VANI VIDYALAYA SENIOR SECONDARY AND JUNIOR COLLEGE

CLASS-XII – CHEMISTRY
QUESTION BANK
UNIT-1 : SOLUTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Pressure does not have any significant effect on solubility of solids in liquids because:
(A) Solids are highly compressible
(B) Liquids are highly compressible
(C) Solubility of solid in liquid is directly proportional to partial pressure
(D) Solids and liquids are highly incompressible
2. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point higher than either of the two solution when it:
(A) Show a negative deviation from Rault’s law
(B) Show a positive deviation from Rault’s law
(C) Saturated
(D) No deviation from Rault’s law
3. An azeotropic solution of two liquids will have a boiling point lower than either of the two solution when it:
(A) Show a negative deviation from Rault’s law
(B) Forms an ideal solution
(C) Show a positive deviation from Rault’s law
(D) Is Saturated
4. Vapour pressure of dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mmHg at 373 k. The mole fraction of solute is:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. The freezing point of 0.2 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is: (Kf for water = 1.86 Kkg/mol)
(A) -0.372 °C (B) -1.86 °C (C) +0.372 °C (D) +1.86 °C
6. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases if:
(A) The volume of the solution increases
(B) The number of solute molecules increases
(C) Temperature is decreased
(D) Solution constant (R) is increased

7. A compound CaCl2.6H2O undergoes complete dissociation in water. The Van’t Hoff factor (i) is:
(A) 9 (B)6 (C) 3 (D) 4
Assertion and Reason:
1 . Assertion (A): Elevation in boiling point is a colligative property.
Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure of solution causes elevation in boiling point.
2. Assertion (A): When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R): The vapour pressure of solution increases which causes depression in freezing point.
3. Assertion (A): Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
Reason (R): Osmotic pressure of a solution depends on the molar concentration of solute at any
temperatureT.
Answer the following questions:
1. Calculate molality of 2.5g ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) in 75g of Benzene.
2. A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% by weight. What would be the molality of the solution?
3. Why are aquatic species more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm water ?
4. Gas (A) is more soluble in water than gas (B) at same temperature. Which one of the two gases have higher
value of KH (Henry’s constant) and why?
4. State Rault’s law for a solution containing volatile components. Write two characteristics of solution which
obeys Rault’s law at all concentration.
5. How does Rault’s law become a special case of Henry’s law?
6. The vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘X’ and pure liquid ‘Y’ at 25 °C are 120 mmHg and 160 mmHg
respectively. If equal moles of X and Y are mixed to form an ideal solution, calculate the vapour pressure of
the solution.
7. A solution containing 2 g of glucose (M = 180 g mol-1) in 100 g of water is prepared at 303 K. If the
vapour pressure of pure water at 303 K is 32.8 mm Hg, what would be the vapour pressure of the solution ?
8. Write two differences between ideal solutions and non- ideal solutions
9. Define ideal solution. Which of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution:
(a) Benzene and Toluene
(b) N-Hexane and n-heptane
(c) Ethanol and Acetone
(d) Bromoethane and Chloroethane
10. What type of deviation is shown by a mixture of ethanol and acetone? Give reason.
11. What type of deviation from Rault’s law is shown by a mixture of ethanol and acetone? Give reason.
12. Define Azeotropes.
13. Define Azeotropes. What type of azeotrope is formed by negative deviation from Rault’s law? Give reason.
14. In a non-ideal solution what type of deviation is shows the formation of maximum boiling azeotropes.
15. Identify which liquid will have a higher vapour pressure at 90°C if the boiling points of two liquids A and B
are 140°C and 180°C respectively.
16. 30 g of urea (M = 60 g/mol) dissolved in 846 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this
solution if vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg.
17. Vapour pressure of water at 20 °C is 17.5 mmHg. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 20 °C when 15g
of glucose (Molar mass=180 g/mol) is dissolved in 150g of water.
18. Define Molal Elevation Constant (Kb).
19. Calculate the molar mass of a compound when 6.3 g of it is dissolved in 27 g of chloroform to form a
solution that has a boiling point of 68.04 °C. The boiling point of pure chloroform is 61.04 °C and Kb for
chloroform is 3.36 °C kg mol-1.
20. Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (Vitamin C-C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75g of acetic acid to lower its
boiling point by 1.5°C. Given [Kb=3.9 Kkg/mol].
21. Calculate the boiling point of the solution when 4g of MgSO4 (Molar mass=120 g/mol) was dissolved in
100g of water assuming MgSO4 undergoes complete ionization. [Kb for water=0.52 Kkg/mol].
22. Visha took two aqueous solution, one containing 7.5g of urea (Molar Mass = 60g/mol) and the other
containing 42.75g of substance ‘Z’ in 100g of water respectively. It was observed that both the solution
froze at the same temperature. Calculate the molar mass of ‘Z’.
23. A 4% solution (w/w) of sucrose (M=342 g/mol) in water has a freezing point of 5% glucose (M=180 g/mol)
in water. Given freezing point of pure water is 273.15 k.
24. A 10% solution (by mass) of sucrose in water has a freezing point of 269.15 k. Calculate the freezing point
of 10% glucose in water if the freezing point of pure water is 273.15 k.
25. 1g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 0.40 k.
(Given Kf=5.12 Kkg/mol)
26. When 19.5 of F-CH2-COOH (molar mass=78 g/mol) is dissolved in 500g of water, the depression in
freezing point is observed to be 1°C. Calculate the degree of dissociation of F-CH2-COOH. (Given Kf for
pure water=1.86 K kg mol-1).
27. Calculate the mass of CaCl2 (molar mass = 111 g mol-1) to be dissolved in 500 g of water to lower its
freezing point by 2K, assuming that CaCl2 undergoes complete dissociation. (Kf for pure water=1.86 K kg
mol-1).
28. For 5% solution of urea (Molar Mass = 60g/mol). Calculate the osmotic pressure at 300k. (Given [R=0.0821
Latm/k/mol).
29. A solution containing 15g of urea (molar mass=60 g/mol) per litre of solution in water has the same osmotic
pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (molar mass=180 g/mol) in water in one litre of its solution.
30. What happen when we place blood cells in saline water solution (Hypertonic solution)? Give reason.
31. Give reason why:
(a) Measuring of osmotic pressure method is preferred for determination of molar mass of macromolecules
such as protein and polymers
(b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than warm water
(c) Elevation of boiling point of 1M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1M of sugar solution.
32. Define Molality and Abnormal molar mass.
33. Predict whether Van’t Hoff factor will be less or greater than one, when Ethanoic acid is dissolved in
benzene.
34. If benzoic acid (M=122 g/mol) is associated into a dimer when dissolved in benzene and the osmotic
pressure of solution of 6.1g of benzoic acid in 100mL benzene is 6.5 atm at 27 °C, then what is the
percentage association of benzoic acid? . (Given [R=0.0821 Latm/k/mol).
35. Define reverse osmosis.
 UNIT: 2 - ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which of the following solution of KCl will have the highest value for molar conductivity?
a) 0.01M b) 1M c) 0.5M d) 0.1M
2-
2. The molar ionic conductivities of Mg and SO4 are 106.0 S cm mol and 160.0 S cm2 mol-1 respectively.
2+ 2 -1

The value of limiting molar conductivity of MgSO4 will be:

a) 266 S cm2 mol-1 b) 622 S cm2 mol-1 c) 288 S cm2 mol-1 d) 822 S cm2 mol-1
3. The number of faradays passed through a solution of CuSO4 to produced 1 mol of Cu and O2 will be:
a) 1.0 b) 4.0 c) 8.0 d) 2.0
4. Corrosion of iron is:
a) a decomposition process b) a photochemical process
c) an electrochemical process d) a reduction process

Assertion and Reason:

1. Assertion (A): For a Daniell cell, Zn  Zn2+ (1M)  Cu2+ (1M)  Cu with Eocell = 1.1 V, if the external
opposing potential is more than 1.1 V, the electrons flow from Cu to Zn.
Reason (R): Cell acts like a galvanic cell.
2. Assertion (A): Conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
Reason (R): Number of Ions per unit volume that carry current in a solution decreases on dilution.
3. Assertion (A): ᴧm for weak electrolytes show a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is diluted.
Reason (R): For weak electrolytes, degree of dissociation decreases with dilution of solution.
4. Assertion (A): Limiting molar conductivity (°m) is obtained by extrapolation m vs c½ curves as for strong
electrolyte.
Reason (R): for weak electrolytes is obtained by using Kohlrausch’s Law.
Answer the following:
1. Give two points of difference between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell.
2. Answer the following questions :
a. What is the function of the salt bridge in a galvanic cell ?
b. When does galvanic cell behave like an electrolytic cell ?
c. Can copper sulphate solution be stored in a pot made of zinc ? Explain with the help of the value of
Eocell. (𝐸°𝐶𝑢2+/𝐶𝑢 = +0.34 V) (E°𝑍𝑛2+/𝑍𝑛 = -0.76 V).
3. Out of the following pairs, predict with reason which pair will allow greater conduction of electricity:
i) Silver wire at 30°C or Silver wire at 60°C
ii) 0.1M of CH3COOH solution or 1M CH3COOH solution
iii) KCl solution at 20°C or KCl solution at 50°C
4. Conductivity of CH3COOH decreases on dilution, why?
5. Calculate the half-cell potential at 298k for the reaction: Zn2+ + 2e-  Zn
If [Zn]2+=0.1M and 𝐸°𝑍𝑛2+/𝑍𝑛 = -0.76 V
6. Calculate emf of the following cell:
Zn (s) Zn2+ (0.1M)  Ag+ (0.01M)  Ag (s)
Given : E°𝑍𝑛2+/𝑍𝑛 = -0.76 V, E°Ag2+/Ag = +0.80 V [log 10=1]
7. Calculate emf of the following cell at 298K:
Ag (s)  Ag+ (0.001M)  Cu2+ (0.1M)  Cu (s)
[Given E◦cell = +0.46V, 1F=96500).
8. Write the cell reaction and calculate emf of the following cell at 298k:
Sn (s)  Sn2+ (0.004M)  H+(0.020M) H2
Given:E°𝑆𝑛2+/𝑆𝑛=-0.14V and 𝐸°𝐻+/𝐻 = +0.00 V
9. Calculate E◦cell for the following reaction:
Al (s)  Al3+ (0.001M)  Ni2+ (0.1M)  Ni (s) cell at 298k:
Given : 𝐸°𝐴𝑙3+/𝐴𝑙 = -1.66 V and 𝐸°𝑁𝑖2+/𝑁𝑖 = -0.25 V and log10 = 1
10. Write Nernst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K:
Cr (s)  Cr3+ (0.1M)  Fe2+ (0.01M)  Fe (s)
Given : 𝐸°𝐶𝑟3+/𝐶𝑟 = -0.75 V and 𝐸°𝐹𝑒2+/𝐹𝑒 = +0.045 V
11. E◦cell for the given redox reaction is 2.17V:
Mg (s) + Cu2+ (0.01M) Mg2+ (0.001M) + Cu (s)
Calculate Ecell for the reaction.
Write the direction of flow of current when an external opposite potential applied is:
i) Less than 2.71V
ii) Greater than 2.17V
12. Calculate E◦cell for the following reaction at 273 k:
2Al (s) + 3Cu2+ (0.01M) 2Al3+ (0.01M) + 3Cu (s)
Given: Ecell = 1.98V
13. Calculate ∆G◦ for the following reaction: Cd2+ (aq) + Zn (s) Zn2+ (aq) + Cd (s)
° 2+/ ° 2+
Given : 𝐸 𝐶𝑑 𝐶𝑑 = -0.403 V and 𝐸 𝑍𝑛 /𝑍𝑛 = -0.763 V
14. Calculate ∆G◦ for the reaction:
Mg (s) + Cu2+ Mg2+ + Cu (s) Given Ecell = +2.71V, 1F=96500C
15. The standard electrode potential (E°) of Daniel cell is 1.1V. Calculate ∆G◦ for the reaction:
Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s) (Given: 1F=96500C).
◦
16. Calculate ∆G for the following reaction:
Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s)
Given : 𝐸 𝑍𝑛 /𝑍𝑛 = -0.76 V and 𝐸°𝐶𝑢2+/𝐶𝑢 = +0.34 V, R=8.314 JK-1mol-1 ,1F=96500C.
° 2+

17. Calculate max. work and logKc for the given reaction: Ni (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) Ni2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
° 2+ ° +
Given : 𝐸 Ni /Ni = -0.25 V and 𝐸 Ag /Ag = +0.80 V , 1F=96500 C.
18. For the reaction-
2AgCl (s) + H2 (g) (1atm) 2Ag (s) + 2H+ (0.1M) +2Cl- (0.1M) . Calculate e.m.f of the cell.
3+ -
19. The cell in which the following reaction occurs: 2Fe (aq) + 2I (aq) 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 (s)
Has E◦cell = +0.236 V at 298 k. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy of the cell reaction.
20. Calculate E◦cell and ∆G◦ for the following reaction at 25°C:
A2+ + B+ A3+ + B (Given: Kc=1010, 1F=96500C)
21. In plot of molar conductivity (ᴧm) Vs square root of concentration (c1/2), following curves are obtained for
two electolytes A and B:

Answer the following:

i) Predict the nature of electrolytes A and B
ii) What happen on extrapolation of ᴧm to concentration approaching zero for eletrolytes A and B?

22. With the help of graph explain why it is not used possible to determine °m for a week electrolyte by
extrapolating the molar conductivity (m) vs c½ curves as for strong electrolyte.
23. Conductivity of 2×10-3 M methanoic acid is 8×10-5 Scm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity and degree of
dissociation if for methanoic acid is 404 Scm2mol-1.
24. Conductivity of 0.01M solution of CH3COOH is 3.905×10-5 Scm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity and
degree of dissociation.
+
25. The molar conductivity of NH4 and Cl- ions are 73.8 Scm2mol-1 and 76.2 Scm2mol-1 respectively. The
conductivity of 0.1M NH4Cl is 1.29×10-2 Scm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity (m) and degree of
dissociation.
26. Name the cell which was used in Apollo space programme.
27. Name the cell used in Hearing aids and watches.
28. Give two advantages of fuel cells.
29. Name the cell which:
a) is used in automobiles and inverters
b) is suitable for hearing aids and watches
c) was used in Apollo Space Program
d)does not give study potential and is used in transistors
30. Give Reasons:
i) Mercury cell delivers are constant potential during its lifetime.
ii) In the experimental determination of electrolytic conductance direct current (DC) is not used.

31. Define fuel cell with an example. What advantage do the fuel cells have over primary and secondary
batteries?
32. Write anode and cathode reaction that occurs in dry cell. How does a dry cell differ from mercury cell?
33. How much charge in terms of Faraday is required for the following:
- 2+
(i) 1 mol of MnO 4 4 to Mn
(ii) 1 mol of H2O to O2
34. How many electrons flow through a metallic wire if a current 0.5A is passed for 2 hours. (Given
1F=96500C).
35. Calculate the time to deposite 1.5g of silver at cathode when a current of 1.5A was passed through the
solution of AgNO3. (Given: Molar mass of Ag=108g, 1F=96500C).
36. When a steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells A and B containing electrolytes
ZnSO4 and CuSO4 connected in series, 2g of Cu were deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the
current flow? What mass of Zn was deposited at cathode of cell A?
[At. Mass of Cu=63.5g and Zn=65g], 1F=96500C.
37. A steady current of 2 amperes was passed through two electrolytic cells X and Y connected in series
containing electrolytes FeSO4 and ZnSO4 untill 2.8g of Fe deposited at the cathode of cell X. How long did
thecurrent flow? Calculate the mass of Zn deposited at cathode of cell Y?
[Molar Mass of Fe=56g and Zn=65.3g], 1F=96500C.
38. Name the metal used for refining copper metal.
39. Write the product obtained at cathode on electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl.
40. On the basis of E° value, O2 gas should be liberate at anode but it is Cl2 gas which is liberated in the
electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.
41. Out of zinc and tin, whose coating is better to protect iron objects?
42. Using E° value of A and B, predict which is better for coating the surface of iron [E° (Fe2+/Fe)=-0.44V] to
prevent corrosion and why?
[Given: E°(A2+/A)=-2.37, E°(B2+/B)=-0.14].
 UNIT- 3 : CHEMICAL KINETICS

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. For a reaction 2A→3B, rate of is equal to:
(a) (B) (C) (D)
2. In effective collisions the colliding molecules must have :
a) Proper orientation only b) A certain minimum amount of activation energy
c) Threshold energy only d) Threshold energy and proper orientation both
3. In a given graph of zero order reaction, the slope and intercept are :
a) Slope = k, Intercept = [R]o b) Slope = -k, Intercept = [R]o
c) Slope = k/2.302, Intercept = ln[R]o d) Slope = -k/2.302, Intercept = ln A
4. For a zero order reaction of the type A → Product, the rate equation may be expressed as:

a) b) c) d) 𝑡
5. The slope in the plot of [R] vs time for a zero order reaction is:
a) b) – c) d)
6. For a reaction A + 2B C + D, the rate is given by r= k[A][B]2, the concentration of ‘A’ is
kept constant while that of ‘B’ is doubled. The rate of reaction will be:
a) double b) becomes half c) not change d) quadruple

Answer the following:

1. For the reaction:

The rate of formation of NO2 is 2.8 × 10-3 Ms-1. Calculate the rate of disappearance of N2O5 (g).
2. How will the rate of reaction be affected when:
a) Surface area of reactant is reduced
b) Catalyst is added to reversible reaction
c) Temperature of the reaction is increased
d) Surface area of reactant is increased
e) Temperature of the reaction is decreased
3. Define the following terms :
(a) Molecularity of reaction
(b) Complex reaction
4. For a reaction:

The proposed mechanism is given below:

i) Write the rate for the reaction

ii) Write the overall order of reaction
iii) Out of step (1) and (2) which one is rate determining step?
5. The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. If red constant (k) is 4 × 10-3
Ms-1, how long will it take to reduce the initial concentration of NH3 from 0.1 M to 0.064 M.
6. For a chemical reaction R P, the variation in concentration (R) vs time (t) plot is given as:

(i) Predict the order of reaction

(ii) What is the slope of the curve?
7. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k=5.5 × 10-14s-1. Find the half-life of reaction.
8. A first order reaction takes 20 min for 25% decomposition. Calculate the time when 75% of the reaction
will be completed.
9. A first order reaction takes 23.1 min for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 75%
completion of this reaction. (Given : log2 = 0.3010, log3=0.4771, log4 = 0.6021 ).
10. Show that the time required for 99.9% completion in a first order reaction is 10 times of half – life (t1/2)
of the reaction [ log2 = 0.3010, log10=1].
11. For the first order thermal decomposition reaction, the following data were obtained:

Time/sec Total Pressure/atm

0 0.30
300 0.50

Calculate the rate constant. (Given : log2 = 0.3010, log3=0.4771, log4 = 0.6021 ).
12. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2, at a constant
volume:
Exp. Time/sec Total Pressure/atm
1 0 0.4
2 100 0.7

Calculate the rate constant. (Given : log2 = 0.3010, log3=0.4771, log4 = 0.6021 ).
13. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of C 2H5Cl, at a constant
volume:
C2H5Cl (g) C2H4 (g) + HCl(g)
Exp. Time/sec Total Pressure/atm
1 0 0.4
2 100 0.6

Calculate the rate constant.

(Given : log2 = 0.3010, log3=0.4771, log4 = 0.6021 ).
14. Define Pseudo first order reaction with example.
15. For the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqueous solution the following results were obtained:
t/s 0 30 60
CH3COOH/molL-1 0.60 0.30 0.15

i) Show that it follows, Pseudo first order reaction, as the concentration of water remains constant.
ii) Calculate the rate average of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 sec. (Given : log2 = 0.3010,
log4 = 0.6021 ).
16. For the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqeous solution the following results were obtained:
t/s 0 10 20
-1
CH3COOH/molL 0.10 0.05 0.0.025
i) Show that it follows, Pseudo first order reaction, as the concentration of water remains constant.
ii) Calculate the rate average of reaction between the time interval 10 to 20 sec. (Given : log2 = 0.3010,
log4 = 0.6021 ).
17. A reaction in which reactant (R) are converted into product (P) follows second order kinetics. If
concentration of (R) increased by four times, what will be the increased in the rate of formation of (P)?
18. The conversion of molecule A to B followed second order kinetics. If concentration of A increased to
three times, how will it affect the rate of formation of B?
19. Half life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be completed in
100 min?
20. A first order reaction has rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 s-1. How long will 5g to this reactant take to reduce to
3g.
21. For a reaction A + B P, the rate is given by-Rate = k[A]2[B]
i) How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of (A) is doubled?
ii) What is the overall order of reaction if (B) is present in large excess?
P, the rate is given by- r = k[𝐴]1⁄ [B]2
2
22. For a reaction A + B
What is the order of this reaction?
23. What is the effect of adding catalyst on:
a) Activation energy (Ea), and
b) Gibbs energy (∆G) of a reaction.
24. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of N2O5 is given by the following equation:
log k = 23.6 , Calculate Ea for this reaction: [Given, R = 8.314 Jk-1mol-1]
25. The rate constant of a reaction becomes four times when the temperature changes from 293K to 313K.
Calculate the energy of activation (Ea) of the reaction assuming that it does not change with
temperature.
26. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 40 min. at 300k and in 20 min at 320k. Calculate the
activation energy for the reaction.(Given : log2 = 0.3010, log4 = 0.6021, R = 8.314 Jk-1mol-1 ).
27. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 30 min. at 300k and in 10 min at 320k. Calculate the
activation energy (Ea) for the reaction. (Given : log2 = 0.3010, log3=0.4771, log4 = 0.6021, R = 8.314
Jk-1mol-1 ).
 UNIT-4: d- AND f- BLOCK ELEMENTS
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. The general electronic configuration of d – block elements is:
a) (n – 1) d1 – 10ns1 – 2 b) (n – 1) d10ns1 – 2 c) (n – 1) d0ns2 – 3 d) (n – 1) d0ns1 – 2
2. Which one among the following metals of 3d-series has the lowest melting point?
a) Fe b) Mn c) Zn d) Cu
3. From the elements of 3d series given below, which element shows the maximum number of oxidation
states?
a) Scandium b) Manganese c) Chromium d) Titanium
2+
4. Which of the following Cu halide is not known?
a) CuBr2 b) CuI2 c) CuCl2 d) CuF2
5. The interstitial compounds of transition metals are:
a) Softer b) More ductile c) Harder d) More metallic
Assertion and Reason:
1. Assertion (A) : Transition metals have high enthalpy of atomization.
Reason (R) : Greater number of unpaired electrons in transition metals results in weak metallic Bonding.
2. Assertion (A) : Manganese shows the Highest Oxidation state of +7 in 3d series
Reason (R) : Transition metals show variable Oxidation State.
3. Assertion (A) : 𝐸°𝐶𝑢2+/𝐶𝑢 is positive (+0.34V).
Reason (R) : Copper has high (∆aH°) and low (∆hydH°).
Long Type Questions:
1. Zn, Cd and Hg are considered as d-block elements but not as transition elements, why?
2. Why Zn is not regarded as transition elements ?
3. Name two elements of 3d series which shows Anomalous electronic configuration.
4. Between chromium and copper which has high melting and boiling point?
5. Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals why?
6. Iron has higher enthalpy of atomization (∆aH°) than that of copper, why?
7. Why is first ionization enthalpy of chromium lower than that of Zn ?
8. Cu2+ salts are coloured, while Zn2+ salts are white, why?
9. Fe3+ ions is more stable than Fe2+, why?
10. Zr and Hf have identical atomic size, why?
11. Between Sc3+ and Cr3+ which ion exhibit diamagnetic behavior?
12. Out of Mn2+ and Cr3+ which is more paramagnetic and why?
13. Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of Co2+ (Z = 27).
14. Sc3+ is colorless in aqueous solution whereas Ti3+ is colored, why?
15. Cr2+ act as reducing agent why?
16. 𝐸°𝑀2+/𝑀 value are not regular for first row transition metal (3d-series), why?
17. E° value for (Mn2+/Mn) is –ve whereas for (Cu2+/Cu) is +ve, why?
18. E° value for (Mn3+/Mn2+) is much more +ve than that of (Fe3+/Fe2+), why?
19. E° value for (Mn3+/Mn2+) couple is highly +ve as compared to (Cr3+/Cr2+), why? Que : Account for the
following:
2+ 2+
i) Zn salts are colorless while Ni salts are colored.
2+
ii) Cr is a strong reducing agent.
iii) Transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activities.
20. In Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu, Zn:
a) Write the element which shows the maximum oxidation state.
b) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
c) Which element has highest melting point?
21. In Ti4+, V2+, Mn3+, Cr3+
i) Which ion is most stable in aqueous solution?
ii) Which ion is strong oxidizing agent and why?
iii) Which ion is colorless and why?
22. Transition elements and their compounds act as catalyst, why?
23. Why are transition elements good catalyst ?
24. Compounds of transition metals are generally colored. Give reason.
25. Why transition metals show variable oxidation state?
26. Why transition metals show variable oxidation state? How is the variability in oxidation state of d-block is
differ from p-block elements?
27. Why transition metals forms a large number of complexes, why?
28. Name two oxometal anions of 3d series of the transition metals in which the metals exhibits the oxidation
state equal to its group number.
29. Mn shows the highest oxidation state of +7 with oxygen but with fluorine, it shows the highest oxidation
state of +4, why?
30. Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen, the highest Mn fluoride is MnF4 whereas the highest oxide is
Mn2O7, why?
31. Why is Cu+ not stable in aqueous solution?
32. Chromates change their color when kept in acidic solution, why?
33. What is the effect of increasing pH of a solution of K2Cr2O7?
34. Out of KMnO4 and K2MnO4 which one is paramagnetic and why ?
35. Answer the following :
2+ +
a) In aqueous solution Cu is more stable than Cu
3+ 2+
b) Fe is more stable than Fe
c) Transition metals forms alloy
d) Zr and Hf have identical atomic size
4+
e) Ce is a strong oxidizing agent
36. When MnO2 is fused with KOH in the presence of KNO3 as an oxidizing agent, it gives a dark green
compound (A). Compound (A) disproportionate in acidic solution to give purple compound (B). An alkaline
solution of compound alkaline solution of compound (B) oxidizes KI to compound (C) whereas an acidified
solution of compound (B) oxidized to (D). Identify A,B,C and D.
-
37. Write the ionic equations for the oxidising agent of MnO
4 in acedic medium with:
(i) I- ion, and ii) Fe2+ ion
38. Complete the following reactions:

39. Name a member of Lanthanide series which is well known to exhibit +4 Oxidation State.
40. What is Lanthanide contraction? Name one important alloys which contain some of Lanthanide metal.
41. What is Lanthanide contraction?
42. Actinoids show irregularities in their electronic configuration, why?
43. Write one similarities and one difference between Lanthanoid and Actinoid elements.
44. Name the member of lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state.
 UNIT-5: COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. The compounds [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl. 2H2O exhibit:
a) Linkage Isomerism b) Geometrical Isomerism
c) Ionization Isomerism d) Hydrate Isomerism
2. In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +4?
a) K2[Ni(CN)4] b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+
3. What type of isomerism is shown by the following pair of complex compounds: [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and
[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
a) Linkage Isomerism b) Coordination Isomerism
c) Ionization Isomerism d) Hydrate Isomerism
4. The formula of the complex dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(IV) nitrate is:
a) [PtCl2(en)2(NO3)2] b) [PtCl2(en)2](NO3)2
c) [PtCl2(en)2(NO3)](NO3)] d) [Pt(en)2(NO3)2]Cl2
5. What is the secondary valency of cobalt in [Co(en)2Cl2]+?
a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 8
Long Type Questions:
1. When a co-ordination compound CoCl3.6NH3 is mixed with AgNO3, 3 moles of AgCl are precipitated per
mole of the compound.
i) Write the structural formula of the complex.
ii) Write the name of the complex.
2. Write the coordination number and oxidation state of Pt in [Pt(en)2Cl2].
3. What is the coordination number (C.N) of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4-.
4. What is chelate complex? Give one example.
5. What is didentate ligand ? Give one example.
6. What is heteroleptic complex? Give one example.
7. What is ambedintate ligand? Explain with some example.
8. Write the IUPAC name of the given complex:
a) [Co(en)3]3+ b) K2[NiCl4] c) [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
d) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl e) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 f) K2[Al(C2O4)3]
2+ 2+
g) [Co(NH3)5(ONO)] h) [Co(en)2(H2O)CN]
9. Give the formula of:
i) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate(II)
ii) Hexaammineplatinum(IV) chloride
iii) Iron(III)hexacynoferrate(II)
iv) Sodium dicynidoaurate(I)
v) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum(IV) sulphate
vi) Ammineaquadichloridoplatinum(II)
vii) Hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
viii) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
ix) Tris(ethane-1,2-diammine)chromium(III) chloride
10. Answer the following questions :
a) Predict whether [CoF6]3- is diamagnetic or paramagnetic and why ? [ Atomic number : Co = 27]
b) What is the coordination number of Co in [Co(en)2Cl2]+
c) i) Write the IUPAC name of the given complex : [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+
ii) Explain[Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital or outer orbital complex.
11. Why are low spin tetrahedral complex is rarely observed?
12. Why is [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic, while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic?
13. Why is [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic but [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic?
14. [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic, though both are tetrahedral, why?
15. Write the hybridization and shape of [Fe(CN)6]3-.
16. Using valence bond theory, deduced the shape and hybridization of [Ni(NH3)6]2+ [Atomic no. of Ni = 28]
17. Explain the type of hybridization in [Fe(CN)6]3-on the basis of valence bond theory.
18. Write the hybridization and magnetic character of [Co(C2O4)3]3-.
19. Write the hybridization and magnetic behavior of [CoF6]3-.
20. Out of [CoF6]3- and [Co(en)3]3+, which one complex is:
i) Paramagnetic ii) More stable iii) Inner orbital complex iv) High spin complex
3+
21. For the complex [Fe(H2O)6] , write the hybridization, magnetic character and spin of the complex.
22. Draw the geometrical isomers of the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+, which is optically active.
23. Draw the geometrical isomers of the given complex [Co(en)2Cl2]2+ion.
24. Draw the geometrical isomers of the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+ion.
25. Draw the geometrical isomers of the [Co(en)2Cl2]2+, which geometrical isomer of [Co(en)2Cl2]2+ is not
optically active and why?
26. What type of isomerism is exhibited by:
a) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 b) [Co(en)3]Cl3 c) [Pt(NH2)Cl2]
27. Name the type of isomerism when ambidentate ligands are attached to central metal ion. Give one example
of ambidentate ligand.
28. On the basis of CFT, write the electronic configuration of d4 ion, if ∆o<P.
29. Write the electronic configuration of d4 ion, if ∆o> P.
 UNIT-6: HALOALKANE AND HALOARENES
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which of the following belongs to class of Vinyl halides?

2. Retention of configuration is observed in:

a) SN1 reaction b) SN2 reaction
1 2
c) Neither SN nor SN reaction d) SN2 reaction as well as SN1 reaction
3. Which alkyl halide from the given options will undergo SN1 reaction faster?
a) (CH3)3C-Br b) (CH3)2CH-Br c) CH3-CH2-Br d) (CH3)3C-CH2-Br
4. Reaction of 1-phenyl-2-chloropropane with alcoholic KOH gives mainly:
a) 1-Phenylpropene b) 3-Phenylpropene
c) 1-Phenylpropan-3-ol d) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
Assertion and Reason:
5. Assertion (A): Chlorobenzene is resistant to electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R): C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene acquires partial double bond characters due to resonance.
Long Type Questions:
1. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound:

2. Out of which is example of allylic compound.

3. Name the instrument used for measuring the angle of plane polarized light(ppl).
4. Predict the major product when 2-bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH.
5. What happen when ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH ?
6. Write the product formed when p-nitrochlorobenzene is heated with aqueous NaOH at 443K followed by
acidification.
7. Which isomer of C5H10 gives as single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight.
8. Why dextro and leavo rotatory isomers of butane-2-ol are difficult to separate by fractional distillation?
9. Identify the chiral molecule:

10. Write the product when chlorobenzene is treated with methyl chloride in the presence of sodium metal and
dry ether.
11. Write the structure of alkene formed by dehydration of 1-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexane with alc. KOH.
12. Out of chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride which one gets easily hydrolysed by aqueous NaOH and why?
13. The following compounds are given:
2-Bromopentane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane.
a) Write the compound which is most reactive towards SN2 reaction.
b) Write the compound which is optically active.
c) Write the compound which is most reactive towards β-elimination reaction.
14. Which of the following compounds will react more rapidly by SN2 reaction and why ?

(b) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points:

15. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards SN2 reaction:
2-Bromopentane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane.
16. Out of (CH3)3C-Br and (CH3)3C-I, which one is more reactive towards SN1 and why?

17. Write the structure of an isomer of compound C4H9Br, which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction.

18. Which would undergo SN2 reaction faster?

19. Why p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of ortho and meta-isomers?
20. How will you convert:
i) Chlorobenzene to biphenyl
ii) Propane to 1-iodopropane
iii) 2-Bromobutane to But-2-ene
21. What happen when
i) Ethyl Chloride is treated with NaI in the presence of acetone.
ii) Chlorobenzene is treated with sodium metal in the presence of dry Ether.
iii) Methyl chloride is treated with KNO2.
22. Give reason:
i) Ethyl iodide undergoes SN2 reaction faster than ethyl Bromide.
ii) 2-butanol is a racemic mixture which is optically inactive.
iii) C-X bond length in halobenzene is smaller than C-X bond length in CH3X.
23. Account for the following:
a) Benzyl chloride is highly reactive towards SN1 reaction.
b) (±)-Butane-2-ol is optically inactive, though it contain a chiral carbon atom.
c) Chloroform is stored in closed dark colored bottles.
24. An alkyl halide (A) of molecular formula C6H13Cl on treatment with alcoholic KOH gives to isomeric
alkenes (B) and (C) of molecular formula C6H12. Both alkenes on hydrogen gives 2,3-dimethylbutane.
Write the structures of A, B and C.
25. Why are haloalkane more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction than haloarenes ?
26. Write the product of the following:

vi)

27. Give one use of iodoform.

28. Why is chloroform stored in dark container?
 UNIT-7: ALCOHOL, PHENOL AND ETHER
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Nucleophilic addition of Grignard reagent to ketones followed by hydrolysis with dilute acids forms:
a) Alkene b) Primary alcohol c) Tertiary alcohol d) Secondary alcohol
2. The product formed in the reaction is:

3. Which of the following reaction is feasible?

a) CH3CH2Br + Na+O-C(CH3)3 CH3CH2-O-C(CH3)3
b) (CH3)-Cl + Na+O-CH2CH3 CH3CH2-O-C(CH3)3
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
4. Match the reagent required for the given reactions:
I. Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehydes (p) NaBH4
II. Butane-2-one to Butan-2-ol (q) 85% phosphoric acid at 440 K
III. Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-Tribromophenol (r) PCC
IV. Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene (s) Bromine water
Assertion and Reason:
5. Assertion (A): Bromination of Phenol can be carried out even in absence of Lewis acid.
Reason (R): - OH group of phenol has the high activation effect.
Long Type Questions:
1. Write the product when anisole is treated with HI.
2. Out of t-butyl alcohol and n-butanol, which one will undergo faster in acid catalyzed dehydration and why?
3. Convert the following:
a) Phenol to salicylaldehyde (o-hydroxybenzaldehyde)
b) t-butylchloride to t-butyl ethyl ether
c) Propene to propanol
d) Phenol to benzoquinone
e) Anisole to p-bromoanisol
f) Phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
g) Phenol to anisole
h) Ethanol to propanone
i) Ethanol to propan-2-ol
j) Methanal to ethanol
k) Prop-1-ene to propan-2-ol
l) Phenol to phenyl ethanoate
m) Phenol to toluene
n) Ethanol to Ethanal
o) Aniline to Phenol
 p) Propan-2-ol to 2-methylpropan-2-ol

4. Give a mechanism for formation of ethanol from ethane.

5. Write the product of the following reaction:
6. How will you convert phenol to anisol?
7. How will you convert ethanol to propan-2-ol?
8. Write the mechanism of following reaction:

9. o-nitrophenol is more steam volatile than p-nitrophenol, why?

10. Why phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction more easily than benzene?
11. tert-butyl chloride on heating with sodium methoxide gives 2-methyl propene instead of tert-butyl methyl
ether, why?
12. What is Freidel-Craft alkylation and acylation of phenol?
13. Write the IUPAC name of:

14. Give reasons:

i) p-nitrophenol is more acidic than p-methylphenol.
ii) Bond length of C-O in phenol is shorter than C-O in methanol.
iii) (CH3)3C-Br on reaction with sodium methoxide gives alkene as the main product not ether, why?
iv) Phenol is more acidic than methanol.
15. What happen when-
i) Anisole is treated with CH3Cl/anhyd.AlCl3?
ii) Phenol is oxidized with Na2Cr2O7/H+ ?
iii) (CH3)3C-OH is heated with Cu/573 K ?
Write the chemical equation to support your answer.
16. Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of 1-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene
and why?

17. Write hydroboration-oxidation reaction with an example.

18. Why is p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol?
19. What happens when phenol reacts with:
i) Conc.HNO3 and
ii) CHCl3 in presence of aq.NaOH followed by acidification.
20. Why does the reaction of CH3ONa with (CH3)3C-Br give 2-methylpropene not (CH3)3C-OCH3?
21. Write chemical equation for the following reactions :
a) Hydroboration – oxidation reaction
b) Williamson Synthesis
c) Friedel – Crafts Alkylation of Anisole
d) Reimer – Tiemann Reaction
 UNIT-8: ALDEHYDE, KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Iodoform test is not given by:
a) Ethanol b) Ethanal c) Pentan-2-ol d) Pentan-3-one
2. Rosenmund reduction is used for the preparation of Aldehydes. The catalyst used in this reaction is:
a) Pd – BaSO4 b) Anhydrous AlCl3 c) Iron (III) oxide d) HgSO4
3. Which of the following does not give cannizzaro reaction:

4. Consider the following reaction:

Identify A and B from the given options:

a) A – Methanol, B – Potassium formate b) A – Ethanol, B – Potassium formate
c) A – Methanal, B – Ethanol d) A – Methanol, B – Potassium acetate

5. Aldehydes and ketones react with hydroxylamine to form-

a) Hydrazones b) Cyanohydrine c) Semicarbazone d) Oxime

6.

This reaction is known as:

a) Cannizzaro Reaction b) Etard Reduction c) Rosenmund Reduction d) Aldol Condensation

7. Which of the following is an ‘Acetal’?

Assertion and Reason:

8. Assertion (A): Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst aluminium chloride gets bonded to the carboxyl
group.
1. What happens when:
a) propanone (propan-2-one) is treated with methyl magnesium iodide and then hydrolysed.
b) Benzene is treated with CH3COCl in presence of anhy.AlCl3.
2. Write the products for the following:
3. Do the following conversion in not more than two steps:

4.
Write chemical equation for:
i. Propanone is treated with dil.Ba(OH)2.
ii. Benzoyl chloride is hydrogenated in presence of Pd/BaSO4.
iii. Acetophenone is treated with Zn-Hg/HCl.
iv. Ethard Reaction
v. Stephen Reaction
 vi. Rosenmund Reduction
vii. Wolf-Kishner Reduction
viii. Cannizaro Reaction
5. How will you convert:
a) Toluene to benzoic acid
b) Benzoic acid to benzaldehyde
c) Acetophenone to benzoic acid
d) Propanone to Propan-2-ol
e) Ethanal to 2-hydroxypropanoic acid
f) Ethanol to 3 – Hydroxybutanal
6. Give a test to distinguish between:
a) Butanal and Butan-2-one
b) Benzoic acid and Phenol
c) Acetophenone and Benzaldehyde
d) Ethanoic acid and Methanoic acid or Formic acid
e) Propanal and Propanone
7. Write the stepwise mechanism of nucleophilic addition reactions in the carbonyl compounds.
8. Aromatic carboxylic acid (Benzoic acid) do not undergo friedel craft reaction, why?
9. pKa value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid is lower than that of benzoic acid, why?
10. Arrange the following in increasing order of their boiling point:
a) CH3CHO b) CH3-COOH c) CH3-CH2-OH
11. Arrange increasing of their reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction:
C6H5COCH3, CH3CHO, CH3COCH3
12. Arrange the following in increasing of their reactivity:
CH3CHO, C6H5CHO, HCHO
13. Why does carboxylic acid does not give reaction of carbonyl group?
14. Arrange the following in increasing order of their acidity:
2,4-dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-methoxy benzoic acid, 4-nitro benzoic acid.
15. Ethanal is soluble in water, why?
16. Which pair is strong acid:

iv) CH2FCH2CH2COOH or CH3CHFCH2COOH

17. A, B, C are three non-cyclic functional isomer of carbonyl compound with molecular formula C4H8O.
Isomer A and C give positive tollens test whereas B does not give tollens test but gives positive iodoform
test. Isomer A and B on readuction with Zn-Hg/HCl give some product D.
i. Write the structure of A, B, C and D.
ii. Out of A, B and C which one is least reactive towards addition of HCN.

18. A and B are two functional isomers of compound C3H6O on heating with NaOH and I2, isomers B form
yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas isomer A does not form any precipitate. Write the formula of A and
B.
19. Write the name of the product when an aldehyde reacts with excess of alcohol in presence of dry HCl.
20. Why carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol.
21. Arrange the following in increasing order of their reactivity towards CH3MgBr:

22. Write a chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.

23. Draw structure of the 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde.
24. Why are α-hydrogen atom of aldehydes and ketones are acidic in nature?
25. Write a chemical test to distinguish between Benzaldehyde and Benzoic acid.
 UNIT-9: AMINES
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Identify the secondary amine from the given options:

a) (CH3)2CHNH2 b) CH3NHCH(CH3)2 c) (CH3)3CNH2 d) CH3(CH2)2NH2

2. Which of the following is strongest base:
a) Methylamine b) Dimethylamine c) Trimethylamine d) Aniline
3. When benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol, it forms a dye, This reaction is called:
a)Diazotisation reaction b) Condensation reaction c) Coupling reaction d) Acetylation reaction
4. When nitrobenzene is heated with tin and concentrated HCl, the product formed is:

5. The action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives mainly:

a) Ethyl nitrite b) Ethyl alcohol c) Nitroethane d) Ethane

Assertion and Reason:

Assertion : Monobromination of aniline can be conveniently done by protecting the amino group by acetylation.
Reason : Acetylation decreases the activating effect of the amino group.

Long Type Questions:

1. Complete the reaction:

(i) CH3COOH + NH3

2. How will you distinguish between:
(i) Aniline and ethaneamine
(ii) Aniline and N,N-dimethylaniline
(iii) (CH3)2NH and (CH3)3N
3. Arrange the following in decreasing order of boiling point:
Butanol, Butanamine, Butane
4. Arrange in increasing order of boiling point:
(CH3)3N, C2H5OH, C2H5NH2
5. Arrange the following in increasing order of their boiling point:
C2H5OH, C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N
6. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pKb values in aqueous solution: C2H5NH2,
(C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
7. Write the reaction involved in the following:
i) Carbylamine test
ii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
8. Give reasons for the following :
i) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in aqueous solution.
ii) Aromatic diazonium salt are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salt.
 iii) Methyl amine is more basic than aniline.
iv) Aniline readily reacts with bromine water to give 2, 4, 6 – Tribromoaniline
v) Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.
9. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basicity:
C6H5NH2, C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3
10. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their basic strength in gaseous phase:
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, (C2H5)2NH
11. What is Hinsberg’s reagent ?
12. Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect, why?
13. NH2 is o/p directing group yet aniline on nitration give significant amount of meta nitro aniline, why?
14. Aniline does not undergo friedel craft reaction, why?
15. Primary amines have higher boiling point than 3° amines, why?
16. The conversion of 1° aromatic amines into diazonium salt is known as what?
17. Give reasons:
(a) Aniline on nitration gives good amount of m-nitroaniline, though –NH2 group is o/p directing in
electrophilic substitution reactions.
(b) (CH3)3N is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.
(c) Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not good method to prepare pure primary amines.
18. Aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline, though amino group is o/p directing, why?
19. An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H6O2 on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating
forms compound ‘B’. Compound ‘B’ on heating with Br2 and aqueous KOH gives a compound ‘C’ of
molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structure of A, B and C.
20. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on heating with Br2 and KOH form a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula
C6H7N which on reaction with CHCl3 and alc. KOH produce a foul smelling compound ‘C’. Write A, B and
C structure.
21. An amide ‘A’ with molecular formula C7H7ON undergoes Hoffmann Bromamide degradation reaction to
give amine ‘B’. ‘B’ on treatment with nitrous acid at 273 – 278 K form ‘C’ and on treatment with
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide forms ‘D’. ‘C’ on treatment, with ethanol gives ‘E’. Identify
‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’. And write the sequence of chemical equations.
 UNIT-10: BIOMOLECULES
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which of the following structure represents α-D-glucose:

2. On the hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrates gives glucose and galactose:
a) Sucrose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Cellulose
3. Proteins are polymers of:
a) Nucleic Acid b) Amino acids c) Monosaccharides d) Amines
4. The deficiency of which of the following carbohydrates causes ‘Rickets’:
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
5. Which of the following acids represents Vitamin C?
a) Saccharic acid b) Gluconic acid c) Ascorbic acid d) Benzoic acid
Assertion and Reason:
6. Assertion (A): Fructose is a reducing sugar.
Reason (R): Fructose does not reduce Fehling solution and Tollen’s reagent
Long Type Questions:
7. Which one of the following is a disaccharide: starch, maltose, glucose, fructose. Que : Sucrose has glucose
and fructose still it is a non-reducing sugar, why?
8. Glucose does not give 2,4-DNP test, why?
9. What are the basic structural difference between glucose and fructose?
10. Answer the following:
a) The penta-acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine. What does it indicate?
b) Why can not vitamin (C) be stored in our body?
11. Answer the following questions:
i) What is the difference between glycosidic and peptide linkage?
ii) Which amino acids are called essential amino acids?
iii) What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins? Write any two forces which stabilize
the secondary and tertiary structure of protein.
12. Write the difference between:
i) Amylose and Amylopectic
ii) Peptide (amide) linkage and glycocydic linkage
iii) Fibrous and Globular protein
iv) DNA and RNA
13. Define: i) Polysaccharides ii) Essential amino acid iii) Denaturation of Protein iv) Anomers
v) Monosaccharides vi) Non-Essential amino acid
14. Define the following as related to proteins:
(i) Glycosidic linkage ii) Anomers iii) Peptide linkage iv) Denaturation
15. Starch and cellulose both contain glucose units as monomers, yet they are structurally different, why?
16. Write the product on hydrolysis of Lactose.
17. Write a chemical reaction to show that open structure of D-glucose contain:
i) Straight Chain
ii) Five alcohol group
iii) Aldehyde and carbonyl
18. Write the product when D-glucose react with HNO3.
19. What happen when Glucose reacts with HI? Write chemical equation.
20. Amino acid show amphoteric behavior, why?
21. What is the difference between acidic and basic amino acid?
22. Write one difference between alpha-helix and beta-pleated structure of protein.
23. Define primary structure of protein.
24. Define denaturation of protein with an example. During denaturation which structure of protein lose their
biological activity.
25. Which type of bonds holds a DNA double helix together?
26. The two strands of DNA are not identical but are complimentary, why?
27. What type of linkage is present in Nucleic Acid?
28. Write the name of the linkage joining two nucleotides.
29. What is the difference between nucleoside and nucleotide?
30. What products would be formed when a nucleotide form DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed?