CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Identify the picture-

(a) Tripitaka Korena (b) Diamond sutra

(c) Ukiyo (d) Jikji


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2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence and select correct option.
1. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of 4 paintings.
2. French Revolution.
3. Napoleon was defeated.
4. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of united Italy.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 aimed to achieve which
of the following objectives?
(a) To demand complete independence through non-violent means and self-rule.
(b) To overthrow British rule by using armed rebellion and force.
(c) To promote cooperation between Indians and the British government for reforms.
(d) To negotiate for dominion status with limited self-government under British rule.

4. The ‘Silk Route’ was an important trade route that linked the East and the West. Which of the
following goods were commonly traded along the Silk Route?
1. Silk and spices
2. Precious metals like gold and silver
3. Slaves and textiles
4. Cotton and sugar
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following crops is grown mainly in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall
in India?
(a) Wheat, which is suited for cooler climates and requires moderate rainfall.
(b) Rice, which thrives in areas with high temperatures and abundant water.
(c) Maize, which can grow in a variety of climates but requires moderate rainfall.
(d) Barley, which is primarily grown in cooler regions with low rainfall.

6. Minerals and energy resources are crucial for India’s development. Identify the correct statements.
1. Coal is the most abundant mineral resource in India.
2. India is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
3. Petroleum is primarily extracted from the eastern regions of India.
4. Renewable energy sources are negligible in India’s energy mix.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

8. Why are political parties considered essential for the functioning of a democracy?
(a) They concentrate power in the hands of a few leaders to ensure efficient governance.
(b) They provide a platform for representing diverse interests and forming governments.
(c) They eliminate the need for elections by controlling all aspects of governance.
(d) They focus solely on maintaining law and order without engaging in policy-making.

9. Democracy provides people with the opportunity to choose their representatives. Which of the
following are outcomes of democratic elections?
1. Free and fair elections
2. Choice of multiple political parties
3. Representation of all social groups
4. Government accountability to the people
Options :
(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which principle ensures that no single branch of government in India becomes too powerful,
thereby maintaining a balance of power?
(a) Federalism (b) Separation of Powers
(c) Judicial Review (d) Parliamentary Sovereignty

11. Federalism allows for the division of powers between different levels of government. Which of the
following subjects fall under the State List in India’s federal system?
1. Police and public order
2. Defense and foreign affairs
3. Agriculture
4. Communication
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

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12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability.
Statement II: Discrimination based on caste is still prevalent in many parts of India despite
constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In India, the Election Commission is responsible for recognizing political parties as either
_______ parties or regional parties based on their performance in elections.
(a) National (b) Parliamentary
(c) State (d) Local

14. Which of the following indicators is commonly used to measure the economic development of a
country by assessing its overall wealth and standard of living?
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which calculates the total economic output.
(b) Literacy Rate, which measures the educational attainment of the population.
(c) Life Expectancy, which indicates the average lifespan of citizens.
(d) Human Development Index (HDI), which combines multiple social and economic factors.

15. The three sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, and tertiary) are interdependent. Which of
the following statements about the Indian economy are correct?
1. The primary sector includes agriculture and related activities.
2. The tertiary sector provides services like education and healthcare.
3. The secondary sector produces raw materials for the primary sector.
4. The tertiary sector is the largest employer in India.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 3 and 4

16. In modern economies, most transactions are made using _______ money, such as currency
notes and bank deposits, which are widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
(a) Barter (b) Commodity
(c) Plastic (d) Paper

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization leads to increased interconnectedness of economies around the world.
Statement II: Globalization has no impact on cultural exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures
1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-based mills
2. Low prices for crops B. b Cooperative marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. c Procurement of food grains by government
4. No job in the off season D. d Construction of canals by the government
5. Compelled to sell their grains to the E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
local traders soon after harvest
(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E
(b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B
(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B
(d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do tropical deciduous forests cover 35% of the total forest cover?
(a) These forests are found in high-altitude regions.
(b) They shed their leaves in the dry season.
(c) They are found in the coastal areas.
(d) They are mostly located in desert regions.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Wheat Production (in tons per hectare) Rice Production (in tons per hectare)
E 3 4.5
F 2.5 6
Why does state F have higher rice production compared to wheat production?
(a) It has better soil for rice cultivation.
(b) It has fewer farmers involved in wheat farming.
(c) It lacks rice cultivation techniques.
(d) It has poor irrigation facilities.

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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Gutenberg’s printing press revolutionized information dissemination.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.


O
“The printing press played a crucial role in the Reformation.” Explain how the printing press
influenced the Protestant Reformation.

22. “Green Revolution transformed Indian agriculture.” Explain its impact.

23. “Political parties are essential for democratic functioning.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Globalization has led to greater interdependence among nations.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Since the economic liberalization in 1991, India’s trade with other countries has increased
significantly, enhancing export and import activities. As a result, international trade has become
a vital part of India’s economy. Why has international trade become so important for India’s
economy? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The French Revolution created a sense of national unity and identity.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. “Arun is exploring investment opportunities in the mining sector but is unsure about the key
minerals found in his region.” Help him identify the major minerals available in his area and their
potential uses.


O
“Nisha wants to set up a small-scale energy plant using renewable resources. She is unfamiliar
with the types of renewable energy suitable for her location.” Guide her in identifying the most
appropriate renewable energy sources for her area based on local conditions.

28. “Democracy promotes equality among citizens.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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29. In the last few decades, India has made significant progress in reducing poverty levels through
various government initiatives. As a result, poverty alleviation has become a major focus in India’s
development agenda. Why is poverty alleviation crucial for India’s overall development? Support
your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Partition of Bengal ignited the nationalist movement in India.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.


O
‘The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase in India’s struggle for independence.’
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

31. Sunil notices that industries in his town are polluting the nearby river. What are the environmental
impacts of industrial pollution, and what steps can industries take to reduce pollution?


O
Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions.
What are the challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working
conditions be improved?

32. ‘Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.’ Analyse the statement with relevant points.


O
‘Belgium’s model of power sharing helped to avoid a civil war.’ Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

33. Miss X is interested in understanding why the tertiary sector has grown faster than the primary
and secondary sectors in recent years. Explain the reasons for the rapid growth of the tertiary
sector, particularly in services like IT, healthcare, and education, and how this shift has impacted
the Indian economy.


O
Ramesh, a fisherman (primary sector), sells his catch to traders who process and package it
(secondary sector), and then it’s sold in urban markets (tertiary sector). How do these sectors
interact, and what role does each play in the economy?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is
the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international
trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns
and villages, state level trade is carried between two or more states. Advancement of international
trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic
barometer for a country.
As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and
import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its
export and import. When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable
balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed
as unfavourable balance of trade.
India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world.
The commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and
related products, agriculture and allied products, etc.
The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery,
chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied
products. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large
foreign exchange through the export of information technology.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by international trade?
2. What is meant by favourable and unfavourable balance of trade?
3. What are the commodities export and imported by India in international trade?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance
between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation,
over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to
soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands
are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases
the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping
land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming.
Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water
leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called
contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts
erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large fields can be

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divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the
wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works
in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed
significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
Questions:
1. The balance of soil formation and erosion is disturbed due to human activities. Give one
example to prove the statement.
2. What is soil conservation?
3. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA
This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in
the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities
etc., all over the country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the
world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country.
It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time,
there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate
enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are not held regularly.
Questions :
1. Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy ?
2. Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in
India ?
3. Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by
boiling salt sea water.

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(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.
D. A major sugarcane producing state.
E. A Software Technology Park
F. A major dam in Odisha.

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