of these, respectively, are the coordination compounds of magnesium,
iron and cobalt with the macrocyclic porphyrin and corrin ligands.
There are many examples of the use of coordination compounds in qualitative and quantitative chemical
analysis. The familiar colour reactions given by metal ions with a number of ligands (especially the chelat-
ing ligands), as a result of formation of coordination entities, form the basis for their detection and estima-
tion by classical and instrumental methods of analysis. Familiar examples of such reagents are :
ethylenediaminetetraaceticacid (EDTA), dimethylglyoxime, a-nitroso b-naphthol, cupron, etc.
Some important extraction processes of metals, like those of extraction of silver and gold, make use of complex
formation. Gold, for example, combines with cyanide in the presence of oxygen and water to form the coordina-
tion entity [Au(CN)2]– in aqueous solution. Gold can be precipitated from this solution by the addition of Zinc.
Purification of metals can be achieved through formation and subsequent decomposition of their coordination
compounds. For example, impure nickel is converted to [Ni(CO)4], which is decomposed to yield pure nickel.
EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning. Some coordination compounds of platinum effectively
inhibit the growth of tumors. Examples are : cis-platin (cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and related compounds.
Organometallic compounds are used as catalysts. These catalysts are either of the homogeneous type (soluble
in the reaction medium) or of the heterogeneous type (insoluble in the reaction medium). The catalysed
polymerisation of alkenes at atmospheric pressure and ambient temperature using Ziegler-Natta catalyst
(titanium tetrachloride plus triethylaluminium) is one of the important discoveries of organometallic
chemistry. The first effective homogeneous catalyst chloridotris(triphenylphosphine) rhodium(I),
[RhCl(PPh3)3] for hydrogenation was given by Wilkinson.
Tetra ethyl lead (TEL) is used as antiknock compound in gasoline.
9.9 Synopsis
When solutions of two or more simple stable compounds in molecular proportions are allowed to evapo-
rate, crystals of new compounds may be formed. These compounds compounds molecular or addition
compounds. Addition compounds are of two types :
1. Double salts or lattice compounds and 2. Coordination or complex compounds.
The addition compounds which are stable in solid state but are broken down into individual constituents
when dissolved in water are called double salts. Mohr salt, potash alum, carnallite, etc., are some examples
of double salts.
The addition compounds which retain their identity in solid state as well as in solunon are termed
coordination or complex compounds. In these compounds at least one complex ion is present. In complex
ion, a metal atomm or ion is surrounded by a number or groups through coordination.
Complex compounds are mainly formed by transition metals but to a small extent by other metals such as
magnesium in chlorophyll. Transition metals form complexes due to the following reasons :
(i) small size, (ii) high nuclear charge, (ii) a number of vacant orbitals of equivalent energy where the
electrons donated by ligands are accommodated.
The neutral molecules, anions or cations which are directly linked with the central metal atom or ion in a
complex ion are called ligands. The ligand at least consists one donor atom having a lone pair of electrons
which it can donate to metal atom or ion. Ligands can be classified on the basis of number of donor atoms.
They are termed monodentate, bidentate, tridentate, etc. The ligands having two or more donor groups are
called polydentate. Polydentate ligand is known as chelating ligand if on coordination it results in the
formation of a closed or cyclic ring structure. The complexes, thus, formed are called chelates.
The number of atoms of the ligands that are directly bound to the central metal atom or ion by coordinate
bonds is known as coordination number of the metal atom or ion. It is actually the number of chemical
Coordination Compounds 147
bonds which the ligands form with central metal atom or ion. The most common coordination numbers are
4 or 6. 1he central metal atom or ion and the ligands that are directly attached to it are enclosed in a square
bracket. This is called coordination sphere. It behaves as a single unit. The ions present outside the coor-
dination sphere form ionisation sphere.
4K [Fe(CN)6 ]4
K 4 Fe(CN)6
[Cu(NH3 )4 ]2 SO 24
[Cu(NH3 )4 ] SO 4
Charge on the complex ion = oxidation number of metal ion + charge on the ligands
1. An aqueous solution of CoCl 2 on addition of excess 10. Assertion : [Co(NO 2 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3] does not show optical
of concentrated HCl turns blue due to formation of : isomerism.
(1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2] (2) [Co(H2O)2Cl4] 2– Reason : It has a plane of symmetry.
2–
(3) [CoCl4] (4) [Co(H2O)2Cl2] (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2. In whi ch of th e fo llo wi ng pairs, bo th th e co m- reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
plexes show optical isomerism ? (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but rea-
(1) cis-[Cr(C2O4)2Cl2]3–, cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2] son is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) [Co(en)3] Cl3, cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) [PtCl(dien)Cl] , [NiCl2Br2]2– (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) [Co(NO3)3(NH3)3], cis-[Pt(en)2Cl2] 11. [Fe(NO2)3Cl3] and [Fe(O – NO)3Cl] shows :
3. The diamagnetic species is : (1) Linkage isomerism
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [NiCl4]2– (2) Geometrical isomerism
2–
(3) [CoCl4] (4) [CoF6] 2– (3) Optical isomerism
4. The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in (4) None of the above
the visible region is : 12. Which of the following coordination entities should
(1) [Ni(NO2)6] 4– < [Ni(NH3)6] 2+ < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ be expected to absorb light of lowest frequency?
(2) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ < [Ni(NH3)6] 2+
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6] 4+ (1) [Cr(en)3]3+ (2) [CrCl6]3–
3+
(4) [Ni(NH3)6] 2+ < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ < [Ni(NO2)6] 4– (3) [Cr(NH3)6] (4) [Cr(CN)6]3–
5. Assertion : Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic, 13. Assertion : When NO reacts with FeSO 4 , a brown
whereas potassium ferricyanide is paramagnetic. coloured complex is formed.
Reason : Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is Reason : In the complex, the coordination number
greater than that of ferricyanide ion. of Fe is 6.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. nation of A.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but rea- (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explana-
son is not the correct explanation of Assertion. tion of A
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) A is true but R is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. (4) A is false but R is true
6. Among the following, the species having square pla- (5) Both A and R are false
nar geometry for central atom are : 14. For the square planar complex [M(a) (b) (c) (d)] (where,
I. [XeF4] II. SF 4 M =central metal ; a, b, c and d are monodentate
III. [NiCl4] 2–
IV. [PtCl4] 2– ligands) the number of possible geometrical isomers
(1) I and IV (2) I and II are
(3) II and III (4) III and IV (1) 1 (2) 2
7. The pair in which both species have the same mag- (3) 3 (4) 4
netic moment (spin only) value is : 15. Assertion : CO and CN are referred as acid ligands.
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [CoCl4]2– Reason : In CO and CN vacant type orbitals are
(2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6] 2+ present.
(3) [Mn(H2O)6] 2+, [Cr(H2O)6] 2+ (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
(4) [CoCl4]2–, [Fe(H2O)6] 2+ nation of A.
8. The number of possible isomers of an octahedral com- (2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explana-
plex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2] – is : tion of A
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) A is true but R is false
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) A is false but R is true
9. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cis-platin are : 16. Which one has the highest paramagnetism ?
(1) NH3,Cl (2) NH3H2O (1) Ni(CO)4 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(3) Cl, H2O (4) NO, Cl (3) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (4) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
Coordination Compounds 151
17. Assertion : K4[Fe(CN)6] is diamagnetic and [Fe(H2O)6] (1) d4 (in strong field ligand)
Cl3 is paramagnetic. (2) d4 (in weak field ligand)
Reason : Hybridisation of central metal in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (3) d3 (in weak as well as strong field ligand)
is sp3d2, while in K4[Fe(CN)6] is d2sp3. (4) d5 (in strong field ligand)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 29. Which one of the following complexes would exhibit the
explanation of A. lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour ?
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– (2) [Fe(CN)6] 3–
explanation of A
(3) [Mn(CN)6] 3– (4) [Cr(CN)6]3–
(3) A is true but R is false
30. Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative
(4) A is false but R is true
monodentate ligand X– to form a paramagnetic complex
18. Which of the following is potassium ferricyanide? [NiX4] 2– The number of unpaired electron(s) in the nickel
(1) [K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) K3[Fe(CN)6] and geometry of this complex ion are, respectively :
(3) K3[Fe (CN)3] (4) K3[Fe(CN)4] (1) one, tetrahedral (2) two, tetrahedral
19. Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO 3 (3) one, square planar (4) two, square planar
solution?
31. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2) (NH3)5]Cl2
(1) [Co(NH3)6Cl3 (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is :
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (1) Nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(III) chloride
20. In the complex ion [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] 3+ , the NH 3 molecules
(2) Nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(II) chloride
are linked to the central metal ion by
(3) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(II) chloride
(1) ionic bonds (2) covalent bonds
(4) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride
(3) coordinate bonds (4) hydrogen bonds
32. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses :
21. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one
among the following : (1) -character only
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) TiCl4 (2) both and characters
(3) [CoCl6]4– (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (3) ionic character only
22. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01M (4) -character only
solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III) chloride. 33. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)
The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be : molecules are required to make an octahedral complex
(1) 0.002(2) 0.003 with a Ca2+ ion ?
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.001 (1) Six (2) Three
23. Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero (3) One (4) Two
crystal field stabilizations energy (CFSE) 34. The ‘spin only’ magnetic moment (in units of Bohr
(1) [Nn(H2O)6] 3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ magneton, µ B) of Ni 2+ in aqueous solution would be
(3) [Co(H2O)6] 2+
(4) [Co(H2O)6] 3+ (atomic number Ni = 28)
24. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an (1) 2.84 (2) 4.80
anticancer agent ? (3) 0 (4) 1.73
(1) mer – [Co(NH3)3Cl] (2) cis – [PtCl2(NH3)2] 35. Which one of the following has a square planar
(3) cis – K2[PtCl2Br2] (4) Na 2CoCu geometry?
25. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2] + is : (1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [PtCl4] 2–
2–
(1) 0 (2) +1 (3) [CoCl4] (4) [FeCl4] 2–
(3) +2 (4) +3 (At. no. Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78)
26. The IUPAC name of K3Fe(CN)6 is : 36. The coordination number and the oxidation state of
(1) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) the element 'E' in the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)] NO2 (when
(2) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III) 'en' is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
(3) Potassium hexacyanoiron(II) (1) 4 and 2 (2) 4 and 3
(4) Tripotassium hexacyanoiron(II) (3) 6 and 3 (4) 6 and 2
27. Which of the following will show optical isomerism 37. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at
? no. 27), will the magnitude of 0 be the highest?
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [ZnCl4] 2– (1) [Co(C2O4)3] 3– (2) [Co(H2O)6] 3+
3+
(3) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (4) [Co(CN)6]3– (3) [Co(NH3)6] (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
28. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of 38. Which of the following has an optical isomer ?
the following configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct (1) [Co (en) (NH3)2] 2+ (2) [Co(H2O)4 (en)] 3+
one is : (3) [Co (en)2 (NH3)2] 3+
(4) [Co (NH3)3 Cl]+
152 Coordination Compounds
39. Which of the following pairs represents linkage iso- (1) [Co(en)3] 3+
mers ? (2) [Co(en)2 Cl2]+
(1) [Pd(PPh 3)2 (NCS)2] and [Pd(PPh 3)2 (SCN)2] (3) [Co(NH3)3 Cl3]
(2) [Co(NH3)5 NO3] SO4 and [Co (NH3)5 (SO4)] NO3 (4) [Co(en) (NH3)2 Cl2] +
(4) [PtCl2 (NH3)4 Br2 and [Pt Br2 (NH3)4] Cl2 46. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with four
(4) [Cu (NH3)4] [Pt Cl4] and [Pt (NH3)4 [CuCl4] monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L 4 absorb wave-
40. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3 . 6NH3 (molar lengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue,
mass = 267.5 g mol–1) is passed through a cation ex- respectively. The increasing order of ligand strength
changer. The chloride ions obtained in solution were of the four ligands is :
treated with excess of AgNO3 to give 4.78 g of AgCl (1) L4 < L3 < L2 < L1 (2) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
(molar mass = 143.5 g mol–1). The formula of the com- (3) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (4) L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
plex is (At. mass of Ag = 108 u) 47. Potassium ferrocyanide is a
(1) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 (2) [CoCl2 (NH3)4] Cl (1) Normal salt (2) Mixed salt
(3) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (4) [CoCl(NH3)5] Cl2 (3) Double salt (4) Complex salt
41. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ? 48. The chemical formula of diammine silver (I) chloride is
(1) [Zn(en)(NH3)2] 2+ (2) [Co(en)3] 3+ (1) [Ag(NH3)]Cl (2) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
3+
(3) [Co(H2O) 4(en)] (4) [Zn(en)2] 2+ (3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) [Ag(NH4)2]Cl
(en = ethylenediamine) 49. A square planar complex represented as:
42. Which among the following will be named as NH2 NH2
dibromidobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bro- CH2 CH2
mide?
(1) [Cr(en)3]Br3 (2) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br CH2 CH2
(3) [Cr(en)Br4]– (4) [Cr(en)Br2]Br H2N H2N
43. The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCl4] 2– is : (1) Geometrical isomerism
(1) 1.82 BM (2) 5.46 BM (2) Linkage isomerism
(3) 2.82 BM (4) 1.41 BM (3) Optical isomerism
44. Which of the following facts about the complex (4) None of these
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong ? 50. Which of the following facts about the complex
(1) The complex involves d 2sp 3 hybridisation and is [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong:
octahedral in shape. (1) The complex involves d 2sp 3 hybridization and is
(2) The complex is paramagnetic. octahedral in shape
(3) The complex is an outer orbital complex. (2) The complex is paramagnetic
(4) The complex gives white precipitate with silver (3) The complex is an outer orbital complex
nitrate solution. (4) The complex gives white precipitate with silver
45. Which of the following complex species is not expected nitrate solution.
to exhibit optical isomerism ?
Coordination Compounds 153
(Concept Builder)
1. Which of the following complex formed by Cu2+ ions is (1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ (2) [Pt(NH3)3 Cl]
most stable? (3) [Co(NH3)6] 3+
(4) [Co(CN)5(NC)]3–
[Cu(NH3)4]2+, log K = 11.6
(1) Cu 2+ + 4NH3
8. The CFSE for octahedral [COCl6] 4– is 18,000 cm–1. The
(2) [Cu(CN)4]2–, log K = 27.3
Cu 2+ + 4CN– CFSE for tetrahedral [COCl4] 2– will be
(3) [Cu(en)2]2+, log K = 15.4
Cu 2+ + 2en (1) 18,000 cm–1 (2) 16,000 cm–1
(4) [Cu(H2O)4]2+, log K = 8.9
Cu 2+ + 4H2O (3) 8,000 cm –1
(4) 20,000 cm–1
2. The colour of the coordination compounds depends 9. Due to the presence of ambident ate ligands
on the crystal field splitting. What will be the correct coordination compounds show isomerism. Palladium
order of absorption of wavelength of of light in the complexes of t he type [Pd(C 6 H 5 ) 2 (SCN)] 2 and
visible region, for the complexes, [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] 3+ , [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are
[Co(CN)6] 3– , [Co(H2O)6] 3+? (1) linkage isomers
(1) 3– 3+
[Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6] 3+ (2) coordination isomers
(2) [Co(NH3)6] 3+ > [Co(H2O)6] 3+ > [Co(CN)6] 3– (3) ionization isomers
(3) [Co(H2O)6] 3+ > [Co(NH3)6] 3+ > [Co(CN)6] 3– (4) geometrical isomers.
10. The compoun ds [Co(SO 4 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]Br and
(4) [Co(NH3)6] 3+ > [Co(CN)6] 3– > [Co(H2O)6] 3+
[Co(SO4)(NH3)5]Cl represent
3. When 0.1 mol CoCl 3(NH 3) 5 is treated with excess of
(1) linkage isomerism
AgNO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained. The conductivity
(2) ionization isomerism
of solution will correspond to :
(3) coordination isomerism
(1) 1:3 electrolyte (2) 1:2 electrolyte
(4) no isomerism.
(3) 1:1 electrolyte (4) 3:1 electrolyte
11. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor
4. When 1 mol CrCl3.6H2O is treated with excess of AgNO3, atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the
3 mol of AgCl are obtained. The formula of the complex following is not a chelating agent?
is : (1) Thiosulphate (2) Oxalato
(1) [CrCl3 (H2O)3]·3H2O (3) Glycinato (4) Ethane-1, 2-diamine
(2) [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl·2H2O 12. Which of the following species is not expected to be a
(3) [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2·H2O ligand?
(4) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (1) NO (2) NH4+
(3) NH2CH2CH2NH 2 (4) CO
5. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is
13. What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(1) diamminedichloridoplatinum (II)
(violet) and [Cr(H2O)5Cl)Cl2.H2O (greyish-green)?
(2) diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
(1) Linkage isomerism
(3) diamminedichloridoplatinum (I)
(2) Solvate isomerism
(4) dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)
(3) Ionisation isomerism
6. The stabilization of coordination compounds due to
(4) Coordination isomerism
chelation is called the chelate effect. Which of the
14. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] is
following is the most stable complex species?
(1) platinum diaminechloronitrite
(1) [Fe(CO)5] (2) [Fe(CN)6] 3–
(2) chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum (II)
(3) [Fe(C2O4)3] 3– (4) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+
(3) diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)
7. Indicate the complex ion which shows geometrical
(4) diamminechloronitrito-N-platinate (II).
isomerism.
154 Coordination Compounds
Reason : Bromide ions are present as counter ions in Statement II : It is an anion complex.
the ionization sphere.
13. Statement I : Charge on the complex of ferric ion with
5. Assertion : Co-ordination number of cobalt in the com- EDTA is minus one.
plex [Co(en)3] 3+ is six.
Statement II : EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
Reason : Ethylenediamine acts as a bidentate ligand.
14. Statement I : Ti(H 2 O) 3+ is coloured ion while
6. Assertion : Charge on the complex of ferric ion with Sc(H 2 O)3+
6
is colourless.
EDTA is minus one.
Statement II : Ti3+ has 3d1 configuration whereas Sc3+
Reason : EDTA is a hexadentate ligand. has no unpaired electron and thus d-d transition is not
7. Assertion : The [Ni(en)3] Cl2 has higher stability than possible.
[Ni(NH3)6] Cl2. 15. Statement I : [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is paramagnetic.
Reason : In [Ni(en)3] Cl 2, the geometry around Ni is Statement II : The Fe in [Fe(H 2O) 5NO]SO4 has three
octahedral.
unpaired electrons.
Coordination Compounds 155
(Direct from
NCERT)
Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct (2) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)
combination from the options given. (3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (vi); (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (iv)
1. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II 4. Match List – I with List – II
(a) [Co(NCS)(NH3)5](SO3) (i) –1 List – I List – II
(b) Na[Co(CO)4] (ii) 0 (a) [Ma 3b 2c] (i) All stereoisomers are
(c) Na4[Co(S2O3)3] (iii) +1 optically inactive
(d) Co 2(CO)8 (iv) +2 (b) [Ma 3b 3] (ii) No. of geometrical
(v) +3 isomers = 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (c) [Ma 3 bcd] (iii) No. of geometrical
isomer = 4
(1) (a) – (v); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)
(d) [Ma 4 bc] (iv) Total 3 stereoisomers
(2) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (v); (d) – (ii)
(v) Only one enantiomeric
(3) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (vi); (d) – (i)
pair is possible
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (v); (d) – (ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
2. Match List – I with List – II (1) (a) – (iii, i); (b) – (i, ii); (c) – (i, v); (d) – (i, ii)
List – I List – II (2) (a) – (i, iv); (b) – (i, ii); (c) – (iii, v); (d) – (i, ii)
(a) Ni(CO)4 (i) sp3 (3) (a) – (i, ii); (b) – (v, i); (c) – (i, ii); (d) – (i, iv)
(b) [Ni(CN)4]2– (ii) ds p 2 (4) (a) – (i, iv); (b) – (i, ii); (c) – (i, iv); (d) – (i, ii)
(c) [Fe(CN)6] 4– (iii) sp 3 d 2 5. Match List – I with List – II
(d) [MnF6] 3– (iv) d 2 sp 3
List – I List – II
(v) s p 2d
(a) Zeigler–Natta (i) Organomettali system
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
catalyst
(1) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (v); (d) – (ii)
(b) Wilkinson (ii) Chelating ligard
(2) (a) – (v); (b) – (i, iii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)
catalyst present
(3) (a) – (i); (b) – (ii); (c) – (vi); (d) – (iii)
(c) Ethylenediaminetetra (iii) dsp 2 -hybridisation
(4) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (v); (d) – (ii) acetatocalcate (II) ion
3. Match List – I with List – II (d) cis-platin (iv) can show optical or
geometrical isomerism
List – I List – II
(v) Having application
2-
(a) [Ni(CN)4] (i) tetrahedral in analytical
(b) [ZnCl4] 2- (ii) Tetragonal medicinal field
(c) [Co(en)3] 3+ (iii) Square planar Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(d) [Cu(Cl4)]2- (iv) Square pyramid (1) (a) – (v); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)
(v) Octahedral (2) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (v)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (3) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (vi); (d) – (i)
(1) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (v); (d) – (i) (4) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (v); (d) – (ii)
156 Coordination Compounds
1. Which one of the folloiwng octahedral complexes will 7. Which of the following does not have a metal-carbon
not show geemetrical isomerism? (A and B are bond ? [AIPMT-2004]
monodentate ligands) [AIPMT-2003] (1) Al(OC2H5) 3 (2) C2H5MgBr
(1) [MA4B2] (2) [MA5B] (3) K[Pt(C2H4)Cl3] (4) Ni (CO)4
(3) [MA2B4] (4) [MA3B3] 8. CN– is strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that
2. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside (1) it carries negative charge [AIPMT-2004]
is named as [AIPMT-2003]
(2) it is a pseudohalide
(1) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
(3) it can accept electrons form metal species
(2) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(4) if forms high spin complexes with metal species
(3) sodium nitoferricyanide
9. Considering H2O as weak field ligand, the number of
(4) sodium nitroferrocyanide
unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6] 2+ will be (At. no. of
3. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion Mn = 25) [AIPMT-2004]
[COF6] 3– is (At.no.of Co =27) [AIPMT-2003]
(1) 3 (2) 5
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 4
(3) 2 (4) 0
10. Among [Ni(CO) 4], [Ni(CN) 4] 2-, [NiCl 4] -2 species, the
4. Among the following which is not the bonded
hybridisation states of the Ni atom are, arespectively
organometallic compound ? [AIPMT-2003]
(At no.of Ni = 28) [AIPMT-2004]
(1) K[PtCl3 (- C2H4)] (2) Fe ( -C5H5)2
(1) sp3, dsp2. dsp2 (2) sp3, dsp2. sp2
(3) Cr (-C6H6)2 (4) (CH3)4 Sn
(3) sp3, sp3. dsp2 (4) dsp2, sp3. sp3
5. Which of the following coordination compounds would
11. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex
exhibit optical isomerism ? [AIPMT-2003]
as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (At.No. Of Zn =
(1) Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide
30, Cr =24, Co =27, Ni=28) [AIPMT-2005]
(2) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
(1) [Zn (NH3)6] 2+ (2) [Cr (NH3)6] 3+
(3) Trans-Dicyanobis (ethylenediamine)
(3) [Co (NH3)6] 3+ (4) [Ni (NH3)6] 2+
chromium (III) chloride
12. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical
(4) Tris- (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
isomerism? (en = ethylenediamine) [AIPMT-2005]
6. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer
(1) Cis- [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
species? [AIPMT-2004]
(2) Trans - [Co(en)2 Cl2] +
CH2 (3) Trans- [ Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]
Cl
(4) Cis - [Co(en)2 Cl2] +
Pt CH2
(1) 13. [Co(NH3] 4 (NO2)2] Cl exhibits [AIPMT-2006]
Cl Cl (1) linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and
optical isomerism
(2) linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and optical
Cl Cl
isomerism
Pt (3) linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and
(2)
Cl Cl geometrical isomerism
(4) ionisation isomerism, geometrical isomerism and
optical isomerism
H3N Cl
14. [Cr (H2O)6] Cl3 (at no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment
Pt of 3.83 BM. the correct distribution of 3d electrons in
(3)
H3N Cl the chromium of the complex is [AIPMT-2006]
(1) 3d 1xy ,31yz ,3d z1 2
40. Which of the follwing pairs of d-orbitals will have (3) e t23 3
(4) e t24 2
electrondensity along the axis ? [NEET-2016]
50. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing
(1) d z 2 , d xz (2) dxz, d yz
field strength of ligands to form coordination com-
(3) d 2, d (4) d xy , d x y
2 2
pounds? [NEET-2020]
41. Which of the following has longest C — O bond length? – –
(1) SCN < F < CN < C2O4 – 2–
(Free C — O bond length in CO is 1.128A.)
(2) F– < SCN– < C2O42– < CN–
[NEET-2016]
– (3) CN– < C2O42– < SCN– < F–
(1) [Co(CO)4] (2) [Fe (CO)4] 2–
(3) [Mn(CO)6] +
(4) Ni (CO)4 (4) SCN– < F– < C2O42– < CN–
42. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3– 51. Match the coordination number and type of hybridisation
[NEET-2017] with distribution of hybrid orbitals in space based on
Valence bond theory.
(1) It is sp 3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Coordination No. Distribution of hybrid
(2) It is sp 3 d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
& type of hybri. orbitals in space
(3) It is d 2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
(a) 4, sp3 (i) trigonal
(4) It is dsp 2 hybridised and square planar
bipyramidal
43. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption
(b) 4, dsp2 (ii) octahedral
in the visible region for the complexes of CO3+ is
[NEET-2017] (c) 5, sp3d (iii) tetrahedral
(1) [Co(en)3] 3+ ,[Co(NH3)6] 3+ [Co(H2O6)] 3+ (d) 6, d2sp3 (iv) square planar
(2) [Co(H2O)6] 3+ ,[CO(en3)] ]3+, [Co(NH3)6] 3+ Select the correct option : [NEET-2020]
(3) [Co(H2O6)3] 3+ ,[Co(NH3)3+], [Co(NH3)6] 3+ (1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
(4) [Co(NH3)6] 3+ ,[Co(en3)3+], [Co(H2O)6] 3+ (2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
44. The correct order of the stoichiometrics of AgCl formed (3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes : (4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
CoCl3 6NH3 , CoCl3. 5NH3 . 4NH3 respectively is 52. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which
(1) 1 AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl [NEET-2017] of the following particles ? [NEET-2021]
(2) 3 AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl (1) Beta ( –) (2) Alpha ()
(3) 3 AgCl, 2Agcl, 1AgCl (3) Gamma () (4) Neutron (n)
(4) 2 AgCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl
Coordination Compounds 159
53. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : 56. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as As-
(1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" sertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
donor atoms [NEET-2021] [NEET-2022]
(2) Unidentate ligand Assertion (A): The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls
(3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms possesses both and character..
(4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms Reason (R): The ligand to metal bond is a bond and
54. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2021] metal to ligand bond is a bond.
List-I List-II In the light of the above statements, choose the most ap-
propriate answer from the options given below:
(a) [Fe(CN)6] 3– (i) 5.92 BM
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(b) [Fe(H2O)6] 3+ (ii) 0 BM
explanation of (A)
(c) [Fe(CN)6] 4– (iii) 4.90 BM
2+
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(d) [Fe(H2O)6] (iv) 1.73 BM correct explanation of (A)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii (2) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii (4) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii 57. The IUPAC name of the complex
55. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2022] [Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is: [NEET-2022]
List-I List-II (1) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
(Complexes) (Types) (2) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
(a) [Co(NH3) 5NO2]Cl2 (i) Ionisation (3) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
& [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 isomerism (4) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
(b) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] (ii) Coordination 58. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for
& [Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6] isomerism the color of complexes [NEET-2022]
(c) [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br (iii) linkage (i) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2] 2+
& [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 isomerism (ii) [Ni(H2O)4(en)] 2+ and
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 & (iv) solvate (ii) [Ni(en)3] 2+ is
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O isomerism (1) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (2) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(1) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv (2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i (3) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv (4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i (4) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
160 Coordination Compounds
9.15
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 01 MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS FROM NCERT
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4) 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 02
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (2)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (2) 21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (2)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 03
41. (2) 42. (3) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3)
26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (3)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2) NCERT EXEMPLAR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 04
6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (4)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (1) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)
46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4) 50. (2)
51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) ASSERTION–REASON & STATEMENT QUESTIONS
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 05
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
56. (4) 57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (1)
61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (2) 65. (1)
66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2) MATRIX TYPE QUESTIONS
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (1) ARCHIVE QUESTIONS
76. (1) 77. (1) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (2)
81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (4) 85. (3) 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4)
86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (2)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 07 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2)
91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (1)
96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (4) 99. (2) 100. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (2)
101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (1) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3)
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM (DPP) – 08 41. (2) 42. (3) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (2)
46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (4)
106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (4) 109. (2) 110. (1)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3)
111. (2) 112. (3) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (2)
116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (1) 119. (4) 120. (2) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (1)